Chapter 19 (HIV) & 22 (Cancer) EAQ Pre-quiz Questions

What are the common side effects of chemotherapy on the bone marrow? Select all that apply. A. Anemia B. Neutropenia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Alopecia E. Mucositis

A. Anemia B. Neutropenia C. Thrombocytopenia

Which adverse effects are observed when a vesicant agent extravasates during chemotherapy? Select all that apply. A. Itching B. Redness C. Pain D. Infection E. Tissue loss

C. Pain D. Infection E. Tissue loss

Which chemotherapy agent inhibits cell division in cancer cells by cross-linking their deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and preventing the synthesis of DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)? A. Alkylating agents B. Antimetabolites C. Antimitotic agents D. Antitumor antibiotics

A. Alkylating agents

Which chemotherapy drug is an alkylating agent? A. Altretamine B. Capecitabine C. Erlotinib D. Everolimus

A. Altretamine

What are some of the precautions to be taken in providing nursing care to patients with sealed radioactive implants? Select all that apply. A. Assign the patient to a private room with a private bath. B. Use a shared dosimeter film badge for the patient. C. Wear a lead apron during care, keeping the apron between the nurse and the patient. D. After 12 weeks of pregnancy, pregnant nurses may care for these patients. E. Remove linens and dressings from the room immediately after use.

A. Assign the patient to a private room with a private bath. C. Wear a lead apron during care, keeping the apron between the nurse and the patient.

When caring for the patient receiving cancer chemotherapy, which signs or symptoms related to thrombocytopenia should the nurse report to the health care provider? Select all that apply. A. Bruises B. Fever C. Petechiae D. Epistaxis E. Pallor

A. Bruises C. Petechiae D. Epistaxis

In human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections, more virus particles are created when the virus enters which type of host cell? A. CD4+ T-cell B. CD8+ T-cell C. Natural killer T-cell D. Gamma delta T-cell

A. CD4+ T-cell

What are key points for the nurse to include in patient education about skin care during radiation therapy? Select all that apply. A. Clean skin cautiously to avoid removing ink or dye markings. B. Avoid exposure of the irradiated skin areas to heat or sun. C. Protect the irradiated area with soft, nonconstrictive clothing. D. Over-the-counter lotions and ointments may be used for soothing. E. Use a washcloth rather than a loofah for cleansing.

A. Clean skin cautiously to avoid removing ink or dye markings. B. Avoid exposure of the irradiated skin areas to heat or sun. C. Protect the irradiated area with soft, nonconstrictive clothing.

Which are required elements of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing process? Select all that apply. A. Counseling B. Interpretation C. Confidentiality D. Written consent E. Health insurance coverage

A. Counseling B. Interpretation C. Confidentiality

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection prevents viral binding? A. Entry inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. ntegrase inhibitors D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

A. Entry inhibitors

How often should the patient taking tenofovir/emtricitabine for pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) be tested for HIV? A. Every three months B. Every 12 months C. Once before beginning PrEP D. After each contact that puts the patient at risk for infection

A. Every three months

Which potential side effects does the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer? Select all that apply. A. Fatigue B. Changes in color of hair C. Change in taste D. Changes in skin of the neck E. Difficulty swallowing

A. Fatigue C. Change in taste D. Changes in skin of the neck E. Difficulty swallowing

Some adults develop an acute infection within four weeks of first being infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What symptoms may indicate this acute HIV infection? Select all that apply. A. Fever B. Night sweats C. Memory loss D. Muscle aches E. Purplish lesions

A. Fever B. Night sweats D. Muscle aches

A nurse is educating an immunocompromised patient about preventing infection. Which should the patient report to the health care provider immediately? A. Foul-smelling or cloudy urine B. Missing a dose of prescribed drugs C. An intermittent cough without sputum D. Temperature greater than 98°F

A. Foul-smelling or cloudy urine

Which minority group shows an increasing trend in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection? A. Hispanics B. Caucasians C. Asian Americans D. American Indians

A. Hispanics

Abnormal functioning of which body system is responsible for the signs and symptoms of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease? A. Immune B. Respiratory C. Cardiovascular D. Gastrointestinal

A. Immune

What risk is associated with a low leukocyte count following chemotherapy? A. Infection B. Hypoxia C. Fatigue D. Risk of bleeding

A. Infection

What roles does pharmacogenomics play in cancer treatment? Select all that apply. A. It allows a more individualized approach to chemotherapy. B. It can determine the sensitivity to various therapeutic agents. C. It can assist with side effect management during therapy. D. It can determine the overall financial cost of planned therapy. E. Its role is still to be determined due to its experimental status.

