Chapter 4

Where should a cargo manifest be kept on an aircraft? Select one: a. Flight deck b. Tail end of the aircraft c. Cargo compartment d. Cockpit

a. Flight deck

What is a possible hazard associated with a reciprocating engine? Select one: a. If the propeller is moved, the engine could restart. b. The propeller may not be able to restart the engine. c. When the propeller is turned, the magneto may not turn. d. A propeller rotating at high speed obstructs vision.

a. If the propeller is moved, the engine could restart.

Which of the following is true of fire station safety? Select one: a. It is the responsibility of all firefighters to maintain a safe work environment. b. Safety Data Sheets (SDS) must be kept locked up and secure. c. Portable heaters should be used with combustibles to keep them from freezing. d. To ensure safety, fire stations should not store hazardous materials.

a. It is the responsibility of all firefighters to maintain a safe work environment.

Which of the following is true of a risk/benefit matrix that identifies the level of acceptable risk for ARFF operations? Select one: a. The risk/benefit matrix should be part of a department's SOPs/SOGs. b. Personnel may take a high level of risk when recovering bodies. c. A low benefit and high risk action is considered reasonable. d. Low risk and high benefit action is not considered reasonable.

a. The risk/benefit matrix should be part of a department's SOPs/SOGs.

Personnel should approach and leave a helicopter: Select one: a. in a crouched position. b. from the rear of the aircraft. c. on the uphill side. d. on even ground only.

a. in a crouched position.

If a Ballistic Recovery System (BRS) does not deploy: Select one: a. responders should avoid area where the rocket might deploy. b. aircraft should not be approached from the front or sides. c. the aircraft is safe for ARFF personnel to approach. d. ARFF personnel should attempt to safety the BRS system.

a. responders should avoid area where the rocket might deploy.

When should ARFF personnel NOT attempt to don protective clothing? Select one: a. While enroute in an apparatus b. After exiting apparatus c. Before entering apparatus d. In an empty apparatus bay

a. While enroute in an apparatus

A small amount of hazardous material confined on the inside of aircraft: Select one: a. may be worse than a larger amount spilled in the open. b. has very little hazardous risk for responding personnel. c. will likely be different than those found at highway incidents. d. should immediately be covered with extinguishing foam.

a. may be worse than a larger amount spilled in the open.

Pressed high explosives and cast high explosives will react the same way if: Select one: a. the ammunition case is not ruptured. b. the ammunition case is ruptured. c. they are both heated during manufacturing. d. they are pressed into an operational container.

a. the ammunition case is not ruptured.

Ballistic Recovery Systems (BRS) may present the MOST hazard to ARFF personnel if: Select one: a. they do not deploy in flight. b. they deploy while still in flight. c. they slow the descent of the aircraft. d. they are equipped with a parachute.

a. they do not deploy in flight.

Which of the following is true of hazards associated with aircraft cargo? Select one: a. Emergency response must be different from ARFF procedures. b. Any crash could be considered to involve dangerous goods. c. There are very few hazards associated with cargo. d. Cargo is not transported along with passengers.

b. Any crash could be considered to involve dangerous goods.

Which of the following is true of confined space on an aircraft? Select one: a. Confined space allows ARFF personnel to work safely. b. Confined spaces can prove hazardous to ARFF personnel. c. Aircraft workers should never enter a confined space. d. SCBA is not necessary when ARFF personnel enter confined spaces.

b. Confined spaces can prove hazardous to ARFF personnel.

Which of the following is true of landing gear hazards? Select one: a. Tires are less likely to explode at higher temperatures. b. Landing gear can burn and ignite at high temperatures. c. Firefighters should apply foam to burning landing gear. d. The metals contained in the landing gear are extremely toxic.

b. Landing gear can burn and ignite at high temperatures.

Which of the following is true about the stress that fire fighters deal with on a regular basis? Select one: a. It is no more than that of the civilian population. b. Personnel should be monitored for signs of posttraumatic stress disorder. c. Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISD) should be applied consistently and constantly. d. It is rarely a concern, unless the situation is atypical.

b. Personnel should be monitored for signs of posttraumatic stress disorder.

