Chapters 11-17 Combined: A&P Patton 11th Edition

List the six structures of long bones that are visible to the naked eye.

- Diaphysis -Epiphyses -Articular Cartilage -Periosteum -Medullary (marrow) cavity -Endosteum

Describe the two chemical components of the extracellular bone matrix.

- Inorganic Salts -Organic Matrix

Match each synovial joint structure term with its corresponding description. a) Articular cartilage b) Synovial membrane c) Joint cavity d) Menisci e) Joint capsule f) Ligaments g) Bursae a) Thin layer of cartilage covering the articulating surfaces of the bones b) Closed, pillowlike structures formed from synovial membrane c) Small space between two articulating bones d) Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule e) Pads of fibrocartilage between articulating bones f) Strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help stabilize a joint g) Sleevelike extension of the periosteum of each of the articulating bones in a joint

1-A 2-G 3-C 4-B 5-D 6-F 7-E

Matching: Match each bone structure with its corresponding description. a) Periosteum b) Endosteum c) Epiphyses d) Diaphysis e) Medullary cavity f) Articular cartilage 1) Thin membrane that lines a large cavity in long bones 2) Covers joint surfaces 3) Part of long bone to which tendons attach 4) Location of spongy bone in a long bone 5) Tubelike hollow space in long bones 6) Central shaft of long bones

1-B 2-F 3-A 4-C 5-E 6-D

Match each bone with its location: a) Frontal b) Hyoid c) Mandible d) Maxillae d) Occipital f) Palatine g) Sphenoid h) Temporal i) Zygomatic 1) Neck bone 2) Upper jaw 3) Cheek bone 4) Lower jaw 5) Forehead 6) Contains middle and inner ear structures 7) Lower, posterior skull bone 8) Bat-shaped skull bone 9) Posterior of hard palate

1-B 2-D 3-I 4-C 5-A 6-H 7-E 8-G 9-F

Match each bone with its corresponding bone marking. a)Ribs b) Sterrnum c) Vertebrae a) Xiphoid process b) Transverse process c) Costal cartilage

1-B 2_C 3-A

Match each microscopic bone structure with its corresponding description. a) Lacunae b) Central canal c) Canaliculi d) Trabeculae e) Lamellae f) Transverse canal 1) Little canals that connect areas of bone cells 2) Concentric rings of compact bone 3) Cavities in which bone cells are found 4) Contains blood vessels in living bone 5) Bone cells are found here in cancellous bone 6) Canals that connect parallel central canals

1-C 2-E 3-A 4-B 5-D 6-F

Match each bone with its corresponding bone marking: a) Femur b) Fibula c) Huerus d) Coxal e) Radius f) Scapula g) Tibia h) Ulna 1) Olecranon fossa 2) Acetabulum 3) Lateral Malleolus 4) Semilunar notch 5) Medial Malleolus 6) Glenoid Cavity 7) Radial Tuberosity 8) Greater Trochanter

1-C 2-D 3-B 4-H 5-G 6-F 7-E 8-A

Match each bone type with its corresponding description. a) Irregular bones b) Flat bones c) Sesamoid bones d) Short bones e) Long bones 1) Often described as cube-shaped or box-shaped 2) Bones that are found in tendons; the patella is an example 3) Often clustered in groups and come in various sizes and shapes; vertebrae are an example 4) Easily identified by their extended longitudinal axis; the femur is an example 5) Generally broad and thin with a flattened or curved surface; ribs are an example

1-D 2-C 3-A 4-E 5-B

Match each bone marking term with its corresponding description. a) Condyle b) Trochanter c) Fossa d) Sinuse. Ramusf. Sulcus g) Foramen h) Fissure 1) A curved portion of a bone 2) Large bump for muscle attachment 3) Rounded bump; usually fits into a fossa of another bone 4) Long, cracklike hole for blood vessels and nerves 5) Cavity within a bone 6) Depression; often receives an articulating bone 7) A groove or an elongated depression 8) Round hole for blood vessels and nerves

1-E 2-B 3-A 4-H 5-D 6-C 7-F 8-G

Match each of the following terms with its main action. a) Abduction b) Adduction c) Extension d) Flexion e) Pronation f) Supination 1) Turn the hand palm posteriorly 2) Increase the angle of a joint 3) Move the bone away from midline 4) Decrease the angle of a joint 5) Turn the palm anteriorly 6) Move the part toward the midline

1-E 2-C 3-A 4-D 5-F 6-B

Match each term with its corresponding definition. a) Body b) False ribs c) Floating ribs d) Manubrium e) True rib f) Xiphoid process g) Costal cartilage 1) First seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum 2) Eleventh and twelfth ribs, which have no attachment to the sternum 3) Middle part of the sternum 4) Most superior part of the sternum 5) The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum 6) The five pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum 7) The material that attaches the rib, directly or indirectly, to the sternum

1-E 2-C 3-A 4-D 5-F 6-B 7-G

ESSAY ANSWER: Describe the varying degrees of bone formation (ossification) and bone destruction (resorption) that occur from childhood to adulthood.

Embryogenesis

True Or False: 53. Bone tissue consists mostly of cells dispersed in a limited amount of matrix

False

True or False 107. T-tubules are found in all types of muscle tissue.

False

True or False 111. Rotation and circumduction are interchangeable terms.

False

True or False 26. The maintenance of body posture depends only on skeletal muscles and bones.

False

True or False 94. To stabilize a joint, the antagonist must contract while the prime mover contracts.

False

True or False: 100. The orbicularis oris surrounds the eye and allows you to blink.

False

True or False: 100. The thumb contains the only saddle joint in the body—the joint between the metacarpal bone and the proximal phalange.

False

True or False: 101. If you were examining the skull, the sphenoid and occipital bones would be less visible than the frontal and ethmoid bones.

False

True or False: 101. The masseter and temporalis muscle are muscles of mastication that have opposite functions.

False

True or False: 103. Because of the instability of the glenoid cavity and humerus, one of the strongest ligaments in the body is found surrounding the shoulder.

False

True or False: 103. Endurance training usually results in muscle hypertrophy.

False

True or False: 103. The extrinsic muscles of the tongue attach to the base of the mandible.

False

True or False: 104. All the bones of the vertebral column have a vertebral foramen except the bones that make up the coccyx.

False

True or False: 104. The internal oblique muscle is the deepest muscle in the abdominal wall.

False

True or False: 105. Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle in that both form strong, electrically coupled junctions with other fibers.

False

True or False: 107. Plantar flexion is a movement that applies only to the hands and feet.

False

True or False: 109. It is recommended that joint replacement surgery be done on younger people rather than older people because they are better able to tolerate the procedure.

False

True or False: 111. Muscle pain may also be referred to as muscular dystrophy.

False

True or False: 112. Twisting the forearm so that the thumb points medially is called supination.

False

True or False: 114. Although sutures are classified as immovable joints, the flexibility of the ligaments holding the bone together do allow for some movement.

False

True or False: 115. Ligaments are associated only with synovial joints.

False

True or False: 115. The thin myofilament is myosin, whereas the thick myofilament is actin.

False

True or False: 116. Hyaline cartilage is associated only with synovial joints.

False

True or False: 118. Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin are present on the thick myofilament.

False

True or False: 118. There is only one saddle joint in the body.

False

True or False: 119. The humerus, the scapula, and the clavicle make up the joint usually referred to as the shoulder joint.

False

True or False: 122. Oxygen molecules in the sarcoplasm are bound to the troponin molecule.

False

True or False: 122. The structural classification of a joint describes the type of movement the joint allows.

False

True or False: 124. Isometric contraction is a contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same, but the length of the muscle changes.

False

True or False: 125. The glenoidal labrum is the part of the hip joint that reinforces the acetabulum.

False

True or False: 125. The shorter a muscle before contraction, the more tension it will be able to generate.

False

True or False: 127. The anabolism of protein by muscle cells produces heat for the body.

False

True or False: 127. The intercarpal joints occur at the points of articulation between the bones of the ankle.

False

True or False: 128. A sprained ankle is most often caused by a severe external rotation of the ankle joint.

False

True or False: 129. The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells is identical to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in other cells.

False

True or False: 129. When a person is standing on her toes, dorsiflexion of the foot has occurred.

False

True or False: 131. Most of the symphysis joints in the body are in the appendicular skeleton.

False

True or False: 132. The ranking of joints from most movement to least movement would be synarthroses, amphiarthroses, and diarthroses.

False

True or False: 134. The A-band in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only actin.

False

True or False: 134. The true ribs form cartilaginous joints with the sternum.

False

True or False: 135. A projection of one bone that articulates with a ring in another bone describes a condyloid joint.

False

True or False: 136. When the sarcomere contracts, the A-bands become smaller.

False

True or False: 138. The joints between the radius and carpal bones are examples of gliding joints.

False

True or False: 138. When troponin and calcium combine, it causes actin to shift and allows the myosin to form cross-bridges.

False

True or False: 139. Because hinge joints can be involved in both flexion and extension, they are considered biaxial joints.

False

True or False: 139. Because of the elasticity of the muscle fiber, as soon as the contraction stops, the sarcomere goes back to its precontraction length.

False

True or False: 141. The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen.

False

True or False: 143. Only the ulna articulates with the bones of the wrists.

False

True or False: 143. The release of calcium by the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins the contraction phase of a twitch contraction.

False

True or False: 144. Tetanus will not occur in an individual with an up-to-date tetanus vaccination.

False

True or False: 146. Maintaining muscle tone is one of the few examples of a positive-feedback mechanism in the body.

False

True or False: 147. The terms inversion and eversion apply to movements of the hand.

False

True or False: 148. The longer the initial length of a muscle, the stronger the contraction of that muscle can be.

False

True or False: 150. Because the heart is in almost constant contraction, its muscle cells have larger sarcoplasmic reticula that can hold higher concentrations of calcium ions.

False

True or False: 153. Muscle cells are called fibers, because they are long and thin. They can be 40 mm long but only about 10 mm in diameter.

False

True or False: 156. Cardiac muscles require a stimulus from a motor neuron to contract, just as striated muscles do.

False

True or False: 158. In smooth muscle cells, the protein calmodulin takes the place of the sarcoplasmic reticulum found in striated muscle cells.

False

True or False: 160. When a muscle contracts, the muscle always becomes shorter.

False

True or False: 162. Only striated and cardiac muscles have triads; smooth muscles do not contain T-tubules.

False

True or False: 165. When the muscle looks "at rest," the ATP has already transferred its energy to the actin fiber.

False

True or False: 166. The aerobic catabolic pathway that can supply energy to muscle cells is called fermentation.

False

True or False: 168. There are two types of isometric contractions: concentric contractions and eccentric contractions.

False

True or False: 172. Multiunit smooth muscle is more common in the body than single-unit smooth muscle.

False

True or False: 177. The pituitary gland is responsible for the homeostatic control of body temperature.

False

True or False: 178. Shivering in response to a drop in body temperature is an example of a positive-feedback mechanism in the body.

False

True or False: 179. Each motor neuron in the motor unit is able to stimulate as many as two dozen muscle fibers.

False

True or False: 180. The three phases of muscle contraction are contraction, relaxation, and recovery.

False

True or False: 182. In the "warmed up" muscle, the calcium ions are able to be completely returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

False

True or False: 19. The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle.

