CHDS Questions

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In what kind of surgical procedure might a Bookwalter rectractor be used? A. Total hip replacement B. laparotomy C. Transsphenoidal resection D. Catheter extraction

B

In which surgical procedure is a Crowe-Davis gag used A. Septoplasty B. Adenoidectomy C. Thyroidectomy D. Tracheotomy

B

Intertrigo is the medical term used to describe A. Dermatitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus B. Dermatitis between folds of skin surfaces caused by friction and resident microorganisms C. Dermatitis between folds of skin surfaces caused by a parasite D. Dermatitis caused by sun damage

B

DICTATED: Her bilateral groins were prepped and draped in the standard sterile fashion. We gained access to the right femoral artery with a stiff micropuncture sheath, which was exchanged for a short 6-French sheath. We then placed a wire and Omni Flush catheter. Can you tell from the excerpt which of the following procedures is likely being performed here? A. abdominal aortography B. abdominoplasty C. herniorrhaphy D. appendectomy

A

CDC is the acronym for A. Centers for Disease Control B. Community Disease Control C. Center for Diabetic Control D. Care for Dependent Children

A

In the physical exam, which pulse strength is likely to be dictated in the abdominal section? a. carotid b. femoral c. radial d. pedal

B

It is best to leave a blank: A. Errors with grammar and punctuation. B. A section of audio that is distorted. C. Direct quotes with obscenities. D. All of the above.

B

Kelly, Kocher, mosquito, and Crile are examples of A. Trocars B. Forceps C. Elevators D. Catheters

B

Korsakoff psychosis is an organic mental disorder associated with which of the following? a. traumatic event b. long-term alcoholism c. victim of abuse d. Down syndrome

B

Leukemia is an abnormal proliferation of A. red blood cells. B. white blood cells. C. coagulation factors. D. platelets

B

Liver is posterior and blanching. What report type would this statement be found? A. Pathology report B. Autopsy C. Operative report D. Emergency department report

B

Manipulation of a broken bone to restore its normal anatomic position before setting in a cast or boot is called A. immobilization. B. reduction. C. subluxation. D. relocation.

B

The suffix -iazide is common to which classification of drugs? A. antidepressants B. diuretics C. beta blockers D. decongestants

B

The term apodia refers to what body part? A. hands B. feet C. arms D. legs

B

The white fibers of connective tissues, cartilage, and bone are mostly made of a protein called A. Cerumen B. Collagen C. C-reactive protein D. Keratin

B

This class of drugs acts on the sympathetic nervous system to relieve stress on the heart. A. antitussives. B. beta blockers C. cephalosporins D. benzodiazepines

B

This metallic element is well known for its use in arthritis patients. A. Silver B. Gold C. Zinc D. Copper

B

What arteries begin at the inguinal ligament and end just above the knee? A. tibial B. femoral C. epigastric D. inferior mesenteric

B

Which of the following is the generic equivalent for Zocor? A. simethicone B. simvastatin C. atorvastatin D. asparaginase

B

Which of the following is the plural form of fossa? A. foci B. fossae C. fossas D. fossulae

B

Which of the following is the term for the gentle rustling sounds of normal breathing heard over most of the lung fields? A. rale B. vesicular C. crackle D. stridor

B

A patient with pressure over the ethmoid sinuses, headache, and nasal drainage may have A. strep throat. B. migraine. C. sinusitis. D. Varicella zoster.

C

A patient's general medical conditions would be reported under which of these on psychiatric assessment? A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV

C

A pulse rate of 120 beats per minute in a 30-year-old female in a resting state would indicate A. normal sinus rhythm. B. asystole. C. tachycardia. D. bradycardia.

C

A/An _______ illness or infection is one that a human can acquire from an animal. A. animatic B. filarial C. zoonotic D. anabiotic

C

Which stage of vaginal cancer is not really cancer at all? A. stage I B. stage II C. VAIN 3 D. stage III

C

Which term describes the kind of health data created from narrative dictation? A. abstracted B. discrete C. unstructured D. mineable

C

Which term is used to refer to the process of copying data from a CD to a computer hard drive? a. burn b. upload c. rip d. transfer

C

Which test requires the use of a tuning fork? A. Romberg B. Dix-Hallpike C. Rinne D. Valsalva

C

Which type of pneumonia would not respond to antibiotic therapy? A. bacterial pneumonia B. nosocomial pneumonia. C. viral pneumonia D. community-acquired pneumonia

C

A CBC includes which of the following? A. Reticulocyte count B. Sedimentation rate C. ABO rate D. Hemoglobin

D

A WBC count of 100,000 would indicate: A. A normal white cell count B. A slightly elevated white cell count C. A decreased WBC D. Markedly elevated count, typical of leukemia

D

A Zahn infarct would be seen in which of the following? A. Brain B. Lung C. Mesentery D. Liver

D

A _________ scan is used to determine the ejection fraction of the ventricles of the heart. A. CT B. PET C. HIDA D. MUGA

D

A boxer's fracture would be found in the A. nose. B. jaw. C. cheek. D. hand.

D

A defibrillator delivers electrical shocks measured in A. jewels. B. amperes. C. volts. D. joules.

D

A medication that is prescribed to be taken p.c. should be taken: A. before food. B. by mouth. C. at bedtime. D. after food.

D

A patient comes to the ER with nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps, and is found to have a sodium value of 112 mEq/L. The patient has A. hypermagnesemia. B. hypomagnesemia. C. hypernatremia. D. Hyponatremia.

D

A patient with an abnormally high white count is said to have A. Endocytosis B. Polycythemia C. Reticulocytosis D. Leukocytosis

D

A rural clinic is comparing costs among SRT vendors. Which of the following may influence the actual return on investment? A. ROI of large hospitals in the area B. Projected cost savings per vendor C. Number of sales visits per contracted year D. Training and implementation costs

D

A skin condition characterized by dark, thick, velvety skin in body folds and creases. a. vitiligo b. acne vulgaris c. petechiae d. acanthosis nigricans

D

A teenager presents with a 2-week history of sore throat and general malaise, and the physician suspects Epstein-Barr, also known as "the kissing disease." Which test would be appropriate in this instance? A. Liver function tests B. Urinalysis C. Rapid strep test D. monospot

D

A urine specific gravity result is dictated "ten-fifteen". Which of the following is the correct way to transcribe this value? a. 10-15 b. 1015 c. 10.15 d. 1.015

D

A(n) _____ will be ordered as an initial diagnostic step in evaluation of this patient's dominant thyroid nodule. What kind of test or exam is most likely to be performed? A. PET scan B. Plain x-ray C. scintigraphy D. fine-needle aspiration biopsy

D

ACLS protocols provide guidelines for A. controlled life support. B. chronic life support. C. ongoing life support. D. advanced cardiac life support.

D

ADT refers to _______ data. A. Assessment/Diagnosis/Treatment B. Assessment/Discharge/Transfer C. Admission/Diagnosis/Treatment D. Admission/Discharge/Transfer

D

ANA (antinuclear antibodies) are often positive in patients with A. AIDS B. Allergies C. SCIDS D. Autoimmune disorders

D

Abnormal hypersensitivity to a food or plant is called a (an) A. Immunodeficiency. B. Malignancy. C. Immunity. D. Allergy

D

All of the following are expressed using roman numerals except: A. cancer grades B. cranial nerves C. NYHA heart failure classifications D. Clark levels

A

All of these are correct abbreviations of a metric unit except: A. kgm B. mL C. msec D. mmHg

A

An abbreviation that is pronounced as a word is called a/an: A. acronym B. initialism C. brief form D. slang form

A

A 70-year-old male complains of feeling he cannot empty his bladder completely. He has noted _____ urethral discharge. I have discussed with him that this is likely BPH. Which is the most likely word or phrase in the above blank? A. no B. profuse C. A greenish D. Some purulent

A

A Wenckebach disorder can be diagnosed by an EKG. A. True B. False

A

A good performance booster is to A. defrag your computer B. delete all your files C. save minimal things on your computer D. play games

A

A postoperative patient is noted in the recovery room to have indicators of volume depletion including ______ and ______. What are the likely signs or symptoms mentioned in the blanks? A. Hypotension and low urine output B. Hypertension and low urine output C. Hypotension and excessive urine output D. Hypertension and excessive urine output

A

According to the Book of Style, which elements entered or captured in an electronic environment may not translate correctly? A. Use of certain symbols and styles B. Report templates C. Drug dosages D. Demographic information

A

DICTATED: The patient was taken to the operating room, placed in the supine position and administered TIVA anesthesia. Given this excerpt, can you select the procedure being performed? A. Reduction mammoplasty B. Shoulder arthroscopy C. hemorrhoidectomy D. CT-guided kidney biopsy

A

During cardiac systole, what occurs? A. The left ventricle empties into the aorta. B. The right ventricle empties into the aorta. C. The left ventricle empties into the pulmonary artery. D. The ventricles relax and accept blood from the atria.

A

Fill in the blank with the correction expression below. Neutrophils ________ A. 68% B. .68% C. 6.8 D. 6.8%

A

For placement over the dorsum, a cartilage crusher was used to crush and flatten a small piece of septal cartilage, then the contour was checked and confirmed to be satisfactory. Which surgical procedure would contain the above language? A. rhinoplasty B. myringotomy C. tracheotomy D. Cervical diskectomy

A

Hodgkin disease involves the A. lymph system. B. thyroid gland. C. adrenal glands. D. lungs.

A

In the following sentence, identify the prepositional phrase. During the operation, we identified the source of her bleeding, which was clamped and suture ligated. A. During the operation B. we identified C. the source of her bleeding D. which was clamped and suture ligated.

A

In what setting would you most likely hear the phrase "8, 80, minus 1" being used? a. By an obstetrician describing fetal presentation b. By a dermatologist describing a skin lesion c. By a surgeon describing an inflamed appendix d. By a radiologist describing a bone fracture

A

In which type of surgery might a peel-away sheath be used? A. Implantation of an AICD B. FNA of the breast C. Repair of an AVM D. Implantation of an IOL

A

Latin terms ending -a should be pluralized by: A. adding -e B. changing -a to -us C. changing -a to -on D. changing -a to - um

A

Natural Language Processing is also referred to as natural language ___________? A. understanding B. recognition C. interpretation D. management

A

On x-ray, the radiologist reports a widening at the acromioclavicular joint, suggesting the possibility of _____ and followup films are recommended. Which condition is likely to be named in the blank? A. separation B. Crush injury C. carcinoma D. arthritis

A

Place the following in their correct order from outside to inside: 1. lungs 2. pleural cavity 3. visceral pleura 4. parietal pleura A. 4, 2, 3, 1 B. 3, 2, 4, 1 C. 4, 3, 2, 1 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

A

Processor speed is measured in which units? a. hertz b. bits c. bytes d. pixels

A

Protocols such as Ellestad, Kattus, McHenry, and Naughton, could be used in which of the following tests? A. treadmill exercise B. EKG C. hepatitis screening D. PET scanning

A

Taxotere, carboplatin, Arimidex and ifosfamide are examples of what? a. chemotherapy medications b. antibiotics c. anxiolytics d. analgesics

A

The Braunwald system is used to classify ________________. A. Unstable angina B. Joint range of motion C. Fetal development D. Lens opacity

A

The Mallampati‐Samsoon classification system is used to: A. assess airway for ease of intubation. B. measure daytime sleepiness in the assessment of sleep disorders. C. determine likelihood of depression in patients with potential sleep disorders. D. assess pulmonary function and the need for mechanical ventilation.

A

The Marshall test is performed on what organ? A. Bladder B. Breasts C. Lungs D. Kidney

A

The TAT for a history and physical examination is 24 hours. The 24 hour period begins: A. At the time of inpatient admission. B. At the time of the doctor's examination. C. According to the date and time stamp, the report must be delivered 24 hours from the time dictated. D. None of the above.

A

The abbreviation YAG refers to a A. laser B. clamp C. Bone saw D. microscope

A

The hard palate is composed of the _________ and __________ bones. A. maxillae; palatine B. vomer; palatine C. sphenoid; ethmoid D. maxillae; mandible

A

The medial borders of the longus colli muscles were dissected free from their attachments. A needle was placed and an x-ray properly localized the space. In which surgical procedure would you find the sentences above? A. Anterior cervical diskectomy B. rhytidectomy C. thyroidectomy D. Achilles tendon repair

A

The minor calyx and the major calyx are found in the ___________. A. kidney B. liver C. Brain D. Spleen

A

The patient complains of acute shortness of breath that came on suddenly at night, awakening him from sleep. This is called A. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. B. orthopnea. C. bronchiectasis. D. postnasal drip.