A. It allows a more individualized approach to chemotherapy. B. It can determine the sensitivity to various therapeutic agents. C. It can assist with side effect management during therapy.

What disease- and treatment-related endocrine complications may occur in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive men? Select all that apply. A. Lipoatrophy B. Lipodystrophy C. Decreased energy D. Adrenal insufficiency E. Increased testosterone

A. Lipoatrophy B. Lipodystrophy C. Decreased energy D. Adrenal insufficiency

Which gastrointestinal (GI) signs and symptoms may occur in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply. A. Nausea B. Diarrhea C. Dementia D. Confusion E. Lymphadenopathy F. Hypergammaglobulinemia

A. Nausea B. Diarrhea

Higher incidences of which conditions occur among pregnant women with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply. A. Preterm delivery B. Shoulder dystocia C. Gestational diabetes D. Vertical transmission E. Low-birth-weight infants

A. Preterm delivery D. Vertical transmission E. Low-birth-weight infants

Which type of surgery is performed to remove tissues that are at risk of becoming cancerous? A. Prophylactic B. Diagnostic C. Curative D. Cytoreductive

A. Prophylactic

For patients undergoing surgery for cancer treatment, what specific cancer-related needs are critical nursing priorities? Select all that apply. A. Psychosocial support for the patient and family B. Teaching regarding the risk of ventilator-associated infection C. Teaching self-care for dressing changes D. Risk of antibiotic-resistant infections E. Achieving or maintaining maximum function

A. Psychosocial support for the patient and family E. Achieving or maintaining maximum function

Which are common means of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission? Select all that apply. A. Sexual B. Casual C. Perinatal D. Household E. Parenteral F. Workplace

A. Sexual C. Perinatal E. Parenteral

The effect of chemotherapy agents on normal cells in the body leads to side effects related to which elements? Select all that apply. A. Skin B. Hair C. Nerve tissue D. Intestinal tissue E. Spermatocytes F. Blood-forming cells

A. Skin B. Hair D. Intestinal tissue E. Spermatocytes F. Blood-forming cells

Which principles guide the nurse in planning care for a patient receiving radiation therapy? Select all that apply. A. The inflammatory response to radiation can lead to internal tissue fibrosis and scarring that may cause changes years later. B. Although the mechanism is not well understood, patients receiving radiation therapy even when focused to a specific field may experience significant fatigue. C. The skin reaction seen with external beam radiation therapy is short-term only; once it is healed there is little need for concern. D. Taste changes are only a concern for patients receiving radiation therapy to a field that includes the salivary glands in the mouth. E. Radiation therapy is not regarded as a curative treatment for cancer.

A. The inflammatory response to radiation can lead to internal tissue fibrosis and scarring that may cause changes years later. B. Although the mechanism is not well understood, patients receiving radiation therapy even when focused to a specific field may experience significant fatigue.

The nurse has been exposed to the blood of a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. What is the window of opportunity to begin postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for the best possible outcome in preventing HIV infection? A. Two hours B. 72 hours C. Two weeks D. One month

A. Two hours

Which statements about intravenous (IV) administration of chemotherapy are correct? Select all that apply. A. Vesicant agents are very caustic to tissue if infiltration occurs. B. IV chemotherapy administration requires nurses with advanced-practice degrees and special training. C. The responsibility for monitoring the patient receiving IV chemotherapy rests with the nurse giving the drug. D. IV chemotherapy results in fewer side effects than oral chemotherapy due to rapid absorption. E. IV chemotherapy is the preferred route of chemotherapy in the treatment of cancer.

A. Vesicant agents are very caustic to tissue if infiltration occurs. E. IV chemotherapy is the preferred route of chemotherapy in the treatment of cancer.

