Chapter 29: Management of Patients With Complications from Heart Disease
The nurse is obtaining data on an older adult client. What finding may indicate to the nurse the early symptom of heart failure?
Dyspnea on exertion Explanation: Left-sided heart failure produces hypoxemia as a result of reduced cardiac output of arterial blood and respiratory symptoms. Many clients notice unusual fatigue with activity. Some find exertional dyspnea to be the first symptom. An increase in urinary output may be seen later as fluid accumulates. Hypotension would be a later sign of decompensating heart failure as well as tachycardia.
The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What procedure should the nurse prepare the client for in order to determine the ejection fraction to measure the efficiency of the heart as a pump?
Echocardiogram Explanation: The heart's ejection fraction is measured using an echocardiogram or multiple gated acquisition scan. A pulmonary arteriography is used to confirm cor pulmonale. A chest radiograph can reveal the enlargement of the heart. An electrocardiogram is used to determine the activity of the heart's conduction system
A client has a significant history of congestive heart failure. What should the nurse specifically assess during the client's semiannual cardiology examination? Select all that apply.
Examine the client's neck for distended veins. Monitor the client for signs of lethargy or confusion. Explanation: During a head-to-toe assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse checks for dyspnea, auscultates apical heart rate and counts radial heart rate, measures BP, and documents any signs of peripheral edema, lethargy, or confusion. Excess tears are not part of the checklist.
A client with acute pericarditis is exhibiting distended jugular veins, tachycardia, tachypnea, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of what occurrence?
Excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling. Explanation: The cardinal signs of cardiac tamponade are falling systolic blood pressure, narrowing pulse pressure, rising venous pressure (increased JVD), and distant (muffled) heart sounds. Increased pericardial pressure, reduced venous return to the heart, and decreased carbon dioxide result in cardiac tamponade (e.g., compression of the heart).
Which medication is categorized as a loop diuretic?
Furosemide Explanation: Furosemide is commonly used to treat cardiac failure. Loop diuretics inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption mainly in the ascending loop of Henle. Chlorothiazide and chlorthalidone are categorized as thiazide diuretics. Spironolactone is categorized as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
The nurse is caring for a client with suspected right-sided heart failure. What would the nurse know that clients with suspected right-sided heart failure may experience?
Gradual unexplained weight gain Explanation: Clients with right-sided heart failure may have a history of gradual, unexplained weight gain from fluid retention. Left-sided heart failure produces paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which may prompt the client to use several pillows in bed or to sleep in a chair or recliner. Right-sided heart failure does not cause increased perspiration or increased urine output.
A client with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital after reporting shortness of breath. How should the nurse position the client in order to decrease preload?
Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees and lower arms supported by pillows Explanation: Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole. The client is positioned or taught how to assume a position that facilitates breathing. The number of pillows may be increased, the head of the bed may be elevated, or the client may sit in a recliner. In these positions, the venous return to the heart (preload) is reduced, pulmonary congestion is alleviated, and pressure on the diaphragm is minimized. The lower arms are supported with pillows to eliminate the fatigue caused by the pull of the client's weight on the shoulder muscles.
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing dyspnea, dependent edema, hepatomegaly, crackles, and jugular vein distention. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Heart failure Explanation: A client with heart failure has decreased cardiac output caused by the heart's decreased pumping ability. A buildup of fluid occurs, causing dyspnea, dependent edema, hepatomegaly, crackles, and jugular vein distention. A client with pulmonary embolism experiences acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, and fever. A client with cardiac tamponade experiences muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and elevated central venous pressure. A client with tension pneumothorax has a deviated trachea and absent breath sounds on the affected side as well as dyspnea and jugular vein distention.
The nurse is preparing to administer hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate. When obtaining vital signs, the nurse notes that the blood pressure is 90/60. What is the priority action by the nurse?
Hold the medication and call the health care provider. Explanation: A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate may be another alternative for patients who cannot take ACE inhibitors (ICSI, 2011). Nitrates (e.g., isosorbide dinitrate) cause venous dilation, which reduces the amount of blood return to the heart and lowers preload. Hydralazine lowers systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular afterload. If these medications lead to severe hypotension, the nurse should hold the medication and call the health care provider.
A client is already being treated for hypertension. The doctor is concerned about the potential for heart failure, and has the client return for regular check-ups. What does hypertension have to do with heart failure?