Which of the following is true of personal accountability at an ARFF scene? Select one: a. These systems do not apply to driver/operators or Incident Commanders. b. Personnel should stay in teams of at least two. c. The two-in/two-out rule should never be waived. d. The system should not be standardized for every incident.

b. Personnel should stay in teams of at least two.

Which propellant actuating device plays a role in forcibly separating crew members from the seat after ejection? Select one: a. Seat catapult b. Rotary actuator c. Canopy remover d. Explosive squib

b. Rotary actuator

Due to the potential for respiratory injuries, what must be worn at all aircraft fires? Select one: a. Powered Air-Purifying Respirator (PAPR) b. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) c. Fully encapsulating vapor protective ensemble d. Proximity fire fighting protective clothing

b. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

Which of the following is true of ARFF station/work uniforms? Select one: a. They are not flame resistant. b. They are intended for use under full protective equipment. c. They can be used by themselves as protective clothing. d. They protect firefighters from all extreme conditions.

b. They are intended for use under full protective equipment.

Which of the following is true of using personal protective equipment (PPE) at a dangerous goods incident? Select one: a. If there is no adequate PPE, personnel should secure the scene. b. They should be selected following established SOPs/SOGs. c. Only the authority having jurisdiction may use PPE. d. The same PPE can be used for any emergency situation.

b. They should be selected following established SOPs/SOGs.

Which of the following is true of structural fire fighting protective clothing? Select one: a. Appropriate for all hazmat incidents b. Very resistant to cuts and abrasions caused by jagged metal c. Adequately protects personnel in the most extreme conditions d. Not appropriate protective clothing for ARFF personnel

b. Very resistant to cuts and abrasions caused by jagged metal

Which of the following is true of composite fibers used in aircraft constructions? Select one: a. Very small fibers present no hazards. b. Very small fibers can cause radio communication interference. c. The fibers may be hot enough to cause burns on personnel. d. They are not preferred for aircraft construction.

b. Very small fibers can cause radio communication interference.

If the ammunition case on a pressed high explosive is ruptured: Select one: a. the explosive material will melt and resolidify as it cools. b. any excessive heat will cause the explosive to burn. c. the HE will become extremely sensitive to shock. d. it will react the same as a cast high explosive.

b. any excessive heat will cause the explosive to burn.

Civilian ARFF personnel encountering military aircraft emergency escape systems should: Select one: a. first attempt to open the aircraft escape hatch. b. contact military personnel to disarm the system. c. fire the ejection seats after pilots have evacuated. d. disarm the system if they are first at the scene.

b. contact military personnel to disarm the system.

The first responsibility of ARFF units responding to dangerous goods incidents is to isolate the scene and: Select one: a. plan any necessary defensive actions in the cold zone. b. deny entry to nonessential personnel. c. wait for a hazardous material response team to arrive. d. obtain a sample of hazardous materials.

b. deny entry to nonessential personnel.

Signs and symptoms of nuclear and biological attack will usually occur within _____ after an attack. Select one: a. seconds or minutes b. hours or days c. minutes or hours d. months or years

b. hours or days

IFSTA's Principles of Risk Management states that activities that present a significant risk to the safety of ARFF members: Select one: a. should be separate from risk/benefit assessment. b. is limited to situations where there is potential to save lives. c. should be conducted anyway if there are bodies to recover. d. should under no circumstances be performed.

b. is limited to situations where there is potential to save lives.

After departing the hot zone, personnel: Select one: a. should continue directly to the cold zone. b. may need decontamination. c. may leave the area. d. can no longer be decontaminated.

b. may need decontamination.

Liquid hydrazine can cause: Select one: a. aircraft components to corrode. b. severe local damage or burns. c. magnesium to ignite spontaneously. d. an aircraft's hydraulic systems to fail.

b. severe local damage or burns.

Unit load devices containing dangerous goods will have a small tag: Select one: a. that is wired to the inside of the device. b. that is wired to the outside or placed in a plastic window. c. that is placed near the cockpit window. d. that will usually have a white striped border.

b. that is wired to the outside or placed in a plastic window.

When aircraft hatches or exits are unlatched during emergency situations,: Select one: a. the hatches must be immediately reattached. b. the hatches may fall from the plane. c. the rate of fire spread will always increase. d. all personnel must then use the hatch to egress.

b. the hatches may fall from the plane.