What safer sex methods can reduce the risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission? Select all that apply. A. Oral sex B. Abstinence C. Monogamy D. Condom use E. Heterosexual sex

B. Abstinence C. Monogamy D. Condom use

Which term describes the administration of chemotherapy along with surgery or radiation? A. Combination chemotherapy B. Adjuvant therapy C. Intraperitoneal chemotherapy D. Curative intent chemotherapy

B. Adjuvant therapy

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving rituximab for treatment of lymphoma. During the infusion, it is essential for the nurse to observe for which side effect? A. Alopecia B. Allergy C. Fever D. Chills

B. Allergy

Mercaptopurine is an oral chemotherapeutic agent used in acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which drug category does it belong to? A. Multikinase inhibitor B. Antimetabolite C. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor D. Topoisomerase inhibitor

B. Antimetabolite

Which method of radiation treatment delivery uses radioactive isotopes either in solid form or within body fluids? A. Teletherapy B. Brachytherapy C. Stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT) D. Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)

B. Brachytherapy

A diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) requires the patient to meet which criteria? Select all that apply. A. CD4+ T-cell count from 14-28% B. CD4+ T-cell count less than 14% C. Diagnosis of an opportunistic infection D. CD4+ T-cell count above 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L) E. CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L)

B. CD4+ T-cell count less than 14% C. Diagnosis of an opportunistic infection E. CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L)

How does the assessment of the financial resources of the patient with AIDS help the nurse? A. It helps in assessing the neurologic status of the patient. B. It helps in assessing the nutritional status of the patient. C. It helps in assessing the cardiovascular status of the patient. D. It helps in assessing the gastrointestinal status of the patient.

B. It helps in assessing the nutritional status of the patient.

Which are potential problems for patients who are receiving hormonal therapy for cancer? Select all that apply. A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Liver dysfunction C. Thromboembolism D. Hypocalcemia E. Acne

B. Liver dysfunction C. Thromboembolism E. Acne

What is the most significant factor resulting from cancer treatment that places patients at increased risk for infection? A. Mucositis B. Neutropenia C. Hemorrhagic cystitis D. Cardiac muscle damage

B. Neutropenia

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection prevents new virus particles from splitting into functional pieces? A. Entry inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Integrase inhibitors D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

B. Protease inhibitors

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, what stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is marked by CD4+ T-cell count greater than 500 cells/mm 3 (0.5 × 109/L) or 29% or greater? A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

B. Stage 1

What immediate action should the nurse take if extravasation occurs during vesicant chemotherapy administration? A. Inform the oncologist B. Withdraw the vesicant infusion C. Apply cold compress on the affected area D. Inject the antidote at the site of extravasation

B. Withdraw the vesicant infusion

Which statement made by a patient allows the nurse to recognize whether the patient receiving brachytherapy for ovarian cancer understands the treatment plan? A. "I may lose my hair during this treatment." B. "I must be positioned in the same way during each treatment." C. "I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time." D. "I will be placed in a semiprivate room for company."

C. "I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time."

The number of CD4+ T-cells is reduced in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease. How many CD4+ T-cells are usually present in a cubic millimeter (mm 3) of a healthy adult's blood? A. 200-499 B. 500-799 C. 800-1000 D. More than 1000

C. 800-1000

In North America, the highest rates of new human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections occur among which population? A. Women B. Men who have sex with men C. African American and Hispanic adults D. Adults who have used injection drugs

C. African American and Hispanic adults

A patient with small cell lung cancer is administered cisplatin as a short-term infusion in normal saline. Which cytoprotectant is given prior to cisplatin to decrease kidney damage? A. Mesna B. Sucralfate C. Amifostine D. Misoprostol

C. Amifostine

Which sexual act carries the highest risk for the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. Kissing B. Oral sex C. Anal sex D. Vaginal sex

C. Anal sex

In patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which type of laboratory test measures the patient's response to the virus rather than parts of the virus? A. Stool testing B. Skin biopsies C. Antibody testing D. Viral load testing

C. Antibody testing

Which nursing interventions help prevent extravasation in a patient who is receiving combined chemotherapy? Select all that apply. A. Using a large-gauge intravenous catheter for administration of vesicants B. Avoiding the elevation of the arm that is used for administration of vesicants C. Assessing the site of drug administration for pain, infection, or tissue loss D. Closely monitoring the intravenous site before, during, and after administration of vesicants E. Wearing personal protective equipment while handling excreta of the patient receiving chemotherapy

C. Assessing the site of drug administration for pain, infection, or tissue loss D. Closely monitoring the intravenous site before, during, and after administration of vesicants

What phase of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) life cycle involves separating from the infected cell's membrane to search for another CD4+ T-cell to infect? A. Virion B. Fusion C. Budding D. Uncoating

C. Budding

Which central nervous system (CNS) signs and symptoms may occur in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply. A. Nausea B. Diarrhea C. Dementia D. Confusion E. Lymphadenopathy F. Hypergammaglobulinemia