A

The patient's current chemistries include a hemoglobin of 14.8, white count of 16.3. Sodium 133, potassium 5.1, chloride 104, CO2 of 19, a BUN of 26, and a creatinine of 3.5. Based on the lab findings above, which of the following conditions would be part of this patient's diagnosis/assessment? A. azotemia B. hyperkalemia C. hyperchloremia D. Acidosis

A

The space between the lungs is called the A. mediastinum B. peritoneum C. pleura D. trachea

A

The term "basketing" is most commonly used in reference to treatment of which clinical finding? A. urethral calculi B. atherosclerosis C. cholecystitis D. rotator cuff tear

A

The upper arm bone is called what? a. humerus b. carpal c. ulna d. radius

A

This 60-year-old woman presents with acute onset of respiratory distress 5 days following colectomy for colon carcinoma. We will order a lung V/Q scan and ________. A. Consider starting heparin B. Perform immediate bronchoscopy C. Begin chest physiotherapy D. Initiate antibiotic therapy

A

To allow mobilization of the tissue, the galea was incised in multiple areas, then the tissue was closed with 3-0 Vicryl suture deep in the galea. In what kind of surgery would the above sentence be found? A. Scalp tumor resection B. Total knee replacement C. Total hip replacement D. Resection of renal tumor

A

Volkmann and Haversian canals are found in the: A. bone B. brain C. liver D. kidney

A

What condition is being described when a patient is classified as Dukes B? A. Colon carcinoma B. Malignant melanoma C. leukemia D. lymphoma

A

What do the letters HL stand for in the term HL7? A. Health Level B. Healthcare Level C. Host location. D. Host Level

A

What does HEDIS stand for? A. Health Effectiveness Data and Information Set B. Healthcare Effort and Information Set C. Health Effectiveness and Information Standards

A

What does ONC stand for? A. Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology B. Official National Council on Health Information Technology C. Office of the National Coordinator for Health Informatics D. Official National Coordinator for Healthcare Information

A

What does the "M" in ASTM refer to? A. Materials B. Management C. Medicine D. Manual

A

What does the A stand for in TASP? a. application b. area c. aggregate d. acquisition

A

What does the phrase "meaningful use" refer to? A. Adoption and integration of EHR systems in a manner that drives coordinated use of health information and improved care outcomes. B. Appropriation application of clinical coding standards to avoid fraud and abuse in patient billing. C. Integration of e-prescribing technologies that eliminate drug-related data entry errors. D. Capture of core measures information that will generate useable statistical data to support the management of specific diseases.

A

What function does the F5 key perform in Windows? a. Refreshes the current window b. Opens Windows Help c. Moves up one folder level d. Activates the menu bar

A

What is SNOMED? A. A clinical reference terminology B. A set of standards for objective data mining C. A group of codes for reimbursement D. A set of groups of synonyms

A

What is the correct definition of a Colles fracture? A. fracture of the lower end of the radius with displacement of the distal fragment B. fracture of the navicular bone C. fracture of the facial bones with a horizontal fracture at the base of the maxilla D. fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

A

What is the meaning of XML? a. extensible markup language b. electronic markup language c. electronic markup language d. extensible medical language

A

What is the medical term for inflammation of the liver? A. Hepatitis B. Nephritis C. Encephalitis D. Pancreatitis

A

What is the name given to the lower posterior part of the hip bone, consisting of a body and a ramus? A. ischium B. ala C. coccyx D. sacrum

A

What is the name of the US government agency tasked with guiding the nationwide implementation of health information technology? A. Office of the National Coordinator B. Health Information Exchange C. Regional Extension Center D. Office of Civil Rights

A

What kind of surgery uses anterior approach through the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Cervical diskectomy B. Inguinal hernia repair C. SLAP repair D. Lumbar fusion

A

When the heart suddenly doubles or triples the number of systolic beats per minute, the condition is known as: A. paroxysmal atrial tachycardia B. mitral stenosis C. heart block D. sinus brachycardia

A

Which SI unit is considered a dangerous abbreviation? A. pg B. mcg C. mmol D. mEq

A

Which abbreviation appears on the Joint Commission list of dangerous abbreviations? A. I.U. B. n.r. C. mEq D. DNR

A

Which expression is correctly transcribed? A. OPERATIVE PROCEDURES 1. Bilateral myringotomy and tube placement. 2. Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. B. OPERATIVE PROCEDURES BMT with tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. C. OPERATIVE PROCEDURES Bilateral myringotomy and tube placement. D. OPERATIVE PROCEDURES BMT, T&A.

A

Which is a brand of electrocautery device used for hemostasis? A. Bugbee B. Artic C. ElecSys D. DePuy

A

Which is correct? A. We requested his previous x‐rays. B. He was sent down to x‐ray for repeat films. C. I believe we will need to re‐x‐ray the right wrist. D. The patient was x‐ray'd at the bedside.

A

Which is expressed correctly? A. Myeloid‐to‐erythroid ratio B. Myeloid/erythroid ratio C. Myeloid:erythroid ratio ‐ D. M:E ratio

A

Which is not a correctly pluralized abbreviation? A. lbs B. dcL C. rbc's D. EKGs

A

Which is transcribed correctly? A. The patient's BNP was 204. B. The patient's BMP was 204. C. The patients brain naturetic peptic level was 204. D. The patient's brain natriuretic peptid level was 204.

A

Which issues usually have the highest success rate for resolution? A. Software B. Hardware C. Network D. Programming

A

Which of the following is a lung condition characterized by hyperinflation of the air sacs with destruction of alveolar walls? A. emphysema B. pneumonia C. tuberculosis D. asthma

A

Which of the following is a phase of gastric secretion that refers to the reflexes initiated by the sensory receptors of sight, smell, taste or thought? A. cephalic B. gastric C. intestinal D. emptying

A

Which of the following is an anticonvulsant? A. Depakene B. Tobrex C. Tofranil D. Depo-Provera

A

Which of the following is not a type of allergy test? A. breath B. scratch C. RAST D. patch

A

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. The patient has a reduction in both T cells and B cells. B. The patient has a reduction in both T-cells and B-cells. C. The patient has a reduction in both TEE cells and BEE cells. D. The patient has a reduction in both thymus-derived cells and bursa-derived cells.

A

Which of the following is used to describe the incision utilized in a routine cesarean section? A. Low-transverse B. transabdominal C. subcostal D. periumbilical

A

Which of the following refers to normal vision? A. emmetropia B. presbyopia C. hyperopia D. myopia

A

Which of the following would edit front-end SRT? A. physician B. Certified physician's assistant C. QA specialist D. Certified medical transcriptionist/editor

A

Which of these dictated proportions would be transcribed with a virgule (/)? A. DTRs were 4+ out of 5. B. Respirations were 16 per minute. C. We will start her on AccuNeb 0.63 milligrams per 3 mL. D. She was started on normal saline with 20 milliequivalents of KCL per liter.

A

Which of these is also known as the proprietary name of a drug? A. brand B. trade C. generic D. code

A

Which refers to a collaborative website that can be directly edited by anyone with access to it? a. wiki b. RSS c. blog d. ISP

A

Which refers to the application of computer technology to the management of information? A. informatics B. interoperability C. integration D. Implementation

A

Which refers to the application of natural language processing using a clinical nomenclature system, such as SNOMED-CT? A. Data tagging B. Data mining C. Data abstracting D. Data integration

A

Which refers to the transcribed document after the application of NLP? A. Codified narrative B. Abstracted dictation C. Source file D. Data file

A

Which represents an accurately expressed range of values? A. She admits to smoking 8‐10 cigarettes per day. B. Repeat scan revealed a 3‐4% increase in tumor size compared to the December scan. C. She takes between 4‐6 Advil every day for chronic headaches. D. She was told insurance would only cover 300‐1000 dollars for the procedure.

A

Which represents the accurate expression of the underlined portion of the dictated sentence below? DICTATED: Mom presents today seeking swine flu vaccinations for all 5 children. A. "swine flu" B. swine flu C. H1N1 D. "H1N1"

A

Which sentence contains a correctly capitalized organization term? A. She was scheduled for KUB, but X‐ray sent her back because she refused the study. B. The lesion was carefully dissected and sent for Pathology. C. She was seen in Cardiology consult and scheduled for angioplasty. D. The Pathology came back showing early dedifferentiation.

A

Which type of noun is typically capitalized? A. Proper nouns B. Abstract nouns C. Collective nouns D. Common nouns

A

Your home network A. Should be password protected B. Given access to freely C. Is very secure D. Is easily accessed

A

_______ is a type of unwanted software that can cause problems with your legitimate software and/or hardware A. Malware B. Kernel C. RAM D. Shortcut

A

Which abbreviation refers to an enforced audit being mandated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid to review improper payments made to healthcare providers? A. RAC B. P4P C. PQRI D. MAC

A Recovery Audit Contractor

Which is correct? The (ACE or Ace) Bandage was carefully applied.

Ace bandage

A child diagnosed with a crush injury to the physis would be classified how? A. LeFort I B. Salter-Harris V C. Mayo IIIA D. Rancho Los Amigos VI

B

A common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia among infants and children under 1 year of age is A. Pneumocystis B. RSV C. rubella D. histoplasmosis

B

A common treatment for acute otitis media is A. Topamax B. Zithromax C. TriCor D. Maxzide

B

A doctor who suspects a patient has tuberculosis might order a (an) A. HIDA. B. PPD C. hCG. D. Gram stain.

B

A patient presents to the ER with altered mental status, diaphoresis, vomiting, dry mouth, dilated pupils, and tachycardia. The diagnosis might include A. a stroke. B. a drug overdose. C. a cerebral hemorrhage. D. appendicitis.

B

A prefix that means "down" is A. hypo- B. cata- C. exo- D. opistho-

B

A stereotaxic frame is used in: A. Arthroscopy B. Neurosurgery C. Cardiovascular surgery D. Obstetrics

B

A tort is a: A. Criminal wrong B. Civil wrong C. Misdemeanor D. Willful, premeditated act

B

According to HL7, a dictated addendum should be: A. added to the original document at the end of the report with a new signature line and date stamp. B. transcribed in a new document with its own document ID. C. added to the original document and incorporated into the body of the report above the original signature line. D. None of the above.

B

All of the following are true of major headings in medical report except: A. express major section headings using all capitals. B. always insert obvious headings that are not dictated. C. double space between major headings of reports. D. use initial caps only for subheadings.

B

All of the following are true of oncogenes except: A. they typically play a role in healthy growth unless mutated. B. they were first identified in bacteria. C. they are expressed in formal publication in italics. D. they are expressed in transcription in three‐letter lowercase regular type.

B

All of these are used to measure visual acuity except A. Snellen fractions. B. Goldmann system. C. Bailey‐Lovie system. D. Jaeger system.

B

All of these drugs are expressed correctly except: A. acetaminophen. B. St. John's Wort. C. doxycycline. D. Ambien.

B

Axes I, II, III, IV, and V are used to classify ________ diagnoses. A. carcinoma B. psychiatric C. neurological D. circulatory

B

Chronic inflammation at the origin of the extensor muscles of the forearm from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus caused by repetitive use is called A. Nursemaid's elbow B. Tennis elbow C. Sprain D. Tendonitis

B

In the abbreviation ICD-10, what does the "D" refer to? A. division B. disease C. diagnosis D. diagnostics

B

DICOM is the interoperability standard established to support distribution and access to which of these? A. E-prescriptions B. Imaging studies C. Laboratory data D. Home health reports

B

DICTATED: After induction of IV sedation, an axillary nerve block was performed by anesthesia staff. Routine prep and drape was employed. The limb was exsanguinated by means of elevation of Esmarch elastic tourniquet. Tourniquet inflated to 250 mmHg pressure. From the excerpt above and considering the choices, what operation is being performed? A. mastectomy B. Radial styloidectomy C. CT-guided pleural biopsy D. Girdlestone procedure

B

DICTATED: MAC anesthesia was achieved, which was followed by topical anesthesia using 1% preservative-free tetracaine drops. From the excerpt above and considering the choices given, which procedure would be performed? A. Nasal septoplasty B. Phacoemulsification cataract extraction with lens implantation C. Bronchoscopy D. Debridement of decubitus ulcer

B

DICTATED: The patient was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion and retrobulbar anesthesia was performed using a 50:50 mixture of 2% lidocaine and 0.75% Marcaine. Can you tell from this excerpt which of the following procedures is likely being performed here? A. Bulbar urethrotomy B. phacoemulsification C. esophagogastroduodenoscopy D. Rhinoplasty

B

Desensitization is used to A. Reduce the pain of arthritis. B. Lessen the symptoms of allergy. C. Prevent infection. D. Block nerve impulses to affected joints.

B

Digoxin is the generic name for the drug A. Levoxyl B. Lanoxin C. Levaquin D. Nexium

B

Document imaging and clinical messaging are examples of what? A. critical paths B. bridge technologies C. closed EHR systems D. Comprehensive use of an EHR

B

Drug names, SNOMED CT codes, and time are examples of __________ elements. A. HEDIS B. Meaningful use C. NLP

B

Each of these is always singular except: A. ascites B. biceps C. lues D. genetics

B

FEV is measured as part of: A. arterial blood gases. B. pulmonary function testing. C. mechanical ventilation. D. polysomnography.