False

True or False: 21. The only bone of the wrist that is evident from the outside is the lunate.

False

True or False: 22. Intrinsic foot muscles are responsible for movement of the ankle and foot.

False

True or False: 23. The largest of the bones making up the innominate bone is the ischium.

False

True or False: 25. One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe.

False

True or False: 25. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists.

False

True or False: 26. Young children's bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone.

False

True or False: 28. The circulatory system is responsible for muscle tone.

False

True or False: 32. Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.

False

True or False: 32. To give stability to the shoulder, both the clavicle and scapula have very limited movement.

False

True or False: 36. Extrinsic muscles of the hand originate in the wrist.

False

True or False: 37. Muscles that move the thigh and lower leg can be divided into two groups, muscles that come from the hips and those that come from the gluteal muscles.

False

True or False: 38. Four muscles, the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor, make up what is called the rotator cuff around the shoulder.

False

True or False: 41. The insertion is that point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts.

False

True or False: 42. The shoulder girdle consists of the sternum, the clavicle, and the scapula.

False

True or False: 43. The direction of the fibers composing a muscle is not significant to its function.

False

True or False: 44. Tipping the head back on its atlas is an example of a third-class lever.

False

True or False: 45. Convergent muscles are said to be "featherlike" in appearance.

False

True or False: 46. Muscles usually act singly as a prime mover.

False

True or False: 48. A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers.

False

True or False: 51. Muscles usually originate distal to the point of insertion.

False

True or False: 51. The epiphyses consist mostly of compact bone, usually with yellow marrow in the center.

False

True or False: 53. Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles elevates the ribs.

False

True or False: 54. The term margin, as it relates to bone markings, means a tubelike opening or channel.

False

True or False: 56. Groups of muscle cells held together by the perimysium are called fascia

False

True or False: 56. The upper extremities and the lower extremities are subdivisions of the axial skeleton.

False

True or False: 60. A symphysis is a joint in which bones are connected by fibrous bands.

False

True or False: 60. The skeletal muscles are unique because they are the only organs made up of one kind of tissue.

False

True or False: 61. Fontanels are immovable joints between skull bones.

False

True or False: 61. Syndesmosis joints have hyaline cartilage at articular surfaces.

False

True or False: 62. Muscle can have only one origin attachment and one insertion attachment.

False

True or False: 62. Synchondrosis joints between the ribs and sternum allow for expansion of the chest cavity during breathing.

False

True or False: 63. The five sacral vertebrae remain separate until about 40 years of age; at that point they fuse to form one wedge-shaped bone.

False

True or False: 65. Menisci are found in all synovial joints.

False

True or False: 65. The maxilla and the temporal bone form the only movable joint within the structure of the face.

False

True or False: 66. Menisci are pillowlike structures formed of synovial membranes filled with synovial fluid.

False

True or False: 66. The lacrimal bone contains grooves for the paranasal sinuses.

False

True or False: 67. An immovable joint in the skull is called a fontanel.

False

True or False: 67. Hinge joints permit adduction and abduction.

False

True or False: 68. Muscle cells have one nucleus and one mitochondrion.

False

True or False: 71. Costal cartilage provides cushions between the bodies of vertebrae.

False

True or False: 71. The following are characteristics that allow muscles to function as they do: excitability, contractility, extensibility, and regulation.

False

True or False: 72. A gliding joint is a form of uniaxial joint.

False

True or False: 72. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

False

True or False: 72. The fascia found on the surface of the muscle is called the superficial fascia.

False

True or False: 72. The tubercle of each rib articulates with the vertebra's body.

False

True or False: 74. Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis.

False

True or False: 74. The difference between a tendon and an aponeurosis is that a tendon is composed of connective tissue and an aponeurosis is composed of muscle tissue.

False

True or False: 75. If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the insertion point is above the knee and the origin point is below the knee.

False

True or False: 76. The number of bones in the skeleton is constant from person to person.

False

True or False: 79. Anaerobic respiration is the first choice of the muscle cell for the production of ATP.

False

True or False: 79. In a second-class lever, the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and the load.

False

True or False: 81. The medial and lateral menisci form cushions for the head of the femur as it articulates with the acetabulum.

False

True or False: 82. At rest, troponin covers the active sites on the actin molecules.

False

True or False: 82. The rectus abdominis is an example of a bipennate muscle.

False

True or False: 83. A compound that mimics the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would cause muscles to become flaccid.

False

True or False: 83. Compared with the knee joint, the hip joint is relatively unprotected by surrounding muscles.

False

True or False: 83. The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone.

False

True or False: 84. The hip joint is the largest and most vulnerable joint.

False

True or False: 84. The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a fusiform muscle.

False

True or False: 85. The epimysium is deep to the perimysium.

False

True or False: 85. When sarcomeres shorten, myofibrils also shorten.

False

True or False: 86. The joints between carpal bones are synarthrotic.

False

True or False: 87. Slow fibers are also called white fibers, because they contain a low concentration of myoglobin.

False

True or False: 87. The type of arthritis associated with intemperate use of alcohol is rheumatoid arthritis.

False

True or False: 88. An arthroscopy is an examination of joints with x-ray studies.

False

True or False: 88. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads

False

True or False: 89. A joint must allow movement between two bones to be called a joint.

False

True or False: 89. Muscles make up about 30% to 40% of our body weight.

False

True or False: 89. The more precise the muscle movement, the greater the number of muscle fibers activated by a motor neuron.

False

True or False: 90. All fibrous joints are completely fixed joints.

False

True or False: 90. The bones of the skull form only sutures (immovable joints), not movable joints.

False

True or False: 91. Flexibility of the tendons allows for some movement of syndesmotic joints.

False

True or False: 91. Smooth, sustained contractions are called treppe.

False

True or False: 91. Tendon sheaths that surround certain tendons have a lining of slick epithelial membrane that reduces friction.

False

True or False: 92. In psychological muscle fatigue, an individual cannot contract his or her muscles.

False

True or False: 92. The palatine bones have horizontal portions that are part of the hard palate.

False

True or False: 93. During childbirth, the hyaline cartilage in the symphysis pubis allows for some slight movement.

False

True or False: 93. Muscles with less-than-normal tone are described as in tetanus.

False

True or False: 93. The sartorius is an example of a unipennate muscle

False

True or False: 93. The vomer bone forms immovable joints with four other bones—the sphenoid, the palatine, the ethmoid, and the frontal.

False

True or False: 94. During an isotonic contraction, the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle.

False

True or False: 94. False ribs attach only to the thoracic vertebrae.

False

True or False: 96. A tetanic contraction is stimulated by a single stimulus.

False

True or False: 96. The maxilla is the largest and strongest bone of the face.

False

True or False: 96. When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is directly under the belly of the muscle.

False

True or False: 97. Skeletal muscle organs contract on the all-or-none principle.

False

True or False: 98. The gomphosis joint is the most complex joint in the body.

False

True or False: 98. The skull is divided into two major divisions, the cranium and the brain case.

False

True or False: 98. Treppe is a steep increase in the strength of contractions that can be seen in a series of twitch contractions.

False

True or False: 99. The occipitofrontalis muscle is actually three muscles.

False

True or False: A "pulled elbow" is more common in older adults, because the disk-shaped head of the radius begins to erode away.

False

True or False: After birth, the amount of cartilage in the body increases.

False

True or False: All the lamellae in compact bone are found to be part of the osteon.

False

True or False: Although bones are the main organs of the skeletal system, the system also includes ligaments and tendons.

False

True or False: Another name for compact bone is cancellous bone.

False

True or False: Articular cartilage can be defined as a layer of elastic cartilage that covers the joint surface.

False

True or False: Because bone building and bone resorption must be balanced, there are usually an equal number of osteoblasts and osteoclasts in a bone.

False

True or False: Because bone is connective tissue, a fractured bone will never heal and be as strong as before the fracture.

False

True or False: Because each bone has a specific function, it is made of either all compact or all spongy bone

False

True or False: Because of repeated wear and tear, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than people who exercise less often.

False

True or False: Bones of the appendicular skeleton form the brain case and vertebral column.

False

True or False: Both cartilage and bone contain living cells and are vascular tissues.

False

True or False: Both compact and spongy, or cancellous, bone have canaliculi.

False

True or False: Both growth hormone and the neurotransmitter serotonin can stimulate bone growth.

False

True or False: Both membrane and endochondral bone grow by interior expansion.

False

True or False: Calcitonin is a protein hormone produced by the pituitary gland that helps regulate blood calcium levels.

False

True or False: Canaliculi are small openings in the lamella where bone cells are found. Compact Bone p. 216 p. 216

False

True or False: Chondroitin is an amino sugar that is important in cartilage formation.

False

True or False: Due to continuous stress on the bone, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than do more sedentary people.

False

True or False: During childhood and adolescence, ossification and bone resorption occur at equal rates.

False

True or False: Fibrillation is a tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle.

False

True or False: Flat bones differ from short bones in that flat bones have an inner portion of cancellous bone covered on the outside with compact bone.

False

True or False: Haversian systems are found only in cancellous bone.

False

True or False: In an infant's or child's body, virtually all of the bones contain yellow marrow.

False

True or False: In endochondral ossification, the primary ossification centers are found in the epiphyses and the secondary ossification centers are found in the diaphysis.

False

True or False: Initially, endochondral bone grows from the epiphyses toward the diaphysis.

False

True or False: Internal table is the term used to describe the spongy bone on the interior of the skull.

False

True or False: Interstitial growth of cartilage most often occurs during adulthood.

False

True or False: Lamellae and lacunae are interchangeable terms.

False

True or False: Most of the facial bones are single (unpaired) bones.

False

True or False: Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are called spastic

False

True or False: Myofibrils make up myofilaments.

False

True or False: Myosin filaments attach to the Z disk.

False

True or False: Osteoblasts secrete the inorganic salts that make up the structure of bone.

False

True or False: Osteoclasts are nondividing osteoblasts that have become surrounded by matrix and lie within lacunae.

False

True or False: Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are of equal importance in regulating the calcium level of the blood.

False

True or False: Parathyroid hormone is released when blood calcium levels are too high.

False

True or False: Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of osteoclasts in the bone.

False

True or False: Red marrow is found only in long bones.

False

True or False: Rigor mortis occurs because of damage done to the sarcolemma after death.

False

True or False: Short bones are made up of only spongy bone.

False

True or False: The blood-making function of bone is carried out by yellow marrow or myeloid tissue in the medullary cavity.

False

True or False: The body contains more spongy bone than it does compact bone.

False

True or False: The cartilage rings in the trachea and the tip of the nose are elastic cartilage.

False

True or False: The components of the inorganic matrix maintain the smooth surface and springy consistency of the bone.

False

True or False: The dens is found on the first cervical vertebra, or atlas.

False

True or False: The endosteum is necessary for bone healing and bone remodeling.

False

True or False: The epiphyseal plate is composed of three layers of cells.

False

True or False: The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones

False

True or False: The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones.

False

True or False: The fracture hematoma is the last stage in the healing of a bone.

False

True or False: The hardness of bone is related to its two major mineral components—calcium and iron.

False

True or False: The inner circumferential lamellae can be found directly under the periosteum.

False

True or False: The inorganic salts that make up the bone matrix are equally divided between hydroxyapatite and calcium carbonate.

