Combo with Microbiology Chapter 15 and 8 others
Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? a) Number of bacteria present b) pH c) All of these d) Presence of organic matter e) Temperature
All of these
40) Which of the following is not bactericidal? A) Tetracycline B) Natural penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Bacitracin E) Semisynthetic penicillin
...
42) Which one of the following is not a zoonosis? A) Cat-scratch disease B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C) Rabies D) Tapeworm E) None of the above
...
Endemic disease
...
Which of the following is mismatched? Helical virus- Ebola virus Polyhedral virus - A Mastadenovirus Enveloped helical virus - Herpesvirus Complex virus - Orthopoxvirus
Enveloped helical virus - Herpesvirus
28. In the figure, the arrow at time d indicates a. the time of exposure to the same antigen at time a. b. the secondary response. c. the primary response. d. exposure to a new antigen.
D
3. Inflammation a. aids in temporary repair at an injury site b. slows the spread of pathogens c. facilitates permanent repair d. All of the above e. None of the above
D
30. Most Gram-negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide (LPS) which is found in the a. plasma membrane. b. cell wall. c. inner membrane. d. outer membrane. e. periplasmic space.
D
5. Which of the following is not part of the body's nonspecific defense system? a. inflammation b. phagocytosis by neutrophils c. phagocytosis by macrophages d. antibodies
D
A commensal bacterium A) Does not receive any benefit from its host. B) Is beneficial to its host. C) May be an opportunistic pathogen. D) Does not infect its host. E) B and D only.
E
The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Aminoglycosides. B) Chloramphenicol. C) Lincomycin. D) Macrolides. E) Tetracyclines.
E
Which of the following does NOT contribute to the virulence of a pathogen? A) Numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host B) Cell wall C) Toxins D) Enzymes E) All of these contribute to a pathogen's virulence.
E
Which of the following is a fomite? a. Water. b. Droplets from a sneeze. c. Pus. d. Insects. e. A hypodermic needle.
E
Loss of water due to the accumulation of ions in the intestinal tract is the characteristic of ___ infection a) Enterotoxigenic EC b) Shigella dysenteries c) Helicobacter pylori d) Salmonella typhi e) Enterotohemorrhagic EC
Enterotoxigenic EC
What two Enterobacter are responsible for nosocomial infections?
Enterbacter aerogenes and Enterobacter clocacae
Most pathogens that gain access through the skin by _________
Entering through hair folicles and sweat ducts
Family of bacteria that includes the genera Escherichia, Salmonella, and Shigella.
Enterobacteriaceae
Koch postulates
The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease The pathogen must be isolated from the diseases host and grown in pure culture The pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible lab animal The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original animal
Patient symptoms may worsen after antibiotic treatment of infections caused by gram-negative bacteria due to the sudden release of endotoxins. T/F
True
The glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer) can affect bacterial virulence by allowing attachment and by hindering phagocytosis. T/F
True
Biochemical tests are used to determine
enzymatic activities.
extracellular killing mode of action
eosinophils and Nk lymphocytes kill pathogens without phagocytizing them
inflammation mode of action
increases the blood flow, capillary permeability, and migration of leukocytes into infected area, walls off infected region, increases local temperature
Which would be the most unlikely location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium? 1. glycocalyx 2. fimbriae 3. capsule 4. ribosomes 5. cell wall
ribosomes
yeasts do NOT contain
fillaments
What disease is caused by Rickettsias rickettsia?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Causes nosocomial infections
Serratia marcescens
Chemotherapy
The use of drugs to treat a disease
What type of mutation creates a stop codon?
a missense (aka nonsense mutation)
a restriction fragment is
a segment of DNA
Secondary (memory or anamnestic) response occurs
after second exposure
DNA is aligned in an
anti parallel fashion 5 to 3 and 3 to 5
If bacteria A and B have LD50 values of 109 and 1010, respectively, more cells of A than B will be needed to kill the host. T/F
False
If bacteria attach to host tissue, they will cause disease. T/F
False
Intense cold and freezing are very effective in killing bacteria: a) True b) False
False
Microbes are more likely to enter the body through the skin than through the mucous membranes. T/F
False
Most host damage resulting from bacterial infection is the result of direct damage by the microbe. T/F
False
The same disease symptoms result, regardless of how a particular microbe enters the body. T/F
False
Urine of a healthy person is sterile a) True b) False
False
The principal cause of dental caries is a) S. mutans b) S. Salivarius c) S. mitis d) S. pyogenes
S. mutans
ß-galactosidase
converts lactose into glucose and galactose
Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following EXCEPT A) Antibiotic resistance. B) Climatic changes. C) Digging up soil. D) Microbes trying to cause disease. E) Travel
d
Transient flora differ from normal flora because transient flora a. Cause diseases. b. Are found in certain location on the host. c. Are acquired by direct contact. d. Are present for a relatively short time. e. None of the above.
d
Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? A) Malaria B) AIDS C) Tuberculosis D) Tetanus E) Typhoid fever
d
In Figure 8.2 shows a figure of an unwound segment of DNA being replicated, base 2 is attached to _________. ribose phosphate deoxyribose thymine Can't tell
deoxyribose
pathogenesis
development of disease
defensins mode of action; interfere with membranes, internal signaling,metabolism and heat shock protein.
...
neutralization; blocks ahesion of bacteria or attachement of toxin and viruses to mucosa
...
Normal microbiota are found in which of the following locations? Mouth Nose Skin All of the above
All of the above
What do algae lack that other plants typically have? Roots Stem Leaves All of the above
All of the above
saprobes
Most fungi are _______ - they absorb nutrients from the remnants of dead organism
Nosocomial Infections
Are acquired as a result of a hospital stay Affect 5-15% of all hospital patients
Vectors
Arthropods, especially fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes
Immunoglobulins
Antibodies
Bacteremia
Bacteria in the blood
Dermatophytes are fungi that cause disease of skin a) True b) False
True
Budding
How do yeast reproduce?
14. Contains histamines that trigger allergy symptoms
MAST CELL
15. A phagocytic white blood cell
NEUTROPHIL
Etiology
Study of caude of disease
Virulence
The extent of pathogenicity
Toxemia
Toxins in the blood
Viremia
Viruses in the blood
Which of these substances does not protect a bacterium from phagocytosis? 1. leukocidins 2. siderophores 3. capsule 4. M protein
Siderophores
What does taxonomy mean in Greek?
"law and order"
4) Antimicrobial peptides work by A) Inhibiting protein synthesis. B) Disrupting the plasma membrane. C) Complementary base-pairing with DNA. D) Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis. E) Hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.
...
Lichens
-partnerships between fungi and photosynthetic microbes -in these, the hyphae of the fungus, which is usually an ascomycete, surround the photosynthetic cells and provide them nutrients, water and protection from desiccation and harsh light the fungus of this reproduces by spores They occur in 3 basic shapes
33) Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? A) Bacitracin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis B) Ethambutol inhibits mycolic acid synthesis C) Streptogramin inhibits protein synthesis D) Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis E) Vancomycin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
..
...
...
Where in the cell does protein synthesis occur?
ribosome
Basidiomycota
-Division of fungi -Examples: mushrooms, puffballs, stinkhorns, jelly fungi, bracket fungi are all a part of this type - structure consists of tightly woven hyphae that extend into multiple, often club-shaped projections called basidia, the ends of which produce sexual basidiospores
Zygomycetes
-This is a division of Fungi -they are coenocytic molds -this produces asexually via Sporangiospores - the distinction is that they form sexual structures called zygosporangia
Ascomycota
-division of fungi - they reproduce asexually by conidiospores Eg: penicillium
Figure 20.3 18) The antibiotic erythromycin binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.3. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) None of the above.
...
. 18. Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms a. are changes felt by the patient. b. are changes observed by the physician. c. are specific for a particular disease. d. always occur as part of a syndrome. e. None of the above.
...A
1) Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons except A) It was the first antibiotic. B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells. C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. D) It has selective toxicity. E) None of the above.
...A
12) Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis C) Injury to plasma membrane D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis E) None of the above
...A
14) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin
...A
2) Which of the following statements is true? A) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together. B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
...A
21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) Are changes felt by the patient. B) Are changes observed by the physician. C) Are specific for a particular disease. D) Always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of the above.
...A
25) Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because A) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. B) They replicate inside human cells. C) They don't have ribosomes. D) They don't reproduce. E) None of the above.
...A
26) Which of the following organisms would most likely be sensitive to natural penicillin? A) L forms B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Penicillium E) Mycoplasma
...A
30) A sexually transmitted disease is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...A
35. Cytotoxins having a specific toxic action upon cells/tissues of the liver are a. hepatotoxins. b. cardiotoxins. c. enterotoxins. d. neurotoxins. e. nephrotoxins.
...A
38) Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is not true? A) They cause mutations. B) They are used against viral infections. C) They affect host cell DNA. D) They are too dangerous to be used. E) None of the above.
...A
39. Which of the following is not an effect of complement activation? a. Interference with viral replication b. Bacterial cell lysis c. Opsonization d. Increased phagocytic activity e. Increased blood vessel permeability/
...A
6) Which of the following diseases is not spread by droplet infection? A) Botulism B) Tuberculosis C) Measles D) Common cold E) Diphtheria
...A
8. A sexually transmitted disease is an example of a. direct contact. b. droplet transmission. c. fomite. d. vector. e. vehicle transmission.
...A
Figure 20.1 8) The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA.
...A
14. The graph in the figure above shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a. an endemic level. b. an epidemic level. c. a sporadic infection. d. a communicable disease. e. None of the above.
...B
17) More than half of our antibiotics are A) Produced by fungi. B) Produced by bacteria. C) Synthesized in laboratories. D) Produced by Fleming. E) None of the above.
...B
19. Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of a. indirect contact. b. droplet transmission. c. fomite. d. vector. e. vehicle transmission.
...B
2. Which of the following definitions is incorrect? a. Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population b. Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time c. Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time d. Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally e. Herd immunity - immunity in most of the population
...B
21) Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections? 1. Aminoglycosides 2. Cephalosporins 3. Griseofulvin 4. Polyenes 5. Bacitracin A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 3, 4, and 5 D) 4 and 5 E) All of the antibiotics
...B
22) All of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis except A) Cephalosporins. B) Macrolides. C) Natural penicillins. D) Semisynthetic penicillins. E) Vancomycin.
...B
22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) Ecology. B) Epidemiology. C) Communicable disease. D) Morbidity and mortality. E) Public health.
...B
29) Drug resistance occurs A) Because bacteria are normal microbiota. B) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately. C) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. D) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. E) All of the above.
...B
29) Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...B
3) A nosocomial infection is A) Always present but inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) Acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) Always caused by medical personnel. D) Only a result of surgery. E) Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
...B
3) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Viruses. B) Bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Protozoa. E) All of the above.
...B
35) The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...B
40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of A) Symbiotic bacteria. B) Antagonistic bacteria. C) Parasitic bacteria. D) Commensal bacteria. E) None of the above.
...B
41) Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of A) Antagonism. B) Commensalism. C) Parasitism. D) Synergism. E) None of the above.
...B
5. The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called a. ecology. b. epidemiology. c. communicable disease. d. morbidity and mortality. e. public health.
...B
7. In the figure above, what is the endemic level of rotavirus infections? a. 0% b. Approximately 10% c. Approximately 20% d. 35% e. The month of January
...B
8) Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A) Endemic a disease that is constantly present in a population B) Epidemic fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time C) Pandemic a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D) Sporadic a disease that affects a population occasionally E) None of the above
...B
During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥39oC lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetti. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetti antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. 11. The case study is an example of a. human reservoirs. b. a zoonosis. c. a nonliving reservoir. d. a vector. e. a focal infection.
...B
10) Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Streptomycin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Erythromycin E) Chloramphenicol
...C
10. Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a a. communicable disease. b. latent infection. c. nosocomial infection. d. sporadic disease. e. viral infection
...C
11) All of the following act by competitive inhibition except A) Ethambutol. B) Isoniazid. C) Streptomycin. D) Sulfonamide. E) None of the above.
...C
12) Nosocomial infections are most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Enterococcus. D) Pseudomonas. E) Klebsiella.
...C
12. In the case study, the etiologic agent of the disease is a. sheep. b. soil. c. C. burnetii. d. pneumonia. e. wind.
...C
15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) Body odor. B) Fewer diseases. C) Increased susceptibility to disease. D) Normal microbiota returning immediately. E) No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
...C
17. Which of the following processes depends on the F factor plasmid? a. transformation b. transduction c. conjugation d. translocation e. recombination
...C
19) All of the following statements about biological transmission are true except A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C) Houseflies are an important vector. D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.
...C
20) Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis? A) Uracil B) Thymine C) Flucytosine D) Guanine E) None of the above
...C
22. The best definition of an antibody is a. a serum protein. b. a protein that inactivates or kills an antigen. c. a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen. d. an enzyme. e. None of the above
...C
28) All of the following are advantages of using two antibiotics together except A) Prevention of drug resistance. B) Lessening the toxicity of individual drugs. C) Two are always twice as effective as one. D) Providing treatment prior to diagnosis. E) None of the above.
...C
32) A needlestick is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...C
34) In the presence of penicillin a cell dies because A) It lacks a cell wall. B) It plasmolyzes. C) It undergoes osmotic lysis. D) It lacks a cell membrane. E) None of the above.
...C
38. The nature of bacterial capsules a. causes widespread blood clotting. b. allows phagocytes to readily engulf these bacteria. c. affects the virulence of these bacteria. d. has no effect on the virulence of bacteria. e. All of the above
...C
43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) Communicable disease. B) Latent infection. C) Nosocomial infection. D) Sporadic disease. E) None of the above.
...C
45) Which one of the following does not contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) Formation of biofilms. B) Lapse in aseptic techniques. C) Gram-negative cell walls. D) Lack of hand-washing. E) Lack of insect control.
...C
6) Which of the following antibiotics is not bactericidal? A) Aminoglycosides B) Cephalosporins C) Polyenes D) Rifampins E) Penicillin
...C
7) Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission A) Doesn't require an arthropod. B) Involves fomites. C) Doesn't involve specific diseases. D) Requires direct contact. E) Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases.
...C
Figure 14.2 28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) Direct contact B) Droplet transmission C) Fomite D) Vector E) Vehicle transmission
...C
1. The major significance of Koch's work was that a. microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. b. diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. c. microorganisms can be cultured. d. microorganisms cause disease. e. microorganisms are the result of disease.
...D
11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection
...D
13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota A) Cause diseases. B) Are found in a certain location on the host. C) Are acquired by direct contact. D) Are present for a relatively short time. E) None of the above.