C. Dementia D. Confusion

Which features of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus assist the viral particle in finding a host? A. RNA and lipid bilayer B. P17 matrix and p24 capsid C. Gp41 and gp120 docking proteins D. Reverse transcriptase and integrase enzymes

C. Gp41 and gp120 docking proteins

When the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus enters the patient's CD4+ T-cell, what is the new role served by the immune cell? A. Antigen B. Antibody C. HIV factory D. Natural killer cell

C. HIV factory

When caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy, the nurse plans care during the nadir of bone marrow activity to prevent which complication? A. Drug toxicity B. Polycythemia C. Infection D. Dose-limiting side effects

C. Infection

Which route of administration is preferable for chemotherapy treatment of ovarian cancer? A. Intrathecal B. Intraventricular C. Intraperitoneal D. Intravesicular

C. Intraperitoneal

Which term describes infections caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually are kept in check by normal immunity but may cause infection in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. Viral infections B. Co-occurring infections C. Opportunistic infections D. Sexually transmitted infections

C. Opportunistic infections

Which statement correctly describes oral chemotherapy agents as compared to traditional intravenous agents? A. Their use avoids the safety risks associated with traditional intravenous agents. B. Their schedule allows for more flexibility without dependence on intravenous access. C. Oral chemotherapy drugs are just as toxic as traditional intravenous chemotherapy agents. D. Self-management is easy for patients and families to accomplish with oral chemotherapy drugs.

C. Oral chemotherapy drugs are just as toxic as traditional intravenous chemotherapy agents.

Which law or practice guideline did the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the Oncology Nursing Society (ONS) establish? A. Patients have the right to be free of restraint in hospitals and nursing homes. B. Staff should stay at least 3 ft away from a patient with a droplet-borne infection. C. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used when handling chemotherapy drugs. D. Patients seen in an emergency department must have emergency medical screening examinations.

C. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be used when handling chemotherapy drugs.

Colonoscopy results indicate that a patient has polyps in the colon region. The primary health care provider (PHP) recommends surgery to remove the polyps because of the patient's strong family history of cancer. The nurse recognizes that which type of surgery has been suggested? A. Palliative surgery B. Diagnostic surgery C. Prophylactic surgery D. Rehabilitative surgery

C. Prophylactic surgery

When caring for the patient with chemotherapy-induced mucositis, which intervention will be most helpful? A. Administering a biological response modifier. B. Encouraging oral care with commercial mouthwash. C. Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab. D. Maintaining NPO status until the lesions have resolved.

C. Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab.

Which therapy given to a patient with cancer may alter taste and cause fatigue? A. Chemotherapy B. Surgical therapy C. Radiation therapy D. Molecularly targeted therapy

C. Radiation therapy

To prevent infection in the patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse should educate the patient to avoid which foods? Select all that apply. A. Salty foods B. Cooked fruits C. Raw vegetables D. Undercooked meat E. Pepper and paprika

C. Raw vegetables D. Undercooked meat E. Pepper and paprika

Breast reconstruction after a mastectomy is an example of which surgery type? A. Second-look B. Palliative C. Reconstructive D. Prophylactic

C. Reconstructive

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, what stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is marked by CD4+ T-cell count between 200-499 cells/mm 3 (0.2-0.449 × 109/L) or 14-28%? A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

C. Stage 2

Which statement listed by a nursing student regarding radiation-induced fatigue indicates a need for further learning? A. It can be debilitating and may last for months. B. Exercise and sleep interventions are helpful in managing it. C. The intensity of fatigue depends upon the radiation site. D. It is the outcome of increased energy demands needed to repair damaged cells.

C. The intensity of fatigue depends upon the radiation site.

What defines the concept known as treatment as prevention (TAP) of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. Written consent for including HIV screening as part of routine testing is not required. B. The use of HIV-specific antiretroviral drugs in an HIV-uninfected adult serves the purpose of preventing HIV infection. C. The use of combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) reduces the viral load to undetectable levels, thereby reducing the risk of HIV transmission. D. Expanded screening recommendations include a one-time screen for all adults ages 15-65, annual screening of those at heightened risk, routine prenatal screening, and frequent testing in adults with repeated high-risk exposures.

C. The use of combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) reduces the viral load to undetectable levels, thereby reducing the risk of HIV transmission.