Hypertension causes the heart's chambers to enlarge and weaken. Explanation: Hypertension causes the heart's chambers to enlarge and weaken, making it impossible for the ventricles to eject all the blood they receive.
The pathophysiology of pericardial effusion is associated with all of the following except:
Increased venous return. Explanation: Venous return is decreased (not increased) with Pericardial effusion because there is an increase in the pericardial fluid, which raises the pressure within the pericardial sac and compresses the heart. Increased right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures, inability of the ventricles to fill adequately, and atrial compression are all effects of pericardial effusion.
A nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure for jugular vein distension (JVD). Which observation is important to report to the physician?
JVD is noted 4 cm above the sternal angle. Explanation: JVD is assessed with the client sitting at a 45° angle. Jugular vein distention greater than 4 cm above the sternal angle is considered abnormal and is indicative of right ventricular failure.
The nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client with severe heart failure. What lab study should be of most concern for this client while taking furosemide?
Potassium level of 3.1 Explanation: Severe heart failure usually requires a loop diuretic such as furosemide (Lasix). These drugs increase sodium and therefore water excretion, but they also increase potassium excretion. If a client becomes hypokalemic, digitalis toxicity is more likely. The BNP does not demonstrate a severe heart failure. Sodium level of 135 is within normal range, as is the hemoglobin level.
Which term describes the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole?
Preload Explanation: Preload is the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole. Afterload is the amount of resistance to ejection of blood from a ventricle. The ejection fraction is the percentage of blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole that is ejected during systole. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction
A client is admitted to the hospital with systolic left-sided heart failure. The nurse knows to look for which assessment finding for this client?
Pulmonary congestion Explanation: When the left ventricle cannot effectively pump blood out of the ventricle into the aorta, the blood backs up into the pulmonary system and causes congestion, dyspnea, and shortness of breath. All the other choices are symptoms of right-sided heart failure. They are all symptoms of systolic failure.
A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with left-sided heart failure. What clinical manifestations does the nurse anticipate finding when performing an assessment? (Select all that apply.)
Pulmonary crackles Dyspnea Cough Explanation: The clinical manifestations of pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure include dyspnea, cough, pulmonary crackles, and low oxygen saturation levels, but not ascites or jugular vein distention.
A client has been diagnosed with heart failure. What is the major nursing outcome for the client?
Reduce the workload on the heart. Explanation: Specific objectives of medical management of heart failure include reducing the workload on the heart by reducing preload and afterload. The other choices are objectives that may be supportive of a healthy lifestyle, but are not specific to a client with heart failure
The nurse recognizes which symptom as a classic sign of cardiogenic shock?
Restlessness and confusion Explanation: Cardiogenic shock occurs when decreased cardiac output leads to inadequate tissue perfusion and initiation of the shock syndrome. Inadequate tissue perfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).
A patient in cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What does the nurse understand is the mechanism of action of the balloon pump?
The balloon inflates at the beginning of diastole and deflates before systole to augment the pumping action of the heart. Explanation: The IABP uses internal counterpulsation through the regular inflation and deflation of the balloon to augment the pumping action of the heart. It inflates during diastole, increasing the pressure in the aorta during diastole and therefore increasing blood flow through the coronary and peripheral arteries. It deflates just before systole, lessening the pressure within the aorta before left ventricular contraction, decreasing the amount of resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood and therefore decreasing left ventricular workload
A client with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. What information obtained from the client may indicate the presence of edema?
The client says his rings have become tight and are difficult to remove. Explanation: Clients may observe that rings, shoes, or clothing have become tight. The client would most likely be urinating more frequently in the evening. Accumulation of blood in abdominal organs may cause anorexia, nausea, flatulence, and a decrease in hunger. Shortness of breath with ambulation would occur most often in left-sided heart failure.
A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
Weighing the client daily at the same time each day Explanation: Increased fluid volume leads to rapid weight gain — 2.2 lb (1 kg) for each liter of fluid retained. Weighing the client daily at the same time and in similar clothing provides more objective data than measuring fluid intake and output, which may be inaccurate because of omitted measurements such as insensible losses. Changes in vital signs are less reliable than daily weight because these changes usually are subtle during early stages of fluid retention. Weight gain is an earlier sign of excess fluid volume than crackles, which represent pulmonary edema. The nurse should plan to detect fluid accumulation before pulmonary edema occurs.
While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with heart failure, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). How should the nurse document this sound?
a third heart sound (S3). Explanation: An S3 is heard following an S2, which commonly occurs in clients experiencing heart failure and results from increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is heard before an S1 and is caused by resistance to ventricular filling. A murmur is heard when there is turbulent blood flow across the valves.