What is a potential problem with the application of agricultural chemicals using aircraft? Select one: a. The aircraft apply chemicals at high altitudes. b. The application may occur too close to the airport. c. A crash site may be difficult to reach with a fire apparatus. d. Personnel may end up working upwind from the crash site.

c. A crash site may be difficult to reach with a fire apparatus.

Which of the following is true of aircraft canopies? Select one: a. A hinged canopy is the most common type. b. Power-operated canopies cannot be opened manually. c. A sliding canopy is easier to operate during a rescue. d. A canopy may only be opened hydraulically.

c. A sliding canopy is easier to operate during a rescue.

Which of the following is true of pitot tubes? Select one: a. They are located on the tail of the aircraft. b. They should be removed from the escape hatch. c. ARFF personnel should not touch them. d. The pitot tubes should never become heated.

c. ARFF personnel should not touch them.

Which of the following is true of terrorist incidents? Select one: a. Responders should be positioned downhill from the incident. b. Mass transit systems are unlikely terrorist targets. c. Airport firefighters need to be trained to respond to incidents. d. ARFF personnel should allow specialists to establish a perimeter.

c. Airport firefighters need to be trained to respond to incidents.

Which of the following is true of an Emergency Power Unit (EPU)? Select one: a. The EPU will start automatically if safetied. b. There are few serious hazards associated with EPUs. c. EPUs are hydrazine-powered and produce toxic exhaust. d. It must be safetied after deenergizing electrical power.

c. EPUs are hydrazine-powered and produce toxic exhaust.

Which of the following is true of aircraft canopies and seats? Select one: a. Emergency escape systems rarely include safeties. b. They should be jettisoned indoors. c. Ejection seats may be fired while on the ground and parked. d. Ejection seats are only rocket powered.

c. Ejection seats may be fired while on the ground and parked.

Which of the following is true of undeclared dangerous goods cargo? Select one: a. It does not present a hazard to ARFF personnel at an incident. b. It will have a "cargo aircraft only" label. c. It may not be packaged properly or does not have documentation. d. It is identified and verified by Title 49 and IATA.

c. It may not be packaged properly or does not have documentation.

Which of the following is true of helicopters? Select one: a. Personnel must approach them from the rear. b. Personnel must approach/leave the helicopter on the uphill side. c. Personnel must avoid rotors at all times. d. Personnel must carry equipment upright and over the shoulder.

c. Personnel must avoid rotors at all times.

What is a limitation of structural fire fighting protective clothing? Select one: a. It is not resistant to cuts or abrasions from jagged edges. b. There is no thermal barrier to provide heat protection. c. The clothing material can absorb hazardous liquids. d. There is nothing to protect firefighters from steam burns.

c. The clothing material can absorb hazardous liquids.

What should be done with oxygen cylinders at an incident scene? Select one: a. All oxygen should be drained before the cylinders are moved. b. Foam should be applied to cylinders before approaching them. c. The cylinders should be removed from the crash site. d. The oxygen cylinders can be used to extinguish any fires.

c. The cylinders should be removed from the crash site.

Which of the following is true of hydrazine? Select one: a. It is a weak reducing agent. b. It is toxic in vapor form only. c. The fuel may explode. d. It is toxic in liquid form only.

c. The fuel may explode.

What is a hazard to be aware of when working around jet engines? Select one: a. The engine may cause the aircraft to move backward. b. The jet engine may quit running after a crash. c. The power of a jet blast can overturn any vehicle. d. The magneto in the engine may continue turning.

c. The power of a jet blast can overturn any vehicle.

Which of the following is true of aircraft with a variable pitch propeller? Select one: a. The propeller produces a propeller wash in only one direction. b. The propeller can keep the aircraft from moving. c. The propeller can cause the aircraft to move backwards. d. The variable pitch propeller is very loud.

c. The propeller can cause the aircraft to move backwards.

Which of the following is true of movable exhaust nozzles on a Jet Assisted Take-Off (JATO) system? Select one: a. When present, aircraft should be approached from the front or rear. b. Movable exhaust nozzles are present on all military aircraft. c. They pose a hazard to personnel approaching the aircraft's sides. d. There are very few hazards associated with exhaust nozzles.

c. They pose a hazard to personnel approaching the aircraft's sides.