...D
17) All of the following are communicable diseases except A) Malaria. B) AIDS. C) Tuberculosis. D) Tetanus. E) Typhoid fever.
...D
24) Which of the following statements is false? A) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis. B) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis. C) Amantadine inhibits release of viral nucleic acid. D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis. E) None of the above.
...D
27) All of the following statements about drug resistance are true except A) It may be carried on a plasmid. B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation. C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug.
...D
34) Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...D
36. The best definition of cell mediated immunity is: a. immunity involving macrophages. b. immunity involving stem cells. c. immunity involving the lymphatic system. d. immunity involving T cells. e. immunity involving platelets.
...D
37. The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is a. infection. b. contamination. c. disease. d. adhesion.
...D
39) Which one of the following is not an example of microbial antagonism? A) Acid production by bacteria B) Bacteriocin production C) Bacteria occupying host receptors D) Bacteria causing disease E) None of the above
...D
4) The major significance of Koch's work was that A) Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) Microorganisms can be cultured. D) Microorganisms cause disease. E) Microorganisms are the result of disease.
...D
5) Semisynthetic penicillins differ from natural penicillins in all of the following respects except that both are A) Broad spectrum. B) Resistant to penicillinase. C) Resistant to stomach acids. D) Bactericidal. E) None of the above.
...D
6. Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except a. antibiotic resistance. b. climatic changes. c. public health failures. d. microbes trying to cause disease. e. travel.
...D
9. Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of a. direct contact. b. droplet transmission. c. fomite. d. vector. e. vehicle transmission.
...D
Figure 14.1 24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except A) Antibiotic resistance. B) Climatic changes. C) Digging up soil. D) Microbes trying to cause disease. E) Travel.
...D
Figure 20.4 19) The antibiotic streptomycin binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.4. The effect is to A) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes. B) Prevent binding of tRNA in eukaryotes. C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes. D) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes. E) None of the above.
...D
10) Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection
...E
13) Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polyenes B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin
...E
13. In the case study, the method of transmission of this disease was a. direct contact. b. droplet. c. indirect contact. d. vector-borne. e. vehicle.
...E
14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is not true? A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They are caused by opportunists. C) They are caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They are caused by normal microbiota. E) None of the above.
...E
15. Which of the following is not a condition of Koch's postulates? a. Isolate the causative agent of a disease b. Cultivate the microbe in the lab c. Inoculate a test animal to observe the disease d. Grow the organism in pure culture e. Produce a vaccine
...E
16) Which of the following is not a reservoir of infection? A) A sick person B) A healthy person C) A sick animal D) A hospital E) None of the above
...E
16. The presence of Staphylococci on healthy skin helps to prevent pathogenic bacteria from colonizing and causing disease. This is an example of: a. virulence. b. pathogenicity. c. antibiosis. d. opportunism. e. microbial antagonism.
...E
18) Which of the following is a fomite? A) Water B) Droplets from a sneeze C) Pus D) Insects E) A hypodermic needle
...E
2) The first antibiotic discovered was A) Quinine. B) Salvarsan. C) Streptomycin. D) Sulfa drugs. E) Penicillin.
...E
20) Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A) Acute a short-lasting primary infection B) Inapparent infection characteristic of a carrier state C) Chronic a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) Primary infection an initial illness E) Secondary infection a long-lasting illness
...E
23) The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Aminoglycosides. B) Chloramphenicol. C) Lincomycin. D) Macrolides. E) Tetracyclines.
...E
23. Which of the following causes pores in target cells? a. Antigen b. Hapten c. IL-1 d. IL-2 e. Perforin
...E
25) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Malaria vector B) Salmonellosis vehicle transmission C) Syphilis direct contact D) Influenza droplet infection E) None of the above
...E
26) All of the following can contribute to postoperative infections except A) Using syringes more than once. B) Normal microbiota on the operating room staff. C) Errors in aseptic technique. D) Antibiotic resistance. E) None of the above.
...E
3. Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia? a. Bacteremia b. Focal infection c. Local infection d. Septicemia e. Systemic infection
...E
31) Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...E
33) Legionellosis transmitted by a grocery store mist machine is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
...E
4. Which of the following is a fomite? a. Water b. Droplets from a sneeze c. Pus d. Insects e. A hypodermic needle
...E
5) Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because A) Some microorganisms can't be cultured in laboratory media. B) Some microorganisms don't cause the same disease in laboratory animals. C) Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions. D) Some microorganisms can't be observed. E) All diseases aren't caused by microorganisms.
...E
7) Which one of the following does not belong with the others? A) Bacitracin B) Cephalosporin C) Monobactam D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin
...E
2. Lymphocytes are large agranulocytes.
...FALSE
5. Interferon is produced by viruses.
...FALSE
8. C3a causes opsonization.
...FALSE
20. Nosocomial infections occur in compromised patients. a. True b. False
...T
21. Insects can act as mechanical and biological vectors. a. True b. False
...T
1. Wandering macrophages experience margination.
...TRUE
10. In a process called clonal deletion, lymphocytes that destroy host tissues are destroyed.
...TRUE
3. The hypothalamus of the brain controls body temperature.
...TRUE
4. Apoptosis is the term used to describe cellular suicide.
...TRUE
6. Exotoxins are composed of proteins.
...TRUE
7. Histamine increases permeability of capillaries so that leukocytes can more readily reach the infection site.
...TRUE
9. Like B cells, T cells originate from stem cells in bone marrow.
...TRUE
Physical factor of first line of defense
1. Skin Epidermis consists of tightly packed cells with Keratin, a protective protein 2. Mucous membranes Mucus: Traps microbes Ciliary escalator: Microbes trapped in mucus are transported away from the lungs 3. Lacrimal apparatus: Washes eye Saliva: Washes microbes off Urine: Flows out Vaginal secretions: Flow out
Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic (fever) response? 1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. 2. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins. 3. IL-1 is released by macrophages. 4. The body's thermostat is set to a higher level, and fever occurs. 5. IL-1 travels via the blood to the hypothalamus.
1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.
Which statement is not true of endotoxins? 1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production. 2. They are more heat-resistant than exotoxins are. 3. They can lyse amoebocytes found in crab hemolymph. 4. They can induce chills, fever, aches, clotting, shock, and miscarriage. 5. Endotoxins are produced by Neisseria meningitidis and E. coli.
1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production.
microbial mechanism of pathogenicity
1. capsules Prevent phagocytosis Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Bacillus anthracis 2. call wall components M protein resists phagocytosis Streptococcus pyogenes Opa protein inhibits T helper cells Neisseria gonorrhoeae Mycolic acid (waxy lipid) resists digestion Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3. enzymes Enzymes secreted by the pathogen Dissolve structural chemicals in the body Help pathogen maintain infection, invade further, and avoid body defenses 4. Antigenic variation ex flu gonorrea Antigens are surface protein that induce immune response by the host. Alter surface proteins to evade immune response 5.Invasion Invasins Salmonella alters host actin to enter a host cell Use actin to move from one cell to the next Listeria
Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of entry? 1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract 2. chlamydia; skin 3. influenza; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract 4. measles; parenteral route 5. hookworm; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract
1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract
how pathogens damge host cell
1. using the host nutrients siderphores Siderophores releases by the pathogen takes away and use host's iron. 2. Direct damage Disrupt host cell function Produce waste products Toxins
How many strands is DNA composed of?
2
Viruses can evade host defenses by ________. 1. producing enzymes that destroy antibody molecules 2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system 3. producing leukocidins that actively destroy white blood cells 4. inhibiting phagocytosis due to the presence of the viral envelope
2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system
Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one? 1. A more severe disease will result. 2. A milder disease will result. 3. A different disease of the same severity will result. 4. Pathogens cannot enter by alternate routes.
2. A milder disease will result
The pathogenicity of which of the following is not the result of lysogeny? 1. Clostridium botulinum 2. Clostridium tetani 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Streptococcus pyogenes 5. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
2. Clostridium tetani
Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of biofilms? 1. exotoxins 2. adhesins 3. siderophores 4. hemolysins 5. invasins
2. adhesins
Which one of these pairs is not correctly matched? 1. collagenase; breaks down connective tissue 2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots 3. leukocidin; lyses WBC membranes 4. siderophore; traps iron 5. IgA protease; digest antibodies
2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots
Which of these statements is not true for bacterial capsules? 1. For Streptococcus pneumoniae, the encapsulated strain is more virulent. 2. Pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria can produce capsules. 3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur. 4. The importance of the capsule to virulence for Streptococcus pneumoniae can be determined because there are strains both with and without the capsule. 5. Capsules related to virulence are produced by the causative agents of anthrax and bubonic plague.
3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur.
The LD50 of Vibrio choleraeis 108 cells through the oral route. If the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to 104. Which of these explanations is the most likely? 1. Vibrio cholerae makes toxin only in the presence of stomach acid. 2. Stomach acid increases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 4. Sodium bicarbonate inactivates Vibrio cholerae. 5. Sodium bicarbonate decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.
3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.
All of these answers are true of A-B exotoxins except ________. 1. Many exotoxins are A-B toxins. 2. They consist of two polypeptide components. 3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria. 4. The A portion of the toxin is the active component. 5. The B portion of the toxin binds to surface receptors on host cells.
3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria.
The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10-50 endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000 endospores. This means that ________. 1. not enough information is available to answer this question 2. neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired. 3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax 4. inhalation anthrax is easier to acquire than cutaneous anthrax 5. both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired
3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax
Which of these conditions would not affect the ability of Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth? 1. the lack of a glycocalyx 2. the lack of the enzyme glucosyltransferase 3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque 4. the inability to form dextran 5. the lack of sucrose
3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque
Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth ________. 350 years ago 3500 years ago 3.5 million years ago 3.5 billion years ago 3.5 x 1012 years ago
3.5 billion years ago
How many properties of vectors are there? 3 2 1 4
4
In table 10.1 which is found only in prokaryotes
4,6
All of the following are examples of cytopathic effects of viruses except ________. 1. cell surface antigens change 2. host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia 3. inclusion bodies are found in the cytoplasm or nucleus 4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.
4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.
Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be associated with the development of cancer? 1. cell fusion 2. stimulation of interferon production 3. inclusion bodies 4. loss of contact inhibition 5. cell death
4. loss of contact inhibition
Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following except ________. 1. Bacillus anthracis 2. Klebsiella pneumoniae 3. Yersinia pestis 4. Haemophilus influenzae 5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which statement is true of endotoxins? 1. They are disease specific. 2. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. 3. They are proteins. 4. They increase blood pressure. 5. They are released upon cell lysis.
5. They are released upon cell lysis.
Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for movement of bacteria within host cells? 1. invasins 2. cilia 3. flagella 4. pseudopods 5. actin molecules
5. actin molecules
What is the direction of DNA synthesis during replication
5¹ ---〉 3¹
all of the following are reasons for classifying viruses in the three domains and not in a fourth domain except
?
10. Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by: a. The Limulus amoebocyte lysate test. b. counting the viable bacteria. c. filtering out the cells. d. looking for turbidity. e. None of the above.
A
11. Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness? a. Toxins b. Capsule c. Cell wall proteins d. Hyaluronidase e. Leukocidins
A
13. Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis C) Injury to plasma membrane D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis E) Competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase
A
16. Cytopathic effects are changes in the host cells due to a. viral infections. b. protozoan and helminthic infections. c. fungal infections. d. bacterial infections. e. All of the above.
A
18. The chemicals causing symptoms of anaphylaxis are a. Found in basophils and mast cells b. Interferons c. Antigens d. Antigen‑antibody complexes e. The proteins of the complement system.
A
31. The definition of lysogeny is a. phage DNA is incorporated into the host cell DNA. b. lysis of the host cell due to a phage. c. the period during replication when virions are not present. d. when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
A
32. Which of the following is not a membrane-disrupting toxin? a. A-B toxin b. Hemolysin c. Leukocidins d. Streptolysin O e. Streptolysin S
A
38. Injecting small, repeated doses of the allergen (antigen) into the skin in order to produce blocking antibodies.
A
40. An encapsulated bacterium can be virulent because the capsule a. Resists phagocytosis b. Helps the bacterium attach c. Destroys host tissue d. Interferes with physiological properties e. Many pathogens don't have capsules, therefore, capsules do not contribute to virulence.
A
40. Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occurs in humans. Which of the following would be the most severe? a. Deficiency of C3 b. Deficiency of C5 c. Deficiency of C6 d. Deficiency of C7 e. Deficiency of C8
A
8. Which antibody class is abundant in body secretions? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM
A
Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A) Viral infections. B) Protozoan infections. C) Fungal infections. D) Bacterial infections. E) Helminthic infections.
A
Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) It was the first antibiotic. B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells. C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. D) It has selective toxicity. E) It kills bacteria.
A
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA.
A
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the A) Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. B) Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. C) Skin. D) Parenteral route. E) All are used equally
A
Use this figure to answer questions 33-34. 33. Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies? a. a and b b. a and c c. b and c d. c and d e. a and d
A
What cell structure does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells? A) fimbriae Feedback: Correct! B) cell wall waxes C) M proteins D) capsules E) flagella
A
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin
A
Which of the following statements is true? a. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together. b. Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. c. A parasite is not in a symbiosis with its host. d. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. e. At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
A
Gamma rays kills microbe by producing highly reactive oxidizing molecules such as superoxides and free radicals a) True b) False
True
What is the term that means a disease of animals that can be transmitted to humans?
zoonose (sing.), zoonoses (pl.)
A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be classified as a/an ________.
A-B toxin
Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? A) Aminoglycosides B) Cephalosporins C) Polyenes D) Rifampins E) Penicillin
C
Which of the following substances is NOT effective against nonenveloped viruses? A) Ozone B) Ethylene oxide C) Alcohol D) Chlorine E) All are equally effective.