False

True or False: The lesser trochanter is a marking of the tibia.

False

True or False: The olecranon and coronoid fossae are markings of the scapula.

False

True or False: The patella or kneecap is the only sesamoid bone ever found in the human body.

False

True or False: The periosteum is a connective tissue membrane that lines the medullary cavity.

False

True or False: The subpubic angle is wider in the male than it is in the female.

False

True or False: The tensile strength of bone is nearly equal to that of cast iron, but much lighter.

False

True or False: The thyroid gland produces the parathyroid hormone, which is the major regulator of blood calcium homeostasis.

False

True or False: The ulna bone is on the thumb side of the forearm.

False

True or False: The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones.

False

True or False: There are six categories of synovial joints between the bones of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers.

False

True or False: There are three high-energy bonds in an ATP molecule.

False

True or False: Transverse canals are located in the center of the osteon.

False

True or False: Weight-bearing exercises will tend to increase the likelihood of osteoporosis in the elderly.

False

True or False: When a compact bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by forming wider osteons to help better distribute the stress.

False

True or False: When the knee is flexed, the patella can be easily distinguished.

False

True or False: 58. Fascia is another term for epimysium.

False

True or False: 70. The two muscle layers of the anterior and lateral abdominal wall have fibers running in different directions.

False

ESSAY QUESTION: Explain how the body regulates the calcium level in the blood. Discuss the activities of both hormones involved and where each is made. What problems might occur in the body if the calcium level were too low?

If Calcium Levels Are Too High: I-f the Calcium levels in the blood rise above a certain set point, the Thyroid gland releases Calcitonin, which brings down calcium levels by blocking the breakdown of bone calcium and preventing your kidneys from reabsorbing calcium. In other words, it encourages calcium loss through your kidneys. If Calcium Levels Are Too Low: -If the calcium levels fall below a set point, parathyroid glands in the thyroid release parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases calcium levels in the blood by decreasing phosphate reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule. Phosphate ions in the serum form salts with calcium that are insoluble, resulting in decreased plasm calcium. The reduction of phosphate ions, therefore, results in more ionized calcium in the blood. Short Answer: -When calcium levels are too high, the thyroid releases Calcitonin, which lowers blood calcium levels. When calcium levels are too low, the Parathyroid Gland releases Parathyroid Hormone, which increases blood calcium levels. What problems might occur if blood calcium levels are too low? -Muscle cramps -Muscle aches -Tingling in your lips, tongue, fingers and/or feet -Neurologic of psychologic symptoms such as confusion, memory loss, delirium, depression, and hallucinations -Muscle spasms in your throat making it difficult to breathe (laryngospasm)

ESSAY QUESTION: Dr. Haney, an orthopedic surgeon, called the admissions office of a hospital and advised that he would be admitting a patient with an epiphyseal fracture. Without any other information, the patient was assigned to the pediatric floor. What prompted this assignment?

Only children have an epiphyseal plate

Compare and contrast osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes.

Osteocytes: -Bone cells that are responsible for maintaining bone matrix -Mature cells -Formed from osteoblasts -Main function is maintenance of the bone matrix -Reside in the lacunae (inside of the bone) -Characteristically have projections Osteoblasts: -Bone cells that are responsible for bone formation -Are immature cells -Formed from stem cells (osteogenic stem cells) -Main function is bone formation -Found on the surface of new bones -Do not have projections -Mononucleated cells -Small cells -Become Osteocytes -Possess receptors for Parathyroid Hormone -Mediate the activities of osteoclasts by releasing cytokines -Develop from osteogenic cells Osteoclasts: -Another type of bone cells that dissolve bone -Cannot mediate the activity of osteoblasts -Do not possess receptors for PTH -Promote bone breakdown -Do not become osteocytes -Large Cells -Multinucleated cells -Developed from monocytes or macrophages

ESSAY QUETION: Emma, an elderly white woman, noticed that she was half an inch shorter than she was at her last doctor's visit. Her doctor suggested that she begin a regimen of dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D. What bone disease did the doctor suspect? What would the prescribed treatment do for this condition?

Osteoporosis (which is more common in elderly white women). Treatments include: - healthy diet -Exercise -Medication/Supplements such as calcium and vitamin D. Treatment for osteoporosis helps to strengthen weak bones and prevent more bone loss

ESSAY QUESTION: Growth hormone can be given to people to increase their height. This requires rapid bone growth. If a young adult wants to be given growth hormone, x-ray films will be taken of his or her skeleton. What is the physician looking for, and how would it affect the decision to give or withhold growth hormone?

The physician is looking to see if the growth plates (epiphyseal plates) are still open. Being that rapid growth is required for successful Growth Hormone Therapy, seeing whether or not the growth plates are still open (indicating whether or not the child is done growing) help the physician to determine whether to give or withhold growth hormone Closed growth plates =no growth hormone Open growth plates = growth hormone

True Or False: 52. Bone Structure of Long Bonestissue is also called osseous tissue.

True

True or False 108. In visceral smooth muscle, gap junctions join individual smooth muscle fibers into large, continuous sheets.

True

True or False 137. The occipital bone's joint with the atlas is an example of a condyloid joint.

True

True or False 176. Because the process of catabolism is less than 100% efficient, some of the energy is given off as heat.

True

True or False: 100. The frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones all contain paranasal sinuses.

True

True or False: 100. The study of muscle activity is called myography.

True

True or False: 101. The graded strength principle states that skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times.

True

True or False: 101. The shallowness of the glenoid cavity makes the shoulder a rather unstable joint.

True

True or False: 102. As resistance increases, the number of motor units needed to overcome that resistance has to increase.

True

True or False: 102. In a newborn, the face is a much smaller part of the skull than it is in an adult.

True

True or False: 102. The depth of the acetabulum gives stability to the hip joint.

True

True or False: 102. The muscles that move the head are paired muscles on opposite sides of the body

True

True or False: 103. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and flattens, which increases the size of the thoracic cavity allowing air to enter the lungs.

True

True or False: 104. Convulsions are abnormal, uncoordinated tetanic contractions of varying groups of muscles.

True

True or False: 104. The iliofemoral ligament, which helps stabilize the hip, is one of the strongest ligaments in the body.

True

True or False: 105. The linea alba is a band of connective tissue that runs over the rectus abdominis from the xiphoid process to the pubis.

True

True or False: 105. When a joint is in anatomical position, a goniometer should read 0.

True

True or False: 106. Both the interspinales and the multifidus groups are muscles of the back.

True

True or False: 106. If you are standing up and looking straight up toward the sky, your cervical spine will be hyperextended.

True

True or False: 107. The two levator ani and coccygeus muscles form most of the pelvic floor.

True

True or False: 108. Arthroplasty is the total or partial replacement of a joint with a prosthesis.

True

True or False: 108. The main function of the trapezius muscle is to move the scapulae.

True

True or False: 109. A satellite cell can fuse with myocytes during strength training to make larger muscle fibers.

True

True or False: 110. Myocyte is another term for a muscle cell.

True

True or False: 110. Plantar flexion of the foot can also be described as extension of the leg.

True

True or False: 112. Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) muscular dystrophy is the most common type of muscular dystrophy.

True

True or False: 113. A motor neuron is considered part of the neuromuscular junction.

True

True or False: 113. The periodontal membrane is part of a fibrous joint.

True

True or False: 114. Cramps are painful, involuntary muscle spasms.

True

True or False: 116. Skeletal muscle has a great ability to stretch.

True

True or False: 117. Muscle cells produce heat by the process of catabolism.

True

True or False: 117. The only gomphosis joints in the body are found above the neck.

True

True or False: 119. One I-band resides within two sarcomeres

True

True or False: 120. An example of a structural classification of a joint would be a fibrous joint.

True

True or False: 121. An example of a structural classification of a joint would be an amphiarthrotic joint.

True

True or False: 123. Myoglobin gives red muscle fibers their red color.

True

True or False: 126. Muscles with less tone than normal are described as flaccid.

True

True or False: 126. The annular ligament is the ligament that helps connect the ulna and radius.

True

True or False: 128. Excitability and irritability are interchangeable terms in regard to muscle cells.

True

True or False: 130. A soldier standing at attention would have his arms fully adducted.

True

True or False: 130. T-tubules are formed by an inward extension of the sarcolemma.

True

True or False: 131. The sarcoplasmic reticulum continually pumps calcium ions out of the sarcoplasm and stores them in sacs.

True

True or False: 133. There are no gomphosis joints in the appendicular skeleton.

True

True or False: 135. The motor end plate is part of the neuromuscular junction.

True

True or False: 136. Ball-and-socket joints are multiaxial joints.

True

True or False: 137. When the sarcomere contracts, the I-bands become smaller.

True

True or False: 140. Myosin heads detach from the actin molecule when ATP attaches to it.

True

True or False: 140. There are four bursae in the shoulder joint.

True

True or False: 142. An accumulation of lactate in the muscle is the result of an oxygen debt.

True

True or False: 144. The intercarpal joints are arranged in two rows of four bones each.

True

True or False: 145. Contraction of a small fraction of the total number of fibers in a muscle produces muscle tone.

True

True or False: 145. The saddle joint allows for a unique movement called opposition.

True

True or False: 146. The gliding movement is the simplest of all movements.

True

True or False: 147. Recruitment is the term used to describe the addition of more motor units to allow a muscle to increase its strength of contraction.

True

True or False: 148. Closing one's mouth would be an example of the movement of elevation

True

True or False: 149. Cardiac fibers form a continuous electrically coupled mass called a syncytium.

True

True or False: 151. Smooth muscle can contract to shorter lengths than skeletal muscles.

True

True or False: 152. When smooth muscles have rhythmic contractions called peristalsis, they are able to move food through the digestive tract.

True

True or False: 154. T-tubules are unique to muscle cells.

True

True or False: 155. The liver has the ability to convert lactate back into glucose.

True

True or False: 157. In smooth muscle cells, the calcium needed for contraction comes from outside the cell rather than from inside the cell as it does in striated muscle contraction.

True

True or False: 159. Skeletal muscles produce a major share of the heat generated by the body.

True

True or False: 161. Muscle fibers have many nuclei, because they are the result of several precursor cells joining together to make a mature muscle fiber.

True

True or False: 163. The primary function of tropomyosin and troponin is to prevent a muscle from contracting.

True

True or False: 164. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that stimulates muscle contraction.

True

True or False: 167. A muscle using anaerobic respiration would lower the pH of the blood passing through the muscle.

True

True or False: 169. Eccentric muscle contractions actually result in the lengthening of the muscle.

True

True or False: 170. The term striated involuntary muscle refers to cardiac muscle.

True

True or False: 175. Muscle has the ability to store oxygen in myoglobin and store glucose as glycogen.

True

True or False: 18. The shoulder girdle consists of only the scapula and the clavicle.

True

True or False: 181. During the latent period of muscle contraction, the impulse is transmitted from the sarcolemma to the sarcomere.

True

True or False: 182. In the "warmed up" muscle, the calcium ions are able to be completely returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

True

True or False: 185. The T-tubules in the heart form dyads rather than the triads found in skeletal muscles.

True

True or False: 186. The result of endurance training is more blood vessels, not more muscle cells.

True

True or False: 20. Palpable bony landmarks are bones that can be touched and identified through the skin.