A client with left-sided heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and is agitated and coughing up pink-tinged, foamy sputum. The nurse should recognize these findings as signs and symptoms of what condition?
acute pulmonary edema. Explanation: Shortness of breath, agitation, and pink-tinged, foamy sputum signal acute pulmonary edema. This condition results when decreased contractility and increased fluid volume and pressure in clients with heart failure drive fluid from the pulmonary capillary beds into the alveoli. In right-sided heart failure, the client would exhibit hepatomegaly, jugular vein distention, and peripheral edema. In pneumonia, the client would have a temperature spike and sputum that varies in color. Cardiogenic shock is indicated by signs of hypotension and tachycardia.
The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided heart failure?
ascites Explanation: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by signs of circulatory congestion, such as leg edema, jugular vein distention, ascites, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided heart failure is characterized by circumoral cyanosis, crackles, and a productive cough. Mixed heart failures can have all symptoms of right and left plus cool extremities, resting tachycardia, and weight gain.
A nurse caring for a client recently admitted to the ICU observes the client coughing up large amounts of pink, frothy sputum. Lung auscultation reveals coarse crackles in the lower lobes bilaterally. Based on this assessment, the nurse recognizes this client is developing
decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. Explanation: The production of large quantities of frothy sputum, which is sometimes pink or tan (blood tinged), indicates acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. These signs can be confused with those of pneumonia and tuberculosis. However, auscultation reveals coarse crackles, which indicate pulmonary edema. A patient with acute COPD would have diminished lung sounds bilaterally.
A client asks the nurse if systolic heart failure will affect any other body function. What body system response correlates with systolic heart failure (HF)?
decrease in renal perfusion Explanation: A decrease in renal perfusion due to low cardiac output (CO) and vasoconstriction causes the release of renin by the kidney. Systolic HF results in decreased blood volume being ejected from the ventricle. Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. Dehydration does not correlate with systolic heart failure
The nurse is admitting a client with frothy pink sputum. What does the nurse suspect is the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema?
decreased left ventricular pumping Explanation: Pulmonary edema is an acute event that results from heart failure. Myocardial scarring, resulting from ischemia, limits the distensibility of the ventricle, making it vulnerable to demands for increased workload. When the demand on the heart increases, there is resistance to left ventricular filling and blood backs up into the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary edema quickly develops.
The nurse is providing care to a client with cardiogenic shock requiring a intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What is the therapeutic effect of the IABP therapy?
decreased left ventricular workload Explanation: The signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock reflect the circular nature of the pathophysiology of HF. The therapeutic effect is decreased left ventricular workload. The IABP does not change right ventricular workload. The IABP increases perfusion to the coronary and peripheral arteries. The renal perfusion is not affected by IABP
A nurse is administering digoxin. What client parameter would cause the nurse to hold the digoxin and notify the health care prescriber?
heart rate of 55 beats per minute Explanation: Digoxin therapy slows conduction through the AV node. A heart rate of 55 is slow and the digoxin therapy may slow the heart rate further. Blood pressure of 125/80 is normal. Urine output of 300 mL is adequate, so the kidneys are functioning. Atrial fibrillation is not a parameter to hold medication.
The nurse is caring for a client with advanced heart failure. What treatment will be considered after all other therapies have failed?
heart transplant Explanation: Heart transplantation involves replacing a person's diseased heart with a donor heart. This is an option for advanced HF patients when all other therapies have failed. A ventricular access device, ICD, and cardiac resynchronization therapy would be tried prior to a heart transplant.
The nurse is assessing a client with crackling breath sounds or pulmonary congestion. What is the cause of the congestion?
inadequate cardiac output Explanation: Pulmonary congestion occurs and tissue perfusion is compromised and diminished when the heart, primarily the left ventricle, cannot pump blood out of the ventricle effectively into the aorta and the systemic circulation. Ascites is fluid in the abdomen, not a cause of congestion. Hepatomegaly is an enlarged liver, which does not cause crackling breath sounds. Nocturia, or voiding at night, does not cause crackling breath sounds.