C) Alcohol
Sign
A change in a body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease
Symptom
A change in body function that is felt by a patient as a result of disease
6. The process by which neutrophils squeeze through capillary walls in response to inflammatory signals is called a. emigration b. chemotaxis c. margination d. opsonization
A DIAPADESIS
In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes
A decrease in blood pressure
Contagious disease
A disease that is easily spread from one host to another
Noncommunicable diseas e:
A disease that is not transmitted from one host to another
Communicable disease
A disease that is spread from one host to another
Selective toxicity
A drug that kills harmful microbes without damaging the host
Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs? A) Glutaraldehyde B) Chlorine bleach C) Chlorhexidine D) Soap E) Phenol
C) Chlorhexidine
The cultivation of some animal viruses (e.g., Simian AIDS) typically requires what? Blood A live animal Bacteria Proper nutrition Agar
A live animal
What is a helminth? A unicellular eukaryotic animal A multicellular eukaryotic animal A tricellular prokaryotic animal An annelid worm
A multicellular eukaryotic animal
Which of these organisms does not produce an enterotoxin? 1. Shigella spp. 2. Clostridium botulinum 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Staphylococcus aureus
Colostridium botulinum
Symptoms of bacteria meningitis includes: a) Stiff neck b) Tightening of jaw and neck c) Vomiting d) Difficulty breathing e) Severe headache a) A, C, D, E b) A, C, E c) A, B, C d) A, E e) All of the above
A, C, E
Syndrome
A specific group of signs and symptoms that accompany a disease
Antibiotic
A substance produced by a microbe that, in small amounts, inhibits another microbe
Antigen (Ag)
A substance that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or sensitized T cells Antibodies (Ab) interact with epitopes or antigenic determinants A substance with low molecular weight is not antigenic unless it is attached to a carrier molecule. Low molecular weight antigens are called haptens
Antibiotic ressistance
A variety of mutations can lead to antibiotic resistance Mechanisms of antibiotic resistance Enzymatic destruction of drug Prevention of penetration of drug Alteration of drug's target site Rapid ejection of the drug Resistance genes are often on plasmids or transposons that can be transferred between bacteria Misuse of antibiotics selects for resistance mutants. Misuse includes Using outdated or weakened antibiotics Using antibiotics for the common cold and other inappropriate conditions Using antibiotics in animal feed Failing complete the prescribed regimen Using someone else's leftover prescription
35. Reaction using red blood cells as the indicator and hemolysis indicates an antigen‑antibody reaction.
Complement fixation
Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to hospital-acquired infections? A) All of these may contribute to hospital-acquired infection. B) Invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria. C) Bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash. D) Some bacteria metabolize disinfectants. E) Gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.
A) All of these may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.
Which of the following will NOT destroy prions? A) Boiling B) NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C C) Proteases D) All of these destroy prions. E) Incineration
A) Boiling
Which of the following is NOT used to disinfect water? A) Heat B) Ozone C) Gamma radiation D) Chlorine E) Copper sulfate
A) Heat
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Beta-propiolactone C) Ethylene oxide D) Propylene oxide E) Glutaraldehyde
A) Hydrogen peroxide
Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Inhibition of RNA synthesis B) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis C) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis D) Competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase E) Injury to plasma membrane
A) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? A) Polyenes B) Penicillin C) Rifampins D) Aminoglycosides E) Cephalosporins
A) Polyenes
The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Tetracyclines. B) Chloramphenicol. C) Lincomycin. D) Aminoglycosides. E) Macrolides.
A) Tetracyclines.
Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth? A) They are equivalent treatments. B) None is effective. C) 63°C for 30 min. D) 140°C for 4 sec. E) 72°C for 15 sec.
A) They are equivalent treatments.
Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A) Two are always twice as effective as one. B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. C) All of these are advantages. D) It can prevent drug resistance. E) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis
A) Two are always twice as effective as one.
Drug resistance occurs A) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately. B) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. C) Because bacteria are normal microbiota. D) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. E) All of these.
A) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
Of the following viruses, which ones cause diseases of the brain and meninges? a) Rabies b) St. Louis encephalitis virus c) Herpes simplex virus type 1 d) Smallpox a) A, B, C, D b) B only c) A, B, C d) A, B e) A, D
A, B
Staphylococcus aureus strains (or their products) can cause: a) Toxic shock syndrome b) Food poisoning c) Scalded skin syndrome a) C only b) A, B c) A only d) A, B, C e) A, C
A, B, C
Which of the following groups of microorganisms produce antibiotics a) Fungi b) Viruses c) Bacteria d) Protozoa a) C, D b) C only c) A, B d) A, C, D e) A, C
A, C
Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal? A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes B. Inclusion bodies C. Antigenic changes D. Giant cells E. Transformation
A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes
What test assumes that any compound causes a mutation is a microbe that is a carcinogen and may cause birth defects?
AMES test
Using the code UAGCGGCCU, what will the tRNA anticodons be?
AUCGCCGGA
What is the start codon?
AUG
Toxigenicity
Ability to produce a toxin
Immunity
Ability to ward off disease
Fever
Abnormally high body temperature Hypothalamus normally set at 37°C Gram-negative endotoxin cause phagocytes to release interleukin-1 (IL-1) Hypothalamus releases prostaglandins that reset the hypothalamus to a high temperature Body increases rate of metabolism and shivering which raise temperature Vasodilation and sweating: Body temperature falls (crisis) chill is a sign of body temp rising
Which of the following is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? All members are photosynthetic. Absorption of dissolved organic matter Absorption of dissolved inorganic matter All members are microscopic. All members are macroscopic.
Absorption of dissolved organic matter
All of the following diseases are caused by the Staphylococcus aureus except which one? a) Pimples b) Toxic shock syndrome c) Scalded skin syndrome d) Acne
Acne
All of the following skin diseases are caused by viruses except which one? a) Herpes simplex b) Acne c) Warts d) Chickenpox
Acne
Primary infection
Acute infection that causes the initial illness
Second line of defense
Acute-phase proteins activated (complement, cytokine, and kinins) Vasodilation (histamine, kinins, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes) Redness Swelling (edema) Pain Heat
In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'? Adenine Thymine Cytosine Guanine Uracil
Adenine
_______ are molecules on bacterial cell surfaces that enable them to adhere to the surface of host cells.
Adhesins
adherence
Adhesins/ligands bind to receptors on host cells Glycocalyx: Streptococcus mutans Fimbriae: Escherichia coli M protein: Streptococcus pyogenes Form biofilms
The normal flora of the genital tract of women is: a) Composed of mostly E. coli b) Not changed c) Affected by sexual activity d) Affected by estrogen
Affected by estrogen
33. Reaction between antibody and particulate antigen.
Agglutination reaction
Plant pathogen that causes crown gall
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Which organisms live mostly in an aquatic environment? Helminth Lichen Algae Fungi
Algae
Which of the following is not a complication of gonorrhea? a) Sterility b) Endocarditis c) Pelvic inflammatory disease d) All are complications of gonorrhea
All are complications of gonorrhea
How are viruses classified? Nucleic acid Strategy for replication Morphology Size and number of capsomeres All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following can be used to make recombinant DNA? protoplast fusion Tungsten "bullets" microinjection Transformation All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a arthropod? Spider Mites Bees All of the above
All of the above
A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because: a) She is immune to tuberculosis b) She had tuberculosis c) All of these d) She has been vaccinated e) She has tuberculosis
All of these
Bacteria death will result from damage to which of the following structure? a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane c) All of these d) Proteins e) Nucleic acids
All of these
Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to: a) decrease in uptake of the drug b) alteration in the target site c) All of these d) increase in pumping out of the drug e) drug-inactivating enzyme
All of these
Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold is/are: a) Avoiding close contact with people with cold b) All of these c) Avoiding crowds d) Hand washing e) Avoiding touching one's eyes
All of these
Enterobacteriaceae are a group of gram-negative rods, which ferment glucose. Disease(s) caused by members of this group include(s): a) Gastroenteritis b) All of these c) Pneumonia d) Nosocomial infection e) Bloody diarrhea
All of these
Hepatitis B virus is mainly spread by a) Blood products b) Needle stick c) Semen d) Blood e) All of these
All of these
Meningitis can be caused by: a) Protozoa b) Bacteria c) Viruses d) Fungi e) All of these
All of these
Presence of blood in stool of a patient with diarrhea is the result of a) Loss of protein b) EHEC infection c) All of these d) None of these e) Shigella infection
All of these
Which infection is caused by S. aureus? a) Pimples b) Furuncle c) All of these d) Carbuncle e) Impetigo
All of these
Which of the following is considered a function of skin a) Prevents fluid loss b) Regulates body temperature c) Harbors normal flora d) All of these e) Keeps pathogens from establishing themselves
All of these
Which of the following may result in the development of the resistance to antimicrobial drugs? a) Plasmid exchange among bacteria b) Bacteria may pump the drugs out, so they won't be effective anymore c) Bacteria producing enzymes that inactivate the drugs d) Mutation in chromosomal genes e) All of these may result in development of the resistance to antimicrobial drugs
All of these
Which of the following cannot be killed by autoclave? a) Organisms with capsules b) Pathogens c) Organisms with spores d) Organisms with thick cell walls e) All of these can be killed by autoclave
All of these can be killed by autoclave
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a serious disease. This disease of women is defined as the clinical syndrome resulting from the ascending spread of microorganism from vagina and cervix to the endometrium, the fallopian tube. Which of the following statements does not apply to this disease? a) It is the most common cause of involuntary infertility in women b) All statements apply to PID c) it is caused by Neisseria gonorrhea d) Not all infections result in PID e) PID is caused by more than one microorganism
All statements apply to PID
All of the following can be transmitted to humans from domestic cats except a) American trypanosomiasis b) Plague c) Toxoplasmosis d) Cat-scratch fever
American trypanosomiasis
H. pylori is, in part, able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce a) Amino acid b) Ammonia c) Fatty acid d) Lactic acid
Ammonia
a. Native immunity b. Naturally acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity 22. Type of immunity resulting from vaccination.
Artificially acquired active immunity
23. Type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection.
Artificially acquired passive immunity
What kind of DNA or RNA do viruses contain? Single-stranded DNA Double-stranded DNA Single-stranded RNA Double-stranded RNA Any one of the above
Any one of the above
What tissues can opportunistic mycoses infect? Skin only Mouth only Mouth and throat Any tissue Feet
Any tissue
What is a disease vector? A protist that causes disease Circular DNA in eukaryotes An arthropod that carries a disease The opening in a eukaryotic cell wall
An arthropod that carries a disease
The symptoms of tetanus are due to
An exotoxin produced by clostridium tetani
Systemic infection
An infection throughout the body
The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following except a) Hyaluronidase b) Anaerobic environment c) Necrotizing exotoxins d) Microbial fermentation e) Proteolytic enzymes
Anaerobic environment
Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because a) These types of infections are not caused by bacteria b) The infection moves along the peripheral nerves c) Antibiotics damage nerve tissues d) Antibiotic cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier
Antibiotic cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier
Antitoxin
Antibodies against a specific toxin
. Hapten
Antigen is combined with carrier molecules
T-dependent antigens
Antigen that requires a TH cell for antibody production TH cell produces cytokines that activate the B cell Antibody producing B cells are called plasma cells Longlived activated B cells responsible for enhanced secondary response is called memory cells
unusual cell wall, lives in extremes
Archaeobacteria
How do Archaeobacteria differ from the gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci?
Archaeobacteria lack peptidoglycan.
phatogenic properties of viruses
Attachment sites mimic substances useful to cells. Hiding attachment sites from immune response Attacking immune system directly Cytopathic Effects of Viruses Visible effects of viral infection
Which of the following treatments achieves sterilization? a) Autoclaving b) Pasteurization c) Boiling d) Commercial canning
Autoclaving
Rheumatic fever is a(n): a) Autoimmune sequel to a streptococcal infection b) Secondary infection streptococcal infection c) Streptococcal superinfection d) Primary streptococcal infection
Autoimmune sequel to a streptococcal infection
Antifungal drug
Azoles Miconazole Triazoles Treatment of cuteneous mycoses, (athlet's foot, Yeast infection)
10. A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry? A) Skin B) Parenteral route C) Mucous membranes D) All of these E) None of these
B
14. Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Viruses. B) Bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Protozoa. E) All of these.
B
17. A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry? a. Skin b. Parenteral route c. Mucous membranes d. Gastrointestinal
B
17. The best definition of an antigen is a. Something foreign in the body. b. A macromolecule that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies. c. A chemical that combines with antibodies. d. A pathogen. e. A protein that combines with antibodies.
B
2. Which of the following best describes the difference in the way B cells and cytotoxic T cells respond to invaders? a. B cells kills viruses directly; cytotoxic T cells kills virus-infected cells. b. B cells secrete antibodies against a virus; cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected cells. c. B cells accomplish cell-mediated immunity; cytotoxic T cells accomplish humoral immunity. d. B cells respond the first time the invader is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.
B
20. Autoimmunity may be due to a. Recognition of "foreign" antigens. b. Cross reactive IgG and IgM antibodies. c. Immunologic paralysis d. Immunologic suppression e. Immunologic tolerance
B
20. Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? a. Basophil b. Eosinophil c. Lymphocyte d. Monocyte e. Neutrophil
B
25. Which subunit of the exotoxin is the binding portion of the molecule? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
B
29. IL-2, produced by TH cells, a. activate macrophages. b. stimulates TH cell maturation. c. causes phagocytosis. d. activates antigen-presenting cells.
B
3. Which is a method of avoiding phagocytosis? A) Producing fimbriae B) Inducing endocytosis C) Producing toxins D) Inducing TNF E) Producing iron-binding proteins
B
41. Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? a. basophils b. neutrophils c. lymphocytes d. mast cells e. eosinophils
B
43. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with endotoxins? a. typhoid fever d. urinary tract infections b. diphtheria e. all involve endotoxins. c. epidemic Meningitis
B
47. The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called a. ecology b. epidemiology c. serology d. morbidity and mortality 4. public health
B
48. Interferon is a substance a. produced by a cell to protect itself from viral infection b. produced by a virally‑infected cell which initiates the synthesis of molecules that inhibit viral replication in neighboring uninfected cells. c. produced by a virally‑infected cell that prevents penetration of viruses into neighboring infected cells. d. that interferes with the reproduction of bacteria. e. that interferes with the lysis of virally‑infected cells.
B
49. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Complement ‑ a group of proteins found in normal which act in a cascade to lyse cells. b. Toxoid ‑ an endotoxin used as a vaccine c. Antibody ‑ a protein produced by the body in response to an antigen and capable of combining specifically with that antigen. d. Haptene ‑ an incomplete antigen; needs a carrier molecule e. Antitoxin ‑ antibodies against a toxin
B
8. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Endemic ‑ a disease that is constantly present in a population. b. Epidemic ‑ fraction of the population having a disease at a specific time. c. Pandemic ‑ a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time. d. Sporadic ‑ a disease that affects a population occasionally. e. Pathogen ‑ disease causing.
B
Drug resistance occurs A) Because bacteria are normal microbiota. B) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately. C) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. D) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. E) All of these
B
How do A-B toxins function? A) The A domain binds to a target cell receptor, while the B domain has a specific function. B) The B domain binds to a target cell receptor, while the A domain has a specific function. Feedback: Correct! C) The B domain acts as a neurotoxin, while the A domain acts as a cytotoxin. D) They bind to the membrane of the host cell, creating a pore.