True

True or False: 21. The deltoid is an example of a multifunction muscle.

True

True or False: 22. Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens.

True

True or False: 23. The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus.

True

True or False: 24. The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the body.

True

True or False: 24. The soleus muscle is responsible for plantar flexion.

True

True or False: 27. Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint.

True

True or False: 27. Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity.

True

True or False: 29. Poor posture puts abnormal strain on bones and may eventually produce deformities.

True

True or False: 30. With aging, connective tissue replaces some muscle fibers, causing decreased muscle strength.

True

True or False: 31. The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.

True

True or False: 33. Both the pectoralis minor and the serratus anterior help hold or "fix" the scapula in place.

True

True or False: 34. Lumbrical muscles are examples of intrinsic muscles of the hand.

True

True or False: 35. An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture.

True

True or False: 35. Muscles that move the forearm are found proximal to the elbow.

True

True or False: 36. The two bones of the lower arm are the ulna and radius, and the two bones of the lower leg are the tibia and fibula.

True

True or False: 39. The main difference between the male and female skeleton has to do with childbearing.

True

True or False: 39. There are more than 600 muscles in the body.

True

True or False: 40. When a muscle contracts, the bone moved is the bone of insertion.

True

True or False: 42. Tendons are continuous with the layer of connective tissue called the epimysium.

True

True or False: 47. In a lever system, the fixed pivot around which the rod moves is called the fulcrum.

True

True or False: 49. The gluteus muscles are examples of muscles that are named by location. Second-Class Levers

True

True or False: 50. In muscle terminology, the term rectus means straight.

True

True or False: 52. The muscles of facial expression are unique in that at least one of their points of attachment is to the deep layers of skin over the face or neck.

True

True or False: 53. The adult skeleton consists of about 206 separate bones.

True

True or False: 54. Just as individual bones are the organs of the skeletal system, individual muscles are the organs of the muscular system.

True

True or False: 55. Muscle cells and muscle fibers are interchangeable terms.

True

True or False: 57. Mastoiditis, if untreated, may lead to inflammation of the brain or of its coverings.

True

True or False: 57. Tendons and aponeuroses are both fibrous tissue extending from a muscle.

True

True or False: 58. The two maxillae together serve as the keystone in the architecture of the face.

True

True or False: 59. Fascia is a general term for the fibrous connective tissue found under the skin and around muscle.

True

True or False: 59. The lacrimal bones contain openings for the tear ducts.

True

True or False: 60. Just as the maxillae do, the mandible starts out as two separate bones.

True

True or False: 61. Most muscles span a joint.

True

True or False: 62. The hyoid is unique in that it is the only bone in the body that does not form a joint with any other bone.

True

True or False: 63. All synovial joints have an enclosed cavity with a lubricating fluid.

True

True or False: 63. That which is considered the origin and insertion of a muscle may change under certain circumstances.

True

True or False: 64. Agonists and prime movers are interchangeable terms.

True

True or False: 64. Damage to the cribriform plate may also injure the olfactory nerves and cause a loss of the sense of smell.

True

True or False: 64. Extensions of periosteum form a capsule around synovial joints.

True

True or False: 65. Antagonist muscles oppose the movement of the agonist muscle.

True

True or False: 66. Myofibrils contain several sarcomeres lined up end to end.

True

True or False: 67. Another name for muscle cells is muscle fibers.

True

True or False: 68. No muscles are both muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication.

True

True or False: 68. The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the xiphoid process.

True

True or False: 68. The joint between the metatarsals and the phalanges is a hinge-type joint.

True

True or False: 69. A pivot joint is a form of uniaxial joint.

True

True or False: 69. If one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles contracts, it causes a different movement than if both of them contract.

True

True or False: 69. Muscle fibers of skeletal muscle contain several nuclei.

True

True or False: 70. A triad consists of a T-tubule sandwiched between sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

True

True or False: 70. Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into a depression on another bone.

True

True or False: 71. Movement is one of the most distinctive and easily observed "characteristics of life."

True

True or False: 71. The fibrocartilage pads between the articulating ends of bones may be called menisci.

True

True or False: 73. As a group, gliding joints are the least movable of the synovial joints.

True

True or False: 73. Tendons anchor muscles to bone by attaching to the periosteum of the bone.

True

True or False: 73. The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is called myosin.

True

True or False: 74. A neuromuscular junction is a type of connection called a synapse.

True

True or False: 75. A goniometer is an instrument used to measure the range of motion of a joint.

True

True or False: 75. The sliding-filament theory is the current model of muscle contraction.

True

True or False: 76. If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the origin point is above the knee and the insertion point is below the knee.

True

True or False: 76. Muscle fibers use creatine phosphate to restore their ATP population.

True

True or False: 76. Total hip replacement is the most common orthopedic operation performed on older persons in the United States.

True

True or False: 77. ATP is made up of adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups.

True

True or False: 77. Eversion turns the sole of the foot outward.

True

True or False: 77. Fixator muscles would most likely be found at the origin points of muscles rather than at the insertion points of muscles.

True

True or False: 77. There are more bones in the appendicular skeleton than in the axial skeleton.

True

True or False: 78. Hemoglobin carries oxygen in red blood cells, and myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle fibers.

True

True or False: 78. In a first-class lever, the fulcrum lies between the pull and the load.

True

True or False: 78. Infectious material can accumulate in the air space within the mastoid bone, because it does not drain into the nose like other sinuses.

True

True or False: 78. When a man sticks out his jaw, he has protracted it.

True

True or False: 79. The acetabulum is a deep, cuplike socket, whereas the glenoid cavity is shallow and saucer-shaped.

True

True or False: 80. The hip joint permits flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction.

True

True or False: 80. There are more than twice as many muscles as there are bones in the body.

True

True or False: 81. Circular muscles are sometimes called sphincter muscles.

True

True or False: 82. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments add stability to the knee joint.

True

True or False: 82. The joint connecting the two parietal bones and the frontal bone is called the coronal suture.

True

True or False: 83. The deltoid muscle is an example of a multipennate muscle.

True

True or False: 84. Myosin filaments interact with actin filaments during muscle contraction.

True

True or False: 84. The sagittal suture joins the right and left parietal bones.

True

True or False: 85. A "slipped disk" is the result of deterioration of the nucleus pulposus

True

True or False: 86. A fixator muscle can be seen as another type of synergist muscle.

True

True or False: 86. For continued, efficient nutrient catabolism by muscle fibers, both glucose and oxygen are required.

True

True or False: 87. The deltoid is an example of a muscle named by its shape.

True

True or False: 87. The number of thoracic vertebra is the same as the number of ribs.

True

True or False: 88. A motor neuron plus the muscle fibers to which it attaches is called a motor unit.

True

True or False: 88. The xiphoid process and the manubrium are at opposite ends of the sternum.

True

True or False: 89. The parietal bone is involved in three sutures—the lambdoidal, the squamous, and the coronal.

True

True or False: 90. A group of skeletal muscle fibers is called a fascicle.

True

True or False: 90. Muscles contract more forcefully after they have contracted a few times.

True

True or False: 91. Although the mandible seems to be one bone, it is the result of a fusion of two bones in infancy.

True

True or False: 92. Fontanels become sutures.

True

True or False: 92. The pectoralis major is an example of a convergent muscle.

True

True or False: 94. The "joints" between the epiphyses and diaphysis in a developing bone can be classified as synchondrosis joints.

True

True or False: 95. A synergist muscle can be defined as a muscle that facilitates or complements the prime mover.

True

True or False: 95. Most symphyses are located in the midline of the body.

True

True or False: 95. The degree of a muscle's strength is influenced by many factors, including its metabolic condition and number of motor units recruited.

True

True or False: 95. The frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones are all considered cranial bones.

True

True or False: 96. The vertebral column contains both cartilaginous joints and synovial joints.

True

True or False: 97. The cheek is shaped by the zygomatic bone underlying it.

True

True or False: 97. There are more synovial joints in the body than any other type of joint.

True

True or False: 97. When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is usually distal to the belly of the muscle.

True

True or False: 98. Muscles are sometimes named to reflect their function.

True

True or False: 99. The elbow and the dens of the axis are both part of a uniaxial joint.

True

True or False: 99. The top of the skull is also called the calvaria.

True

True or False: 99. The type of contraction exhibited by normal skeletal muscles most of the time is called tetanus.

True

True or False: A major difference between bone tissue and cartilage is the makeup of the matrix.

True

True or False: A spheroid joint is another name for a ball-and-socket joint.

True

True or False: An articulation is a point of contact between bones.

True

True or False: An important part of the bone matrix is a mixture of protein and polysaccharide called ground substance.

True

True or False: Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes in the deep layer of the perichondrium begin to divide and secrete additional matrix.

True

True or False: Bones are the organs of the skeletal system.

True

True or False: Calcitonin is released when the blood calcium levels are too high.

True

True or False: Callus tissue binds the broken ends of a fractured bone.

True

True or False: Chondroitin sulfate is an important compound in ground substance.

True

True or False: First- and second-class levers are not as common in the body as third-class levers.

True

True or False: Haversian systems are found only in compact bone.

True

True or False: Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body.

True

True or False: Hydroxyapatite consists of highly specialized chemical crystals of calcium and phosphate.

True

True or False: In an adult who is anemic or has been exposed to radiation or toxic chemicals, yellow bone marrow can become red bone marrow again.

True

True or False: In the lower leg, the tibia is larger than the fibula.

True

True or False: In young children, vitamin A and protein deficiency can cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones

True

True or False: Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models.

True

True or False: Most of the matrix in bone is composed of inorganic rather than organic material.

True

True or False: Myeloid tissue is another name for bone marrow.

True

True or False: One effect of parathyroid hormone is stimulation of vitamin D activity to increase absorption of calcium by the intestines.

True

True or False: One function of bone is to provide a place to make blood cells.

True

True or False: One function of bone is to store calcium and phosphorus for the body.

True

True or False: One function of cartilage is to act as a shock-absorbing pad between bones.

True

True or False: Only the radius has a direct articulation with the bones of the wrist.

True

True or False: Osteoblasts themselves are able to monitor extracellular calcium levels.

True

True or False: Osteoclasts are large, multinucleate cells that erode bone minerals.

True

True or False: Osteogenesis involves the combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

True

True or False: Osteoporosis occurs more often in elderly women than in males.

True

True or False: Parathyroid hormone affects not only bone cells but also cells of the kidney.

True

True or False: Part of the bone matrix is made of inorganic substances.

True

True or False: Sesamoid bones develop in tendons near a joint.

True

True or False: Sutures are found only in the skull.

True

True or False: T-tubules are perpendicular to muscle fibers.

True

True or False: The H-zone in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only myosin.

True

True or False: The bones of the skull and the ribs are examples of flat bones.

True

True or False: The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma.

True

True or False: The compact bone that is superficial to the diploë in the skull is called the external table.

True

True or False: The dens are found on the second cervical vertebra, or axis.

True

True or False: The endosteum usually surrounds yellow marrow in an adult.

True

True or False: The face contains more bones than the cranium.

True

True or False: The growth of intramembranous bone begins with the formation of a cluster of osteoblasts called ossification centers.

True

True or False: The homeostasis of blood calcium is maintained by its moving into and out of bone tissue.