B

FVC and FEV are measures of ______________ function. A. cardiac B. pulmonary C. nerve D. gastrointestinal

B

For which condition would a troponin blood level be drawn to help diagnose? A. pyelonephritis B. Myocardial infarction C. Pancreatic cancer D. cholelithiasis

B

GAF and GARF are scales used by what type of physician? a. cardiologist b. psychologist c. ophthalmologist d. dermatologist

B

GAF refers to: A. General Assessment of Functioning. B. Global Assessment of Functioning. C. General Acuity Factor. D. Global Acuity Factor.

B

Given a facility's use of voice recognition technology, which of the following may be the responsibility of the documentation specialist (MT)? A. Real-time correction of draft document B. Draft document editing C. Authentication of reports D. Dictation of narrative

B

Heberden nodes are found A. In the axillae B. In the joints of the fingers C. Behind the mediastinum D. In the groin

B

Hospital-acquired pneumonia is also called A. streptococcus pneumonia. B. nosocomial pneumonia C. staphylococcus pneumonia. D. aspiration pneumonia

B

If a radiologist diagnosed a Bankart fracture, where would it be located? A. Knee B. Shoulder C. Hip D. Foot

B

In pulmonary medicine, what does the abbreviation IPP stand for? A. intrapulmonary pressure B. intermittent positive pressure C. interpulmonary pressure D. intermediated pulmonary pressure

B

In terms of healthcare technology, what does the abbreviation CDS stand for? a. clinical data stream b. clinical decision support c. clinical decision standards d. clinical documentation of standards

B

Needles were passed with direct palpation through the lateral incision from the lateral thigh to the vaginal incision. Which operative report would include the above sentences? A. hysterectomy B. Urethral sling C. Vulvectomy D. Cystectomy

B

Normal karyotype for males is: A. 46,XX B. 46,XY C. 45,X D. 47,XXY

B

Organisms are scientifically classified in groups called: A. ranks. B. taxa. C. genuses. D. species.

B

Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and bacteria, are: A. Toxins B. Pathogens C. Venoms D. Parasites

B

Osteo is the prefix meaning A. tissue B. bone C. joint D. tendon

B

PHI refers to: A. patient health information. B. protected health information. C. patient health insurance. D. protected health insurance.

B

Placement of a tube through the mouth to the trachea to establish an airway is called A. thoracentesis B. endotracheal intubation C. translaryngeal intubation D. tracheostomy

B

Several weeks following the onset of pancreatitis, the patient developed an accumulation of thick, purulent fluid, as seen on MRI scan, with an elevated white count and was diagnosed with _____, for which surgery was recommended and performed. What is the diagnosis of the above scenario? A. Biliary tract carcinoma B. Pancreatic abscess C. Severe biliary stenosis D. Pancreatic carcinoma

B

Sodium 138, potassium 4.2, ______ 102, bicarbonate 26. What should you listen for at the blank? A. calcium B. chloride C. glucose D. magnesium

B

Sulfonamides, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, and macrolides are a type of what? a. narcotics b. antibiotics c. oral contraceptives d. None of the above

B

The Roux-en-Y technique is used in which kind of surgical specialty? A. ophthalmologic B. bariatric C. urologic D. arthroscopic

B

The __________ mood makes requests or demands. A. indicative B. imperative C. subjunctive D. superlative

B

The discomfort in his chest is not ______ by exertion, but neither is it relieved with rest. Which of the following best completes this sentence? A. eliminated B. exacerbated C. exasperated D. exonerated

B

The draft of a speech-recognized report contains the sentence: "Point 5 cc of preservative-free lidocaine was injected." According to the BOS, which represents the correct edit? A. .5 cc of preservative-free lidocaine was injected B. Preservative-free lidocaine 0.5 mL was injected C. Point 5 cc of preservative-free lidocaine was injected D. 0.5 mL of preservative-free lidocaine was injected

B

The fibrous capsule, cortex, and major calyces are part of what structure? a. brain b. kidney c. liver d. spleen

B

The fractional expression of relationship between one quantity and another whose value is determined by dividing the numerator by the denominator: A. range. B. ratio. C. percent. D. radical.

B

The gland that controls functional maturation of lymphocytes is the A. pituitary B. thymus C. adrenal D. thyroid

B

The gland that controls functional maturation of lymphocytes is the: A. pituitary B. thymus C. adrenal D. Thyroid

B

The normal value range for albumin is A. 15-45 mcg/dL B. 2.5 to 5.0 g/dL C. 24-30 mEq/L D. 5-20 mg/dL

B

The patient will undergo a nuclear stress test and perfusion with ________, as the patient is unable to walk on a treadmill. A. thallium B. adenosine C. technetium D. sestamibi

B

The prefix aden/o means A. Fat B. Gland C. Connective tissue D. Hair or nails

B

The primary gas phase symbol Q refers to: A. specific conductance. B. volume of blood. C. resistance. D. volume of gas.

B

The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time, is: A. Anger B. Bargaining C. Acceptance D. Denial

B

The suffix -blast means A. Mature cell B. Immature cell C. Enlarge cell D. Dead cell

B

What does the I in GUI refer to? a. Information b. Interface c. Index d. Indicator

B

What drug is used to induce labor? A. amoxicillin B. oxytocin C. terbutaline D. tetracycline

B

What is the correct definition of HTML? A. An electronic network B. A syntax-defining format in a web page C. format for the display of medical information. D. A hybrid system combining templates and narrative text

B

What is the correct expansion of CPOE? a. clinical practice order entry b. computerized physician order entry c. clinical and procedural operations entry d. clinic procedures and operations entities

B

What is the correct expansion of the abbreviation CDR? A. clinical data record B . clinical data repository C. clinical document reports D. clinical documentation repository

B

What is the generic form of the drug Zantac? A. zidovudine B. ranitidine C. zolpidem D. reserpine

B

What is the minimum number of times a para 2‐1‐0‐3 patient has been pregnant? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B

What is the normal range of serum sodium? A. 125 to 145 mEq/L B. 135 to 145 mEq/L C. 125 to 135 mEq/L D. 135 to 155 mEq/L

B

What is the primary function of NLP technology? A. To enable disparate health IT systems to exchange data B. To codify unstructured narrative against data measurement systems for electronic use and analysis. C. To capture dictated narrative and create a speech-recognized draft. D. To format narrative reports in compliance.

B

What kind of surgery would use a columellar chevron incision? A. adenoidectomy B. Open rhinoplasty C. Cataract extraction D. angioplasty

B

What type of catheter would a physician use for a patient who has trouble voiding? A. Balloon catheter B. Foley C. Hickman D. Swan-Ganz

B

Where is a herpetic whitlow infection located? A. knee B. finger C. lip D. Cervical lymph nodes

B

Which acronym stands for a business that hosts and manages software services for customers over a network? A. ICD B. ASP C. CPT D. RSS

B

Which is a factor impacting SRT adoption and integration? A. Joint Commission standards B. Efficiency and skill set of the editor C. Patient consent D. Government approval

B

Which is a finding in the Bethesda classification system? A. CD3d B. ASCUS C. LAUVPG D. MEN 2A

B

Which is correct? A. Her time on the treadmill was 13‐minutes, 43‐seconds. B. Her time on the treadmill was 13 minutes 43 seconds. C. Her time on the treadmill was 13 minutes, 43 seconds. D. Her time on the treadmill was 13‐minutes 43‐seconds.

B

Which is transcribed correctly? A. We made a small, 2‐cm incision and threaded the catheter through the opening. B. His 7‐foot height has contributed to some slight curvature of the upper spine. C. There was a jagged 3 inch laceration to the posterior occiput. D. Sonogram revealed an ovoid, 2‐x‐3‐cm mass just posterior to the right nipple.

B

Which of the following cellular components is not an organelle? A. endoplasmic reticulum B. cytosol C. nucleus D. mitochondria

B

Which of the following fluids lubricates the joints? A. Cerebrospinal B. Synovial C. Interstitial D. Amniotic

B

Which of the following instruments is used for cutting bone? A. Rasp B. Osteotome C. Planer D. Fixator

B

Which of the following is a protein associated with iron transport? A. ceruloplasmin B. transferrin C. ferritin D. Alpha1 antitrypsin

B

Which of the following is a protein produced by the immune system to help destroy an invading organism. A. Antigen B. Antibody C. Albumin D. Fibrin

B

Which of the following is an emergent opening in the neck to assist with breathing? A. Osteotomy B. Tracheostomy C. Sternotomy D. Laryngectomy

B

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. The patient is in his 60's and hasn't had any diabetes, hypertension, or cancer. B. The patient is in his 60s and has not had any diabetes, hypertension, or cancer. C. The patient is in his 60's and has not had any diabetes, hypertension, or cancer. D. The patient is in his 60s and hasn't had any diabetes, hypertension, or cancer.

B

Which of the following lies fully ipsilateral to the left iliac region A. Epigastric region B. Left hypochondriac region C. Right inguinal region D. Hypogastric region

B

Which of the following might result in an elevated urine specific gravity? A. proteinuria B. diabetes mellitus C. diabetes insipidus D. hemoglobinuria

B

Which of the following refers to the fibula? A. perineal B. peroneal C. peritoneal D. perennial

B

Which of the following report type is considered a redundant report and will soon become obsolete in the near future due to the accessibility of the electronic medical record? A. Operative Report B. Discharge Summary C. SOAP notes D. Autopsy Report

B

Which of the following statements about using a laptop to transcribe from a different location is incorrect? A. It should have an encrypted drive. B. PHI information stored on the local computer will always be encrypted. C. Criminals can't access data stored on the computer that is not encrypted. D. It should be password protected.

B

Which of the following terms denotes a hissing or whistling character of an added musical sound during inspiration or expiration? A. Stimulant B. Sibilant C. Adventitious D. Egophony

B

Which of the following tests is used to assess lung volume and exchange capacity? A. TSH B. PFT C. CMP D. INR

B

Which of the following would be prescribed for an asthma patient? A. proton pump inhibitor B. beta agonist C. calcium channel blocker D. ACE inhibitor

B

Which of these is expressed correctly? A. normal STT wave B. normal ST and T‐wave C. normal ST‐T‐wave D. normal ST and T wave

B

Which of these is subdivided into compounds that are referenced by Greek letters such as alfa, beta, and gamma? A. lymphocytes B. interferons C. immunoglobulins D. chemokines

B

Which of these is used to assess personality? A. Rorschach Test B. Myers‐Briggs Assessment C. Zung Scale D. Hamilton Scale

B

Which of these murmurs is expressed correctly? A. grade 3‐1/2 to 4 over 6 B. grade 3.5/6 to 4/6 C. grade 3.5‐4 over 6 D. grade 3.5‐4/6

B

Which refers to individual pieces of information that can be uniquely classified? a. concrete b. discrete c. complete d. repeat

B

Which refers to narrowing of the opening of the prepuce, which prevents it from being drawn back over the glans? A. phlebitis B. phimosis C. philomimesia D. phlegmon

B

Which sentence is typed correctly? A. The cardiologist used a drug-eluding stent with paclitaxel. B. The cardiologist used a drug-eluting stent with paclitaxel. C. The cardiologist used a drug-eluting stent with bare metal. D. The cardiologist used a drug-eluding stent with bare metal.

B

Which serves as the "brain" of the computer? a. motherboard b. CPU c. USB d. hard drive

B

Which technology is used to manage the storage, access, and rapid retrieval of radiographic images? a. VPN b. PACS c. ISDN d. BC-MAR

B

Which term is used to describe a computer system that is old and outdated? A. next gen B. legacy C. archive D. sunset

B

Which type of scissors might be used in vascular surgery? A. Mayo B. Potts C. bandage D. Stevens

B

Which word would describe the "vehicle" by which an infectious agent is transferred from an infected to a susceptible host? A. endemic B. vector C. pathogen D. Pandemic

B

Wilms tumor is a malignant tumor involving the A. Gallbladder B. Kidney C. Breast D. Bladder

B

Mild erythema of the right main bronchus was also noted. Both lungs were lavaged with 200 mL of normal saline, and bronchial washing were sent for C&S, AFB, and cytologic examination. Which type of report would contain this excerpt? A. LMA B. BAL C. PEG D. FNA

B Bronchoalveolar lavage

In the gene reference TNF, the N refers to: A. name. B. necrosis. C. number. D. nucleic.

B tumor necrosis factor

A patient with a deep vein thrombosis has a A. blood blister. B. blood island. C. blood clot. D. blood dyscrasia.

C

"Sed rate" is a slang term referring to A. secondary immune response. B. sedation rate. C. erythrocyte sedimentation rate. D. prescribed dose of NSAIDs.

C

1. Three distinctive intervals in an electrocardiogram are A. PT, QT, and Z. B. PU, QRS, and V. C. PR, QRS, and ST. D. PS, QT, and S.