B
The ID50 is a A) Measure of pathogenicity. B) Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population. C) Dose that will kill some of the test population. D) Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. E) Dose that will kill 50% of the test population.
B
Which of the following CANNOT be used for adherence? A) Fimbriae B) Cell membrane mannose C) Glycoproteins D) Lipoproteins E) Capsules
B
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? A) Cephalosporins B) Macrolides C) Natural penicillins D) Semisynthetic penicillins E) Vancomycin
B
For questions 12-15, match the letters to the appropriate description. A. Neutrophil B. B cell C. Mast cell D. Helper T cell E. Memory B cell 12. Carries out humoral immunity
B CELL
Humoral immunity
B cells mature in the bone marrow Chickens: Bursa of Fabricius Due to antibodies
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Penicillin B) Amphotericin B C) Bacitracin D) Polymyxin E) Cephalosporin
B) Amphotericin B
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Fungi. B) Bacteria. C) Viruses. D) All of these. E) Protozoa.
B) Bacteria.
Which of the following will NOT inactivate endospores? A) Autoclave B) High pressure C) Chlorine dioxide D) Plasma E) Supercritical CO2
B) High pressure
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to A) Prevent transcription. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. D) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA. E) Prevent attachment of tRNA.
B) Prevent peptide bond formation.
Which organism most easily causes an infection? A. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1 C. E. coli O157:H7 ID50-20 D. Shigella ID50-10 E. Can't tell
B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1
Endotoxins are A. Specific in their method of action. B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall. C. Associated with gram-positive bacteria. D. Excreted from the cell. E. None of the above.
B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall.
Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally not true? A. They are more potent than endotoxins. B. They are not inactivated by heat. C. They are composed of proteins. D. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. E. They have specific methods of action.
B. They are not inactivated by heat
Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A. Bacterial infections. B. Viral infections. C. Protozoan and helminthic infections. D. Fungal infections. E. All of the above.
B. Viral infections.
What is the causal agent of anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
What is the best know microbial insect pathogen? It is sold commercially as Dipel.
Bacillus thuringiensis
Which of the following groups of microorganisms has the rRNA loop present Archaea Eukarya Bacteria Viruses
Bacteria
Why is selective toxicity more difficult to obtain with antiviral and antifungal drugs than with antibacterial drugs? Because a) Bacteria are prokaryotes and different from their host b) Fungi are too large and viruses are too small c) Fungi and viruses are eukaryotes d) Fungi are prokaryotes and different from their host
Bacteria are prokaryotes and different from their host
Bacterial endocarditis is a serious life-threatening disease. Which of the following are characteristic of bacterial endocarditis? a) Bacterial endocarditis is caused by Streptococci or Staphylococci b) It is the inflammation of heart muscle c) Bacterial endocarditis is caused by Escherichia coli d) All of these e) It constricts heart valves
Bacterial endocarditis is caused by Streptococci or Staphylococci
Which of the following organisms are resistant to destruction by typical control methods? a) None of these b) Bacterial endospores c) Gram positive bacteria d) Fungal spores
Bacterial endospores
Why are algae important in the aquatic food chain? Because they convert oxygen into food for the rest of the aquatic life Because they convert carbon dioxide into oxygen Because they convert carbon dioxide into consumable organic molecules Because they convert spilled oil into a less toxic chemical
Because they convert carbon dioxide into consumable organic molecules
Why are slime molds unique? Because they are slimy Because they have both fungal and amoebal characteristics and are classified as protists Because they live in moist environments unlike the other eukaryotes Because they are unicellular None of the above
Because they have both fungal and amoebal characteristics and are classified as protists
most widely accepted way of classifying prokaryote
Bergey's Manual
name of reference book used to ID bacteria
Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could easily be prevented by _________
Boiling food prior to consumption
All of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning are true except a) Suspect foods are those not cooked before eating b) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms c) Replacing water and electrolytes treats it d) It can be prevented by refrigeration e) Boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating can prevent it
Boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating can prevent it
Human pathogen that causes Lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A) It can prevent drug resistance. B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. C) Two are always twice as effective as one. D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. E) All of these are advantages.
C
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Etiology ‑ cause of disease. b. Pathogenic ‑ capable of causing disease. c. Infection ‑ disease. d. Symptoms ‑ changes in body function. e. Virulence ‑ degree of pathogenicity.
C
Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Streptomycin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Erythromycin E) Chloramphenicol
C
penicillim Ampicillin
Broad spectrum
. Which of the following is generally not true about exotoxins a. they are more potent than endotoxins. b. they are composed of proteins. c. they are not destroyed by heat d. they have specific methods of action. e. they are produced by gram‑positive bacteria.
C
15. Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally false? A) They are more potent than endotoxins. B) They are composed of proteins. C) They are not destroyed by heat. D) They have specific methods of action. E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.
C
19. Which of the following does not cause vasodilation? a. Kinins b. Prostaglandins c. Lysozymes d. Histamine
C
19. Which of the following is an example of systemic anaphylaxis? a. Hay fever b. Asthma c. Shock d. Hives e. All of the above.
C
34. What can attach to a host cell? a. a and c b. b and c c. b d. d e. e
C
4. Compared with nonspecific defenses, specific defenses a. do not distinguish between one threat and another b. are always present at birth c. protect against threats on an individual basis d. deny entrance of pathogens to the body
C
4. Endotoxins are A) Associated with gram-positive bacteria. B) Specific in their method of action. C) Part of the gram-negative cell wall. D) Excreted from the cell. E) A-B toxins
C
8. Most pathogens that gain access through the skin A) Can penetrate intact skin. B) Just infect the skin itself. C) Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. D) Must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. E) Must be injected.
C
9) Which of these infections can cause septicemia? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection
C
Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) It has selective toxicity. B) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. C) It was the first antibiotic. D) It kills bacteria. E) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells.
C) It was the first antibiotic.
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Monobactam B) Penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Cephalosporin E) Bacitracin
C) Streptomycin
Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by A) Ethylene oxide. B) Plasma sterilization. C) Supercritical fluids. D) Peroxygens. E) Glutaraldehyde
C) Supercritical fluids.
Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? A) Temperature B) pH C) All of these D) Presence of organic matter E) Number of bacteria present
C. All of these
All of the following may be used for adherence except A. Glycoproteins. B. Lipoproteins. C. Cell membrane mannose. D. Fimbriae. E. Capsules.
C. Cell membrane mannose.
Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is A. Staphylococcal enterotoxin. B. Cholera toxin. C. Ciguatera. D. Aflatoxin. E. A mycotoxin.
C. Ciguatera.
Which of the following is the most serious Staphylococcal skin infection? a) Foliculitis b) Furuncles c) Impetigo d) Carbunclosis
Carbunclosis
Which of the following organisms doesn't produce an exotoxin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium tetani C. Salmonella typhi D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae E. Clostridium botulinum
C. Salmonella typhi
Which of the following does NOT directly result from application of heat? A) Damage to nucleic acids B) Breaking of hydrogen bonds C) Cell lysis D) Breaking of sulfhydryl bonds E) Denaturing of enzymes
C. cell lysis
The material that is released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia: a) Exotoxin b) Components of gram-negative outer membrane c) Teichoic acid d) Protein A
Components of gram-negative outer membrane
T Helper Cells
CD4+ or TH cells TCRs recognize Ags and MHC II on APC TLRs are a costimulatory signal on APC and TH TH cells produce cytokines and differentiate into TH1 TH2 Memory cells TH1 produces IFN-gwhich activates cells related to cell-mediated immunity, macrophages, and Abs TH2 activate eosinophils and B cells to produce IgE
T Cytotoxic Cells
CD8+ or TC cells Target cells are self carrying endogenous antigens Activated into cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) CTLs recognize Ag + MHC I Induce apoptosis in target cell CTL releases perforin and granzymes
ways of bacteria evading the complement system
Capsules prevent C activation Surface lipid-carbohydrates prevent membrane attack complex (MAC) formation Enzymatic digestion of C5a
Quaternary ammonium compounds are a) Cationic detergents which help wash surfaces b) Strong disinfectant used to sterilize heavily contaminated hospital refuse c) None of these d) Very effective against endospores
Cationic detergents which help wash surfaces
Superantigens
Cause an intense immune response due to release of cytokines from host cells Symptoms: fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, shock, and death
When considering the treatment of fungal infections, what is an important structural component of the fungi to consider? Spore Cell membrane Nucleus Hyphae Thallus
Cell membrane
To what are codons and anticodons attached?
Codons are attached to mRNA; anticodons are attached to tRNA
What bacteria is responsible for the LSD drug? (*involved the Salem witch trials)
Claviceps purpurea
Members of this group of bacteria are G negative, lactose fermenters that can cause variety of diseases such as urinary tract infection, diarrhea, septicemia, and Enteric fever. Some are part of the normal flora of intestines. What are they? a) Toxopamosis b) Enterobacteriaceae c) Fungi d) Clostridium e) Sporozoa
Clostridium
A-B toxins
Consists of two parts designated A and B Part A is the active(enzyme) component and B is the binding component. Ex: Diphtheria toxin
Various activities of the normal microbiota make it hard for pathogens to compete
Consumption of nutrients makes them unavailable to pathogens Create an environment unfavorable to other microorganisms by changing pH Helps stimulate the body's second line of defense Promote overall health by providing vitamins to host May be opportunistic pathogens
Polio virus enters the body via: a) Infected blood b) Respiratory system c) Contaminated water d) Skin
Contaminated water
Part of the ability of germs to produce dental caries depends on their ability to: a) Convert sucrose to lactic acid b) Convert protein to acids c) Attach to the gum d) None of these
Convert sucrose to lactic acid
The hoarseness and barking cough, as a result of infection in epiglottis and larynx, are typical symptoms of: a) Croup b) Pneumonia c) Whooping cough d) Tuberculosis
Croup
The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is a) Cut out and replaced b) Repaired during transcription c) Repaired during translation d) Repaired by DNA replication e) Never repaired
Cut out and replaced
Given the following LD50 values for Bacillus anthracis, through which portal of entry is it easiest to get anthrax? 1. All are equally easy portals of entry. 2. Cutaneous-50 endospores 3. Inhalation-20,000 endospores 4. Ingestion-1,000,000 endospores
Cutaneous 50 endospores
1. Which of the following results in long-term immunity? a. the passage of maternal antibodies to her developing fetus b. the inflammatory response to a splinter c. the administration of serum obtained from people immune to rabies d. the administration of the chicken pox vaccine e. the passage of maternal antibodies to her nursing infant
D
11. Which of the following choices show the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected tissues? a. Macrophages - monocytes b. Lymphocytes - macrophages c. Neutrophils - macrophages d. Neutrophils - monocytes e. Macrophages - neutrophils
D
14. Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to a. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. b. Waste products excreted by the parasite. c. Products released from damaged tissues. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.
D
15. Which of the following is not a mechanical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection? a. Layers of cells b. Tears c. Saliva d. Lysozyme e. All are mechanical factors.
D
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation? a. Redness b. Pain c. Local heat. d. Fever e. Swelling
D
18. The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier. a. Producing fimbriae b. Inducing endocytosis c. Producing toxins d. Inducing TNF e. All of the above
D
21. Which type of graft is the least compatible? a. Autograft d. Xenograft b. Allograft e. All are equally compatible. c. Isograft
D
24. Cell death caused by perforin is caused by a. CD8 cells b. TH cells c. B cells d. TC cells
D
26. Type of immunity resulting from vaccination. a. Innate immunity b. Naturally acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity
D
27. The specificity of an antibody is due to a. the heavy chains b. the light chains c. the constant regions of the heavy and light chains d. the variable regions of the heavy and light chains e. All of the above
D
50. Cancer cells may escape the immune system because a. They are recognized as "self". b. Antibodies are not formed against cancer cells c. Cytotoxic T cells react with tumor specific antigens d. Tumor cells shed their specific antigens e. None of the above.
D
9. Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by a. A-B toxins. b. Lipid A. c. membrane-disrupting toxins. d. superantigens.
D
9. Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease? a. Rabies b. Common cold c. Measles d. Tetanus e. Plague
D
A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A) Resists phagocytosis. B) Helps the bacterium attach. C) Destroys host tissues. D) Is toxic. E) All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence
D
Which of the following is NOT considered entry via the parenteral route? A) Injection B) Bite C) Surgery D) Hair follicle E) Skin cu
D
Which of the following statements about M protein is false? A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. B) It is found on fimbriae. C) It is heat- and acid-resistant. D) It is readily digested by phagocytes. E) It is a protein.
D
Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false? A) It may be carried on a plasmid. B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation. C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug
D
Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-Soap; 2-Acid-anionic detergent; 3-Quats. A) 2, 1, 3 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 2, 1 E) 1, 3, 2
D) 3, 2, 1
Which of the following substances is NOT used to preserve foods? A) Sodium nitrite B) Potassium sorbate C) Nisin D) Biguanides E) Sodium propionate
D) Biguanides
Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false? A) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. B) It may be carried on a plasmid. C) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. E) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation.
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? A) Vancomycin B) Cephalosporins C) Semisynthetic penicillins D) Macrolides E) Natural penicillins
D) Macrolides
Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization? A) Formaldehyde B) Dry heat C) Autoclave D) Pasteurization E) Ethylene oxide
D) Pasteurization
The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following? A) The formation of ozone B) The formation of hydrochloric acid C) The formation of free O D) The formation of hypochlorous acid E) Disruption of the plasma membrane
D) The formation of hypochlorous acid
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) CuSO4 - algicide B) H2O2 - open wounds C) Organic acids - food preservation D) Alcohols - open wounds E) Ag - burns
D. Alcohols
Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic disease are due to A. Waste products excreted by the parasite. B. Products released from damaged tissues. C. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? A. It is an exotoxin. B. It causes diarrhea. C. It causes vomiting. D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E. None of the above.
D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies except A. IgA protease. B. Invasims. C. Antigenic change. D. Membrane-disrupting toxins. E. None of the above
D. Membrane-disrupting toxins.
Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by A. Membrane-disrupting toxins. B. A-B toxins. C. Lipid A. D. Superantigens. E. All of the above.
D. Superantigens.
What are restriction enzymes
DNA cutting enzymes that exist in many bacteria
What enzyme joins the discontinuous fragments of the lagging strand?
DNA ligase
In DNA replication, what enzyme builds a new complimentary strand on the template?
DNA polymerase
What is the most important enzyme in DNA replication?