True

True or False: The layer of cancellous bone between two layers of compact bone is called diploë.

True

True or False: The occurrence of osteoporosis seems to be related to age and gender.

True

True or False: The periodontal membrane is associated with a gomphosis joint.

True

True or False: The periosteum is a dense, white, fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces.

True

True or False: The posteriorly concave cervical and lumbar curvatures are sometimes called secondary curvatures.

True

True or False: The region between the epiphyses and the diaphysis in a mature bone is called the metaphysis.

True

True or False: The skull contains more than 25 bones.

True

True or False: The strength of bone is increased by the arrangement of trabeculae.

True

True or False: The term woven bone is used to describe new bone.

True

True or False: The terms haversian system and osteon are interchangeable.

True

True or False: The thumb has one less phalanx than the other fingers.

True

True or False: The two parts of the epicranium are connected by an aponeurosis.

True

True or False: The type of cartilage found in the symphysis pubis is fibrocartilage.

True

True or False: The type of cartilage growth most prevalent in childhood and early adolescence is interstitial or endogenous growth.

True

True or False: There are 12 pairs of ribs.

True

True or False: There are five pairs of false ribs.

True

True or False: There are more than 200 bones in the human body.

True

True or False: There are two arches of the foot—one lengthwise and one crosswise.

True

True or False: Throughout life, ossification and resorption continue to occur concurrently.

True

True or False: Variations in the amount of ossification and resorption of bone tissue are age dependent.

True

True or False: When cancellous bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by remodeling its trabeculae in a different direction and by increasing their diameter.

True

True or False: Without the canaliculi, the bone cells in compact bone would die of starvation and lack of oxygen.

True

True or false: 171. Single-unit smooth muscle is another term for visceral muscle.

True

33. Sarcolemma is a: a) system of transverse tubules that extend at a right angle to the long axis of the cell. b) segment of the myofibril between two successive Z-lines. c) unique name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. d) None of the above are correct.

Unique name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

28. The adult skeleton is composed of _______ bones. a) 206 b) 126 c) 80 d) 260

a) 206

The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is: a) 7. b) 12. c) 5. d) 3.

a) 7

11. Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: a) A-band. b) Z-line. c) I-band. d) None of the above are correct.

a) A-band

53. Which part of the sarcomere stays almost the same size during contraction? a) A-band b) I-band c) H-band d) None of the parts of the sarcomere stay the same size during contraction.

a) A-band

48. Which of the following is not a factor in why a warm muscle contracts more forcefully than a cool muscle? a) ATP releases energy faster. b) Calcium diffuses through the sarcoplasm more quickly. c) Calcium tends to accumulate in the sarcoplasm. d) More actin-myosin reactions occur.

a) ATP releases energy faster

49. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a closed, pillowlike structure that consists of a synovial membrane filled with synovial fluid? a) Bursae b) Ligament c) Menisci d) Joint capsule

a) Bursae

The small tubes in the osteon that bring nutrients and oxygen to the osteocytes are called: a) canaliculi. b) lacunae. c) lamellae. d) diploë.

a) Canaliculi

64. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? a) Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract. b) Cardiac muscle is also called striated involuntary muscle. c) Cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks. d) All of the above statements are correct.

a) Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract

1. The layman's name for the clavicle is the: a) collarbone. b) kneecap c) shinbone d) elbow.

a) Collarbone

The structure that furnishes the axis for the rotation of the head from side to side is the: a) dens. b) spinous process. c) vertebral foramen. d) transverse process.

a) Dens

Which of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage? a) External ear b) Cartilage rings in the trachea c) Cartilage connecting the ribs and sternum d) Cartilage in the tip of the nose

a) External ear

7. Which of the following is not a component of a lever system? a) Fixator b) Bone c) Joint d) Pull

a) Fixator

21. Which of the following bones is not a part of the face? a) Frontal b) Zygomatic c) Lacrimal d) Maxilla

a) Frontal

44. The periodontal membrane is associated with which type of joint? a) Gomphosis b) Suture c) Syndesmosis d) Synovial

a) Gomphosis

17. The most abundant type of cartilage is: a) hyaline. b) elastic. c) fibrocartilage. d) All of the above are present in approximately equal amounts.

a) Hyaline

12. The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: a) in the diaphysis. b) in the epiphysis. c) in the medullary cavity. d) at the epiphyseal cartilage.

a) In the diaphysis

6. The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: a) irritability. b) contractility. c) extensibility d) elasticity

a) Irritability

45. The small spaces in the matrix that contain the bone cells are called: a) Lacunae b) Canaliculi c) Central Canal d) Lamellae

a) Lacunae

22. During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? a) Latent period b) contraction phase c) Contraction phase d) Relaxation phase e) None of the above

a) Latent period

15. Which muscle(s) form(s) most of the pelvic floor? a) Levator ani b) Coccygeus c) Ischiocavernosus d) BothAandB

a) Levator ani

As the activity of osteoclasts increases, the: a) level of calcium in the blood increases. b) amount of calcium in bone increases. c) level of calcium in the blood decreases. d) Both B and C occur.

a) Level of calcium in the blood increases

2. Endosteum can be found: a) lining the medullary cavity b) covering bones. c) at articular surfaces. d) lining the epiphysis.

a) Lining the medullary cavity

25. Another name for the zygomatic bone is the:: a) Malar b) Sphenoid c) Ethmoid d) sesamoid

a) Malar

24. Another name for a skeletal muscle cell is a(n): a) muscle fiber. b) fascicle. c) aponeurosis. d) fascia.

a) Muscle Fiber

3. Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called: a) myofibrils. b) myofilaments. c) striae. d) sarcoplasmic reticulum.

a) Myofibrils

9. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? a) Myosin b) actin c) Tropomyosin d) Troponin

a) Myosin

35. Cross-bridges are also called: a. a) myosin heads. b) motor end plates. c) synapses. d) motor neurons.

a) Myosin head

5. In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: a) osteoblasts b) osteocytes c) osteoclasts d) chondrocytes.

a) Osteoblasts

16. In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: a) osteoclasts. b) osteocytes c) osteoblasts d) chondrocytes.

a) Osteoclasts

24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? a) Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle b) Hollow c) Composed of compact bone d) All of the above are characteristics of the diaphysis.

a) Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle

6. Which bone is a part of the axial skeleton? a) Rib b) Clavicle c) Radius d) Coaxial Bone

a) Rib

What condition results in vitamin D deficiency in children? a) Rickets b) Osteomalacia c) Osteoporosis d) Both A and B

a) Rickets

55. Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? a) Saddle b) Pivot c) Hinge d) Condyloid

a) Saddle

2. The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the: a) sarcolemma. b) myofibril. c) sarcoplasm. d) sarcomere.

a) Sarcolemma

17. Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot? a. a) Sartorius b) Peroneus longus c) Tibialis anterior d) Soleus

a) Sartorius

7. Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeleton? a) Scapula b) Vertebra c) Parietal d) Mandible

a) Scapula

17. Skeletal muscles are innervated by: a) somatic motor neurons. b) autonomic motor neurons. c) both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. d) internal stimulation.

a) Somatic motor neurons

2. Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint? a) Symphases b) Sutures c) Syndesmoses d) Gomphoses

a) Symphyses

6. In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? a) Synarthrosis b) Amphiarthrosis c) Diarthrosis d) All joints are moveable

a) Synarthrosis

61. Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? a) T-tubules b) Motor neuron c) Motor end plate d) All of the structures are part of the neuromuscular junction.

a) T-tubules

46. The mandible forms the only movable joint in the skull with the: a) temporal bone. b) maxilla. c) frontal bone. d) zygomatic bone.

a) Temporal Bone

17. Which fibrous connective tissue structures have a lining of synovial membrane? a) Tendon sheaths b) Aponeuroses c) Fascicles d) BothBandC

a) Tendon Sheaths

20. The thoracic cage (the thorax) includes all of the following bones except: a) the scapula. b) 12 pairs of ribs. c) the vertebral column. d) the sternum.

a) The Scapula

55. Muscle contractions will continue as long as: a) the calcium ions are attached to the troponin. b) there is dopamine in the neuromuscular junction. c) there is ADP in the muscle cell. d) T-tubules are transmitting impulses.

a) The calcium ions are attached to the troponin

20. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Which of the following is true? a) The knee is acting as a fulcrum. b) The movement is an example of a first-class lever. c) The movement is an example of a second-class lever d) Both A and C are true.

a) The knee is acting as a fulcrum

51. Posteriorly convex curvatures of the spine include: a) thoracic and sacral curvatures. b) cervical and thoracic curvatures. c) cervical and sacral curvatures. d) thoracic and lumbar curvatures.

a) Thoracic

41. Which bone marking can be defined as a large bump for the attachment of muscles? a) Trochanter b) Fossa c) Foramen d) Ramus

a) Trochanter

44. After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? a) Troponin b) Actin c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin

a) Troponin

38. The floating ribs articulate with the: a) vertebrae. b) sternum. c) costal cartilage. d) Both A and C are correct.

a) Vertebrae

37. Which of the following statements about the muscles of the thorax is incorrect? a) When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs. b) The muscles of the thorax assist in respiration. c) The internal and external intercostal muscles have opposite effects on the ribs. d) All of the above statements are correct.

a) When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs

40. A sarcomere is a segment of myofibril between two successive: a) Z-lines. b) A-bands c) I-bands d) H-bands.

a) Z-Lines

27. The pectoralis major muscle is an example of a _______ muscle. a) convergent b) parallel c) fusiform d) pennate

a) convergent

The osteon, or haversian, system: a) delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells. b) produces yellow marrow. c) resists stress. d) erodes bone.

a) delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells

2. All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the: a) deltoid. b) infraspinatus. c) supraspinatus. d) teres minor.

a) deltoid

24. Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: a) dorsiflexion. b) plantar flexion. c) extension. d) pronation.

a) dorsiflexion

31. Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be: a) epimysium, perimysium, endomysium. b) endomysium, perimysium, epimysium. c) perimysium, epimysium, endomysium. d) perimysium, endomysium, epimysium.

a) epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

19. White fibers are also called _________ fibers. a) fast b) slow c) elongated d) intermediate

a) fast

5. An aponeurosis could be described as a: a) flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures. b) sheath that surrounds tendons. c) deep fascia that covers muscles. d) junction between a neuron and a muscle.

a) flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscles to other structures

12. The action of the brachialis muscle is to _______ the forearm. a) flex b) extend c) pronate d) supinate

a) flex

35. Synchondroses: a) have hyaline cartilage between articulating bones in a joint. b) are immovable joints. c) are found only in the skull. d) is another term for symphysis.

a) have hyaline cartilage between articulating bones in a joint

13. An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: a) head of the radius articulating with the ulna. b) first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium. c) humerus articulating with the scapula. d) interphalangeal joints.

a) head of the radius articulating with the ulna

12. The knee joint is an example of a _______ joint. a) hinge b) ball and socket c) saddle d) gliding

a) hinge

20. Most body movements are _________ contractions. a) isotonic b) isometric c) a combination of isotonic and isometric d) single twitch

a) isotonic

42. A sprain causes damage to: a) ligaments. b) tendons. c) cartilage. d) all of the above.

a) ligaments

33. The humerus is an example of a(n) _______ bone. a) long b) short c) flat d) irregular

a) long

9. During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: a) pelvic outlet. b) symphysis pubis. c) pelvic brim. d) ilium.

