Combo with Microbiology Chapter 15 and 8 others

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? a) Number of bacteria present b) pH c) All of these d) Presence of organic matter e) Temperature

All of these

40) Which of the following is not bactericidal? A) Tetracycline B) Natural penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Bacitracin E) Semisynthetic penicillin

...

42) Which one of the following is not a zoonosis? A) Cat-scratch disease B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C) Rabies D) Tapeworm E) None of the above

...

Endemic disease

...

Which of the following is mismatched? Helical virus- Ebola virus Polyhedral virus - A Mastadenovirus Enveloped helical virus - Herpesvirus Complex virus - Orthopoxvirus

Enveloped helical virus - Herpesvirus

28. In the figure, the arrow at time d indicates a. the time of exposure to the same antigen at time a. b. the secondary response. c. the primary response. d. exposure to a new antigen.

D

3. Inflammation a. aids in temporary repair at an injury site b. slows the spread of pathogens c. facilitates permanent repair d. All of the above e. None of the above

D

30. Most Gram-negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide (LPS) which is found in the a. plasma membrane. b. cell wall. c. inner membrane. d. outer membrane. e. periplasmic space.

D

5. Which of the following is not part of the body's nonspecific defense system? a. inflammation b. phagocytosis by neutrophils c. phagocytosis by macrophages d. antibodies

D

A commensal bacterium A) Does not receive any benefit from its host. B) Is beneficial to its host. C) May be an opportunistic pathogen. D) Does not infect its host. E) B and D only.

E

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Aminoglycosides. B) Chloramphenicol. C) Lincomycin. D) Macrolides. E) Tetracyclines.

E

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the virulence of a pathogen? A) Numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host B) Cell wall C) Toxins D) Enzymes E) All of these contribute to a pathogen's virulence.

E

Which of the following is a fomite? a. Water. b. Droplets from a sneeze. c. Pus. d. Insects. e. A hypodermic needle.

E

Loss of water due to the accumulation of ions in the intestinal tract is the characteristic of ___ infection a) Enterotoxigenic EC b) Shigella dysenteries c) Helicobacter pylori d) Salmonella typhi e) Enterotohemorrhagic EC

Enterotoxigenic EC

What two Enterobacter are responsible for nosocomial infections?

Enterbacter aerogenes and Enterobacter clocacae

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin by _________

Entering through hair folicles and sweat ducts

Family of bacteria that includes the genera Escherichia, Salmonella, and Shigella.

Enterobacteriaceae

Koch postulates

The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease The pathogen must be isolated from the diseases host and grown in pure culture The pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible lab animal The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original animal

Patient symptoms may worsen after antibiotic treatment of infections caused by gram-negative bacteria due to the sudden release of endotoxins. T/F

True

The glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer) can affect bacterial virulence by allowing attachment and by hindering phagocytosis. T/F

True

Biochemical tests are used to determine

enzymatic activities.

extracellular killing mode of action

eosinophils and Nk lymphocytes kill pathogens without phagocytizing them

inflammation mode of action

increases the blood flow, capillary permeability, and migration of leukocytes into infected area, walls off infected region, increases local temperature

Which would be the most unlikely location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium? 1. glycocalyx 2. fimbriae 3. capsule 4. ribosomes 5. cell wall

ribosomes

yeasts do NOT contain

fillaments

What disease is caused by Rickettsias rickettsia?

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Causes nosocomial infections

Serratia marcescens

Chemotherapy

The use of drugs to treat a disease

What type of mutation creates a stop codon?

a missense (aka nonsense mutation)

a restriction fragment is

a segment of DNA

Secondary (memory or anamnestic) response occurs

after second exposure

DNA is aligned in an

anti parallel fashion 5 to 3 and 3 to 5

If bacteria A and B have LD50 values of 109 and 1010, respectively, more cells of A than B will be needed to kill the host. T/F

False

If bacteria attach to host tissue, they will cause disease. T/F

False

Intense cold and freezing are very effective in killing bacteria: a) True b) False

False

Microbes are more likely to enter the body through the skin than through the mucous membranes. T/F

False

Most host damage resulting from bacterial infection is the result of direct damage by the microbe. T/F

False

The same disease symptoms result, regardless of how a particular microbe enters the body. T/F

False

Urine of a healthy person is sterile a) True b) False

False

The principal cause of dental caries is a) S. mutans b) S. Salivarius c) S. mitis d) S. pyogenes

S. mutans

ß-galactosidase

converts lactose into glucose and galactose

Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following EXCEPT A) Antibiotic resistance. B) Climatic changes. C) Digging up soil. D) Microbes trying to cause disease. E) Travel

d

Transient flora differ from normal flora because transient flora a. Cause diseases. b. Are found in certain location on the host. c. Are acquired by direct contact. d. Are present for a relatively short time. e. None of the above.

d

Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? A) Malaria B) AIDS C) Tuberculosis D) Tetanus E) Typhoid fever

d

In Figure 8.2 shows a figure of an unwound segment of DNA being replicated, base 2 is attached to _________. ribose phosphate deoxyribose thymine Can't tell

deoxyribose

pathogenesis

development of disease

defensins mode of action; interfere with membranes, internal signaling,metabolism and heat shock protein.

...

neutralization; blocks ahesion of bacteria or attachement of toxin and viruses to mucosa

...