DNA polymerase
What sequence does a mutation change?
DNA sequence
Mortality
Deaths from notifiable diseases
Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of septic shock? a) Heart murmur b) Decreased blood pressure c) Maculopapular rash d) Lymphangitis
Decreased blood pressure
Innate immunity
Defenses against any pathogen
Collection of bacteria that adhere to the surface of the teeth are called: a) Dental plaque b) Periodontal disease c) Halitosis d) Dental caries
Dental plaque
Dissimilatory sulfate-reducing, or sulfur-reducing bacteria
Desulfovibrio
Acute inflammation
Develops quickly and is short lived Is usually beneficial Important in the second line of defense Dilation and increased permeability of the blood vessels Migration of phagocytes Tissue repair
Chronic inflammation
Develops slowly and lasts a long time Can cause damage to tissues
IgA
Dimer 10-15% of serum Abs In secretions Mucosal protection Half-life = 6 days
Epidemic disease
Disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time
Endemic disease
Disease constantly present in a population
Chronic disease
Disease develops slowly
Sporadic disease
Disease that occurs occasionally in a population
Latent disease
Disease with a period of no symptoms when the causative agent is inactive
Emerging Infectious Diseases
Diseases that are new, increasing in incidence, or showing a potential to increase in the near future
The genus "Desulfovibrio" is place in what section according to Bergey?
Dissimilatory Sulfate or Sulfur-reducing Bacteria
What is the correct order of taxonomy from the most general to the most specific?
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
Cellular immunity
Due to T cells T cells mature in the thymus
7.Which of the following is not a predisposing factor to disease? a. Inadequate nutrition. b. Fatigue. c. Age. d. Preexisting illness. e. All are predisposing factors.
E
10. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Malaria ‑ Vector b. Salmonellosis ‑ common vehicle c. Syphilis ‑ direct contact d. Influenza ‑ droplet infection e. All are correctly matched.
E
12. In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) Can't tell.
E
12. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Leukocidins ‑ destroy neutrophils. b. hemolysins ‑ lyse red blood cells. c. Hyaluronidase ‑ break down substance between cells. d. Kinase ‑ destroys fibrin clots. e. Coagulase ‑ destroys fibrin clots.
E
21. Type of immunity resulting from the transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection. a. Innate immunity b. Naturally acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity
E
42. Serology a. is a powerful tool for diagnosing infectious diseases. b. is the science of vaccine production. c. uses the presence of specific antibody in serum to indicate exposure to pathogenic microbes. d. can be used to identify bacteria isolated from patients with infectious diseases. e. all except b
E
45. Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? a. a sick person b. a healthy person c. a sick animal d. a hospital e. All are reservoirs.
E
46. The LD50 is a a. measure of pathogenicity b. Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population. c. Dose that will kill some of the test population. d. Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. e. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population.
E
6. Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polyenes B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin
E
7. Which antibody class can fix complement? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgF e. IgM
E
Which of the following is mismatched? a. Acute ‑ a short lasting primary infection b. Inapparent ‑ infection characteristic of a carrier state c. Chronic ‑ a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months. d. Primary infection ‑ an initial illness. e. Secondary infection ‑ a long ‑ lasting illness.
E
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Bacitracin B) Cephalosporin C) Monobactam D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin
E
Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins? A) Aldehydes B) Halogens C) Phenolics D) Bisphenols E) Alcohols
E) Alcohols
Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? A) Requires a long time to achieve sterilization B) Cannot be used with glassware C) Cannot kill endospores D) Cannot inactivate viruses E) Cannot be used with heat-labile materials
E) Cannot be used with heat-labile materials
Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Erythromycin B) Tetracycline C) Streptomycin D) Chloramphenicol E) Penicillin
E) Penicillin
Which of the following statements is false? A. Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. B. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C. Kinase destroys fibrin clots. D. Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.
E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.
Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness? A. Capsule B. Hyaluronidase C. Cell wall D. Ligands E. Exotoxins
E. Exotoxins
All of the following are true about M protein except A. It is heat- and acid-resistant. B. It is a protein. C. It is found on fimbriae. D. It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.
E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.
All of the following are gram-positive. Which does not belong with the others? Actinomyces Bacillus Corynebacterium Listeria Mycobacterium
Mycobacterium
Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses A. Cell death B. Increased cell growth C. Inclusion bodies form in the cytoplasm or nucleus D. Host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia E. None of the above
E. None of the above
A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A. All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence. B. Helps the bacterium attach. C. Resists phagocytosis. D. Destroys host tissues. E. None of the above.
E. None of the above.
Which of the following organisms causes the most severe disease? A. Shigella disenteria ID50-10 B. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 C. Salmonella enteriditis ID50-20 D. Parainfluenza virus ID50-200 E. Can't tell
E. can't tell
Which of the following substances can sterilize? A) Phenolics B) Chlorine C) Alcohol D) Soap E) Ethylene oxide
E. ethylene oxide
Which of the following is not a characteristic of spirochetes? Possess an axial filament Gram-negative Helical shape Easily observed with brightfield microscopy Difficult to culture in vitro
Easily observed with brightfield microscopy
The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella are: a) Milk and cheese b) Seafood c) Meat and dairy d) Eggs and Poultry
Eggs and Poultry
What technique is necessary to view viral size? DNA analysis Brightfield microscopy Electron Microscopy Gas Chromatography
Electron Microscopy
The release of endotoxins as bacteria are destroyed by phagocytes causes the phagocytes to release tumor necrosis factor (TNF) the life-threatening loss of blood pressure occuring due to the action of TNF is called __________.
Endotoxic shock
Which of the following is the usual cause of septic shock? a) Septicemia b) Lymphangitis c) Endotoxin d) Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Loss of water due to the accumulation of ions in the intestinal tract is the characteristic of _____ infection: a) Enterotoxigenic EC b) Helicobacter pylori c) Enterotohemorrhagic EC d) Salmonella typhi e) Shigella dysenteries
Enterotoxigenic EC
Influenzavirus is an example of this type of virus: Enveloped helical viruses Polyhedral viruses Enveloped polyhedral viruses Complex viruses
Enveloped helical viruses
Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA: GCATGGATCCCAATGC?
Enzyme Recognition BamHI G¯GATCC CCTAG↑G
Which enzyme does not make sticky ends?
Enzyme Recognition HaeIII GG¯CC CC↑GG
What does ELISA stand for?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Plant pathogen that causes Fire blight of apples
Erwinia amylovora
produces enzymes that degrade plant cells
Erwinia caratovora
Which one of the following is NOT a skin disease cased by a virus? a) Smallpox b) Shingles c) Erysipelas d) Herpes e) Chickenpox
Erysipelas
Antibiotics may affect different sites (target sites) on bacteria. One of the most common sites is protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria. Which of the following antibiotics affect protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria? a) Quinolone b) Rifampin c) Erythromycin d) Novobiocin e) Penicillin
Erythromycin
The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably a) Entamoeba coli b) Giardia lamblia c) Shigella d) Salmonella typhi e) Escherichia coli
Escherichia coli
The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably a) Entamoeba coli b) Salmonella typhi c) Shigella d) Giardia lamblia e) Escherichia coli
Escherichia coli
A fungi is what type of microorganism? Bacteria Prokaryote Eukaryote Spore
Eukaryote
all of the following are true about archaea except
Evidence suggests they evolved from eukaryotes
The product of S. aureus that causes scalded skin syndrome is: a) Leukocidins b) Exfoliative toxin c) Endotoxin d) Protein A e) Exotoxin
Exfoliative toxin
The symptoms of Cholera are due to the action of: a) Exotoxins b) Pili c) Exotoxins d) Flagella
Exotoxins
What are found primarily in the intestines of humans?
Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods (Enterobacteriales or Enterics)
What cell structure does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells?
Fimbriae
cephalosporin
First-generation: Narrow spectrum, gram-positive Second-generation: Extended spectrum includes gram-negative Third-generation: Includes pseudomonads; injected Fourth-generation: Oral
The plaque is typically transmitted via the bite of a) Fleas b) Lice c) Mites d) Ticks
Fleas
What technique is used to identify bacteria in a sample without culturing the bacteria? Fatty acid profiling Flow Cytometry Phage Typing Serology
Flow Cytometry
Prevalence
Fraction of a population having a specific disease at a given time
Incidence
Fraction of a population that contracts a disease during a specific time
antibody Fuction
Function in several ways Activation of complement: part of second line of defense Stimulation of inflammation: part of second line of defense Neutralization: neutralize toxin by binding to a critical portion of toxin. Opsonization: stimulate phagocytosis by binding to neutrophils and macrophages. Agglutination: Bind to two microbial cells causing aggregation and thus increasing the chance of detection. Killing by Oxidation: Catalyze the production of hydrogen peroxide and other potent oxidants to kill bacteria.
haustoria
Fungi that derive their nutrients from living plants and animals usually have modifiable hyphae called:
A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is a) Gangrene b) Hyperbaric treatment c) Burns d) Debridement e) An infected finger
Gangrene
What is typically the final step in genetic engineering? Plasmid is formed Vector is selected DNA is copied Genes or proteins are harvested
Genes or proteins are harvested
Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications: a) Are transmitted via water b) Are treated with antibiotics c) Have shorter incubation times d) Are accompanied by fever e) Are more severe
Have shorter incubation times
Emerging Infectious Diseases Contributing factors
Genetic recombination E. coli O157, avian influenza (H5N1) Evolution of new strains V. cholerae O139 Inappropriate use of antibiotics and pesticides Antibiotic-resistant strains Changes in weather patterns Hantavirus Modern transportation West Nile virus Ecological disaster, war, and expanding human settlement Coccidioidomycosis Animal control measures Lyme disease Public health failure Diphtheria
What is the science of heredity called?
Genetics
vamcomycin
Glycopeptide Narrow spectrum Important "last line" against antibiotic-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)
This sexually transmitted disease affects both male and female. Infection in males affects urethra and anal canal, but the infection is usually asymptomatic in females: a) Gonorrhea b) Herpes c) PID d) AIDS e) Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Which of these diseases cannot be prevented by toxoids? 1. botulism 2. tetanus 3. gram-negative septic shock 4. diphtheria
Gram negative septic shock
Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
Gram-negative bacterial infections
Which of the following lacks a cell wall: Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, or Mycobacterium?
Mycoplasma
Natural Killer (NK) Cells
Granular leukocytes destroy cells that don't express MHC I Kill virus-infected and tumor cells Attack parasites
Septicemia
Growth of bacteria in the blood
In DNA replication, what enzyme unwinds the DNA?
Gyrase
13. Cell most commonly infected by HIV
HELPER T CELL
Protease inhibitors are effective drugs against a) HIV b) Toxic shock syndrome c) Impetigo d) Herpes virus e) Staph infection
HIV
The members of this genus often inhabit the mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract, mouth, vagina, and intestinal tract. They are pathogenic. Salmonella Klebsiella Enterobacter Haemophilus
Haemophilus
This genera is in the family Pasteurellaceae and is an important pathogen in humans. It requires blood in growth media.
Haemophilus
The most common cause of meningitis in children is a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Neisseria meningitides c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) Streptococcus pneumoniae e) Haemophilus influenzae
Haemophilus influenzae
Which one of these is not an example of the parenteral route? 1. insect bite 2. cut 3. injection 4. hair follicle
Hair follicle
Which of the following lacks a cell wall? Borrelia Mycoplasma Mycobacterium Clostridium Nocardia
Mycoplasma
These resemble a long rod and they cause Ebola: Helical viruses Polyhedral viruses Enveloped viruses Complex viruses
Helical viruses
In DNA replication, what enzyme unzips the DNA?
Helicase
Which of the following causes gastric ulcer? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Escherichia coli c) Vibrio cholera d) Staphylococcus aureus e) Helicobacter pylori
Helicobacter pylori
Causes pneumonia, earaches
Hemophilus influenza
Which of the following causes an infection of the liver? a) Hepatitis A virus b) Vibrio c) Salmonella d) Escherichia e) Shigella
Hepatitis A virus
The etiologic agent of fever blisters a) Poxvirus b) Herpes zoster c) Parvovirus d) Herpes simplex
Herpes simplex
hUMAN receptor
Host Toll-like receptors (TLRs) attach to TLRs induce cytokines that regulate the intensity and duration of immune responses
Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the spread of disease in the body? 1. hyaluronidase 2. hemolysin 3. endotoxin production 4. siderophore production
Hyaluronidase
The dose of microbes required to produce a measurable infection in half of the animals tested is referred to by the abbreviated term __________.
ID- 50
Which of the following is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? If both ferment lactose If both are gram-positive If both are motile If both are aerobic All are equally important.
If both are gram-positive
Match the following choices to the statements in questions 27‑31. Choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD e. IgE 27. Antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears.
IgA
29. Antibodies that are found on mast cells and involved in allergic reactions
IgE
28. Antibodies that protect the fetus and newborn.
IgG
31. Most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
IgG
There are five classes of immunoglobulins
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and Ig E
30. The first antibodies synthesized, a very large molecule.
IgM
Herd immunity
Immunity in most of a population
Adaptive immunity
Immunity, resistance to a specific pathogen
34. An indirect version using anti‑human globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against T. pallidum.
Immunofluorescence
Which of the following skin infection is caused by both Streptococci and Staphylococci a) Carbuncles b) Folliculitis c) Impetigo d) Furuncles
Impetigo
Which of these statements is true regarding portals of exit? 1. In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit. 2. The urinary tract is the most common portal of exit. 3. The portal of exit for chicken pox, measles, and smallpox is the skin. 4. Polioviruses most often use the respiratory portal of exit.
In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit
Where does a virus multiply? In the host cell Outside the host cell before invading In the carrier Only in humans
In the host cell
Toxoid
Inactivated toxin used in a vaccine
Morbidity
Incidence of a specific notifiable disease
The differential white blood cell count test can signal signs of disease
Increased eosinophils can indicate allergies or parasitic worm infection Bacterial diseases often show increase in leukocytes and in neutrophils Viral infections show increase in lymphocytes
fever Advantages
Increases transferrins Increases IL-1 activity Produces Interferon
The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier
Inducing TNF
Bactericidal
Kill microbes directly
Fibrin clots can be dissolved by enzymes called _________.