a) pelvic outlet

22. Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: a) plantar flexion. b) dorsiflexion. c) hyperextension. d) abduction.

a) plantar flexion

20. Moving a part of the body forward is: a) protraction. b) elevation c) inversion d) depression.

a) protraction

25. The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _______ joint. a) shoulder b) hip c) knee d) ankle

a) shoulder

57. Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? a) Smooth b) Cardiac c) Striated d) All muscles have T-tubules.

a) smooth

11. The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is (are) the: a) teres minor. b) latissimus dorsi. c) supraspinatus. d) All of the above are correct.

a) teres minor

6. The pisiform bone can be found in the: a) wrist. b) ankle c) neck d) skull.

a) wrist

51. The myofibrils contain about how many sarcomeres? a) 150,000 b) 15,000 c) 1500 d) 150

b) 15,000

41. The striations seen in skeletal muscle cells under the microscope are what part of the sarcomere? a) Z-lines b) A-bands c) I-bands d) All of the above

b) A-Bands

15. Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group? a) Rectus femoris b) Biceps femoris c) Vastus medialis d) Vastus intermedius

b) Biceps Femoris

10. In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized? a) Triceps brachii b) Biceps brachii c) Deltoid

b) Biceps brachii

In young children, vitamin A and protein deficiency will: a) cause an increase in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. b) cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. c) c. produce the same alterations of the epiphyseal plate as does vitamin D deficiency d) have no effect on the epiphyseal plate but will cause an increase in bone marrow production.

b) Cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones

5. The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings, can be defined as a) raised area or projection. b) cavity within a bone. c) tubelike opening or channel. d) groove or elongated depression.

b) Cavity with a bone

The dens is part of the: a) sacrum. b) cervical vertebrae. c) lumbar vertebrae. d) thoracic vertebrae.

b) Cervical Vertebrae

9. Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the: a) ulna and humerus. b) clavicle and scapula. c) humerus. d) ulna and radius.

b) Clavicle and Scapula

20. Which of the following substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone? a. a) Magnesium b) Collagen c) Sodium d) Fluoride

b) Collagen

29. The bones of the middle ear are: a) considered part of the appendicular skeleton. b) considered part of the axial skeleton. c) not included in either group. d) There are no bones in the middle ear; it is composed only of cartilage.

b) Considered part of the axial skeleton

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? a) Made of spongy bone b) Cylindrical in shape c) Contain red bone marrow d) All of the above are characteristics of the epiphyses.

b) Cylindrical in shape

18. The form of the external ear is composed of: a) fibrocartilage. b) elastic cartilage. c) osseous tissue. d) hyaline cartilage.

b) Elastic Cartilage

39. Which bone marking can be defined as a depression in a bone and often receives an articulating bone? a) Trochanter b) Fossa c) Foramen d) Ramus

b) Fossa

43. Which bone makes up the forehead and the anterior part of the calvaria? a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Parietal d) Temporal

b) Frontal

The ulna articulates proximally with the: a) carpal bones. b) humerus. c) scapula. d) None of the above is correct.

b) Humerus

47. The almost paper-thin bone that is shaped and sized similar to a fingernail and lies posterior and lateral to each nasal bone is the _______ bone. a) zygomatic b) lacrimal c) sphenoid d) ethmoid

b) Lacrimal

8. Which suture is between the occipital and parietal bones? a) Squamous b) Lambdoid c) Sagittal d) Coronal

b) Lambdoid

51. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a strong cord of dense, white, fibrous connective tissue? a) Bursae b) Ligament c) Menisci d) Joint Capsule

b) Ligament

47. The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: a) lungs. b) liver. c) mitochondria. d) sarcoplasmic reticulum.

b) Liver

13. Which of the following bones does not articulate with the maxillae? a) Palatine b) Mandible c) Inferior concha d) Zygomatic

b) Mandible

24. The largest of the paranasal sinuses is found in which bone? a) Sphenoid b) Maxilla c) Ethmoid d) Frontal

b) Maxilla

10. Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra? a) Temporal b) Occipital c) Sphenoid d) Ethmoid

b) Occipital

6. The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: a) osteocytes b) osteoclasts c) osteoblasts d) osteomorphytes

b) Osteoclasts

The rectus abdominal muscle is an example of a _______ muscle. a) convergent b) parallel c) fusiform d) pennate

b) Parallel

2. Which is not a part of the appendicular skeleton? a) Coxal bones b) Parietal bones c) Radius d) Clavicle

b) Parietal Bones

1. Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? a) Movement b) Protection c) Heat production d) Posture

b) Protection

60. Which of the following is not a name for a muscle cell? a) Muscle fiber b) Sarcocyte c) Myocyte d) All of the above are names for muscle cells.

b) Sarcocyte

35. The tarsal bones are examples of _______ bones. a) long b) short c) flat d) irregular

b) Short

59. Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? a) Multiunit smooth b) Single-unit smooth c) Cardiac d) Striated

b) Single-unit smooth

5. _________ muscle is also known as striated muscle. a) Smooth b) Skeletal c) nvoluntary d) Visceral

b) Skeletal

30. Which of the following types of muscle tissue contains cells that have a single nucleus? a) Cardiac b) Smooth c) Skeletal d) Both A and B

b) Smooth

32. Cancellous bone is another term for a(n) ___________ bone? a) irregular b) spongy c) short d) compact

b) Spongy

49. Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? a) Eccentric contraction b) Static tension c) Concentric contraction d) Both A and C

b) Static Tension

37. Which ligament is not part of the hip joint? a) Iliofemoral b) Subacromial c) Ischiofemoral d) Pubofemoral

b) Subacromial

4. What are the most movable joints in the body? a) Symphyses b) Synovial c) Syndesmoses d) Synchondroses

b) Synovial

14. The first step in healing a fracture is: a) the formation of specialized callus. b) the formation of a fracture hematoma. c) proper alignment of the fracture. d) the formation of a collar of normal bone covering the broken ends.

b) The formation of a fracture hematoma

30. Which of the following is not made of elastic cartilage? a) External ear b) Tip of the nose c) Epiglottis d) Eustachian tubes

b) Tip of the nose

33. Which of the following is not a group of pennate muscles? a) Bipennate b) Tripennate c) Multipennate d) All of the above are groups of pennate muscles.

b) Tripennate

15. A fontanel can best be described as a(n): a) bone in the skull. b) unossified area in the infant's skull. c) articulation between two skull bones. d) small opening.

b) Unossified area in the infant's skull

19. All vertebrae except the sacrum and coccyx have a central opening called the: a) spinous process. b) vertebral foramen. c) dens. d) transverse process.

b) Vertebral Foramen

40. Lengthwise-running central canals are connected to each other by transverse-running: a) haversian canals. b) Volkmann canals. c) canaliculi. d) lacunae.

b) Volkmann Canals

37. The blunt cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the: a) body. b) xiphoid process. c) manubrium. d) costal cartilage.

b) Xiphoid process

18. Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: a) adduction. b) abduction c) flexion d) extension.

b) abduction

42. The myofilament that can be described as a globular protein strung together like beads to form two intertwined strands is: a) troponin b) actin c) myosin d) tropomyosin

b) actin

35. The prime mover can also be called the: a) antagonist. b) agonist. c) fixator d) synergist.

b) agonist

13. The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the: a) anterior lateral surface of the forearm b) anterior medial surface of the forearm c) posterior surface of the forearm d) posterior surface of the hand

b) anterior medial surface of the forearm

3. The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: a) forearm. b) arm. c) shoulder d) wrist.

b) arm

38. A decrease in muscle size is termed: a) hyperplasia. b) atrophy c) hypertrophy d) treppe.

b) atrophy

7. A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _______ joint. a) uniaxial b) biaxial c) multiaxial d) immovable

b) biaxial

29. Another name for a sphincter muscle is a _______ muscle. a) spiral b) circular c) fusiform d) convergent

b) circular

36. The occipital bone fitting into the atlas bone of the vertebrae is an example of a _______ joint. a) pivot b) condyloid c) saddle d) gomphosis

b) condyloid

12. The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles above the nose (frowning), is called the: a) epicranius. b) corrugator supercilii. c) orbicularis oculi. d) orbicularis oris.

b) corrugated supercilii

28. Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: a) tetanic contractions. b) cramps. c) convulsions. d) fibrillations.

b) cramps

16. After the age of 50, the density of bone: a) levels off and maintains its composition, b) decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. c) increases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. d) decreases slowly because of changes in diet.

b) decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity

3. The covering of individual muscle fibers is the: a) epimysium b) endomysium c) periosteum. d) perimysium.

b) endomysium

21. The type of movement that increases the angle between body parts is: a) flexion. b) extension c) adduction d) abduction.

b) extension

7. The structure above the pelvic inlet, which is bordered by muscle in the front and bone along the sides and back, is called the: a) pelvic brim b) false pelvis c) pelvic girdle d) true pelvis

b) false pelvis

30. The glenoid labrum is a: a) ligament that connects the humerus to the scapula. b) fibrocartilage that increases the depth of the glenoid cavity. c) hyaline cartilage cushion in the shoulder joint. d) bursa.

b) fibrocartilage

Metacarpal bones form the framework of the: a) wrist. b) hand. c) ankle d) foot.

b) hand

38. The trapezius muscle functions primarily to move the shoulders. However, when the occipital bone acts as the insertion, the trapezius can: a) bend and rotate the head toward the contracting side. b) help extend the neck. c) help flex the neck d) return the head to the upright position after flexion.

b) help extend the neck

46. Dipole can be found: a) in the diaphysis of a compact bone. b) in the middle of spongy bone. c) in the epiphysis of compact bone. d) connecting parallel osteons in spongy bone.

b) in the middle of spongy bone

11. An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: a) head of the radius articulating with the ulna. b) interphalangeal joints. c) first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium. d) head of the humerus articulating with the scapula.

b) interphalangeal joints

57. If a goniometer reads zero, it most likely indicates that the joint: a) is fully flexed. b) is in the anatomical position. c) has been injured and is somewhat dislocated. d) is hyperextended.

b) is in the anatomical position

25. A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _________ contraction a) tonic b) isotonic c) isometric d) tetanic

b) isotonic

32. All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: a) dislocation b) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis c) osteoarthritis d) all of the above are noninflammatory joint disorders

b) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

11. A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: a) elbow. b) knee c) head d) ankle

b) knee

27. The largest and most frequently injured joint is the a) hip b) knee c) shoulder d) ankle

b) knee

6. The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: a) deltoid. b) latissimus dorsi. c) trapezius. d) pectoralis minor.

b) latissimus dorsi

9. The pads of fibrocartilage located between the articulating ends of bones in some diarthroses are called: a) ligaments. b) menisci. c) bursae. d) synovial membranes.

b) menisci

10. The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: a) actin. b) myosin. c) troponin. d) tropomyosin.

b) myosin

4. The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the: a) extensor digitorum. b) opponens pollicis. c) palmaris longus. d) flexor carpi radialis.

b) opponens pollicis

20. Which of the following is not a posterior muscle that acts on the shoulder girdle? a) Trapezius b) Pectoralis minor c) Levator scapulae d) Rhomboideus

b) pectoralis minor

4. Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the: a) endomysium b) perimysium c) epimysium. d) aponeurosis.