C

15. Which of the following is the correct way to transcribe "two over six SEM?" A. II/VI systolic ejection murmur B. 2 over 6 systolic ejection murmur C. 2/6 systolic ejection murmur D. Two over 6 systolic ejection murmur

C

A Glasgow coma score of 7 or less indicates what level of consciousness? A. normal B. functional C. coma D. brain death

C

A Mayfield holder would be used in what type of surgery? A. abdominal B. cardiac C. cranial D. thoracic

C

A child comes to the ER with pain and swelling in his forearm after a skateboard accident. Which test would be ordered to rule out a fracture? A. MRA B. MRI C. plain film D. PET scan

C

A common characteristic of a metallic foreign body in the eye is A. crusting. B. purulent drainage. C. a rust ring. D. a yellow halo.

C

A condition caused by the accumulation of uric acid crystals is called A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. synovitis. C. gout. D. multiple sclerosis.

C

A condition that affects the large intestine and causes problems passing stool. a. thalassemia b. cholelithiasis c. Hirschsprung disease d. Respiratory syncytial virus

C

A cookie on your computer can A. Format a document B. Autofill in web addresses C. Track the sites you visit on the internet D. Be added to your favorites

C

A da Vinci surgery utilizes the help of ____________. A. Voice-recognized technology commands B. Traditional techniques C. A robot D. Extra staff members

C

A document that should never be stored on your computer is? A. school report B. business documents C. protected health information D. policy and procedures

C

A fluid-filled blister is also known as a A. Papule B. Macule C. Bulla D. Pustule

C

A fracture which causes the bone to puncture the skin is called a (an) A. comminuted fracture. B. displaced fracture. C. compound fracture. D. impacted fracture.

C

A grading of +2 indicates reflexes that are: A. absent. B. decreased. C. normal. D. hyperactive.

C

A hypertrophic scar is called A. Scab B. Glomus C. Keloid D. Kerion

C

A patient is diagnosed with a MRSA infection. The infectious agent is resistant to A. methotrexate B. methylcellulose C. methicillin D. methylprednisolone

C

A patient presents to the ER with an exacerbation of asthma. Treatment would likely include A. Imitrex. B. Afrin nasal spray. C. albuterol. D. Acetaminophen.

C

A patient who has had a transient ischemic attack may have aphasia, or impairment in their ability to _________. A. hear B. swallow C. speak D. see

C

Accredited certification bodies must seek authorization from which organization to participate in the Certification Program and to test and certify EHR products? A. HITSP B. RHIO C. ONC D. HL7

C

All of the following are correct expressions of a compound modifier except: A. up‐to‐date immunizations. B. doctor‐patient relationship. C. lovely sounding voice. D. severely damaged tissue.

C

All of the following headings are correct, except: A. HEENT: Within normal limits. B. ANESTHESIA: General. C. Review of Systems: Noncontributory. D: DIAGNOSES 1. Sepsis. 2. Pneumonia.

C

All of these are pharmaceutical measurements retained from the avoirdupois system except: A. grain B. ounce C. dram D. pound

C

An x-ray without contrast media is called a A. planar view. B. plane view. C. plain view. D. Pillar view.

C

Another name for Mediterranean anemia. a. Naples syndrome b. Sicilian curse c. thalassemia d. Marfan syndrome

C

Any specimen that is sent for pathologic evaluation will undergo which kind of evaluation? A. Gross B. Microscopic C. All of the above D. None of the above

C

Assigning human qualities, actions, or characteristics to a place or a thing is called: A. personalization. B. humanization. C. personification. D. characterization.

C

BIRADS is a standardized reporting system used in A. fractures of the long bones. B. joint dislocations. C. mammography. D. spinal fractures.

C

Bacteria or fungi in the blood is called A. Meningitis B. Uremia C. Toxemia D. Septicemia

C

Blood factor IX is also known as the __________factor. A. Stuart B. Hageman C. Christmas D. antihemophilic

C

Candida albicans is best treated with A. Savlon B. Daktarin C. Clotrimazole cream D. metronidazole gel

C

Cicatrix is the medical term for: A. Pustule B. Papule C. Scar D. Acne

C

Complete the following sentence: He was put on a _______, and warmed IV fluids were administered. A. bear hugger B. Bear Hugger C. Bair Hugger D. bare hugger

C

DICTATED: After informed consent was obtained, the patient was taken to the operating room. She was subsequently placed under general endotracheal anesthesia, prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion and placed in semi-Fowler position. From this excerpt, what kind of procedure is being performed here? A. Cardiac catheterization with LAD angioplasty B. Radical mastectomy with TRAM flap reconstruction C. Total thyroidectomy with central neck dissection D. Open cholecystectomy with intraoperative cholangiogram

C

DKA, characterized by hypotension and tachypnea, is the acronym for A. double knee amputation. B. diadochokinesia. C. diabetic ketoacidosis. D. carbon dioxide acidosis.

C

Debridement consists of: A. bringing raw wound edges into alignment B. occlusion of open and bleeding vessels C. removal of infected and devitalized tissue D. reopening of an improperly healed wound

C

Error messages such as "hard drive not found", "fixed disk error", or "no boot device available" may indicate what problem? A. Registry corruption B. Processor overheating C. Hard drive failure D. Malware

C

For which of the following is Phenergan prescribed? A. gastric ulcers B. onychomycosis C. allergic rhinitis D. vaginitis

C

Grinding one's teeth, usually during sleep, is called A. odontagra. B. mastication. C. bruxism. D. trismus.

C

Heart murmurs are often heard A. at the costovertebral angle. B. at the PMI. C. at the left sternal border. D. in the epigastrium.

C

How can the drug fentanyl be administered? A. by injection B. either by injection or orally C. by injection, orally, or transdermally D. by injection, orally, transdermally, or by inhalation.

C

The middle meninx of the spinal meninges is called the: A. dura mater B. epidural space C. arachnoid D. pia mater

C

How should the dictated phrase "a six two K wire" be expressed? A. 62 K‐wire B. 6‐2 K wire C. 0.062 K‐wire D. 0.62 K wire

C

Hyperpigmentation of the skin, low blood pressure, and salt craving may be signs of what condition? A. diabetes insipidus B. Crohn disease C. Addison disease D. diabetes mellitus

C

Imaging of blood vessels using magnetic resonance is known as A. MRI. B. HIDA. C. MRA. D. PET.

C

In a report, the dictator states the patient has an allergy to penicillin; however, later on in the report, it is dictated that the patient will be started on penicillin. What should the MT do? A. Transcribe as dictated. B. Edit out one or the other. C. Leave a blank and flag the report in both spots. D. None of the above.

C

In terms of healthcare documentation, what does the abbreviation HIE stand for? A. hardware interface effectiveness B. health insurance environment C. health information exchange D. Health information entries

C

In ultrasonography, which term would be used to describe material that produces sound waves of higher amplitude than the surrounding structures? A. hyperresonant B. hyporesonant C. hyperechoic D. hypoechoic

C

Incorporation of __________ information into predictive analytics has a potential to enhance the ability of providers to control preventable readmissions. A. Mining B. Structured C. Unstructured

C

LAD, RCA, and LCA are accepted abbreviations for A. peripheral arteries B. types of heart murmurs C. coronary arteries D. forms of cholesterol

C

Overuse of a muscle is called a (an) A. sprain. B. ecchymosis. C. strain. D. hematoma.

C

PEEP refers to: A. pulmonary endotracheal expiratory pressure. B. positive endotracheal expiratory pressure. C. positive end‐expiratory pressure. D. pulmonary end‐expiratory pressure.

C

Patients with valvular heart disease or prosthetic valves are given antibiotics prophylactically to prevent A. pericarditis. B. myositis. C. subacute bacterial endocarditis. D. left-sided pneumonia.

C

People with allergies may benefit from this type of air filter. A. Fram B. Performance C. HEPA D. Airaid

C

Pinkeye is caused by A. A fungus B. An intracellular parasite C. A bacterium D. A virus

C

Pregnant women with class A, B, or C gestational diabetes are likely to have babies that are: A. born prematurely. B. small for gestational age. C. large for gestational age. D. born with impaired glucose tolerance.

C

ROI of technology will be successful with results that show: A. 40% savings in transcription production costs. B. Amortization of hardware and software costs. C. Measureable productivity gains. D. Dictators maintaining more than 80% consistency in their speech pattern.

C

Radiation therapy is measured in: A. Hertz. B. joules. C. centigray. D. waveforms.

C

Radiolucency means A. x-rays will not pass through. B. sound waves will bounce back. C. x-rays will pass through. D. sound waves will be absorbed.

C

Seldinger technique would be used in which procedure? A. Cesarean section B. lithotripsy C. Heart catheterization D. Stereotactic radiosurgery

C

The Breslow classification system measures tumor: A. diameter. B. color. C. thickness. D. malignancy.

C

The Kurtzke disability score is used to evaluate patients with: A. muscular dystrophy B. cerebral hemorrhage C. multiple sclerosis D. Legg-Perthes disease

C

The ciliary body is found in the A. small intestine B. ear C. eye D. nerves

C

The class of drugs referred to as statins are used primarily to A. dilate coronary arteries. B. stabilize cardiac arrhythmias. C. reduce cholesterol. D. lower blood pressure.

C

The cricoid is what? a. bone b. muscle c. cartilage d. tendon

C

The gastrocnemius muscle is located where? a. abdomen b. upper back c. calf d. neck

C

The inner layer of an arterial wall, or intima, is also known as the: A. endothelium B. adventitia C. tunica interna D. internal elastic lamina

C

The pericardium is a fibroserous sac that A. includes the endothelium and subendothelial connective tissues. B. contains the cardiac muscle. C. surrounds the heart and the roots of the great vessels. D. is the inner most lining of the heart.

C

The power of an optical lens is measured in: A. degrees. B. fields. C. diopters. D. refractions.

C

The right atrioventricular valve is also known as the A. pulmonary valve. B. aortic valve. C. tricuspid valve. D. bicuspid valve.

C

The roman numerals in the Goldmann perimetry system designate: A. diopter power. B. luminance. C. spot size. D. refraction.

C

The shadow created by the heart on a chest x-ray is called the A. costovertebral angle. B. costophrenic angle. C. cardiac silhouette. D. cardiac apex.

C

The term carcinoma in situ mean A. A tumor that has spread B. A tumor that is inoperable C. A tumor that is localized D. A tumor that has no significance

C

This disease is an infestation of the skin with microscopic mites. A. Acne B. Impetigo C. Scabies D. Syphilis

C

This infection is caused by staphylococcus and/or group A streptococcus and begins with a superficial vesicle that ruptures and produces a yellow crust. A. cutaneous anthrax B. erysipelas C. impetigo D. intertrigo

C

This technology uses sound waves to examine the internal organs. A. SPECT B. scintigraphy C. ultrasound D. computed tomography

C

Vaccination is a type of A. anticoagulant therapy. B. antibiotic therapy. C. immunotherapy. D. chemotherapy.

C

Visualization of the coronary arteries using fluoroscopic techniques is called A. echocardiography. B. CABG. C. angiography. D. angioplasty.

C

What are some of the symptoms of Meniere disease? a. Blurred vision, watery eyes b. Hoarse voice, hacking cough c. Dizziness, tinnitus, hearing loss d. None of the above.

C

What bones do we have in both our hands and feet? a. metacarpals b. carpals c. phalanges d. metatarsals

C

What combination is considered strong for password creation? A. Capital letters and lowercase letters B. Numbers and lowercase letters C. Lowercase letters, capital letters, numbers, and special characters D. Capital letters and special characters

C

What do the drugs halothane, isoflurane, and desflurane have in common? A. They are all administered intramuscularly. B. They are all antibiotics. C. They are all inhalational anesthetics. D. They are all administered per rectum.

C

What does ACE inhibitor stand for and why would it be used? A. Acetylcholine enzyme; hypertension B. Angiotensin calcium enzyme; hypotension C. Angiotensin-converting enzyme; hypertension D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme; hypotension

C

What does ARB stand for and why is it used? A. Angiotensin receptor blocker; hypotension B. Angiotensin II receptor blocker; hypotension C. Angiotensin II receptor blocker; hypertension D. Angiotensin receptor blocker; hypertension

C

What does CPOE stand for? A. Clinical physician order entry B. Computerized personal order entry C. Computerized physician order entry D. Clinical personal order entry

C

What does NLP stand for? A. Narrative language processor B. Natural language productivity C. Natural language processing D. Narrative language productivity

C

What does RAM stand for? A. randomly accessed memory B. rapidly accessible memory C. random access memory D. rapid access memory

C

What does a Rancho Los Amigos score of VIII signify? A. Generalized response to stimuli B. unresponsiveness C. Purposeful and appropriate behavior D. Confused and agitated behavior

C

What government agency administers the program providing incentive payments and penalties for EHR adoption? A. CCHIT B. Department of Justice C. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services D. ONC

C

What happens to cause an ectopic pregnancy? a. A fertilized egg enters the abdominal cavity b. A fertilized egg does not develop correctly and the cells die c. A fertilized egg stays in the fallopian tube and grows there to cause possible perforation of tube d. None of the above

C

What information can be safely communicated through unencrypted email? A. Credit card information B. Social Security Numbers C. Resume D. Bank account information

C

What is Clinical Document Architecture? A. an electronic blue print for designing delivery of care B. a protocol setting standards for document to conform with ICD-9 C. an electronic exchange model developed by HL7 for healthcare documents D. a plan for transitioning clinical documentation from paper to electronic media

C

What is an enterprise-wide master patient index? A. Information for certain subsets of patients. B. All information available for a particular patient. C. Information from overlapping patient populations. D. Information available for certain applications such as clinical decision making.