Which of the following is true of the rehabilitation areas established by Incident Commanders? Select one: a. Food should be available in the station, not rehabilitation areas. b. The rehabilitation areas are not for heat-related incidents. c. They should be away from the sights and sounds of the scene. d. They should be located next to the incident scene for easy access.

c. They should be away from the sights and sounds of the scene.

Blended fuels, such as Jet-B (JP-4): Select one: a. should be extinguished with wet chemicals. b. have a higher flash point than Jet-A fuels. c. are more dangerous than kerosene grades when spilled. d. should not come into contact with foam when spilled.

c. are more dangerous than kerosene grades when spilled.

Aviation gasoline (AVGAS) has a variable octane rating, and: Select one: a. it is not used in internal combustion powered engines. b. spills should be blanketed with dry powder to contain flammable vapors. c. fire fighting characteristics are not affected. d. it has a lower octane rating than automobile gasoline.

c. fire fighting characteristics are not affected.

A Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) has to: Select one: a. be in contact with the exterior crew. b. be the first to enter a downed or burning aircraft. c. maintain contact with the interior crew. d. consist of an Incident Commander and a firefighter.

c. maintain contact with the interior crew.

In order to avoid being sucked in by a jet engine, ARFF personnel should: Select one: a. stop the propeller from spinning, causing the engine to quit. b. allow aircraft maintenance to stop the engine. c. stay at least 30 feet (10 m) from the front/sides of the engine. d. approach the jet engine from the front only.

c. stay at least 30 feet (10 m) from the front/sides of the engine.

Military aircraft can have fuel capacities: Select one: a. that are less likely to spill during an accident. b. smaller than most general aviation aircraft. c. that far exceed emergency responders' expectations. d. that are not as dangerous as commercial aircraft.

c. that far exceed emergency responders' expectations.

Both rockets and missiles can be carried in: Select one: a. the tail section of the aircraft. b. the cockpit of the aircraft. c. the internal bays or wingtips. d. the nose section of the aircraft.

c. the internal bays or wingtips.

In general, before a team of two firefighters may begin interior fire fighting: Select one: a. two-in/two-out should first be waived by the Incident Commander. b. they should split up to control the fire from opposite ends. c. there must be at least four fully equipped firefighters on scene. d. they must have two incident commanders on standby.

c. there must be at least four fully equipped firefighters on scene.

Which of the following is true of a personal alert safety system (PASS)? Select one: a. They cannot be integrated into the SCBA. b. The device is not needed when entering a hazardous atmosphere. c. They cannot be activated manually. d. An alarm sounds when a firefighter becomes incapacitated.

d. An alarm sounds when a firefighter becomes incapacitated.

What may be a potential problem when jettisoning a canopy? Select one: a. The canopy may accidentally be fired from the side. b. The canopy may be thrown up and away from the aircraft. c. Jettisoning the canopy may not start the ejection process. d. Canopy may fall back on the aircraft or personnel.

d. Canopy may fall back on the aircraft or personnel.

Which of the following is true of fighter aircraft involved in a fire? Select one: a. The primary fire should be allowed to burn out on its own. b. Most explosives will take at least 10 minutes to detonate. c. Fire fighting procedures are the same even if they are armed. d. Fighter aircraft should always be considered "armed."

d. Fighter aircraft should always be considered "armed."

Which of the following is true of the use of hearing protection for ARFF personnel? Select one: a. Every ARFF firefighter is required to wear hearing protection at every incident. b. Airport firefighters are around less noise than most other types of firefighters. c. Earmuff protection does not provide adequate sound reduction for most ARFF operations. d. It should be made available for firefighters on all ARFF equipment.

d. It should be made available for firefighters on all ARFF equipment.

Which of the following is true of the warm zone at an aircraft scene? Select one: a. It includes areas identified as Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH). b. It will likely be the location of the Incident Command Post (ICP). c. Rescue operations are conducted in this area. d. Personnel should wear personal protective equipment (PPE) proper for the hot zone.

d. Personnel should wear personal protective equipment (PPE) proper for the hot zone.

Which type of seat catapult is more efficient and employed in more advanced, high speed aircraft? Select one: a. Cartridge catapult b. Closed-end catapult c. Flash-vented catapult d. Rocket catapult

d. Rocket catapult

Which of the following is true of lavatory waste spills? Select one: a. They are not a biohazard for responding ARFF personnel. b. They should be emptied into storm drains. c. ARFF personnel should water down any spills. d. Spills should be vacuumed or recovered with absorbents.

d. Spills should be vacuumed or recovered with absorbents.