b) perimysium

19. A muscle is attached to the femur and tibia. Its function or action is to bend the knee. When it contracts, it is acting as the: a) antagonist b) prime mover c) fixator d) synergist

b) prime mover

In the epiphyseal plate, the proliferating zone is in the _______ layer. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth

b) second

39. The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: a) amount of synovial fluid in the joint. b) shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones. c) presence of bursae in the joint. d) Both A and B are correct.

b) shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones

27. The parathyroid hormone causes all of the following except: a) increase of the absorption of calcium by the kidney. b) stimulation of the activity of osteoblasts. c) stimulation of the activity of osteoclasts. d) stimulation of vitamin D synthesis.

b) stimulation of the activity of osteoblasts

49. Which of the following is not a true comparison of a fetal and adult skull? a) The face is a greater part of the skull in the adult. b) The skull is a larger proportion of the body in the adult. c) The skull of the fetus has fontanels, and the adult skull does not. d) All of the above are true.

b) the skull is a larger proportion of the body in the adult

48. Saddle joints in the body can be found between the: a) tibia and the femur. b) thumb metacarpal and the trapezium in the wrist. c) humerus and the glenoid fossa. d) atlas and the occipital bone.

b) thumb metacarpal and the trapezium in the wrist

7. The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: a) biceps brachii. b) triceps brachii. c) supinator. d) brachialis.

b) triceps brachii

4. The appendicular skeleton consists of _______ bones. a) 102 b) 118 c) 126 d) 137

c) 126

1. Skeletal muscles constitute approximately _______ of our body weight. a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

c) 50%

23. There are more than ___________ skeletal muscles in the body. a) 1200 b) 900 c) 600 d) 1000

c) 600

54. Muscles usually contract to about _________ of their length. a) 30% b) 40% c) 80% d) 90%

c) 80%

38. Hydroxyapatite crystals constitute about how much of the total inorganic matrix? a) 65% b) 75% c) 85% d) 95%

c) 85%

12. The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is (are): a) dopamine. b) norepinephrine. c) acetylcholine. d) any of the above.

c) Acetylcholine

53. Which of the following ligaments do not support the vertebral joints? a) Anterior longitudinal ligaments b) Ligamenta flava c) Annular ligaments d) All of the above ligaments support the vertebral joints.

c) Annular ligaments

17. Which joint allows for the most movement? a) Gliding b) Saddle c) Ball and socket d) Trochoid

c) Ball and Socket

8. Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? a) Gliding b) Saddle c) Ball and socket d) Hinge

c) Ball and socket

50. Between the manubrium and the xiphoid process is the: a) body of a true rib. b) radius in the arm. c) body of the sternum. d) fibula of the leg.

c) Body of the sternum

28. Which of the following is true of bone but not of cartilage? a) It is classified as a connective tissue. b) It has collagen fibers in its matrix. c) Canals link blood vessels and cells. d) Cells lie in lacunae.

c) Canals link blood vessels and cells

39. The characteristic of the muscle cell that directly causes movement is: a) excitability. b) irritability c) contractility d) extensibility.

c) Contractility

1. A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the: a) epiphysis. b) periosteum. c) diaphysis. d) articular cartilage.

c) Diaphysis

11. The upper parts of the nasal septum and the side walls of the nasal cavity are formed by which bone(s)? a) Nasal b) Sphenoid c) Ethmoid d) Maxillae

c) Ethmoid

15. Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the lower extremity are: a) femur, tibia, carpals, and metacarpals. b) metacarpals, tarsals, femur, and tibia. c) femur, tibia, tarsals, and metatarsals. d) tarsals, metatarsals, femur, and tibia.

c) Femur, tibia, tarsals, and metatarsals

21. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? a)Extensor b) Abductor c) Flexor d) Adductor

c) Flexor

42. Which bone marking can be defined as a round hole in the bone through which vessels and nerves can pass? a) Trochanter b) Fossa c) Foramen d) Ramus

c) Foramen

3. What are the unique joints that occur between the root of a tooth and the alveolar process of the mandible or maxilla? a) Symphyses b) Syndesmoses c) Gomphoses d) Synchondroses

c) Gomphoses

7. Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? a) Mineral storage b) Protection c) Hormonal production d) Hematopoiesis

c) Hormonal Production

46. The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: a) hemoglobin. b) calcium c) iron d) ATP.

c) Iron

23. Sesamoid bones are classified as bones. a) long b) short c) irregular d) flat

c) Irregular

31. The palatine bone: a) makes up the side of the skull. b) completes the nasal septum. c) makes up part of the hard palate. d) makes up none of the above.

c) Makes up part of the hard palate

63. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding muscle tone? a) Tonic contractions is another name for muscle tone. b) Muscle tone is important in maintaining posture. c) Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are referred to as spastic. d) All of the above statements are correct.

c) Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are referred to as spastic

32. From smallest to largest, which of the following is the correct order of arrangement? a) Fiber, myofibril, myofilament b) Myofibril, myofilament, fiber c) Myofilament, myofibril, fiber d) Fiber, myofilament, myofibril

c) Myofilament, myofibril, fiber

43. The myofilament that can be described as bundled golf clubs with their heads sticking out from the bundle is: a) troponin b) actin c) myosin d) tropomyosin.

c) Myosin

13. The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: a) tropomyosin returns to its original position. b) myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin. c) the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. d) acetylcholine is released.

c) Myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin

3. Muscle tendon fibers attach to bone by interlacing with: a) compact bone. b) ligaments. c) periosteum. d) endosteum.

c) Periosteum

4. The smallest contractile unit of muscle is a: a) fiber. b) myofibril. c) sarcomere. d) myofilament.

c) Sarcomere

31. All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: a) there are no striations. b) there are no T-tubules. thin and thick filaments are aligned in c) sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. d) the sarcoplasmic reticula are loosely organized.

c) Sarcomeres like skeletal muscles

58. Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? a) T-tubules b) Sarcolemma c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum d) Myofilaments

c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

12. Which of the following is not a tarsal bone? a) Cuneiform b) Navicular c) Scaphoid d) Talus

c) Scaphoid

43. Which type of bone is found in a tendon? a) Irregular bone b) Long bone c) Sesamoid bone d) Short bone

c) Sesamoid Bone

32. The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a _______ muscle. a) bipennate b) convergent c) spiral d) fusiform

c) Spiral

54. The epiphyseal plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis is an example a) Suture b) Syndesmosis c) Synchondrosis d) Gomphosis

c) Synchondrosis

5. In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule? a) Fibrous b) Cartilaginous c) Synovial d) Amphiarthrotic

c) Synovial

47. Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint? a) Joint capsule b) Articular cartilage c) Tendon d) All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint.

c) Tendon

12. Which of the following is a true statement? a) The ethmoid is a flat bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid. b) The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies posterior to the sphenoid but anterior to the nasal bones. c) The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to the nasal bones. d) The ethmoid is a short bone that lies anterior to the nasal bones.

c) The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies posterior to the sphenoid but anterior to the nasal bones

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect about motor units? a) Some motor neurons stimulate only a few dozen muscle fibers. b) Some motor neurons stimulate a few thousand muscle fibers. c) The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be. d) All of the above statements are correct.

c) The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be

36. Which of the following statements about the muscles of the head is incorrect? a) They are paired muscles. b) They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair contract. c) The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow. d) All of the above statements are correct.

c) The splenius wapitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow

1. Which of the following is a true statement? a) Joints can be classified into five major categories. b) The functional classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together. c) The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together. d) The structural classification of joints involves the degree of movement the joint permits.

c) The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together

48. In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _______ layer. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth

c) Third

13. Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane? a) Rectus abdominis b) External oblique c) Transverse abdominis d) Internal intercostals

c) Transverse Abdominis

5. The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the: a) deltoid. b) latissimus dorsi. c) trapezius. d) pectoralis minor.

c) Trapezius

22. Which of the following bones does not contain paranasal sinuses? a) Frontal b) Maxilla c) Zygomatic d) Sphenoid

c) Zygomatic

In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: a) development of a core layer of spongy bone. b) development of compact bone in long bones. c) addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. d) lengthening of long bone.

c) addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones

21. Endurance training is also known as: a) isometrics. b) hypertrophy. c) aerobic training. d) strength training.

c) aerobic training

50. A satellite cell in a muscle can become active: a) during isotonic contractions b) during isometric contractions c) after an injury to a muscle d) when a muscle becomes fatigued

c) after an injury to a muscle

8. The chief function of the T-tubules is to: a) provide nutrients to the muscle fiber. b) allow for the fiber to contract. c) allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. d) allow for the generation of new muscle fibers.

c) allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell

8. The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the: a) biceps brachii. b) brachialis. c) brachioradialis. d) triceps brachii.

c) brachioradialis

14. The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of a _______ joint. a. a) saddle b) gliding c) condyloid (ellipsoidal) d) pivot

c) condyloid (ellipsoidal)

2. The trochlea and capitulum can be described as: a) markings on the scapula. b) parts of the proximal end of the ulna. c) distal portions of the humerus. d) metacarpal bones.

c) distal portions of the humerus

52. The olecranon bursa is associated with which joint? a) Hip b) knee c) elbow d) shoulder

c) elbow

19. Kicking a football is accomplished by: a) pronation. b) adduction c) extension d) flexion.

c) extension

36. The scapula is an example of a(n) _______ bone. a) long b) short c) flat d) irregular

c) flat

26. The brachioradialis muscle is an example of a _______ muscle. a) convergent b) parallel c) fusiform d) pennate

c) fusiform

41. As the amount of calcitonin in the blood increases, the amount of calcium: a) in the blood increases. b) released from the bone increases. c) in the blood decreases. d) Both A and B are correct.

c) in the blood decreases

35. The sphenoid bone acts as the keystone for the cranium. Which bone acts a) Mandible b) Zygomatic c) Maxilla d) Nasal

c) maxilla

37. The matrix of bone consists of: a) mostly organic material with a lesser amount of inorganic salts. b) almost equal amounts of organic material and inorganic salts. c) mostly inorganic salts with a lesser amount of organic material. d) greatly varying proportions of organic and inorganic material depending on the location and function of the bone.

c) mostly inorganic salts with a lesser amount of organic material

24. All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: a) the muscle does not shorten. b) it can produce work by tightening to resist a force. c) movement is produced. d) the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle.

c) movement is produced

16. A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _______________ joint a) uniaxial b) biaxial c) multiaxial d) pivot

c) multiaxial

18. A motor unit is most correctly described as _________ and a motor neuron. a) sarcomere(s) b) myofibril(s) c) muscle fiber(s) d) filament(s)

c) muscle fiber(s)

44. The two bones that make up the bulging topside of the cranium are the: a) occipital bones. b) frontal bones. c) parietal bones. d) temporal bones.

c) parietal bones

40. The opposite of dorsiflexion is: a) dorsiextension. b) abduction. c) plantar flexion. d) none of the above.

c) plantar flexion

26. Vertebral bodies are connected together by the: a) ligamenta flava. b) ligamentum nuchae. c) posterior longitudinal ligament. d) intertransverse ligaments.

c) posterior longitudinal ligament

16. When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the: a) upper arm. b) posterior lower leg. c) posterior thigh. d) anterior thigh.