A client has been admitted to the cardiac step-down unit with acute pulmonary edema. Which symptoms would the nurse expect to find during assessment?
moist, gurgling respirations Explanation: Clients with acute pulmonary edema experience sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, cough, cyanosis, and tachycardia. Respirations sound moist or gurgling. Drowsiness and numbness are not considered issues. Increased cardiac output is not part of this checklist. Hypertension is not an immediate symptom
When the client has increased difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the client is demonstrating
orthopnea. Explanation: Clients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler position. Dyspnea upon exertion refers to difficulty breathing with activity. Hyperpnea refers to increased rate and depth of respiration. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.
A client is receiving captopril for heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, what sign indicates that the medication therapy is ineffective?
peripheral edema Explanation: Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume excess and worsening heart failure. A skin rash and postural hypotension are adverse reactions to captopril, but they don't indicate that therapy is ineffective. The individual will also most like experience trachycardia instead of bradycardia if the heart failure is worsening ang not responding to captopril.
The nurse completes an assessment of a client admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What will be a significant clinical finding related to right-sided heart failure?
pitting edema Explanation: The presence of pitting edema is a significant sign of right-sided heart failure because it indicates fluid retention of about 10 lbs. Sodium and water are retained because reduced cardiac output causes a compensatory neurohormonal response. Oliguria is a sign of kidney failure or dehydration. The S4 heart sound is from a thickened left ventricle, seen with aortic stenosis or hypertension. The decreased oxygen saturation levels are from hypoxemia.
The nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. What laboratory value may predispose the client to digoxin toxicity?
potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L Explanation: Conditions that may predispose a client to digoxin toxicity include hypokalemia (evidenced by a potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L), hypomagnesemia (evidenced by a magnesium level less than 1.5 mEq/L), hypothyroidism, hypoxemia, advanced myocardial disease, active myocardial ischemia, and altered autonomic tone. Hypermagnesemia (evidenced by a magnesium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L), hypercalcemia (evidenced by an ionized calcium level greater than 5.3 mg/dl), and hypernatremia (evidenced by a sodium level greater than 145 mEq/L) aren't associated with a risk of digoxin toxicity.
A client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. The nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of
pulmonary embolism. Explanation: Pulmonary embolism is a potentially life-threatening disorder typically caused by blood clots in the lungs. This disorder poses a particular threat to people with cardiovascular disease. Blood clots that form in the deep veins of the legs and embolize to the lungs can cause a pulmonary infarction, whereby emboli mechanically obstruct the pulmonary vessels, cutting off the blood supply to sections of the lung. Clinical indicators of pulmonary embolism can vary but typically include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea.
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse knows that the client has left-sided heart failure when the client makes which statement?
"I sleep on three pillows each night." Explanation: Orthopnea is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. The client commonly sleeps on several pillows at night to help facilitate breathing. Swollen feet, ascites, and anorexia are signs of right-sided heart failure.
The nurse is teaching a client about medications prescribed for severe volume overload from heart failure. What diuretic is the first-line treatment for clients diagnosed with heart failure?
furosemide Explanation: Loop diuretics such as furosemide, bumetanide, and torsemide are the preferred first-line diuretics because of their efficacy in patients with and without renal impairment. Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic not used for heart failure. Metolazone is a potassium diuretic not used for first treatment for heart failure. Diuretics should never be used alone to treat HF because they don't prevent further myocardial damage.
The nurse is admitting a client with heart failure. What client statement indicates that fluid overload was occurring at home?
"I'm having trouble going up the steps during the day." Explanation: Difficulty with activities like climbing stairs is an indication of a lessened ability to exercise. Eating small meals and not using salt are usually indicated for clients with heart failure. The client's assertion about morning being the best time of day is a vague statement.
Which is a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure?
Dizziness Explanation: Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety. Tachycardia is a cardiovascular manifestation. Ascites is a gastrointestinal manifestation. Nocturia is a renal manifestation.
A client is exhibiting digitalis toxicity. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be ordered for this client?
Digoxin immune FAB Explanation: Digibind binds with digoxin and makes it unavailable for use. The digibind dosage is based on the digoxin level and the patient's weight. Ibuprofen, warfarin, and amlodipine are not used to reverse the effects of digoxin.
A client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, to prevent fluid overload. The order is for 50 mg intravenous now. The pharmacy supplies furosemide 80 mg per 2 mL. How many mL will the nurse give the client? Round your answer and record to one decimal place.
1.3 Explanation: (50 mg/80 mg) x 2 mL = 1.25 mL. Round up to the nearest tenth so 1.3 mL should be administered.
A client has been diagnosed with systolic heart failure. What percentage will the nurse expect the patient's ejection fraction to be?