Kinase
ID50
Infectious dose for 50% of the test population
Drugs that are bacteriostatic a) Kill bacteria b) Kill bacterial spores c) Inhibit bacterial growth d) Promote bacteria growth
Inhibit bacterial growth
Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs)
Inhibit folic acid synthesis Broad spectrum Bacteriostatic
Quinolones and fluoroquinolones
Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis Nalidixic acid: Urinary infections Ciprofloxacin Inhibits DNA gyrase Urinary tract infections
Tetracyclines
Inhibitors of protein synthesis Broad spectrum Interferes with tRNA attachment Works against intracellular parasites Suppress normal intestinal microbiota and often cause superinfections. Not advised for children and pregnant women
Macrolides
Inhibitors of protein synthesis Ex Erythromycin(alternative to penicillin) Only Gram-positives Binds 50S; prevents translocation
Artificially acquired passive immunity
Injection of Ab
Artificially acquired active immunity
Injection of Ag (vaccination)
Polymixin B
Injury to the plasma membrane Prevents biosynthesis of fatty acids for the membrane Ex: Polymyxin B Topical Combined with bacitracin and neomycin in over-the-counter preparation gram negative bacteria including pseudomonas spp
Antimicrobial drugs
Interfere with the growth of microbes within a host
The skin and mucus membrane secrete a number of antimicrobial substances, which make the environment somewhat inhabitable for microorganisms. Which of the following is not included in the above list? a) Interferon b) Sebum c) Lysozyme d) Sweat
Interferon
Heat kills microorganisms by a) destruction of carbohydrates in the cell wall b) Irreversible coagulation of proteins c) Dissolving the capsule d) Denaturing nucleic acids
Irreversible coagulation of proteins
Ethylene oxide is gas that a) Is used to sterilize food products b) Is safe to use on human skin c) Is used to sterilize large items such as hospital bed and other heat and moist sensitive items d) Is effective against all microbes except bacterial endospores and viruses
Is used to sterilize large items such as hospital bed and other heat and moist sensitive items
Why is Treponema pallidum (cause of syphilis) an exeption to Koch's postulates? It has never caused disease It has not been cultured on artificial media It causes multiple symptoms and doesn't effect everyone Everyone catches it
It has not been cultured on artificial media
Which of the following is not true of a bacterium that is R+? R+ refers to the possession of a plasmid. R+ can be transferred to a recipient cell. It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. It is F+. None of the above
It is F+
All of following statements about puerperal sepsis are true except a) It is transmitted from mother to fetus b) It is complication of abortion or childbirth c) Health-care personnel cause it d) It begins as a focal infection e) It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques
It is transmitted from mother to fetus
Which of the following is in the correct order from the most general to the most specific? Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species Kingdom-class-order-family-phylum-genus-species Species-genus-family-order-class-phylum-kingdom Species-genus-phylum-family-order-class-kingdom Phylum-kingdom-class-order-genus-family-species
Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species
Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial agent? a) Kirby-Bauer Test b) None of these c) Stability Test d) Minimum inhibitory test e) Ames test
Kirby-Bauer Test
The members of this genus are commonly found in water and soil. They are often capable of fixing nitrogen. Salmonella Klebsiella Enterobacter Haemophilus
Klebsiella
Susceptibility
Lack of resistance to a disease
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of a) Mycobacterium b) Neisseria c) Lactobacillus d) Streptococcus e) Staphylococcus
Lactobacillus
Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the a) Stomach b) Large intestine c) Small intestine d) Mouth
Large intestine
Herpes virus inhabits host's nerve cells but causes no damage to these cells. This is referred to: a) Latent infection b) Lysogenic infection c) Persistent infection d) Lytic infection e) Oncogenic infection
Latent infection
Which one of the following is not a disease of the upper respiratory tract? a) Legionellosis b) Epiglottitis c) Common cold d) Pharyngitis
Legionellosis
LD50
Lethal dose (of a toxin) for 50% of the test population
Which organism is a symbiotic combination of an alga and a fungus? Helminth Lichen Protozoa Bacteria generally Fungala
Lichen
How do we identify mutagens?
Look at the direct effect or perform animal testing
How do we identify mutants?
Look at the morphology, differential staining, and chemical testing
Host cells transformed by viral infection may ________.
Lose contact inhibition
Gas gangrene is the result of deep wound infections in anaerobic tissue by Clostridium perfringens. Soft tissues die from ischemia which could result in amputation of the limbs. Ischemia is a result of: a) Loss of blood supply to the soft tissues b) Releases of endotoxins by Clostridium c) Release of superantigens in the area d) Sporulation of Clostridium
Loss of blood supply to the soft tissues
Which of the following is not a viral disease of skin? a) Herpes b) Smallpox c) Rubella d) All of these ARE viral disease of skin e) Lyme disease
Lyme disease
Membrane-Disrupting Toxins
Lyse host's cells by Making protein channels in the plasma membrane Leukocidins Hemolysins Streptolysins Disrupting phospholipid bilayer
Lysogenic bacterial cells may express prophage DNA causing them to take on different characteristics in a process referred to as _______________.
Lysogenic conversion
Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to invasiveness? 1. endotoxin 2. hemolysin 3. M protein 4. coagulase
M protein
Fever and chill recurrence every 2-3 days due to lysis of erythrocytes is among the symptoms of a) Lyme disease b) Toxoplasmosis c) Hemorrhagic fever d) Malaria e) None of the above
Malaria
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus? a) Malaria b) Rabies c) AIDS d) Herpes
Malaria
Which of the following is a Class? Eukarya Proteobacteria Carnivore Mammalia
Mammalia
Vectors Transmit disease by 2 general methods
Mechanical transmission: Arthropod carries pathogen on feet Biological transmission: Pathogen reproduces in vector
aerobic, facultative anaerobes (obtain energy through fermentation)
Most fungi are _____, thought many yeasts are _______ ________
PORTAL OF ENTRY
Mucous membranes respiratory tract gastrointetinal tract genitourinary tract conjunctiva Skin Parenteral route * many pathogens have their preffered portal of entry to be able to cause disease
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tracts
What are agents in the environment that cause permanent changes in the DNA?
Mutagens
Which of the following is best to sterilize heat-labile solutions? a) Pasteurization b) Autoclave c) Membrane filtration d) Dry heat
Membrane filtration
The symptoms of protozoan diseases are usually due to ________.
Metabolic waste products
Aminoglycosides
Mode of action: inhibitors of protein synthesis Streptomycin, neomycin, gentamycin Useful against pseudomonads Broad spectrum Changes shape of 30S subunit Disadvantage: Auditory nerve damage and damage to kidney.
Name the five kingdoms
Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
IgE
Monomer 0.002% of serum Abs On mast cells, on basophils, and in blood Allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms Half-life = 2 days
IgD
Monomer 0.2% of serum Abs In blood, in lymph, and on B cells On B cells, initiate immune response Half-life = 3 days
IgG
Monomer 80% of serum Abs Fix complement In blood, lymph, and intestine Cross placenta Enhance phagocytosis; neutralize toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn Half-life = 23 days
This group of gram-positive classified bacteria lack a cell wall: Mycoplasmas Streptococcus Clostridium Streptomyces
Mycoplasmas
The preferred habitat for S. aureus is a) Genitals b) Hair follicles c) Nasal Chamber d) Throat
Nasal Chamber
25. A human's resistance to canine distemper.
Native immunity
24. Immunity resulting from recovery from an infection.
Naturally acquired active immunity
26. Newborn's immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta.
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Genera of organism that causes gonorrhea
Neisseria
What is the causal agent of gonorrhea?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
What are the four different chemical mutagens?
Nitrous acid, nucleoside analogs, ionizing radiation, and UV radiation
Subclinical disease
No noticeable signs or symptoms (inapparent infection)
Is there a tRNA that will get ACU?
No, therefore, UGA is a stop codon.
the process of inflammation
Nonspecific response to tissue damage resulting from various causes Characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain Two types Acute Chronic
Microbial antagonism/competitive exclusion
Normal microbiota compete with pathogens or alter the environment
Antiviral drug
Nucleoside and nucleotide analogs attachment uncoating
Mortality rate
Number of deaths from a disease in relation to the population in a given time
Morbidity rate
Number of people affected in relation to the total population in a given time period
Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the others? Nucleic acid hybridization Nucleic acid-base composition Amino acid sequencing Biochemical tests Numerical identification
Numerical identification
Secondary infection
Opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection
Effects of Complement Activation
Opsonization or immune adherence: Enhanced phagocytosis Membrane attack complex: Cytolysis Attract phagocytes Inflammation
Match the following choices to the questions 32‑35. Choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. Agglutination reaction b. Complement fixation c. ELISA (EIA) d. Immunofluorescence e. Precipitation reaction 32. Reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen, forming lattices.
Precipitation reaction
Toxemia
Presence of toxin in the host's blood
Bacteriostatic
Prevent microbes from growing
A needlestick is an example of what portal of entry
Parenteral
Infections acquired by bites, cuts, wounds, punctures, or surgery occur via the __________ route.
Parenteral
If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the ________.
Parenteral route
Hepatitis B virus transmitted by a finger-stick device is transmitted by which portal of entry?
Parentral
Although unusually resistant to many control factors, TB agent is easily killed by: a) Strong acid b) Strong alkali c) Disinfectants d) Pasteurization
Pasteurization
Pathogen receptor
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
Local infection
Pathogens are limited to a small area of the body
Which of the following is mismatched for the lytic cycle? Attachment - phage attaches by tail fibers to the host cell Penetration - production of phage DNA and proteins Maturation - assembly of phage particles Release - cell wall breaks
Penetration - production of phage DNA and proteins
IgM
Pentamer 5-10% of serum Abs Fix complement In blood, in lymph, and on B cells Agglutinates microbes; first Ab produced in response to infection Half-life = 5 days
The chronic inflammatory condition involving the gum and tissues around the teeth is called: a) Periodontal disease b) Dental plaque c) Dental caries d) Abscess
Periodontal disease
Second line of defense
Phagocytes such as neutrophils,eosinophils,dentritic cell and macrophages inflammation fever antimicrobial subtances
nitrogen fixation on legumes
Rhizobium (?)
Which of the following is a parasitic protozoa? Salmonella Shigella Rhizopoda Fungi
Rhizopoda
Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on a) Ribosome b) DNA c) Cell wall d) Cell membrane
Ribosome
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has a) Influenza b) Tuberculosis c) Mycoplasmal pneumonia d) Pneumococcal pneumonia e) Common cold
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Which of the following is an antifungal drug? a) Stretomycin b) Penicillin c) Acyclovir d) Amantidine e) Polyenes
Polyenes
Antifungal drug
Polyenes Amphotericin B Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis
Which of the following is an antifungal drug? a) Polyens b) Penicillin c) Amantidine d) Acyclovir e) Streptomycin
Polyens
Many plant and animal viruses are this, including the adenovirus: Helical viruses Polyhedral viruses Enveloped viruses Complex viruses
Polyhedral viruses
Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polymyxin B) Penicillin C) Bacitracin D) Polyenes E) Cephalosporin
Polymyxin
Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on the target cell. If the gangliosides were removed
Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells
T Cells and Cellular Immunity
Produced in the red bone marrow and mature under the influence of the thymus Circulate in the lymph and blood and migrate to the lymph nodes, spleen, and Peyer's patches Part of the cell-mediated immune response because they act directly against various antigens Endogenous invaders Many of the body's cells that harbor intracellular pathogens Abnormal body cells such as cancer cells that produce abnormal cell surface proteins
Diphtheria toxin works on the: a) Fatty acid metabolism b) Mitochondria energy production c) Protein synthesis process d) DNA replication activity
Protein synthesis process
What do you call the science of determining what all of the proteins are expressed in a cell? Genomics Southern blotting Proteomics Orthocloning
Proteomics
Bacteria that spoil food in the refrigerator are most likely a) Psychotrophs b) Psychrophiles c) Thermophiles d) Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Make the body more susceptible to disease
Short urethra in females Inherited traits, such as the sickle cell gene Climate and weather Fatigue Age Lifestyle Chemotherapy
What are the enzmes used to cut a molecule of DNA everywhere a specific base sequence occurs? These are used in DNA fingerprinting.
RFLPs-Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
In DNA replication, what enzyme lays down the RNA primer?
RNA polymerase
What enzyme synthesizes mRNA?
RNA polymerase
What is the most important enzyme in protein synthesis?
RNA polymerase
This virus travels up the nervous system to penetrate the central nervous system a) Smallpox b) Herpes virus c) Rabies virus d) Polio virus
Rabies virus
Which of these organisms does not produce a neurotoxin? 1. Clostridium botulinum bacteria 2. Clostridium tetani bacterium 3. rabies virus 4. Alexandrium algae
Rabies virus
The best definition of sterilization is a) Removal of unwanted microorganisms b) Removal of Clostridium botulinum endospores c) Removal of all microorganisms d) Elimination of bacteria
Removal of all microorganisms
Contact Direct
Requires close association between infected and susceptible host
Naturally acquired active immunity
Resulting from infection
HIV is an example of which of the following: Togaviridae Rhabdoviridae Retroviridae Reoviriadae
Retroviridae
Which microbe is most frequently transmitted through contaminated poultry? a) Salmonella b) Vibrio c) Staphylococcus d) Streptococcus
Salmonella
Which microscope is used to view a virus in detail (typically)? Compound Fluorescent Simple Scanning electron microscope Dissecting or stereoscope
Scanning electron microscope
The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash and a whitish coating on the tongue is: a) Smallpox b) Measles c) Strep throat d) Chickenpox e) Scarlet fever
Scarlet fever
mode of development
Scientists categorize the asexual spores of molds according to their :
Gamma (y) globulin
Serum fraction containing Ab
Globulins
Serum proteins
Antimicrobial subtances the complement system
Set of serum proteins designated numerically according to the order of their discovery Serum proteins activated in a cascade Complement activation may occur in three pathways Activated by Antigen-antibody reaction (Classical pathway) Proteins C3, B, D, P and a pathogen (Alternate pathway) Activated by lectins, produced by liver(Lectin pathway)
Of Escherichia, Salmonella, and Shigella, which genera is best known for dysentery?
Shigella
Based on these LD50 values, which microbe is the most virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal of entry. 1. Cryptosporidium-50 cells 2. Shigella-10 cells 3. E. coli O157-1000 cells 4. Vibrio cholerae-108 cells
Shigella 10 cells
Indirect
Spread by fomites
Which of the following is not an enteric? Salmonella Shigella Escherichia Enterobacter Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus aureus
T-independent antigens
Stimulate the B cell to make Abs
The bacteria responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections are ________. Streptococcus Staphylococcus Salmonella Pseudomonas Neisseria
Streptococcus
This Genus is probably responsible for more illnesses and causes a greater variety of diseases than any other. Ex: scarlet fever
Streptococcus
The cause of strep throat is a) Streptococcus pyogenes-alpha-hemolytic, group B b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Streptococcus pyogenes-beta-hemolytic, group A d) Streptococcus pneumonia
Streptococcus pyogenes-beta-hemolytic, group A
Which part of the world has the highest incidence of AIDS? a) Sub-Saharan Africa b) North and Central America c) Southeast Asia d) South America e) North Africa and Middle East
Sub-Saharan Africa
Toxin
Substance that contributes to pathogenicity
Toxins that stimulate proliferation of T cells non-specifically and provoke intense immune responses are called _________.