C

What is an organization that promotes the exchange of healthcare data within a national network? A. Office of Civil Rights B. Clinical Context Object Workgroup C. Regional Health Information Organization D. Health Plan Employer Information Data Set

C

What is presbyesophagus? A. A defect in vision B. A hiatal hernia C. Dysphagia D. GERD

C

Which is the correct style for the following? A. 4 x 4s B. 4x4s C. 4 x 4's D. 4x4's

C

What is the name of the body tasked by the federal government with setting interoperability and security standards for EHR systems? A. ONC B. AHIMA C. CCHIT D. HIMSS

C

What procedure would use a #2 cutting block? A. appendectomy B. arteriotomy C. Total knee arthroplasty D. rhinoplasty

C

What type of unwanted users can access the passwords you have stored in your browser? A. Twitter and eBay B. Amazon and Facebook C. Malware and Hackers D. Family and Friends

C

When prothrombin time is dictated in its short form, which is the preferred term. A. pro-time B. protime C. pro time D. Protime

C

Where would you find the masseter muscle? a. arm b. leg c. jaw d. buttocks

C

Which US President appointed the first National Coordinator for Health IT? A. Ronald Reagan B. Bill Clinton C. George W. Bush D. Barack Obama

C

Which are examples of correct classification of cervical intraepithelial neoplasias? A. CIN1, CIN2 B. CIN-I, CIN-II C. CIN-1, CIN-2 D. CIN-A, CINB

C

Which condition is related to infertility? a. GERD b. COPD c. PCOS d. CHF

C

Which correctly describes front-end editing of documents created by speech recognition technology? A. The document is edited by a medical transcriptionist, who then returns it to the originator for authentication and finalizing. B. The document is edited by a medical transcriptionist, who then authenticates and finalizes it. C. The document is edited by the originator, who then authenticates and finalized it. D. The document is edited by an individual of the originator's choice; that individual then authenticates and finalized it.

C

Which drug is only administered intramuscularly or intravenously? A. fentanyl B. morphine C. ketamine D. diazepam

C

Which expansion is correct for CPU? A. central portal unit B. computer portal unit C. central processing unit D. computer processor unit

C

Which is a common file format used in transcription for digital audio? a. .doc b. . wmv c. .wav d. . wps

C

Which is a delayed data capture method that is not performed in "real time" at the point of care? A. Radiofrequency identification B. point-and-click template systems C. dictation/transcription D. Front-end speech recognition

C

Which is correct? A. Apgars were 8/9 at 1/5. B. Apgars were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes. C. Apgar scores were 8 and 9 at one and five minutes. D. Apgar scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes.

C

Which is correct? A. Right adnexa is normal. B. BUS is normal. C. Adnexa are normal. D. BUS glands are normal.

C

Which is not a covered entity defined by HIPPA A. Doctor's office B. Hospital C. Medical transcription service D. Urgent care clinic

C

Which is the correct definition of menometrorrhagia? a. Cessation of uterine bleeding b. Excessive uterine bleeding at regular intervals c. Excessive uterine bleeding both at the time of menstrual periods and at other irregular intervals d. Light, sparse menstrual cycles

C

Which is the correct expanded form of OCR? A. optically certified records B. online creation of records C. optical character recognition D. overall character recognition

C

Which is the correct expression for classifying adenocarcinoma of the prostate? A. Gleason grade VI B. Gleason stage VI C. Gleason score 6 D. Gleason level 6

C

Which is transcribed correctly? A. Gated T1 and T2 images were performed. B. Gaited T1 and T2 images were performed. C. T1 and T2-weighted images were performed. D. T1 and T2 waited images were performed.

C

Which is transcribed correctly? A. The United Nations have issued a statement on the issue of global poverty. B. Approximately 5 mL of cloudy urine were extracted from the bladder during autopsy. C. Lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 was instilled into the identified space. D. Here is a number of reasons to consider smoking cessation.

C

Which is transcribed correctly? A. There was a cup‐to‐disk ratio of 0.75. B. Adnexa oculi is examined and found to be normal. C. There was an area of ischemia of approximately 2 DA. D. Visual acuity was 2200 OU.

C

Which of the following correctly expands the term FTP? A. finalized transfer protocol B. formal transfer protocol C. file transfer protocol D. file termination protocol

C

Which of the following increases the caliber of the airway by relaxing smooth muscles? A. Antihypertensive B. Decongestant C. Bronchodilator D. Antihistamine

C

Which of the following is NOT a report type included in the "Basic Four" acute care document types described in this chapter? A. History and physical examination B. Operative report C. Progress note D. Discharge summary

C

Which of the following is a chemotherapy drug? A. Xopenex B. Procrit C. methotrexate D. acyclovir

C

Which of the following is a speech recognition technology that uses traditionally recorded voice files? A. Front-end SRT B. OAD transcription C. Back-end SRT D. Natural language processing

C

Which of the following is a tumor marker detected in the serum of patients with colon cancer? A. TSH B. FSH C. CEA D. LDA

C

Which of the following is an antihistamine? A. pseudoephedrine B. aspirin C. Benadryl D. acetaminophen

C

Which of the following is contrast media used to enhance x-ray images? A. carbon B. sodium C. barium D. hydrogen

C

Which of the following is found in AIDS patients more than the general population? A. Autoimmune diseases B. CD4 cells C. Kaposi sarcoma D. T cells

C

Which of the following is in the correct format? A. 128-iodine B. iodine-128 C. iodine 128 D. Iodine128

C

Which of the following is not an important role of the liver? A. phagocytosis B. glycogen storage C. excretion of urea D. production of blood proteins

C

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. The patient admits to 30 pack years smoking history and continues to smoke in lieu of emphysema. B. The patient admits to a 30 pack year smoking history and continues to smoke in spite of emphysema. C. The patient admits to a 30-pack-year smoking history and continues to smoke in spite of emphysema. D. The patient admits to a 30-pack-year smoking history and continues to smoke in lieu of emphysema.

C

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. The patient has tried many different NSAIDS, but none have provided significant relieve. B. The patient has tried many different insets, but none have provided significant relieve. C. The patient has tried many different NSAIDs, but none have provided significant relief. D. The patient has tried many different nSAIDS, but none have provided significant relief.

C

Which of the following is used to assess lung ventilation and perfusion? A. spiral CT B. LFTs C. V/Q scan D. bronchoscopy

C

Which of the following is used to treat anemia resulting from chemotherapy? A. Ferrous sulfate B. Elocon C. Epogen D. Ecotrin

C

Which of the following means (many)+ (shapes)+(nucleus)? A. isomorphous B. trimorphism C. polymorphonuclear D. multinucleosis

C

Which of the following refers to word choice? A. tense B. mood C. diction D. agreement.

C

Which of the following sentences is transcribed correctly? A. The wound, however, is 2-x-2 cm, with the top layer peeling away. B. The wound; however, is 2-x-2 cm, with the top layer pealing away. C. The wound, however, is 2 x 2 cm, with the top layer peeling away. D. The wound, however, is 2 x 2 cm, with the top layer pealing away.

C

Which of the following sets completely pertains to dermatology? A. Amblyopia, torticollis, and urticaria. B. Herpes simplex, conjunctivitis, and colostrum C. Verruca, maculopapule, and wheal D. Telangiectasis, astigmatism, and ulcer

C

Which of the following studies creates "slices" or multiple sequences to image internal structures? A. Carotid duplex B. Echocardiogram C. CT scan D. pyelogram

C

Which of these is a correctly abbreviated metric unit of measure? A. ml B. MEq C. dB D. hz

C

Which of these is a medication prescribed to control itching? A. Aricept B. Diovan C. Lidex D. Enbrel

C

Which of these is not a term used to describe red cell morphology? A. Howell‐Jolly bodies B. Stippling C. Monophilic D. Rouleaux

C

Which of these presenting symptoms might result in a BNP being ordered? A. Pyuria B. Hematemesis C. Shortness of breath D. Epistaxis

C

Which of these refers to each eye (or both eyes)? A. oculus dexter B. oculus sinister C. oculus uterque D. oculus ubiquity

C

Which of these x-ray views would be used to image the lungs? A. Waters view B. mediolateral C. PA and lateral D. sunrise view

C

Which organization sets international standards for materials, products, systems, and services? a. Joint Commission b. AHIMA c. ASTM d. HL7

C

Which physician would most likely use the ASA grade? A. gastroenterologist B. otolaryngologist C. anesthesiologist D. optometrist

C

Which procedure places the patient in a flank position and uses an incision overlying the 12th rib? A. Distal pancreatectomy B. colectomy C. nephrectomy D. appendectomy

C

Which represents a correct expression of agreement? A. Her family history, but not her other risk factors are worrisome for heart disease. B. Adequate surgical prep, including Betadine scrub and sterile draping, were accomplished. C. The compelling nature of the acidosis, not the presence of a presumed toxin, was felt to be the diagnostic indicator. D. Most of the team are attending the conference being held across the street.

C

Which represents correct use of quotation marks? A. Did he say he "needed his pain medication"? B. He is a well‐developed, well‐nourished male standing 6'2" tall. C. The patient complained of a "funny feeling" in her legs. D. All of the above.

C

Which represents the correct transcription of a genetic reference? A. alfa‐fetoprotein B. beta II microglobulin C. alpha‐fetoprotein D. beta 2 microglobulin

C

Which represents the correct transcription of the dictated excerpt below? DICTATED: At six hours into labor, she was six ninety minus three. A. At 6 hours into labor, she was 690 minus 3. B. At 6 hours into labor, she was 6, 90, ‐3. C. At 6 hours into labor, she was 6 cm, 90%, and ‐3. D. At 6 hours into labor, she was 6 cm, 90%, minus 3.

C

Which represents the correct transcription of the missing information in the excerpt below? The patient was admitted to the emergency room with _______of both palms. A. second degree burns B. second‐degree burns C. 2nd degree burns D. 2nd‐degree burns

C

Which sentence is correct? a. The patient's cancer diagnosis eventually forced him to except his fate. b. The patient's cancer diagnosis eventually forced him to accept his fait. c. The patient's cancer diagnosis eventually forced him to accept his fate.

C

Which sentence is transcribed correctly? a. I ensured the patient that we would insure her safety. b. I insured the patient that we would ensure her safety. c. I assured the patient that we would ensure her safety. d. I insured the patient that we would assure her safety.

C

Which sentence is transcribed correctly? a. The physician eluded to the fact that the patient needed a drug-alluding stent. b. The physician eluted to the fact that the patient needed a drug-eluding stent. c. The physician alluded to the fact that the patient needed a drug-eluting stent. d. None of the above.

C

Which sentence is transcribed incorrectly? A. "The patient's mucous membranes were moist, and he had clear mucus from the nares." B. "The mucus was mixed with blood and pus." C. " The patient's mucous membranes were moist, and he had clear mucous from the nares." D. "The mucous membranes were dry and cracked; no mucus was seen."

C

Which sentence is typed correct? a. The teenager's parents were disparate in their attempt to illicit information about the elicit substance in the urine drug screen. b. The teenager's parents were desperate in their attempt to illicit information about the illicit substance in the urine drug screen c. The teenager's parents were desperate in their attempt to elicit information about the illicit substance in the urine drug screen

C

Which sentence is typed correctly? A. She is a patient of Dr.Smith's. B. She is a patient of Dr. Smiths. C. She is a patient of Dr Smith. D. She is a patient of Dr Smith's.

C

Which sentence is typed correctly? A. The patient has a diagnosis of Factor 5 Leiden deficiency. B. The patient has a diagnosis of factor 5 leiden deficiency. C. The patient has a diagnosis of factor V Leiden deficiency. D. The patient has a diagnosis of Factor V leiden deficiency.

C

Which sign means an involuntary resistance to passive movement as may occur in cerebral cortical disorders? A. dysmetria B. snout C. gegenhalten D. Apley

C

With the patient in the lateral decubitus position and using arthroscopy, sutures were passed through the superior labrum anteriorly and posteriorly. What surgical procedure is being described in the above sentence? A. Repair of Dupuytren contracture B. Repair of Sinding-Larsen-Johansson lesion C. Repair of SLAP lesion D. Repair of patellar tendon

C

With which technology would a physician dictate a narrative and then edit the draft without the use of a transcriptionist? a. BESR b. TASP c. FESR d. CPOE

C

__________ remains the best option for providers to capture the depth of detail about a patient's health. A. Analytical application B. Structured data C. Unstructured data

C

40. How long can an MT retain PHI? A. Indefinitely B. 1 month C. 24 hours D. As long as absolutely necessary to conduct business

D

According to the Book of Style, what is one of the factors impacting SRT adoption and integration? A. Type of healthcare facility B. Range of medical specialties involved C. Federal legislation D. Dictation habits

D

All of the following are measured under the Child‐Pugh scoring system for hepatitis except: A. bilirubin. B. serum albumin. C. INR. D. viral load.