30% Explanation: The ejection fraction is normal in diastolic heart failure, but severely reduced in systolic heart failure. The normal EF is 55%-65%. An EF of 5% is not life sustaining and an EF of 30% is about half the normal percentage.
A client has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and fatigue. The health care provider has ordered a diagnostic test in order to determine what type of heart failure the client is having. What diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate being ordered?
An echocardiogram Explanation: Increasing shortness of breath (dyspnea) and fatigue are common signs of left-sided heart failure (HF). However, some of the physical signs that suggest HF may also occur with other diseases, such as renal failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; therefore, diagnostic testing is essential to confirm a diagnosis of HF. Assessment of ventricular function is an essential part of the initial diagnostic workup. An echocardiogram is usually performed to determine the ejection fraction, identify anatomic features such as structural abnormalities and valve malfunction, and confirm the diagnosis of HF.
The nurse is discussing cardiac hemodynamics with a nursing student. The nurse explains preload to the student and then asks the student what nursing interventions might cause increased preload. Which response by the student indicates understanding?
Application of antiembolic stockings Explanation: Preload is the amount of blood presented to the ventricles just before systole. Anything that assists in returning blood to the heart (e.g., antiembolic stockings) or preventing blood from pooling in the extremities will increase preload. Anything that decreases the amount of blood returning to the heart will decrease preload, such as vasodilation or blood pooling in the extremities
The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment for a patient in left-sided heart failure. What does the nurse understand is the best determinant of the patient's ventilation and oxygenation status?
Arterial blood gases Explanation: In left-sided heart failure, arterial blood gases may be obtained to assess ventilation and oxygenation
The nurse recognizes that which laboratory test is a key diagnostic indicator of heart failure?
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Explanation: BNP is the key diagnostic indicator of heart failure. High levels of BNP are a sign of high cardiac filling pressure and can aid in the diagnosis of heart failure. A BUN, creatinine, and CBC are included in the initial workup
A client arrives at the ED with an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure and reports shortness of breath. Which is the priority nursing action?
Assess oxygen saturation Explanation: The nurse's priority action is to assess oxygen saturation to determine the severity of the exacerbation. It is important to assess the oxygen saturation in a client with heart failure because below-normal oxygen saturation can be life-threatening. Treatment options vary according to the severity of the client's condition and may include supplemental oxygen, oral and IV medications, major lifestyle changes, implantation of cardiac devices, and surgical approaches. The overall goal of treatment of heart failure is to relieve symptoms and reduce the workload on the heart by reducing afterload and preload.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client following pericardiocentesis. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Choose all that apply.
Assess vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour. Monitor heart and lung sounds. Record fluid output. Evaluate the cardiac rhythm. Explanation: The nurse should monitor the vital signs for any client who has undergone surgery. Because this procedure requires entering the pericardial sac, assessing heart and lung sounds assists in determining heart failure. The pericardial fluid is recorded as output and assessing the cardiac rhythm allows to assess for cardiac failure. The client should be kept in the semi-Fowler's position, not flat.
A client has been prescribed furosemide 80 mg twice daily. The asymptomatic client begins to have rare premature ventricular contractions followed by runs of bigeminy with stable signs. What action will the nurse perform next?
Check the client's potassium level. Explanation: The client is asymptomatic but has had a change in heart rhythm. More information is needed before calling the health care provider. Because the client is taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, the next action would be to check the client's potassium level. The nurse would then call the health care provider with a more complete database. The health care provider will need to be notified after the nurse checks the latest potassium level. The intake and output will not change the heart rhythm. Administering potassium requires a health care provider's order.
A client with chronic heart failure is able to continue with his regular physical activity and does not have any limitations as to what he can do. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA), what classification of chronic heart failure does this client have?
Class I (Mild) Explanation: Class I is when ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. The client does not experience any limitation of activity. Class II (Mild) is when the client is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class III (Moderate) is when there is marked limitation of physical activity. The client is comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class IV (Severe), the client is unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency occur at rest. Discomfort is increased if any physical activity is undertaken
Which New York Heart Association classification of heart failure has a poor prognosis and includes symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest?
IV Explanation: Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest are classified as IV, according to the New York Heart Association Classification of Heart Failure. In class I, ordinary activity does not cause undue fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, or chest pain. In class II, ADLs are slightly limited. In class III, ADLs are markedly limited.
Following a left anterior myocardial infarction, a client undergoes insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure?