A female patient who is about to undergo chemotherapy is distressed about the possibility of losing her hair. What is the priority nursing action in this situation? A. Suggest the patient purchase a wig before therapy. B. Recommend that the patient have hair cut before chemotherapy. C. Tell the patient not to worry because she may not lose all of her hair. D. Ask the patient how she feels about her hair in relationship to body image.

D. Ask the patient how she feels about her hair in relationship to body image.

Occupational exposure of the health care worker's broken skin or mucous membranes to which body fluids from a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive status requires postexposure prophylaxis? Select all that apply. A. Feces B. Saliva C. Vomit D. Breast milk E. Amniotic fluid

D. Breast milk E. Amniotic fluid

The nurse is teaching a patient who is receiving an antiestrogen drug about the side effects she may encounter. Which side effects does the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. A. Heavy menses B. Smooth facial skin C. Hyperkalemia D. Breast tenderness E. Weight loss F. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

D. Breast tenderness F. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be effective for a patient with post-chemotherapy fatigue? A. Sipuleucel-T B. Filgrastim C. Oprelvekin D. Darbepoetin alfa

D. Darbepoetin alfa

Which energy type is commonly used for radiation therapy? A. X-rays B. Alpha particles C. Beta particles D. Gamma rays

D. Gamma rays

Which term describes the occurrence where bone marrow activity and white blood cell counts are at their lowest levels after chemotherapy? A. Bone marrow suppression B. Thrombocytopenia C. Neutropenia D. Nadir

D. Nadir

Consensual and nonconsensual sexual exposures involving insertive and receptive types of sex with oral, vaginal, or anal contact are considered which type of exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. Perinatal B. Parenteral C. Occupational D. Non-occupational

D. Non-occupational

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection reduces how well HIV genetic material can be converted into human genetic material? A. Entry inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Integrase inhibitors D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

Which factor distinguishes a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. Viral load B. Course of treatment C. Duration of infection D. Number of CD4+ T-cells

D. Number of CD4+ T-cells

For individuals with cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, bone marrow suppression places these individuals at risk for life-threatening infections. What is the most common cause of these infections? A. Poor hand hygiene when performing personal cleansing B. Inadequate handwashing when handling food products C. Exposure to individuals who are harboring an infection D. Overgrowth of the patient's own normal flora

D. Overgrowth of the patient's own normal flora

An outpatient patient is receiving photodynamic therapy. Which environmental factor is a priority for the patient to adjust for protection? A. Storing drugs in dark locations at room temperature. B. Wearing soft clothing. C. Wearing a hat and sunglasses when going outside. D. Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light.

D. Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light.

Which features of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus convert HIV's RNA into DNA and insert it into the host's DNA? A. RNA and lipid bilayer B. P17 matrix and p24 capsid C. Gp41 and gp120 docking proteins D. Reverse transcriptase and integrase enzymes

D. Reverse transcriptase and integrase enzymes

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, what stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is marked by CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14%? A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

D. Stage 3

Which statement best describes the mechanism by which chemotherapy can cure and increase survival time in individuals with cancer? A. Slow-growing tumors are most sensitive to the DNA damage caused by chemotherapy agents. B. Metastatic areas of cancer are difficult for chemotherapy to penetrate effectively. C. Fortunately, most chemotherapy agents have a special affinity for cancer cells. D. The killing effect on cancer cells is related to the ability to damage DNA and interfere with cell division.

D. The killing effect on cancer cells is related to the ability to damage DNA and interfere with cell division.

What is true regarding the risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission from patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy (cART)? A. The patient's viral load is low, so there is no risk of transmission. B. The patient is no longer HIV positive, so there is no risk of transmission. C. The patient's viral load and risk of transmission remain high, although other signs and symptoms may decrease. D. The patient's viral load may drop to undetectable levels, but there is still a risk of transmission.

D. The patient's viral load may drop to undetectable levels, but there is still a risk of transmission.

The nurse is caring for a patient who recently had a first positive human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test result within six months after a negative HIV test result. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, when should the patient's status be changed from stage 0 to stage 1, 2, or 3? A. When 12 months have elapsed B. When CD4+ T-cell counts decrease C. When an acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining condition is present D. When six months have elapsed and the conditions for another stage are met

D. When six months have elapsed and the conditions for another stage are met

Which immunologic signs and symptoms may occur in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply. A. Nausea B. Diarrhea C. Dementia D. Confusion E. Lymphadenopathy F. Hypergammaglobulinemia

E. Lymphadenopathy F. Hypergammaglobulinemia