D

All of the following are systems used to classify fractures except: A. Garden. B. LeFort. C. Salter‐Harris. D. Outerbridge.

D

All of these represent the correct and/or acceptable expression of a term except: A. crepitus. B. fingerbreadths. C. fluctuance. D. crepitants.

D

An eczema with coin or oval-shaped lesions that is often associated with dry skin and can worsen in dry weather is known as: A. Lichenoid eczema B. Seborrheic eczema C. Stasis eczema D. Nummular eczema

D

An injury which results in hemorrhage beneath unbroken skin is called a (an) A. concussion B. abrasion C. hemothorax D. contusion

D

An instrument used to expose the opening of a canal in order to inspect the interior is called a A. trocar. B. retractor. C. tenaculum. D. speculum.

D

An x-ray of the lateral ramus refers to the A. ulna and radius. B. tibia and fibula. C. patella and femur. D. mandible and condyle.

D

Another name for heart is A. core. B. corpse. C. corps. D. cor.

D

Antitussive medications are used to treat A. asthma. B. shortness of breath. C. ARDS. D. cough.

D

CIN, ASCUS, and LGSIL all refer to which type of condition a. melanoma b. Breast cancer c. Bone cancer d. GYN cancer or precancerous cellular changes

D

Choose the correct transcription for the underlined segments below: DICTATED: She sustained fractures of C five and C six with disk herniation at C four five. A. C5‐6;C4‐5 B. C5‐C6; C4‐5 C. C5 and C6; C4 and C5 D. C5 and C6; C4‐5

D

DICTATED: A pudendal block was administered transcutaneously with 30 mL of 1% lidocaine. Given the above excerpt, can you identify what kind of procedure is being performed? A. Sebaceous cyst removal B. Mohs procedure C. Skin biopsy D. Forceps delivery

D

DICTATED: After induction of laryngeal mask general anesthesia, the patient was placed in dorsal lithotomy position. Given the excerpt, what would the surgeon be performing? A. Gamma knife surgery B. Rotator cuff repair C. Anal fistula repair D. Cystoscopy with bilateral stent placements

D

DICTATED: Following premedication and local anesthesia, the right femoral artery was entered with a Cook needle percutaneously and a guidewire was introduced through the needle in the femoral artery to the descending aorta. Can you select the procedure being performed from the excerpt? A. Closed nailing of femoral neck fracture B. Trochanteric nerve block C. Insertion of radioactive seeds for brachytherapy D. Cardiac catheterization

D

DICTATED: Once the patient was adequately sedated, a 0.25% Marcaine ilioinguinal nerve block was administered and the area was sterilely prepped and draped. From the excerpt, can you select the correct procedure being performed? A. CT-guided biopsy of the pancreas B. Laparoscopic appendectomy C. Closed reduction of femur fracture D. Orchiopexy

D

Diflucan is an example of A. An antiviral medication B. An antibacterial medication C. An antipyretic D. An antifungal medication

D

Dolor is one of 4 signs of inflammation and refers to A. Pus B. Warmth C. Color D. Pain

D

During a MUGA scan, what part of the anatomy is evaluated? A. Kidneys B. Lungs C. Brain D. Heart

D

During what procedure would a pigtail catheter be used? A. oophorectomy B. cystectomy C. prostatectomy D. Left heart catheterization

D

EKG bipolar leads should be expressed with: A. arabic numbers. B. lowercase a, capital V. and R, L or F. C. capital V followed by an arabic number. D. roman numerals.

D

EKG showed atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 65. There was _______ in leads III and aVF, confirming acute inferior myocardial infarction. What findings in leads III and aVF could confirm the patient's diagnosis of acute MI? A. Flipped T waves B. Prolonged QT waves C. Sinus tachycardia D. ST-segment depression

D

Echocardiography uses which of the following techniques to visualize the heart? A. x-rays B. fluoroscopy C. magnetic resonance imaging D. ultrasound

D

Envenomation is caused by A. contact with allergens. B. ingestion of poison. C. a drug overdose. D. a bite or a sting.

D

Eschar is the medical term for a A. Contact dermatitis B. A type of skin cancer C. Thickened area of epidermis caused by friction D. Thick, coagulated crust or slough

D

Exudate is A. An infected sebaceous cyst B. Fluid injected into a tissue or its capillaries to prevent injury or inflammation C. An infected hair follicle D. Fluid extruded out of a tissue or its capillaries due to injury or inflammation

D

Ferritin, B12, total iron binding capacity, and folate levels are tests used to diagnose A. vitamin K deficiency B. vitamin B6 deficiency C. vitamin B12 deficiency D. iron-deficiency anemia

D

Which is expressed correctly? A. 3 liters of O2 B. 3 l of O2 C. 3 L of O2 D. 3L of O2

D

Glomerulonephritis is also known as: A. Brinton disease B. Bristowe syndrome C. Brown syndrome D. Bright disease

D

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci A. Can be prevented by vaccination. B. Is not a pathogen C. Is rarely seen in the United States. D. Causes pharyngitis.

D

HDR brachytherapy refers to what? a. ankle-brachial indices b. physical therapy c. plastic surgery d. Form of high dose rate radiotherapy where a radioactive source is placed inside or next to the area requiring treatment.

D

Having up-to-date antispam/antispyware subscription lets you A. keep track of your kid's internet usage B. See who is trying to track your internet usage C. Track what others are viewing on the internet D. Keep your computer running well

D

Holding down the CTRL button while scrolling the mouse wheel will perform what action in most Microsoft applications? a. Minimize b. Maximize c. Select text d. Zoom

D

If someone gains access to your wireless router, what do they potentially have access to? A. Only your wireless router B. Your internet service provider C. Your home telephone number D. Your entire network

D

In a healthy human body, eosinophils account for _________of the formed elements in the blood. A. 65% B. 25% C. 6% D. 4%

D

In the Binet leukemia classification system, which is the correct expression to describe a case with fewer than 3 areas of enlarged lymphoid tissue? A. Binet stage I B. Binet level 1 C. Binet grade 1 D. Binet stage A

D

In what type of procedure would you find an Angio-Seal used? A. Total hip arthroplasty B. Carotid artery stenting C. rhinoplasty D. Cardiac catheterization

D

Injury to a ligament is called a (an) A. ecchymosis. B. tendonitis. C. strain. D. sprain.

D

Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some healthcare personnel who administer voluntary emergency care are known as: A. First Responder laws B. Patient Privacy laws C. Helping Hands legislation D. Good Samaritan laws

D

Loss of pigmentation in areas of the skin is known as A. lichen albus B. psoriasis C. scleroderma D. vitiligo

D

Marcaine 2 mL was used on the superficial skin over the A1 pulley. In what surgical procedure would the above phrase be found? A. Total knee arthroscopy B. Closed ORIF C. Transforaminal neuroplasty D. Carpal tunnel release

D

Norvasc, Accupril, and Toprol are examples of A. diuretics. B. antiplatelet medications. C. statins. D. antihypertensive medications.

D

On physical exam, we found asymmetry, irregularity, color variation, and a 3 cm diameter. What is being evaluated? A. The iris of the eye B. A burned area of skin surface C. Sclerodermatous skin changes D. A lesion suspicious for melanoma

D

One lesser known treatment of C difficile is the use of _______. A. Vitamin therapy B. Sunlight therapy C. Antibiotic therapy D. Probiotic therapy

D

Onychomycosis is a A. Staph infection of the nails. B. Softening of the nails. C. Mycobacterial infection. D. Fungal infection of the nails.

D

Per AHDI recommendations, when a physician dictates cc in a liquid volume expression, the MT in a non-verbatim environment should: A. leave a blank B. transcribe as dictated C. flag the report to the attention of the author D. change the cc to mL

D

Regarding transfer of patient documents in compliance with HIPAA, A. Microsoft Office has a program, which allows encryption of the patient's file. B. a Secure File Transfer Program can provide a secure connection to the server. C. the documents can be encrypted through an email encryption program. D. all of the above are applicable.

D

Rubor means A. Hard B. Purple C. Patchy D. redness

D

Striae is the medical term for A. Pigmentation B. Scar formation C. Scratching D. Stretch marks

D

Subtle fractures and metastatic tumors can be detected on A. DEXA scans. B. MUGA scans. C. HIDA scans. D. bone scans.

D

TNM stands for A. Tumor Negative Metastasis B. Tumor Nonoperative Metastasis C. Tumor Nodes Malignancy D. Tumor Nodes Metastasis

D

The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid have worked in collaboration with The Joint Commission to develop a requirement that hospitals collect evidence-based data on certain identified conditions and treatment programs. What is this set of required care processes called? A. Pay for performance B. Meaningful use C. Data analytics D. Core measures

D

The Murphy sign is associated with A. appendicitis. B. Parkinson disease. C. a kidney infection. D. cholecystitis.

D

The abbreviation I&O refers to A. inpatients and outpatients. B. a type of incision used to drain abscesses. C. intent and outcome. D. The measurement of fluid intake and output.

D

The appropriate abbreviation for subcutaneous is: A. subQ B. subq C. sub cu D. subcu

D

The body's response to vascular injury, which acts to seal the vessel and prevent further bleeding is called A. Ecchymosis B. Thrombolysis C. Apoptosis D. Coagulation

D

The forearm bone that attaches most closely to the thumb is called what? a. humerus b. clavicle c. ulna d. radius

D

The function of the systolic phase is to A. contract and fill. B. relax and fill. C. relax and empty. D. contract and empty.

D

The generic name for Toradol is ____________. A. tramadol B. sulfamethaoxazole C. ibuprofen D. ketorolac

D

The heart's internal pacemaker is called A. Bundle of His. B. LAD. C. sinistrum. D. SA node.

D

The heart's typical response to ischemia is: A. Sudden cardiac arrest B. Accumulation of fluid around the heart C. Distended neck veins D. Chest pain

D

The inferior oblique, superior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, and lateral rectus are muscles found in the _________. A. abdomen B. perineum C. spine D. orbit

D

The medication Flector is a patch used for what condition? A. Nicotine withdrawal B. Diabetes C. Depression D. Pain

D

The membrane that lines the thorax and envelopes the lungs is called the A. vallum. B. bursa. C. amnion. D. pleura.

D

The prefix carcino- means A. Plasma B. Breast C. Necrosis D. Cancer

D

The prefix sacro- means A. White B. Yellow C. Intestine D. Flesh

D

The root word ptosis means A. a rounded swelling, especially one that is caused by a contracting muscle. B. programmed cell death. C. a bony projection. D. a sinking down or prolapse of an organ.

D

The suffix -ipine is common to which of the following groups of generic drugs? A. ACE inhibitors B. beta blockers C. corticosteroids D. calcium channel blockers

D

There are _________cervical spinal nerves. A. 5 B. 12 C. 7 D. 8

D

This score calibrates atrial fibrillation stroke risk. a. lipid panel b. ANA profile c. BNP d. CHADS2

D

To force fluid through an organ or tissue, especially by way of blood vessels is called A. percussion. B. profusion. C. perversion. D. perfusion.

D

Ungual means A. Relating to hair B. Relating to the epidermis C. Relating to the dermis D. Relating to the nail

D

Valvular prolapse is most common in the A. pulmonary valve. B. aortic valve. C. tricuspid valve. D. mitral valve.

D

What condition may be indicated by a rash in a bull's-eye pattern accompanied by flu-like symptoms and, if untreated, joint pains? A. osteomyelitis B. lichen planus C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Lyme disease

D

What does the "CT" refer to in SNOMED-CT? A. computerized technology B. clinical technology C. computerized tracking D. clinical terms

D

What does the acronym SARS stand for? A. Sore throat and respiratory syndrome B. Severe acute renal syndrome C. Subacute respiratory syndrome D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

D

What does the prefix kerato- mean? A. Nucleus B. Cell C. Cold D. horny

D

What functionality allows a computer user to click and drag objects with a mouse instead of entering text commands? A. GIS B. GNU C. GPS D. GUI

D

What is an example of structured data? A. A history and physical transcribed as a Microsoft Word document B. A plain x-ray of the lungs C. A handwritten progress note scanned into a computer D. A set of patient demographics

D

What is the correct application for the medication Apidra? A. For a patient in pain. B. For a patient with hives. C. For a patient with bronchitis. D. For a patient with diabetes.

