Chapter 21 Test
Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology?
C-arm cover Mayo stand cover impervious stockinette cassette cover b
Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?
CDC FDA EPA AAMI b
Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?
Gelpi Charnley Adson-Beckman Weitlaner b
All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT:
electric stimulator TNS unit CPM machine body exhaust suit d
The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement?
eversion circumduction supination plantar flexion d
What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?
a. Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps. b. Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues. c. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating. d. Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick. c
What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?
external fixation cast immobilization bone cement antibiotic irrigation c
The term C-arm refers to a(n):
extremity deformity OR table positioning device fluoroscopic machine casting technique c
Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?
facility policies OSHA manufacturer AAMI c
Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.
false
There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.
false
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?
femur ischium pubis ilium a
Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?
femur ulna humerus radius c
Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?
flat irregular long short d
Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low?
follicle stimulating parathyroid human growth estrogen b
What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons?
fossa tubercle condyle groove b
Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture?
fracture table vacuum beanbag Wilson frame Andrews table a
What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up?
genu valgum joint mice bunions ganglion cysts b
Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"?
genu varum hallus valgus tallipes varus coxa valga a
Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?
humerus sternum clavicle scapula c
Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope?
inflow and outflow tubing powered shaver light cord camera head b
Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?
intramedullary reamer Gigli saw Brun curette suction brush attachment a
Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?
lateral collateral medial collateral anterior cruciate posterior cruciate c
Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?
lesser trochanter greater trochanter head neck c
What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?
osteomalacia osteochondrosis osteomyelitis osteoarthritis a
Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?
subluxation luxation complex greenstick a
What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?
synovial membrane enosteum articular cartilage periosteum d
Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
temporomandibular femoroacetabular patellofemoral atlantoaxial b
Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?
tibia femur fibula patella a
What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures?
trauma poor nutrition osteosarcoma osteoporosis a
Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT:
tricompartmental unicompartmental bicompartmental quadricompartmental d
Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.
true
Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.
true
Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.
true
How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?
two eight five three c
Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?
video monitor/screen fiber-optic light source powered shaving system camera unit c
Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:
wrist foot great toe hip c
Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?
a. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture b. percutaneous pinning of simple fracture c. closed with cast application for greenstick fracture d. external fixator application for Colles' fracture a
Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?
calcaneus talus patella acetabulum a
What is the medical term for spongy bone?
cancellous cortical cuboid cranial a
In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support?
cellular proliferation inflammation callus formation remodeling c
All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:
chronic arthritis pain moderate impingement syndrome humeral shaft fracture osteonecrosis of humeral head b
The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?
clavicle sternum scapula humerus c
Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?
cobra duck bill alligator rat tooth a
Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:
connections for hip movement radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies autografts for ACL repair insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation c
Where is the area of active bone growth?
cortex diaphysis epiphyseal plate medullary canal c
Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?
cranium scapula femur ilium c
Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity?
cuboid cranial cancellous cortical d
Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs?
cylinder spica long leg short leg b
Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?
Andrews table beach chair positioner Wilson frame vacuum beanbag d
Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?
Andrews table fracture table vacuum beanbag Wilson frame b
Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?
Achilles extensor hallucis longus extensor digitorum longus tibialis anterior a
Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:
Putti-Platt Bankart Colles' Bristow c
Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:
a. treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy b. indications for Bankart repair c. normal outcomes of total shoulder repair d. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty d
Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?
acromioclavicular glenohumeral sternoclavicular coracoclavicular b
Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint?
acromioclavicular temporomandibular patellofemoral femoroacetabular b
A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?
acromioclavicular (bone spur) bicipital groove (tendon) labrum (cartilage) rotator cuff (muscles) c
Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:
acromioplasty total shoulder arthroplasty open reduction, internal fixation external fixation a
What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?
acromium trochanter tuberosity acetabulum d
Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?
additional sterile sleeves space suit or body exhaust suits high-efficiency particulate air masks impervious apron under gown b
Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?
adduction supination flexion abduction d
Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?
amputation arthroplasty arthroscopy ACL repair a
What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?
anesthesia exsanguinations antisepsis extension b
In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?
ankle wrist hip knee d
In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?
anterior cruciate ligament quadriceps tendon posterior cruciate ligament patellar tendon b
What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?
arthrosis exostosis varum osteoclast b
Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?
asterisk ( * ) spiral ( S ) transverse ( ˜ ) back slash ( / ) a
Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon?
beaver knife handle Lambotte osteotome Lowman bone holder Bennett retractor c
Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?
blunt probe trocar cannula spinal needle powered shaver a
Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation?
bone scan arthrography CT scan MRI scan d
Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?
bunionectomy below knee amputation (BKA) triple arthrodesis above knee amputation (AKA) a
Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?
delayed union avascular necrosis malunion compartmental syndrome d
A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for:
derotational hip stabilizer dislocated hip surgery definitive hip support dynamic hip screw d
The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?
diarthrosis amphiarthrosis synarthrosis coxarthrosis a
The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?
diarthrosis coxarthrosis amphiarthrosis synarthrosis d
What type of bone is the patella?
long irregular flat sesamoid d
In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?
long and short sesamoid only irregular only flat and irregular d
Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT?
lower extremity = 1 hour; upper extremity = 1 1/2 hours both upper and lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour both upper and lower extremity = 1 hour c
Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?
magnesium zinc calcium iron c
Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are:
malignant neoplasms benign neoplasms congenital deformities structural osteocyte components b
What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove?
marrow fascia periosteum cartilage d
Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?
neonates school-aged over 65 years ages 30 to 50 c
Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?
nitrous oxide lactated Ringer's normal saline carbon dioxide b
Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?
nutrition hormonal heredity exercise b
Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?
oblique avulsion greenstick comminuted c
What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture?
open reduction internal fixation external fixation carpal tunnel release arthroscopy b
Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?
osteoarthritis rheumatoid arthritis derangement arthralgia b
What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?
osteoclasts osteomyelitis osteoarthritis osteophytes b
What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?
osteocytes bursa canaliculi ganglion b
Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:
pilot drill depth gauge guide pin reamer c
The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?
pivot hinge gliding saddle a
Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:
plates rods screws nails d
Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?
polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) nylon (Nurolon) polyester (Ethibond) stainless steel a
What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?
pulse lavage antibiotic irrigation Freer elevator lap sponges d
Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty?
rasp, implant trial, pulse lavage, reamer pulse lavage, reamer, implant trial, rasp implant trial, rasp, reamer, pulse lavage reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial d
The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:
rotator cuff thoracic cage pelvic girdle sternal notch a
Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture?
scapula ulna humerus radius d
Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?
serum phosphorus serum urate overproduction of immunoglobulins human leukocyte antigen c
What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?
stability nutrition lubrication cushioning d
All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT:
staples bioabsorbable screws Steinman pins bone screws with spiked washers c