Which of the following is true of aircraft munitions? Select one: a. Personnel may have to be positioned in the line of fire. b. Personnel should be placed behind under-wing rockets. c. Most ammunition drums are carried externally. d. The ammunition may react violently when involved in a fire.

d. The ammunition may react violently when involved in a fire.

Which of the following is true of nuclear weapons? Select one: a. They are affixed to fighter aircraft only. b. They are regularly transported via military aircraft. c. ARFF is responsible for handling nuclear weapons incidents. d. The chance of nuclear detonation is remote.

d. The chance of nuclear detonation is remote.

Which of the following is true of flares? Select one: a. They contain white phosphorus, which is highly flammable. b. They are used for illumination during parachute drops. c. They use a Jet Assisted Take-Off (JATO) system. d. They generate an amount of heat similar to aircraft engines.

d. They generate an amount of heat similar to aircraft engines.

What agent should be used to cool a gravity bomb? Select one: a. Foam b. Dry chemicals c. Dry powder d. Water

d. Water

When entering a hazardous atmosphere, all ARFF personnel must wear: Select one: a. chemical protective clothing. b. proximity protective clothing. c. engine-indicating and crew-alert system (EICAS). d. a personal alert safety system (PASS).

d. a personal alert safety system (PASS).

An accidental discharge of chaff: Select one: a. can cause convulsions or death. b. can cause blindness. c. generates an amount of heat similar to aircraft engines. d. carries sufficient force to knock ARFF personnel down.

d. carries sufficient force to knock ARFF personnel down.

Composite aircraft structural materials can: Select one: a. release highly radioactive substances. b. cause rubber aircraft tires to burn. c. burn intensely as combustible metal components. d. cause asbestos-like respiratory damage.

d. cause asbestos-like respiratory damage.

An Air Driven Generator (ADG) or Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will often deploy forcefully from the fuselage or: Select one: a. cockpit. b. tail section. c. pitot tubes. d. engine nacelles.

d. engine nacelles.

Proximity fire fighting protective clothing is designed for close proximity exposures to: Select one: a. hazardous liquids. b. high pressure gases and liquids. c. hazardous chemicals. d. high radiant heat.

d. high radiant heat.

Hypergolic fuels are substances that: Select one: a. are preferred instead of aviation gas (AVGAS). b. prevent fuel from igniting and spreading. c. are primarily used on commercial or cargo aircraft. d. ignite spontaneously on contact with each other.

d. ignite spontaneously on contact with each other.

As a general rule, most dangerous goods on the main deck of a cargo aircraft are loaded: Select one: a. inside the cockpit of the aircraft. b. next to emergency egress points. c. as far away from the flight crew as possible. d. in the most forward location.

d. in the most forward location.

All aircraft accidents should be considered and treated as: Select one: a. combustible metal aircraft fires. b. structural or building fires. c. composite aircraft structural material fires. d. potential hazardous materials incidents.

d. potential hazardous materials incidents.

The Emergency Response Guidebook published by the US Department of Transportation (DOT) and Transport Canada (TC): Select one: a. must be contained on all aircraft. b. should be carried on all ARFF vehicles. c. can be used as documentation of dangerous goods. d. must be in the main entry door near the aircraft exit.

b. should be carried on all ARFF vehicles.

NFPA® 472 defines Class 8 dangerous goods as: Select one: a. oxidizing substances. b. explosives. c. corrosives. d. flammable solids.

c. corrosives.

What is a hazard that can arise when refueling an aircraft with a refueling vehicle? Select one: a. The fuel has a greater risk of leaking from a refueling vehicle. b. The refueling vehicle may become bonded to the ground. c. The two may be bonded with a conductive bonding cable. d. The static electricity between the two can ignite fuel vapors.

d. The static electricity between the two can ignite fuel vapors.

Which of the following is true of High Explosives (HEs)? Select one: a. ARFF personnel may have to dispose of explosives. b. They are a unique type of weapon. c. Pressed and cast HE react to fire similarly. d. They are present to some degree in all weapons.

d. They are present to some degree in all weapons.