D

What is the correct use for the medication Brovana? A. antiemetic B. antibiotic C. antipruritic D. bronchodilator

D

What is the normal range of serum potassium? A. 3.7 to 6.2 mEq/L B. 2.7 to 6.2 mEq/L C. 2.7 to 5.2 mEq/L D. 3.7 to 5.2 mEq/L

D

What kind of tube might be placed to treat a patient with frequently recurring acute otitis media? A. PEG tube B. corneal tube C. post-pyloric tube D. tympanostomy tube

D

What type of procedure involves a low transverse abdominal incision? A. colonoscopy B. Whipple procedure C. open appendectomy D. Primary cesarean section

D

When "three and a half" loupe magnification is dictated, how would you transcribe it? A. three-and-a-half B. three and a half C. 3-1/2 D. 3.5

D

When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the response is to: A. Decrease the blood glucose B. Increase the blood glucose C. Release epinephrine D. Release antibodies

D

When the patient is lying on their back with legs and arms straight, they are in the _________ position. A. Fowler B. lithotomy C. prone D. supine

D

Which abbreviation refers to software used by physicians for direct entry of patient treatment information? A. PACS B. CDR C. OCR D. CPOE

D

Which imaging technology uses STIR sequence? A. HIDA scan B. Chest x-ray C. Ultrasound D. MRI

D

Which is correct? A. 5'2" B. 8 lbs 6 oz C. 5 ft 7 in D. 6 pounds 4 ounces

D

Which is correct? __________revealed no evidence of septal or valvular defect. A. Three‐D echo B. 3‐D echo C. 3D echo D. 3D echocardiogram

D

Which is expressed correctly? A. He is the only 1 in his family who has been sick with flu‐like symptoms. B. The patient complained of zero out of five pain. C. She complained that her out‐of‐pocket expenses were running her in the 1000s of dollars. D. He had been given a zero chance of regaining full use of his right hand.

D

Which is the causative agent of TB? A. A virus B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Mycobacterium

D

Which is the correct expansion of RSV? a. Rebound sinusitis virus b. Repeat syncytial virus c. Respiratory sinus virus d. Respiratory syncytial virus

D

Which is the most advanced stage of a cancer? A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV

D

Which of the below is transcribed correctly? A. The patient wanted to lose 25 lb. B. The patient was diagnosed with Stage IIA cancer. C. A 0.25-inch incision was made. D. The infant weighed 3.2 kg.

D

Which of the following are authentication concerns for an MT to be aware of? A. Dictated but not read placed on the bottom of the report. B. The physician's assistant signing the report for the doctor. C. The physician using electronic signatures. D. All of the above.

D

Which of the following could cause an inhalant allergy? A. Laundry detergent B. Poison ivy C. Peanuts D. Pollen

D

Which of the following detects and records fleeting changes in the electrocardiographic signals over a 24 hour period? A. echocardiogram B. Doppler color flow C. peak flow meter D. Holter monitor

D

Which of the following eponymous terms is expressed correctly? A. Alzheimer Disease B. Ligament of Treitz C. Gram‐positive rods D. parkinsonian tremors

D

Which of the following is a brand name for ketoconazole? A. Neoral B. Nitropress C. Nasarel D. Nizoral

D

Which of the following is a common lung neoplasm? A. clear cell carcinoma B. giant cell carcinoma C. transitional cell carcinoma D. non-small cell carcinoma

D

Which of the following is a contrast media used with MRIs? A. xenon B. technetium C. barium D. gadolinium

D

Which of the following is a device used to measure inspired and expired air flow and volume? A. spiral CT B. MDI C. V/Q scan D. spirometer

D

Which of the following is a literal translation of angina pectoris? A. Pain of the arm B. Strangulation of the heart C. Pain of the heart D. Pain of the chest

D

Which of the following is a nonspecific test for inflammation? A. CD4 count B. Liver function test C. TIBC D. C-reactive protein

D

Which of the following is a radiographic study used to diagnose abnormalities of the spinal cord and nerve roots? A. EMG B. cerebral angiography C. ENG D. myelography

D

Which of the following is a steroidal antiinflammatory? A. Crestor B. naproxen C. aspirin D. prednisone

D

Which of the following is cancer of the bone-forming cells? A. Fibroadenoma B. Lymphoma C. Leukemia D. Osteosarcoma

D

Which of the following is characterized by chronic dilation of the bronchi secondary to inflammation with spasmodic cough productive of sputum? A. bronchomycosis B. broncholith C. bronchostaxis D. bronchiectasis

D

Which of the following is considered a normal blood pressure reading for an adult? A. 80/100 mmHg B. 60/30 mmHg C. 140/90 mmHg D. 120/80 mmHg

D

Which of the following is formatted correctly? A. 3-4-cm lesion B. 2-year 5-month-old-child C. finger-to-nose-test D. 10- to 12-year history

D

Which of the following is the most up to date storage device? A. Floppy disk B. CD C. 3.5 disk D. USB stick

D

Which of the following is the normal range for serum potassium? A. 35-50 mmol/L B. 25-50 mmol/L C. 90-110 mmol/L D. 3.5 to 5.1 mmol/L

D

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. Examination of the foot is notable for a callous on the soul of the foot and several verruca. B. Examination of the foot is notable for a callus on the soul of the foot and several verrucae. C. Examination of the foot is notable for a callous on the sole of the foot an several verruca. D. Examination of the foot is notable for a callus on the sole of the foot and several verrucae.

D

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. Imaging studies reveal degenerative disk disease at C3-4 and C4-5 inner vertebral disk levels. B. Imaging studies reveal degenerative disk disease at C3,4 and C4,5 inner vertebral disk levels. C. Imaging studies reveal degenerative disk disease at the C3,4 and C4,5 intervertebral disk levels. D. Imaging studies reveal degenerative disk disease at the C3-4 and C4-5 intervertebral disk levels.

D

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. The basal sell carcinoma was removed using a Moh's procedure. B. The basil cell carcinoma was removed using a Mohs procedure. C. The basil cell carcinoma was removed using a Mose procedure. D. The basal cell carcinoma was removed using a Mohs procedure.

D

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. The patient was stung on the left eyelid this morning and immediately given Benadryl. The left conjunctivae is still dejected, but there is no pruritus or drainage. B. The patient was stung on the left eyelid this morning and immediately given Benadryl. The left conjunctiva is still dejected, but there is no pruritus or drainage. C. The patient was stung on the left eyelid this morning and immediately given benazepril. The left conjunctivae is still injected, but there is no pleuritis or drainage. D. The patient was stung on the left eyelid this morning and immediately given Benadryl. The left conjunctiva is still injected, but there is no pruritus or drainage.

D

Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A. PFTs show no evidence of obstruction. He is scheduled for a viral CT scan. B. PFT's show no evidence of obstruction. He is scheduled for a spiral CT scan. C. PFT's show no evidence of obstruction. He is scheduled for a spiral C-T scan. D. PFTs show no evidence of obstruction. He is scheduled for a spiral CT scan.

D

Which of the following represents the correct path of blood flow through the heart chambers? A. Right ventricle, right atrium, left ventricle, left atrium B. Right ventricle, right atrium, left atrium, left ventricle C. Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle D. Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle

D

Which of the following requires the dictator to edit text as dictation occurs? A. All speech recognition engines B. Back-end speech recognition C. Natural language processing D. Front-end speech recognition

D

Which of the following sentence should be edited by an MT? A. The patient was given 1:100,000 of epi. B. The spleen was pexed back into position. C. Blood was sent for coags. D. All of the above.

D

Which of the following sentences is a complex sentence? A. The patient is currently on dialysis. B. The patient's vital signs were reviewed and noted, which show a blood pressure of 132/78 and a pulse of 78, but with a temperature of 100.3. C. She is a pleasant, elderly lady in no acute distress. D. The patient comes in today for review of his x-rays, which were taken 2 weeks ago.

D

Which of the following statements regarding Internet safety is incorrect? A. Wireless networks as a whole are not very secure B. Connections in the home may not be secure C. HTTPS/SSL connections are encrypted D. The computer platform should communicate using HTPPS/LLS

D

Which of the following studies would be helpful in evaluating the efficacy of chemotherapy? A. KUB B. Doppler color flow C. VCUG D. PET

D

Which of the following technologies would be appropriate for evaluating brain activity? A. MUGA B. PET C. Color-flow Doppler D. SPECT

D

Which of the following would be considered a benign breast mass? A. forme fruste B. carcinoma in situ C. HER2/neu D. fibroadenoma

D

Which of the following would be the most appropriate x-ray to view the sinuses? A. sunrise view B. panoramic view C. Towne view D. Waters view

D

Which of these is a condition that occurs in patients who are confined to bed or immobilized for long periods of time? A. Tinea versicolor B. Kaposi sarcoma C. Keratosis D. Decubitus ulcer

D

Which of these is a slow-growing neoplasm of the skin, most common in sun-damaged skin and fair-skinned people? A. carcinoma in situ B. vitiligo C. leukoplakia D. basal cell carcinoma

D

Which of these is a topical antibiotic ointment? A. Elocon B. Bactrim C. aloe vera D. Bactroban

D

Which of these is an acceptable expression of a dosage? A. Accutane 0.25 mg/kg BID B. Lodine 200 mg every 4‐6h C. Zocor 20 mg b.i.d. q.h.s. D. Cefotaxime 50 mg/kg per dose q.12 h. IV

D

Which of these is correct? A. Nursing notes revealed worsening of the grade 2 decubiti of the patient's gluteal folds. B. Nursing notes revealed worsening of the grade 2 decubitus ulcers of the patient's gluteal folds. C. Nursing notes revealed worsening of the stage II decubiti of the patient's gluteal folds. D. Nursing notes reveal worsening of the stage II decubitus ulcers of the patient's gluteal folds.

D

Which of these is not assessed as part of a mental status exam? A. appearance B. memory C. judgment D. neurologic function

D

Which of these is used to diagnose ringworm? A. TSH test B. Patch test C. Scratch test D. KOH test

D

Which of these refers to a drug‐resistant species of bacteria? A. HBIG B. EHEC C. HAV D. MRSA

D

Which organization was established by the federal government to certify products that meet or exceed standards for EHR usability and interoperability? a. HIMSS b. ASTM c. HITSP d. CCHIT

D

Which phrase correctly describes the path of the electrical impulse in a heartbeat? A. From ventricles to atrioventricular node, then to sinoatrial node. B. From the ventricles to the sinoatrial node, then to the atrioventricular node. C. From the atrioventricular node to the sinoatrial node, then to the ventricles. D. From the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node, then to the ventricles.

D

Which refers to the integration of transcribed reports into EHR templates? a. direct record templating b. direct reentry transcription c. discrete records templating d. discrete reportable transcription

D

Which refers to the measure of intensity and timing of diffusion gradient in diffusionweighted MRIs? A. relaxation time B. echo train C. k‐space D. b value

D

Which sentence is correct? a. The patient's right common superficial peroneal nerve was damaged in the accident. b. The patient's right superficial perennial nerve was damaged in the accident. c. The patient's right superficial perineal nerve was damaged in the accident. d. The patient's right superficial peroneal nerve was damaged in the accident.

D

Which sentence is correct? a. The patient had shoddy nodes throughout his cervical chain that gave the allusion of buckshot. b. The patient had shotty nodes throughout his cervical chain that gave the elusion of buckshot. c. The patient had shoddy nodes throughout his cervical chain that gave the illusion of buckshot. d. The patient had shotty nodes throughout his cervical chain that gave the illusion of buckshot.

D

Which sentence is typed correctly? A. The patient's wound vac was no longer working correctly. B. The patient's Wound Vac was no longer working correctly. C. The patient's Wound VAC was no longer working correctly. D. The patient's wound V.A.C. was no longer working correctly.

D

Which structure receives deoxygenated blood from the body? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium

D

Which test would be performed on a patient with acute exacerbation of asthma? A. TBT (tolbutamide test) B. digoxin level C. beta hCG D. ABGs (arterial blood gases)

D

Which word is used to describe tumor genes that normally restrict cellular growth but when missing or inactivated, they allow cells to grow at an uncontrolled rate. A. helper B. inducer C. reducer D. suppressor

D

Widespread dissemination of cancer throughout the body is called A. plasmacytosis B. lymphohistiocytosis C. carcinogenesis D. carcinomatosis

D

Which of the following is an antibiotic? A. amitriptyline B. Adriamycin C. atenolol D. Avelox

D amitriptyline = depression Adriamycin = breast cancer atenolol = beta blocker (heart/vessels)

Which mineral can weaken the effects of the antibiotics Cipro, gentamycin, and tetracycline? A. Sodium B. Iodine C. Selenium D. Calcium

D

Which of the following SSRI medications used to treat depression has a name derived from the Latin word for peace? A. Celexa B. Lexapro C. Zoloft D. Paxil

D

Which of the following instruments is used to measure the strength of muscle contractions of the perineum while doing Kegel exercises? A. Goniometer B. Acribometer C. Perineometer D. Uroflowmeter

C

Which of the following is paralysis of the forearm? A. Acute ascending paralysis B. Central paralysis C. Klumpke paralysis D. Landry paralysis

C

Which of these presenting symptoms might result in a BNP being ordered? A. Pyuria B. Hematemesis C. Shortness of breath D. Epistaxis

C

Which of the following growth factors is responsible for stimulating the development of neutrophils? A. Interleukin-5 B. Interleukin-7 C. M-CSF D. G-CSF

D

Which of the following include the bipolar leads in a 12-lead EKG? A. aVR, aVL, aVF B. V1 through V6 C. V7 through V9 D. lead I, lead II, lead III

D

Which of the following signs pertain to the frontal sinus? A. Demarquay B. Aufrecht C. Barany D. Ewing

D

Which of the following studies would likely include terms such as sleep spindles and K-complex? a. PET b. EMG c. NCV d. EEG

D

Which of these might be visualized on a cardiac catheterization? A. Celiac artery B. Brachial artery C. Azygous vein D. Circumflex artery

D

Which sentence is correct? A. The patient's right common superficial peroneal nerve was damaged in the accident. B. The patient's right superficial perennial nerve was damaged in the accident. C. The patient's right superficial perineal nerve was damaged in the accident. D. The patient's right superficial peroneal nerve was damaged in the accident.