Increased pulmonary artery diastolic pressure Explanation: Increased pulmonary artery diastolic pressure suggests left-sided heart failure. Central venous pressure increases in heart failure rather than decreases. The cardiac index decreases in heart failure. The mean pulmonary artery pressure increases in heart failure.
Which is a characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
Jugular vein distention Explanation: Jugular vein distention is a characteristic of right-sided heart failure. Dyspnea, pulmonary crackles, and cough are manifestations of left-sided heart failure.
A new client has been admitted with right-sided heart failure. When assessing this client, the nurse knows to look for which finding?
Jugular venous distention Explanation: When the right ventricle cannot effectively pump blood from the ventricle into the pulmonary artery, the blood backs up into the venous system and causes jugular venous distention and congestion in the peripheral tissues and viscera. All the other choices are symptoms of left-sided heart failure.
The clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock reflect the pathophysiology of heart failure (HF). By applying this correlation, the nurse notes that the degree of shock is proportional to which of the following?
Left ventricular function Explanation: The signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock reflect the circular nature of the pathophysiology of HF. The degree of shock is proportional to the extent of left ventricular dysfunction.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with heart failure preparing to leave the following day. What type of diet should the nurse request the dietitian to discuss with the client?
Low-sodium diet Explanation: Medical management of both left-sided and right-sided heart failure is directed at reducing the heart's workload and improving cardiac output primarily through dietary modifications, drug therapy, and lifestyle changes. A low-sodium diet is prescribed, and fluids may be restricted. Because the client will be on a diuretic such as Lasix, he may become potassium depleted and would need potassium in the diet. A low-cholesterol and low-fat diet may be ordered but are not specific to the heart failure
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who is receiving milrinone?
Monitor blood pressure frequently Explanation: Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that delays the release of calcium from intracellular reservoirs and prevents the uptake of extracellular calcium by the cells. This promotes vasodilation, resulting in decreased preload and afterload and reduced cardiac workload. Milrinone is administered intravenously to clients with severe HF, including those who are waiting for a heart transplant. Because the drug causes vasodilation, the client's blood pressure is monitored before administration because if the client is hypovolemic the blood pressure could drop quickly. The major side effects are hypotension and increased ventricular dysrhythmias. Blood pressure and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are monitored closely during and after infusions of milrinone.
Which is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure?
Systemic venous congestion Explanation: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion and a reduction in forward flow. Left-sided heart failure causes an accumulation of blood in the lungs and a reduction in forward flow or cardiac output that results in inadequate arterial blood flow to the tissues. Some clients with left-sided heart failure get episodes of dyspnea at night, known as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
The client with cardiac failure is taught to report which symptom to the health care provider or clinic immediately?
Persistent cough Explanation: Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-sided heart failure. Loss of appetite, weight gain, interrupted sleep, unusual shortness of breath, and increased swelling should also be reported immediately.
A patient is prescribed digitalis preparations. Which of the following conditions should the nurse closely monitor when caring for the patient?
Potassium levels Explanation: A key concern associated with digoxin therapy is digitalis toxicity. Clinical manifestations of toxicity include anorexia, nausea, visual disturbances, confusion, and bradycardia. The serum potassium level is monitored because the effect of digoxin is enhanced in the presence of hypokalemia and digoxin toxicity may occur.
A nurse suspects that a client has digoxin toxicity. The nurse should assess for:
vision changes. Explanation: Vision changes, such as halos around objects, are signs of digoxin toxicity. Hearing loss can be detected through hearing assessment; however, it isn't a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Intake and output aren't affected unless there is nephrotoxicity, which is uncommon. Gait changes are also uncommon.
A client with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin 0.25 mg by mouth daily and furosemide 20 mg by mouth twice daily. The nurse should assess the client for what sign of digoxin toxicity?
visual disturbances. Explanation: Digoxin toxicity may cause visual disturbances (e.g., flickering flashes of light, colored or halo vision, photophobia, blurring, diplopia, and scotomata), central nervous system abnormalities (e.g., headache, fatigue, lethargy, depression, irritability and, if profound, seizures, delusions, hallucinations, and memory loss), and cardiovascular abnormalities (e.g., abnormal heart rate, arrhythmias). Digoxin toxicity doesn't cause taste and smell alterations. Dry mouth and urine retention typically occur with anticholinergic agents, not inotropic agents such as digoxin. Nocturia and sleep disturbances are adverse effects of furosemide — especially if the client takes the second daily dose in the evening, which may cause diuresis at night.