c) posterior thigh

52. A newborn's spine forms a continuous convex curve called a: a) secondary curvature. b) cervical curvature. c) primary curvature. d) lumbar curvature.

c) primary curvature

15. The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: a) carry oxygen. b) store calcium. c) replenish energy supply. d) rotate the cross-bridges.

c) replenish energy supply

29. Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: a) elbow b) wrist. c) shoulder d) hip.

c) shoulder

33. Sutures can be found in the: a) skull and thorax. b) skull and hip bones. c) skull only. d) hip only.

c) skull only

43. The joint between the distal ends of the radius and ulna is an example of a _______ joint. a) suture b) gomphosis c) syndesmosis d) synovial

c) syndesmosis

30. The most common type of lever in the body is a _______ -class lever. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth

c) third

8. The type of lever arrangement in which the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and resistance or weight to be moved is a _______ -class lever. a) first b) second c) third d) fourth

c) third

18. A muscle is attached to the femur and the tibia. When the muscle contracts, the knee bends. That would mean that the: a) tibia attachment is the origin. b) femur attachment is the insertion. c) tibia attachment is the insertion. d. d) Both A and B are correct.

c) tibia attachment is the insertion

18. The number of thoracic vertebrae is: a)5. b) 7. c) 10. d) 12.

d) 12

56. How many bursae are in the knee joint? a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 13

d) 13

15. Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _______ years. a) 20 and 25 b) 25 and 30 c) 30 and 35 d) 35 and 40

d) 35 and 40

3. The axial skeleton consists of _______ bones. a) 60 b) 68 c) 74 d) 80

d) 80

19. Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture? a) Digestive b) Endocrine c) Excretory d) All of the above

d) All of the above

36. Which of the following is not associated with the vertebral column? a) Spinous process b) Vertebral foramen c) Dens d) All of the above are associated with the vertebral column.

d) All of the above are associated with the vertebral column

26. Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? a) Blood clotting b) Transmission of nerve impulses c) Contraction of cardiac muscle d) All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood.

d) All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood

56. Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? a) An inorganic phosphate b) Energy that can be used in muscle contraction c) ADP d) All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP.

d) All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP

48. Which of the following is not found in the eye orbit? a) The eye b) Muscle of the eye c) Lacrimal apparatus d) All of the above are found in the eye orbit.

d) All of the above are found in the eye orbit

17. Which of the following may cause skeletal variations? a) Inadequate supply of calcium and vitamin D b) Mechanical stress c) Age d) All of the above may cause skeletal variations

d) All of the above may cause skeletal variations

31. Which type of bone consists only of compact bone? a) Long b) Short c) Irregular d) All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone

d) All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone

Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? a) Iron b) Calcium c) Phosphorus d) Both A and B

d) Both A and B

34. Gomphoses can be found in the: a) mandible. b) frontal bone. c) maxilla. d) Both A and C are correct.

d) Both A and C

42. A person with a diet rich in calcium would probably have a: a) low level of calcitonin. b) low level of parathyroid hormone. c) high level of calcitonin. TOP: Calcitonin d) Both B and C are correct.

d) Both B and C are correct

21. As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: a) level of calcium in the blood increases. b) amount of calcium in bone increases. c) level of calcium in the blood decreases. d) Both B and C occur.

d) Both B and C occur

14. The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: a) iron. b) sodium. c) potassium. d) calcium.

d) Calcium

17. The skeletal framework of the neck consists a) lumbar b) thoracic c) sacral d) cervical

d) Cervical

Going from superior to inferior, the sequence of the vertebral column is: a) sacral, coccyx, thoracic, lumbar, and cervical. b) coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. c) cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. d) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

d) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

15. Which of the following is an example of a biaxial joint? a) Pivot b) Hinge c) Ball and socket d) Condyloid

d) Condyloid

8. The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: a) mitochondria and Golgi apparatus b) ribosomes and Golgi apparatus c) endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes d) endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

d) Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi Apparatus

23. The occipital bone forms how many joints with other bones? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

d) Four

45. Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: a) creatine phosphate b) ATP c) myoglobin d) glycogen.

d) Glycogen

32. What is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with another bone a) Vomer b) Palatine c) Ethmoid d) Hyoid

d) Hyoid

34. A vertebral bone is an example of a(n) _______ bone. a) long b) short c) flat d) irregular

d) Irregular

26. Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? a) Isotonic b) Flaccid c) Treppe d) Isometric

d) Isometric

44. The concentric, cylinder-shaped layers of calcified bone matrix are called: a) lacunae. b) Canaliculi. c) central canal. d) lamellae.

d) Lamellae

13. The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is: a) mending of fractures. b) enlarging of epiphyses. c) providing strength in long bones. d) lengthening long bones.

d) Lengthening long bones

Which is not a part of the axial a) skeleton? b) Rib c) Vertebral column d) Mandible e) Clavicle

d) Mandible

30. The two bones of the face that are not paired are the: a) maxilla and mandible. b) maxilla and vomer. c) nasal and maxilla. d) mandible and vomer.

d) Mandible and vomer

11. A muscle that assists with mastication is the: a) orbicularis oris. b) buccinator. c) platysma. d) masseter.

d) Masseter

34. Which of the following is not associated with the thin myofilament? a) Troponin b) Tropomyosin c) Actin d) Myosin

d) Myosin

2. The connective tissue sheath that envelops bundles of muscle fibers is the: a) epimysium b) endomysium c) periosteum. d) perimysium.

d) Perimysium

40. Which bone marking can be defined as a curved portion of the bone? a) Trochanter b) Fossa c) Foramen d) Ramus

d) Ramus

Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: a) osteoclasts. b) osteocytes. c) yellow bone marrow. d) red bone marrow.

d) Red bone marrow

14. Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh? a) Adductor longus b) Gracilis c) Iliopsoas d) Sacrospinalis

d) Sacrospinalis

36. Treppe is also called: a) tetanus. b) electromyography. c) wave summation. d) staircase phenomenon.

d) Staircase Phenomenon

45. Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? a) Suture b) Synovial c) Synchondrosis d) Symphysis

d) Symphysis

45. Which bones make up the lower side of the cranium, part of its floor? a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Parietal d) Temporal

d) Temporal

9. Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which bone(s)? a) Maxillae b) Frontal c) Sphenoid d) Temporal

d) Temporal

3. The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: a) elbow b) shoulder c) wrist d) thumb

d) Thumb

1. Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm? a) Pectoralis major b) Latissimus dorsi c) Deltoid d) Trapezius

d) Trapezius

28. Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in: a) "housemaid's knee." b) total hip replacement. c) osteoporosis. d) a "slipped disk."

d) a "slipped disk"

14. Which of the following muscle(s) function(s) to protect the abdominal viscera? a) External oblique b) Internal oblique c) Transversus abdominis d) All of the above

d) all of the above

16. Purposeful movement is determined by: a) the relationship of muscles to joints. b) how muscles are attached to the skeleton. c) the manner in which muscles are grouped. d) all of the above.

d) all of the above

23. Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a) a relative lack of ATP. b) high levels of lactate. c) failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. d) all of the above.

d) all of the above

4. The organic matrix of bone consists of: a) collagenous fibers b) protein c) polysaccharides d) all of the above

d) all of the above

9. Muscles may be named according to: a) function. b) direction of fibers. c) points of attachment. d) all of the above.

d) all of the above

29. The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: a) amount of load. b) initial length of muscle fibers. c) recruitment of motor units. d) All of the above are correct.

d) all of the above are correct

34. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) The origin of the muscle is attached to the bone that does not move. b) The insertion of the muscle is attached to the bone that moves. c) When the muscle contracts, the insertion moves toward the origin. d) All of the above are correct.

d) all of the above are correct

62. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? a) The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. b) Shivering will increase body temperature. c) Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism. d) All of the above are correct.

d) all of the above are correct

65. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? a) Cardiac muscle forms an electrically coupled mass called a syncytium. b) Much of the calcium necessary for contraction comes from outside the cell. c) In cardiac muscles, the T-tubules form dyads rather than the triads formed in skeletal muscles d) All of the above statements are correct.

d) all of the above are correct

13. Which of the following is not true? a) The pubic arch in the male is less than a 90-degree angle b) The pelvic cavity is narrower in the male than in the female c) the coccyx is less flexible in the male d) All of the above are true

d) all of the above are true

46. Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint? a) Bursae b) Joint cavity c) Menisci d) All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint.

d) all of the above structures characterize a synovial joint

6. Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called: a) synergists. b) fixators c) antagonists d) both A and B

d) both A and B

22. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? a) Rectus b) Oblique c) Femoris d) Both A and C

d) both A and C

23. The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: a) rotation b) flexion. c) extension d) circumduction.

d) circumduction

16. Aerobic respiration: a) allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time. b) results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule. c) results in the formation of lactate. produces the maximum amount of d) energy available from each glucose molecule.

d) energy available from each glucose molecule

10. The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the: a) tibia. b) ibula c) coxal d) femur.

d) femur

10. Menisci are: a) cords of dense, white, fibrous tissue. b) extensions of the periosteum. c) hyaline cartilage cushions. d) fibrocartilage pads.

d) fibrocartilage pads

18. Muscles located on the lower leg move the: a) thigh. b) hip c) knee d) foot.

d) foot

14. Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the upper extremity are: a) metacarpals, carpals, ulna, and humerus. b) carpals, metacarpals, ulna, and humerus. c) humerus, radius, metacarpals, and carpals. d) humerus, radius, carpals, and metacarpals.

d) humerus, radius, carpals, and metacarpals

14. If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: a) infectious materials passing from the ear to the brain. b) food passing from the mouth into the nose. c) difficulty chewing. d) infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain.

d) infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain

50. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a sleevelike extension of the periosteum? a) Bursae b) Ligament c) Joint cavity d) Joint capsule

d) joint capsule

16. The upper part of the sternum is called the: a) costal cartilage. b) xiphoid process. c) body. d) manubrium.

d) manubrium

52. The motor end plate makes up part of the: a) Z-line. b) T-tubules. c) sarcoplasmic reticulum. d) neuromuscular junction.

d) neuromuscular junction

41. The opposite of eversion is: a) protraction. b) depression. c) retraction. d) none of the above.

d) none of the above

38. The ligamenta flava is located in the: a) shoulder. b) hip c) knee d) None of the above is correct

d) none of the above is correct

28. The soleus muscle is an example of a _______ muscle. a) convergent b) parallel c) fusiform d) pennate

d) pennate

10. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named for its: a) function. b) number of attachments. c) size. d) points of attachment.

d) points of attachment

31. The condition of "housemaid's knee" is an inflammation of the: a) menisci. b) cruciate ligaments. c) synovial membrane. d) prepatellar bursa.

d) prepatellar bursa

8. The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the: a) sacrum. b) ilium c) ischium d) pubis.

d) pubis

7. In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: a) actin filaments. b) myofibrils. c) sarcolemmas. d) sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum

d) sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum

27. The graded strength principle states that: a) muscle fibers either will contract with all the force possible under existing conditions or will not contract at all. b) skeletal muscles contract with the same degree of strength at all times, but the force generated is graded. c) muscle size is indirectly proportional to muscle strength. d) skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times.

d) skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times

True or False: In muscles, oxygen can be transferred to the calcium by myoglobin molecules.

false