D

A cathartic medication would be used to treat which complaint? A. Constipation B. Dysmenorrhea C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Indigestion

A

Which of the following instruments is used for cutting bone? A. Rasp B. Osteotome C. Planer D. Fixator

B

Which of the following terms is synonymous with "shy bladder syndrome"? A. Antidiuresis B. Paruresis C. Kaluresis D. Lithuresis

B

Which of the following conditions would be consistent with a patient who produces less than 500 mL of urine in 24 hours? A. Oliguria B. Anuria C. Enuresis D. Bradyuria

A

Which of the following glands are located near the tongue? A. Blandin glands B. Bruch glands C. Buccal glands D. Palatine glands

A

Which organs can be affected by Goodpasture syndrome? A. Lungs and kidneys B. Lungs and right ventricle C. Spleen and pancreas D. Duodenum and small intestine

A

Which is performed to monitor the progression of disease as well as the efficacy of treatment in AIDS patients? A. cANCA B. CD4 C. ELISA D. CMV

B

Which medication is routinely given for at least 30 days following stent placement? A. An ACE inhibitor B. Plavix C. A beta blocker D. Coumadin

B

Which of the following elements found in the human body is considered a trace element? A. Phosphorus B. Copper C. Iron D. magnesium

B

Which of the following is a rare, progressive genetic disorder seen primarily in males in early childhood? A. Keratocantoma B. Porokeratosis C. Erythrasma D. Punctuate keratoderma

B

Which term describes a target substance with which a drug interacts in the body? A. Pharmacologic agent B. Antidote C. Stimulant D. Receptor

D

Rebound tenderness on an abdominal exam would likely indicate which: A. Colon polyp B. Diarrhea C. Diaphragmatic tear D. Peritonitis

D

Which of the following would likely be demonstrated by a patient with a narcissistic personality disorder? A. Pulling out hair and eating it B. Grandiose sense of self-importance C. Self-abuse and depression D. Repetition of another person's words or phrases

B

Which part of the body does Reinke edema affect? A. Tonsils B. Vocal cords C. Nasal septum D. Liver

B

Which term refers to the absence, partial loss, or impairment of the sense of taste? A. Dysgeusia B. Ageusia C. Hemiageusia D. Hypergeusia

B

A patient with bronchial asthma might be prescribed A. Vanceril B. Mellaril C. Flexeril D. Plaquenil

A

Aldosterone is produced from which of the following glands? a. adrenal b. thyroid c. spleen d. pituitary

A

Aprosopia refers to congenital absence of the: A. Face B. Eyelashes C. Sexual organs D. Fingernails

A

COX-2 inhibitors are used to treat: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Helicobacter pylori C. Hypertension D. Heart failure

A

Dysaphia refers to which of the following A. Sense of touch B. Sense of smell C. Sense of taste D. Sense of sight

A

Growth hormone is the common name for which adrenal hormone? a. Somatostatin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Prolactin d. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

A

In terms of heath record privacy, what does the abbreviation OCR stand for? A. Office of Civil Rights B. Office for Coordination of Records C. Official Clearance for Release D. Official Clarification of Record

A

In the early stages of pulmonary edema, the patient may present with which constellation of symptoms? a. Tachypnea, PND, and dyspnea on exertion b. Decreased blood pressure, bradycardia, and thirst c. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, hematemesis, and rales d. Tension pneumothorax, hemoptysis, and hematemesis

A

Laetrille is a drug that has been used in the treatment of what disease? A. Cancer B. Hypertension C. Diabetes D. Irritable bowel syndrome

A

Serum levels of which substance are elevated in CHF? A. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) B. homocysteine C. troponin I D. myoglobin

A

The arytenoid cartilage is found in the: A. Larynx B. Wrist C. Pharynx D. ankle

A

The master endocrine gland which controls the other endocrine glands is the: a. Pituitary gland b. Hypothalamus c. Adrenal gland d. Pancreas

A

What are the 2 most common ESBL bacteria? A. E coli and klebsiella species B. Pseudomonas species and E coli C. Clostridium and klebsiella species D. Campylobacter and klebsiella species

A

What is the name of the disorder where a cyst forms in the spinal cord? A. Syringomyelia B. Cystospinalis C. Hydrocephalus

A

When the placenta covers the internal os, it is considered to be: A. Placenta previa B. Erythroblastosis fetalis C. Abruptio placentae D. Preeclampsia

A

Which of the following abbreviations is not on JCAHO's list of dangerous abbreviations? A. b.i.d. B. q.h.s. C. cc D. q.d.

A

A TRAM flap procedure is sometimes done following A. Abdominoplasty B. Mastectomy C. Augmentation mammoplasty D. Bariatric surgery

B

A patient presents to the dentist with jaw pain, facial pain, clicking, an earache, and a headache. The likely diagnosis is: a. Adenotonsillitis b. Internal TMJ derangement c. Tic douloureux d. Wisdom tooth impaction

B

A scintigram is a record of the: A. Spinal cord after injection of air or radiopaque substance into the subarachnoid space B. Distribution of a radioactive tracer in a tissue or an organ C. Blood vessels to diagnose cardiovascular disease D. Kidneys, ureters, and bladder after injection of radiopaque dye

B

A tort is a: A. Criminal wrong B. Civil wrong C. Misdemeanor D. Willful, premeditated act

B

A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is placed to relieve: a. Spinal bifida b. Hydrocephalus c. Hirschsprung disease d. Strabismus

B

Bruxism is defined as chronic A. Belching B. Teeth grinding C. Hiccuping D. Grunting

B

D: 12/27/12, 0900 T: 12/28/12, 0730 What is the primary purpose for the notation above in a clinical report? A. Identify turn-around time B. Establish an audit trail C. Track reimbursement D. Reflect the date of treatment

B

Demographic information provided by your ADT data indicates the patient's name is Michael Jones. The physician dictates: "This 50-year-old female patient presents ...." Per the terms of transcription best practices, what do you do? A. Remove the word "female" B. Flag the report for clarification C. Change the dictated word from "female" to "male" D. Insert Michael Jones after the word patient

B

Factor VIII is a clotting factor most often prescribed for: A. Eye surgery B. Hemophiliacs C. Cancer patients D. Platelet aggregation

B

HLA-DW3 is associated with several autoimmune diseases. HLA is the abbreviation for: A. Human lymphocyte antibody B. Human leukocyte antigen C. Humoral leukocyte autoantibody D. Histocompatible leukocyte antigen

B

Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and bacteria, are: A. Toxins B. Pathogens C. Venoms D. Parasites

B

The Joint Commission (JCAHO) grants accreditation for a maximum of: A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 1 year D. 18 months

B

The Lee-White method refers to the test for: A. Platelet function B. Clotting time C. Bleeding time D. Tourniquet time

B

The hollow interior of a tubular structure (such as the trachea or colon) is called the: A. Mucosa B. Lumen C. Intima D. Tunica

B

The oximeter is a device that measures which: A. Oxygen level within a room B. Oxygen level within the blood C. Oxygen level in the air D. Oxygen level within tissues

B

The scalene muscles are located in the: A. Back B. Neck C. Abdomen D. forehead

B

The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time, is: A. Anger B. Bargaining C. Acceptance D. Denial

B

What is the name of the end of the spinal cord, containing nerve roots from L1-L5 and S1-S5? A. Dura mater B. Cauda equina C. Medulla spinalis D. Abducens nerve

B

Which authentication practice is considered dangerous by the Joint Commission? A. Handwritten signature B. Third-party signature C. Electronic initialing D. Handwritten initials

B

Which condition, in most cases, is the residual of acute rheumatic fever? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Mitral stenosis C. Ventricular septal defect D. Mitral valve prolapse

B

Which disease is treated with Victoza (liraglutide)? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Type 2 diabetes C. Attention deficit disorder D. Pediatric celiac disease

B

The Akin, Keller, McBride, and Wilson are all procedures to repair which A. Fractures B. Ingrown toenails C. Bunions D. Joint effusions

C

The adrenal medulla secretes: a. Calcitonin b. Glucagon c. Adrenaline and noradrenaline d. TSH

C

The trigeminal (cranial) nerve is number: a. I b. II c. V d. VII

C

Which MT is considered a business associate by HIPAA (HITECH) definition? A. An MT who is an employee working remotely for a small clinic in another community. B. An MT transcribing as an employee for a medical transcription service provider. C. An MT who contracts from home for a private practice in his/her local community. D. An MT who is an employee working remotely for an acute-care hospital.

C

A defect in the 9th cranial nerve would indicate: A. Reduced blink reflex B. Inability to smell. C. Uvular deviation. D. Drooping eyelids.

C

A patient allergic to penicillin would likely NOT be on which of the following antibiotics? A. Bactrim B. Septra C. Augmentin D. ofloxacin

C

A patient with restlessness, nervousness, palpitations, and weight loss would be evaluated for: a. Cushing syndrome b. Addison disease c. Hyperthyroidism d. Diabetes mellitus

C

A sialolith is what kind of stone? A. Pancreatic B. Kidney C. Salivary D. Gall

C

According to HIPAA privacy regulations, which represents an inappropriate disclosure of PHI? A. A hospital faxes a list of a patient's meds to a consulting physician's office without prior authorization from the patient. B. A physician drops into another physician's office and discusses a patient's treatment course. C. After transcribing a report about her own cousin, an MT immediately sends another family member an email describing the physician's findings. D. An MTSO performs data aggregation services on behalf of a covered entity, in accordance with a business associate agreement.

C

According to the Book of Style, when is it necessary to encrypt PHI? A. When PHI is being discussed on a mobile phone. B. When faxing PHI to a consulting practice. C. When a file containing PHI is attached to an email. D. When PHI is being provided to the patient after discharge.

C

An elderly lady who fell a short while ago presents to the emergency room with severe pain and deformity of her right wrist. An x-ray reveals what type of fracture? a. LeFort b. Collie c. Colles d. Epiphysial

C

What is recommended by the Book of Style for electronic system security? A. Post a sign stating "authorized personnel only" on the home office. B. Create an "invisible drive" for storage of PHI so the rest of the family can safely use the computer. C. Change passwords once a year. D. The computer used for medical transcription should be located in a locked room.

D

What is the name of the flesh-eating bacteria found in warm coastal waters? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Vibrio vulnificus

D

When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the response is to: A. Decrease the blood glucose B. Increase the blood glucose C. Release epinephrine D. Produce antibodies

D

Where is the Bellini ligament found? A. shoulder B. elbow C. collarbone D. hip

D

Which cranial nerve is also known as the hypoglossal cranial nerve? A. II B. IV C. X D. XII

D

Which food would be a poor choice for a patient taking Ritalin? A. Eggs B. Peanuts C. Orange juice D. Chocolate

D

In the condition tardive dyskinesia, the word tardive means: A. Occurring suddenly or without warning B. Uncontrolled C. Chronic D. Developing slowly or late-occurring

D

Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some healthcare personnel who administer voluntary emergency care are known as: A. First Responder laws B. Patient Privacy laws C. Helping Hands legislation D. Good Samaritan laws

D

The azygos vein terminates at what vascular structure? A. Pulmonary vein B. Pulmonary artery C. Aorta D. Superior vena cava

D

The heart's typical response to ischemia is: A. Sudden cardiac arrest B. Accumulation of fluid around the heart C. Distended neck veins D. Chest pain

D

The medical term for undescended testicles is A. Varicocele B. Hypospadias C. Hyperspadias D. Cryptorchidism

D

The patient is gravida 2, para 2. Under which report heading would the above be transcribed? A. DISPOSITION B. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION C. LABORATORY RESULTS D. PAST MEDICAL HISTORY

D

What disease process is possible if a patient has hepatojugular reflux? A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Kidney disease C. Congestive heart failure D. All of the above

D

What is a medical technique in which ionized medication is driven through the skin by an electric current so that it reaches deep tissues? A. Ionization B. Electrophoresis C. Electromedication D. Iontophoresis

D

Which gland is responsible for the "fight or flight" response? a. The pancreas b. The thyroid c. The pituitary d. The adrenals

D

Which gland produces the follicle-stimulating hormone? a. thyroid b. meibomian c. adrenal d. pituitary

D


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