Superantigens
Subacute disease
Symptoms between acute and chronic
Acute disease
Symptoms develop rapidly
This disease is caused by Treponema pallidum, and starts with a lesion called chancre on genitals. It goes through three stages if not treated. On secondary stage the disease becomes systemic. Name this disease. a) Genital wart b) Syphilis c) Gonorrhea d) Rabies
Syphilis
This disease manifest itself in three stages a) Syphilis b) Cholera c) Trachoma d) Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Which of the following manifests itself in three stages? a) Trachoma b) AIDS c) Gonorrhea d) Syphilis
Syphilis
Focal infection
Systemic infection that began as a local infection
Classes of T cells
T helper cells (TH) T cytotoxic cells (TC)
fever Disadvantages
Tachycardia Acidosis Dehydration 44-46°C fatal
Which of the following is a flat worm? Taenia saginata Necator americanus Anisakines Enterobius vermicularis
Taenia saginata
Antibiotics may affect different sites (target sites) on bacteria. One of the most common sites is protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria. Which of the following antibiotics affect protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria a) Penicillin b) Rifampin c) Tetracycline d) Quinolone e) Novobiocin
Tetracycline
Pathogenicity
The ability to cause disease
Hepatitis A spreads via: a) blood transfusion b) respiratory route c) body fluids d) droplets e) the fecal-oral route
The fecal-oral route
sexual
The fourth subgroup of Fungi (deuteromycetes) was a repository fungi for which no ________ stage is known
Antiserum
The generic term for serum because it contains Ab
Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
The limulus amoebocyte lysate test
Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever a) Chemotherapy is highly effective b) The classic symptom is diarrhea c) The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder d) The microorganisms become invasive e) The symptoms are due to an exotoxin
The microorganism become invasive
What does the second Koch Postulate state? The same pathogen must be present in every case The pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased animal and grown in pure culture The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original organism
The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased animal and grown in pure culture
The presence of endotoxins in a sterile fluid indicates ________. 1. gram-positive bacteria are growing 2. gram-negative bacteria are growing 3. the fluid is not sterile 4. the presence of gram-negative cell walls
The presence of gram-negative cell walls
Symptoms of helminthic diseases are usually due to ________.
The presence of the parasite
What is the size of the largest bacterium discovered to date (2004)? The size of a period at the end of a sentence The size of a dime The size of a penny The size of a pin head
The size of period at the end of a sentence
Pathology
The study of a disease. it deals with etiology,pathogenesis and effect of disease on body
Serology
The study of reactions between antibodies and antigens
Epidemiology
The study of where and when diseases occur
molds
The thalli of _____ are large and composed of long, branched, tubular filaments called hyphae
yeast
The thalli of _____ are small, globular, and composed of single cell
Fructicose - erect or hanging cylinders Crustose- lichens grow appressed to their substrates and may extend into the substrate for several millimeters Folliose- leaflike
The three basic shapes of Lichens are:
Organism A has 70% G+C. Are the two organisms related, unrelated, or make entirely different enzymes?
The two organisms are unrelated (?)
thallus
The vegetative body of a fungus is called its:
What does UV radiation do?
forms a thymine dimer and disrupts the normal base pairing
A vaccine for common cold is not feasible because: a) One cannot grow the virus in sufficient amount b) The virus mutate more often than other viruses c) The cause is unknown d) There are many types of rhinovirus
There are many types of rhinovirus
All of the following characteristics apply to the chlamydiae except: a) They are difficult to culture in laboratory b) Some cause eye infection c) Using antibiotics can eliminate them d) They are among the least commonly transmitted STDs e) Some cause pelvic inflammatory disease
They are among the least commonly transmitted STDs
Filamentous fungi can reproduce asexually by
fragmentation of their hyphae / they can form sexual and asexual spores
Why are the use of gram staining and acid fast staining used in a clinical setting? They are expensive They are slow They are quick and provide a good starting point for testing and information They conclusively identify your organism
They are quick and provide a good starting point for testing and information
all of the following are true about the members of kingdom animalia except
They can photosynthesize
Which of the following is not TRUE of the Clostridium genus? a) They produce neurotoxins b) they have endotoxin or LPS c) They produce endospores d) they are obligate anaerobes e) All are TRUE statements
They have endotoxin or LPS
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding polyenes? a) Polyenes are antifungal drugs b) They inhibit protein synthesis mechanism c) They block the biosynthesis of ergosterol d) They inhibit cell membrane synthesis
They inhibit protein synthesis mechanism
Which of the following is not TRUE of Clostridium genus? a) They are gram-positive bacteria capable of producing spores (endospores) b) All are TRUE statements c) they produce neurotoxins d) They can cause food poisoning e) They produce endotoxin or LPS
They produce endotoxin or LPS
all of the following are true about the members of the kingdom plantae except
They use organic carbon sources
What kind of mutation occurs when a base is added or removed?
frameshift mutation
_____ are toxins modified to retain their ability to induce antibody formation but lose their toxicity.
Toxoids
Adenine always pairs with what nitrogenous base in DNA.
Thymine
In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'? Adenine Thymine Cytosine Guanine Uracil
Thymine
Why did Koch take a sample of blood from a diseased animal and inject it into a healthy one many times? To be mean To show precision To show reproducibility To prove that animals can be diseased
To show reproducibility
bacitracin
Topical application Against gram-positives
Sepsis
Toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection
When DNA becomes mRNA what has happened? An organism has died Translation Transcription Ligation
Transcription
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal ________
Transferrin
others anticrobial substances
Transferrins Bind serum iron Antimicrobial peptides Lyse bacterial cells
Droplet
Transmission via airborne droplets
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Transplacental or via colostrum
Which of the following is not gram-positive? Treponema Corynebacterium Bacillus Staphylococcus Mycobacterium
Treponema
causes syphilis (Genus)
Treponema
How is motility achieved by the pathogen that causes syphilis?
Treponema pallidum is a spirochite that has rapid rotation about the axis (corkscrew motility through axial filament)
Accumulations of viral proteins and nucleic acids inside infected host cells are called inclusion bodies. T/F
True
Adhesin molecules can vary in structure among strains of a given bacterial species. T/F
True
Although some pathogens cause disease after entering the body via food and water consumption, many such microbes are killed by chemicals involved in the digestive process. T/F
True
Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to sterility a) True b) False
True
Interferon mode of action
increase resistance of cells to viral infection, slow the spread of disease
Which disease is NOT included in the DTP vaccine regiment? a) Diphtheria b) Whooping cough c) Pertussis d) Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis
If the DNA code is ATCGCCGGA, what will be the mRNA code?
UAGCGGCCU
Which one of the following kills cells by damaging DNA? a) Pasteurization b) Deep-freezing c) Alcohol d) Ultraviolet light
Ultraviolet light
Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? a) Use with glassware b) Ability to kill endospores c) Use with heat-labile materials d) Length of time e) Ability to inactivate viruses
Use with heat-labile materials
Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? a) Giardia b) Vibrio c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Trichinella e) Clostridium perfringens
Vibrio
Consuming raw oyster could probably transmit a) Salmonella typhi b) Vibrio cholera c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Staphylococcus aureus e) Escherichia coli
Vibrio cholera
Human pathogen that causes cholera
Vibrio cholerae
The etiologic agent of chickenpox is a: a) Virus b) Fungus c) Bacterium d) Prion e) Protozoa
Virus
Name the scientists (last names only) that discovered the structure of DNA.
Watson & Crick
Chitin (strong, flexible, nitrogenous polysaccharide)
What is the cell wall of the fungi formed from?
Fungi Lack chlorophyll and do not perform photosynthesis
What is the main difference between fungi and plants?
mycology
What is the study of fungi called?
penicillin and cephalosporin
What kind of antibiotics to fungi form?
salt, acid, and sugar (inhibits bacteria)
What kind of environments do fungi tolerate?
digestive systems of many herbivores
Where are the Anaerobic fungi found?
Which of the following diseases is not spread by droplet infection? a. Botulism b. Tuberculosis c. Measles d. Common Cold e. Diphtheria
a
they decompose dead organisms and recycle nutrients
Why are fungi beneficial microorganisms?
They cause mycoses (fungal diseases of plants, animals and humans) , 30%
Why aren't all Fungi beneficial? What percentage aren't? What is the infection called?
Pandemic disease
Worldwide epidemic
Cause of plague, black death
Yersinia
Human pathogen that caused the plague
Yersinia pestis
sporangiospore
_____ form inside a sac sporangium, which is often borne on a spore-bearing stalk.
Filamentous fungi
_______ _________ reproduce asexually by producing lightweight spores, which enable the fungi to disperse vast distances on the wind
Conidiospores (aka conidia)
_______ are produced at the tips or sides of the hyphae, but not within a sac. Different kinds include: arthrocondidia and blastoconidia
Chlamydospores
__________ form with a thickened cell wall inside hyphae
A sexually transmitted disease is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission
a
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) Are changes felt by the patient. B) Are changes observed by the physician. C) Are specific for a particular disease. D) Always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of these.
a
Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A) Botulism B) Tuberculosis C) Measles D) Common cold E) Diphtheria
a
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to nitrate ion. This bacterium is ________. Gram-negative using anaerobic respiration a chemoautotroph a photoautotroph a photoheterotroph
a chemoautotroph
the ID50 is _______
a dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population
You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in ID is: a gram stain, lactose fermentation, or DNA fingerprint?
a gram stain
the cultivation of some animal viruses typically requires what
a live animal
what is a helminth
a multicellular eukaryotic animal
What is a small, circular DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosome?
a plasmid
A restriction fragment is ________. a gene a segment of DNA a segment of RNA None of the above
a segment of DNA
A gene is best defined as
a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product
A genus can best be defined as
a taxon comprised of one or more species and below family
A genus can best be defined as _________. a taxon composed of families a taxon comprised of one or more species and below family a taxon belonging to a species a taxon comprised of classes the most specific taxon
a taxon comprised of one or more species and below family
disease
abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally. It is what comes after an infection
Which of the following is the outstanding characteristic of the kingdom fungi
absorption of dissolved matter
Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by ________. mutation conjugation transduction transformation All of the above
all of the above
Which of the viral families contain or can replicate oncogenes? Adenovirus Herpesvirus Papovavirus None of the above All of the above
all of the above
If a microbe is injected into a rabbit, what will the rabbit's body produce in response?
an antibody
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called ________. an inducible enzyme a repressible enzyme a restriction enzyme an operator a promoter
an inducible enzyme
serological testing is based on the fact that
antibodies react speciafically with an antigen
Serological testing is based on the fact that...
antibodies react specifically with an antigen.
Humans use __________ to select desirable breeds of animals or strains of plants to cultivate. replica plating mutation artificial selection natural selection All of the above
artificial selection
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
as naked DNA in solution
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell ________. by a bacteriophage as naked DNA in solution by cell-to-cell contact by crossing over by sexual reproduction
as naked DNA in solution
8. A nosocomial infection is A) Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) Acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) Always caused by medical personnel. D) Only a result of surgery. E) Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
b
Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.
b
The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955indicates A) An endemic level. B) An epidemic level. C) A sporadic infection. D) A communicable disease. E) A pandemic
b
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) Ecology. B) Epidemiology. C) Communicable disease. D) Morbidity and mortality. E) Public health.
b
Which of these infections can cause septicemia? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection
b
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleaus
bacteria
phage typing is based on the fact that
bacterial viruses attack specific cells
Phage typing is based on the fact that...
bacterial viruses attack specific cells.
Name of virus that attacks bacteria
bacteriophage
What kind of mutation changes only one base pair?
base substitution
The scum that builds up on shower doors, the formation of dental plaque on teeth, and the algae growth on the walls of swimming pools are all examples of _______.
biofilms
Mutualism
both organism benefit ex E. coli
Name two diseases caused by species in the genus Clostridium.
botulism & gas gangrene
penicillin Amoxicillin
broad spectrum,combined with inhibiyor of prnicillinase
12. Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission A) Doesn't require an arthropod. B) Involves fomites. C) Doesn't involve specific diseases. D) Requires direct contact. E) Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases
c
A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmissio
c
A needlestick is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission
c
During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous 3 years. In Situation 14.1, the etiologic agent of the disease is A) Sheep. B) Soil. C) Coxiella burnetii. D) Pneumonia. E) Wind.
c
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) Body odor. B) Fewer diseases. C) Increased susceptibility to disease. D) Normal microbiota returning immediately. E) No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
c
Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) Communicable disease. B) Latent infection. C) Nosocomial infection. D) Sporadic disease. E) None of these.
c
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) Formation of biofilms B) Lapse in aseptic techniques C) Gram-negative cell walls D) Lack of handwashing E) Lack of insect control
c
Which of the following is used to classify organisms into the kingdom Protista? a) ability to photosynthesize b) unicellular, prokaryotic cells c) unicellular, eukaryotic cells
c) Unicellular, eukaryotic cells
Which of the following will NOT preserve foods? A) High pressure B) Ionizing radiation C) Microwaves D) Osmotic pressure E) Desiccation
c. microwaves
Complement fixation
causes inflammation, opsonization and cell lysis(cytolisis)
when considering the treatment of fungal infections, what is an important structural component of fungi to consider
cell membrane
fungi are
chemoheterotrophs, and some are parasitic
What are the cellular structures that physically carry heredity information and contain genes?
chromosomes
Opsonization
coating antigen with antibody enhances phagocytosis
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
collection of genes encoding glycoproteins expressed on plasma membrane of mammalian cells
Infection
colonization of the body by pathogens( a pathogen invading your body) An infection is not always caused by a disease
one participant benefits and the other neither benefits or is harmed
commensualism
Microbial Antagonism
competition between microbes
Complement system mode of action
components attract phagocytes, stimulates inflammation, and attack a pathogen's cytoplasmic membrane
transfering of DNA from one bacterium to another that requires cell to cell contact
conjugation
Saxitoxin is produced by ________.
dinoflagellates
antimicrobial peptides
disrupt cell membrane
polymyxin
disrupt cell membrane
during the lysogenic cycle viruses
do NOT cause lysis and death of the host cell right away. (avirulent or temperate phages)
9. Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A) Using syringes more than once B) Normal microbiota on the operating room staff C) Errors in aseptic technique D) Antibiotic resistance E) All of these
e
Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because A) Some microorganisms can't be cultured in laboratory media. B) Some microorganisms don't cause the same disease in laboratory animals. C) Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions. D) Some microorganisms can't be observed. E) Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms
e
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Malaria - vector B) Salmonellosis - vehicle transmission C) Syphilis - direct contact D) Influenza - droplet infection E) All of these are correctly matched
e
Which of the following treatments achieves sterilization? a) Pasteurization b) Autoclaving c) Incineration d) Dry oven a) B & D b) C& D c) A, B, C d) All of these e) B, C, D
e) B, C, D
found in the GI tract, vagina, and oral cavity
enterococcus
a fungiis what type of microorganism
eukaryote
Which one of these substances should not be produced at the same time as coagulase? 1. fibrinolysin 2. fimbriae 3. capsules 4. hemolysin
fibrinolysin
What was the vector for Yersinia pestis (the pathogen that caused the plague)?
fleas
Yeasts belong to the Kingdom ________. Animalia Plantae Protista Fungi Bacteria
fungi
yeasts belong to the kingdom
fungi
dimorphic
fungi that produce two types of thalli are said to be:
What are segments of DNA that code for functional products called?
genes
What do you typically call segments of DNA? Chromosome Genome Genes Fragments
genes
what do you typically call segments of DNA
genes
What is a common method used by bacteria to exchange genetic material?
genetic recombination
a clone is
genetically identical cells derived form a single cell
in the scientific name enerobacter aerogenes enterobacter is
genus
Endotoxins
gram negative outer membrane Lipid a fever its not neutralized by antitoxin ld50 latge Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram negatives Lipid A is the endotoxin. Cause chills, fever, weakness, generalized aches, shock. Shock: Life threatening decrease in blood pressure. Dissimilated intravascular coagulation(DIC) Fever(pyrogenic response)
Is Streptococcus gram positive or gram negative?
gram positive
Boiling is not reliable for sterilization because a) heat resistant endospores are unaffected b) viruses are more sensitive to dry heat that boiling c) water boils at a higher temperature at lower altitudes d) boiling does not kill Gram negative bacteria
heat resistant endospores are unaffected
__________ are bacterial enzymes that lyse erythrocytes.
hemolysins
absorption
how do fungi acquire nutrients?
What kind of bonds hold the DNA molecule together?
hydrogen bond
filaments of fleshy fungi/mold are called
hyphae
septate, aseptate
hyphae are either _____ (divided into cells by crosswalls) or _______ (not divided by septa)
which of the following is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related
if both are gram positive
Globular proteins called
immunoglobulins
where does a virus multiply
in a host cell
quinolones
inhibit DNA synthesis
antibiotics
inhibit enzymes that catalyze synthesis of important cellular metabolites
Vamcomycin mode of action
inhibitor of cell wal synthesis
Cephalosporin mode of action
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
bacitracin mode of action
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
penicillin mode of action
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
Rifamycin
inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis Inhibits mRNA synthesis Antituberculosis Penetrate tissues and reach therapeutic levels Iin cerebrospinal fluids and abscesses.
Chloramphenicol mode of action
inhibitors of protein synthesis Broad spectrum Binds 50S subunit; inhibits peptide bond formation Disadvantage: Suppression of bone marrow activity
penicillin
inhibits peptidogylcan synthesis
An example of gene therapy is ________. insertion of the insulin gene in E. coli. insertion of the insulin gene in a mammalian cell culture insertion of the insulin gene in a diabetic person's pancreas cells injection of insulin into a diabetic person None of the above
insertion of the insulin gene in a diabetic person's pancreas cells
First line of defense
intact skin mucous membrane and their secretion Normal microbiota
erthromycin
interferes with protein translation by 70s ribosome
Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces ________. makes antibiotics produces conidia forms filaments is aerobic None of the above
is aerobic
Antibody titer
is the amount of Ab in serum
Pasteurization a) is a process which uses intense cold to kill microorganisms b) is the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level c) is a process which uses short burst of radiation to kill microorganisms in food d) is the use of heat to sterilize food products
is the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level
The value of cDNA in genetic engineering is that ________. it lacks exons it lacks introns it's really RNA None of the above
it lacks introns
Which of the following is the correct order from the most general to the most specific
kingdom phylum class order family genus species
Ehrlich's work
led to the identification of antibodies in serum
combination of cyanobacteria (green algae) and fungus
lichens
Probiotics:
live microbes applied to or ingested into the body, intended to exert a beneficial effect ex lactos bacillus
during this cycle, the virus multiplies in the host cell and during release of virons, the host cell breaks open and dies
lytic cycle
What delivers the amino acid to the ribosome?
mRNA
What product of transcription serves as the code for synthesizing new proteins through the process of translation
mRNA
What product of transcription serves as the code for synthesizing new proteins through the process of translation? A new strand of DNA rRNA tRNA mRNA None of the above
mRNA
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is ________. DNA ® mRNA mRNA ® cDNA mRNA ® protein DNA ® DNA None
mRNA ® cDNA
phagocytes mode of action
macrophages,neutrophils, and eosinophils ingest and destroy pathogens
transient microbiota
may be present for days, weeks, or months (visitor they come and go)
Name the three groups of the Archaeobacteria.
methanogens, extreme halophiles, thermoacidophiles
fever mode of action
mobilizes defenses,accelerates repairs,inhibits pathogens
Antimycobacterial antibiotics
moed of action inhibitor of cell wall synthesis Isoniazid (INH) Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis Ethambutol Inhibits incorporation of mycolic acid
Fungi
molds, mushrooms, and yeast are all part of this kingdom:
Exotosins
mostly gram positive by products of growing cell protein no fever neutralized by antitoxin LD50 small Based on structure and function there are three types of exotoxins 1. A-B toxins 2. Membrane disrupting toxins 3. superantigens
pathogens get into a host in a variety of ways called portals of entry, these include
mucous membranes, respiratory tract, eyes, GI tract, genitourinary tract and skin, or sometimes the hair follicles and ducts of sweat glands
molds are
multicellular
What is the study of Fungi called? Bacteriology Mycology Fungalogy Fungal biology
mycology
in transformation, genes are transferred from one cell to another as
naked DNA in a solution
39. Antibodies blocking the cytopathic effect of viruses in cell cultures; can be used to identify viruses.
neutralization
Subunit vaccines can be made by genetic engineering of yeast cells. A side effect of this kind of vaccination might be ________. the disease a yeast infection due to extraneous material that the vaccine doesn't provide immunity None of the above
none of the above
Portal of exit
port of entry is the same as portalof exit Respiratory tract Coughing and sneezing Gastrointestinal tract Feces and saliva Genitourinary tract Urine and vaginal secretions Skin Blood Biting arthropods and needles or syringes
What is the term that means an infection commonly "caught" in a hospital environment?
nosocomial
Prions infections agents consist of protein and do not contain
nucleic acids
Pasteur
observed immunity in chickens injected with weakened pathogens
Normal Microbiota protect the host by
occupying niches that pathogens might occupy producing acids producing bacteriocins
Synergism
occurs when the effect of two drugs together is greater than the effect of either alone
Antagonism
occurs when the effect of two drugs together is less than the effect of either alone
parasitism
one organism benefits at the expense of the other
Commensalism
one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected
Use for questions 36‑39. Use once, more than once, or not at all. a. desensitization b. neutralization c. opsonization d. complementarity e. resistance 36. The coating of a microorganism with plasma proteins such as complement and antibodies; enhances phagocytosis.
opsonization
Microsporidia
organisms that must live within their hosts' cells. they spread from host to host as small resistant spores
Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that ________. the strands of DNA can be separated a chromosome is composed of complementary strands pairing between complementary bases occurs DNA is composed of genes None of the above
pairing between complementary bases occurs
Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that...
pairing between complementary bases occurs.
When one organism is benefited from a relationship and the other is harmed it is known as: Mutualism Symbiosis Parasitism Commensalism
parasitism
when one organism is benefited from a relationship and the other is harmed it is known as
parasitism
Normal microbiota
permanently colonize the host
multicellular fungi (MOLDS) are identified on:
physical appearance, colony characteristics and catabolism
What is the area of lysis called on a bacteria lawn? Clear zone Plaque Cavity Hot zone Mowed
plaque
what is the area of lysis called on a bacterial lawn
plaque
What is an example of a vector
plasmid
bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following
posses prokayotic cells
PAGE electrophoresis profiles provide direct information about...
protein composition (?)
gram-negative, chemoheterotrophic and the largest group of bacteria
proteobacteria
What is the term for looking at proteins and trying to figure out the "punctuation" of the DNA sequence?
proteonomics
unicellular chemoheterotrophic, found in soil and water
protozoa
Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales? Gram reaction Morphology Fermentation of lactose rRNA sequences All of the above
rRNA sequences
How are Protozoa classified? Based on the cell wall Based on the nucleus rRNA sequencing By their DNA
rRNA sequencing
Von Behring
received the Nobel Prize for development of antitoxin
What is rDNA?
recombinant DNA or genetic engineering = inserting genes into cells
Agglutination
reduces number of infectios units to be dealt with
Symbiosis
relationship between normal microbiota and the host
37. Your body's ability to ward off disease.
resistance
Some antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis. This class of antibiotics typically key on a) cell membrane b) peptidoglycan synthesis c) RNA d) cell wall e) ribosome
ribosome
Primary response occur
s after initial contact with antigen
The members of this genus are often pathogenic and inhabit the intestinal tract of many animals, especially cattle and poultry. Salmonella Klebsiella Enterobacter Haemophilus
salmonella
"+" and "-"
scientists designate fungal mating as:
Properties of vectors
self replication, small size, easily manipulated and self preservation
Term used to describe multiplication of bacteria in the blood.
septicemia
multiplication of bacteria in the blood
septicemia
What is the most common method of viral idenfication? Serological Plating (differential media) Nutrient broths Biochemical tests Plating (selective media)
serological
what is the most common method of viral identification
serological testing
Which one of these bacterial proteins can take iron from human lactoferrin? 1. protease 2. siderophore 3. hyaluronidase 4. kinase
siderophore
Barriers and assosiated chemicals mode of action
skin and mucous membranes prevent the entrance of pathogens, chemicals(eg sweat acid, lysozyme,mucus) enhance the protection
used to probe DNA
southern blot
used to locate a specific gene within an entire genome
southern blotting
These kinds of mutations occur as a result of normal cellular operations or interactions with the environment.
spontaneous mutations
T and B cells develop from
stem cells in red bone marrow
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the ________. end-product must not be in excess substrate must bind to the enzyme substrate must bind to the repressor repressor must bind to the operator repressor must not be synthesized
substrate must bind to the repressor
Name the science of classification
taxonomy
What is it when you can change the sequence but still get the same amino acid?
the Wobble effect
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by ________. the allosteric transition the substrate binding to the repressor the corepressor binding to the operator the corepressor-repressor binding to the operator the end-product binding to the promoter
the corepressor-repressor binding to the operator
Why is Thermophilic bacterium important to the PCR?
the enzyme DNA polymerase taken from the Thermophilic bacterium can survive the heating phase without being destroyed during the PCR procedure.
E. coli can make insulin because ________. it needs to regulate its cell-glucose level it's an ancient gene that now has no function the insulin gene was inserted into it it picked up the insulin gene from another cell No reason; it doesn't make insulin.
the insulin gene was inserted into it
Deuteromycetes
the other three divisions of fungi were based on how they produce sexually this Fungi's type of sexual spore is unknown Most of these are either terrestrial saprobes, pathogens of plants, or pathogen of other fungi. Several genera are pathogenic to humans
The greatest hindrance to germicidal activity of a chemical agent is a) the personnel performing the work b) the presence of organic matter c) the quality of the container d) the temperature
the presence of organic matter
1. haploid (n) cells from a _ thallus and a - thallus fuse to form a dikaryon, a cell containing both + and - nuclei. (n+n) 2. after a period of time (hrs--> years and can be centuries), a pair of nuclei within a dikaryon fuse to form one diploid (2n) nucleus 3. Meiosis of the diploid nucleus restores the haploid state 4. the haploid nuclei are partitioned into + and - spores, which reestablish +and - thalli
the process of sexual reproduction in fungi has four basic steps:
sprorangiophore
the spore bearing stalk is called: (which are at either tups or sides of hyphae)
mycelium
the thallus of a mold is composed og hyphae intertwined to form a tangled mass called:
organism a has 70% g and c and organism b has 40% G+C which of the following can be concluded frm these data
the two organisms are unrelated
Zygomycota, Ascomycota, and Basidiomycota
there are three subgroups that scientists have classified fungi under: (based on the type of sexual spore produced)
why are the use of gram staining and acid fast staining used in a clinical setting?
they are quick and provide a good starting point
All of the following are true about the members of the Kingdom Animalia except ________. they are multicellular they have eukaryotic cells they can photosynthesize they use organic carbon sources they use organic energy sources
they can photosynthesize
All of the following are true about the members of the Kingdom Plantae except ________. they are multicellular they have eukaryotic cells they can photosynthesize they use organic carbon sources they use inorganic energy sources
they use organic carbon sources
What is the vector for the pathogen Borrelia burgdorferi (causes Lyme disease)?
ticks
What is the purpose of the Ames test? To test for AIDS To screen mutagens suspected of causing cancer in humans To diagnose cancer To see if DNA has been destroyed
to screen mutagens suspected of causing cancer in humans
What is the name of the process from DNA to the ribosome called?
transcription
when DNA becomes mRNA what has happened
transcription
DNA is transferred using a phage
transduction
What is the transfer of DNA from one cell to another by a bacteriophage called?
transduction
What is the process where genes are transferred from one bacterium to another as "naked" DNA in solution or the changing of a normal cell to a cancerous cell?
transformation
when mRNA is decoded to build a functional protein
translation
What is a sequence of DNA that can move from one site to another?
transposon
yeasts are
unicellular
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacterium is ________. Gram-negative using anaerobic respiration a chemoautotroph a photoautotroph a photoheterotroph
using anaerobic respiration
The number of antigen-binding sites determines
valence Each antibody has at least two binding sites (bivalent)
There are both chemoheterotrophic, but unlike protozoa they have a cell wall (composed of chitin)
what is the similarity and difference between Fungi and Protzoa?
sperical or oval in shape and undergo bianarry fusion and or reproduce by budding
yeasts
Does Rickettsias rickettsia (the pathogen that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever) require a vector?
yes, obligate parasite; ticks or insects