Normal microbiota are found in which of the following locations? Mouth Nose Skin All of the above

All of the above

What do algae lack that other plants typically have? Roots Stem Leaves All of the above

All of the above

saprobes

Most fungi are _______ - they absorb nutrients from the remnants of dead organism

Nosocomial Infections

Are acquired as a result of a hospital stay Affect 5-15% of all hospital patients

Vectors

Arthropods, especially fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes

Immunoglobulins

Antibodies

Bacteremia

Bacteria in the blood

Dermatophytes are fungi that cause disease of skin a) True b) False

True

Budding

How do yeast reproduce?

14. Contains histamines that trigger allergy symptoms

MAST CELL

15. A phagocytic white blood cell

NEUTROPHIL

Etiology

Study of caude of disease

Virulence

The extent of pathogenicity

Toxemia

Toxins in the blood

Viremia

Viruses in the blood

Which of these substances does not protect a bacterium from phagocytosis? 1. leukocidins 2. siderophores 3. capsule 4. M protein

Siderophores

What does taxonomy mean in Greek?

"law and order"

4) Antimicrobial peptides work by A) Inhibiting protein synthesis. B) Disrupting the plasma membrane. C) Complementary base-pairing with DNA. D) Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis. E) Hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.

...

Lichens

-partnerships between fungi and photosynthetic microbes -in these, the hyphae of the fungus, which is usually an ascomycete, surround the photosynthetic cells and provide them nutrients, water and protection from desiccation and harsh light the fungus of this reproduces by spores They occur in 3 basic shapes

33) Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? A) Bacitracin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis B) Ethambutol inhibits mycolic acid synthesis C) Streptogramin inhibits protein synthesis D) Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis E) Vancomycin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

..

...

...

Where in the cell does protein synthesis occur?

ribosome

Basidiomycota

-Division of fungi -Examples: mushrooms, puffballs, stinkhorns, jelly fungi, bracket fungi are all a part of this type - structure consists of tightly woven hyphae that extend into multiple, often club-shaped projections called basidia, the ends of which produce sexual basidiospores

Zygomycetes

-This is a division of Fungi -they are coenocytic molds -this produces asexually via Sporangiospores - the distinction is that they form sexual structures called zygosporangia

Ascomycota

-division of fungi - they reproduce asexually by conidiospores Eg: penicillium

Figure 20.3 18) The antibiotic erythromycin binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.3. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) None of the above.

...

. 18. Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms a. are changes felt by the patient. b. are changes observed by the physician. c. are specific for a particular disease. d. always occur as part of a syndrome. e. None of the above.

...A

1) Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons except A) It was the first antibiotic. B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells. C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. D) It has selective toxicity. E) None of the above.

...A

12) Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis C) Injury to plasma membrane D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis E) None of the above

...A

14) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin

...A

2) Which of the following statements is true? A) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together. B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

...A

21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) Are changes felt by the patient. B) Are changes observed by the physician. C) Are specific for a particular disease. D) Always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of the above.

...A

25) Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because A) Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. B) They replicate inside human cells. C) They don't have ribosomes. D) They don't reproduce. E) None of the above.

...A

26) Which of the following organisms would most likely be sensitive to natural penicillin? A) L forms B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Penicillium E) Mycoplasma

...A

30) A sexually transmitted disease is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...A

35. Cytotoxins having a specific toxic action upon cells/tissues of the liver are a. hepatotoxins. b. cardiotoxins. c. enterotoxins. d. neurotoxins. e. nephrotoxins.

...A

38) Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is not true? A) They cause mutations. B) They are used against viral infections. C) They affect host cell DNA. D) They are too dangerous to be used. E) None of the above.

...A

39. Which of the following is not an effect of complement activation? a. Interference with viral replication b. Bacterial cell lysis c. Opsonization d. Increased phagocytic activity e. Increased blood vessel permeability/

...A

6) Which of the following diseases is not spread by droplet infection? A) Botulism B) Tuberculosis C) Measles D) Common cold E) Diphtheria

...A

8. A sexually transmitted disease is an example of a. direct contact. b. droplet transmission. c. fomite. d. vector. e. vehicle transmission.

...A

Figure 20.1 8) The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA.

...A

14. The graph in the figure above shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a. an endemic level. b. an epidemic level. c. a sporadic infection. d. a communicable disease. e. None of the above.

...B

17) More than half of our antibiotics are A) Produced by fungi. B) Produced by bacteria. C) Synthesized in laboratories. D) Produced by Fleming. E) None of the above.

...B

19. Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of a. indirect contact. b. droplet transmission. c. fomite. d. vector. e. vehicle transmission.

...B

2. Which of the following definitions is incorrect? a. Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population b. Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time c. Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time d. Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally e. Herd immunity - immunity in most of the population

...B

21) Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections? 1. Aminoglycosides 2. Cephalosporins 3. Griseofulvin 4. Polyenes 5. Bacitracin A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 3, 4, and 5 D) 4 and 5 E) All of the antibiotics

...B

22) All of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis except A) Cephalosporins. B) Macrolides. C) Natural penicillins. D) Semisynthetic penicillins. E) Vancomycin.

...B

22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) Ecology. B) Epidemiology. C) Communicable disease. D) Morbidity and mortality. E) Public health.

...B

29) Drug resistance occurs A) Because bacteria are normal microbiota. B) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately. C) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. D) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. E) All of the above.

...B

29) Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...B

3) A nosocomial infection is A) Always present but inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) Acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) Always caused by medical personnel. D) Only a result of surgery. E) Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

...B

3) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Viruses. B) Bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Protozoa. E) All of the above.

...B

35) The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...B

40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of A) Symbiotic bacteria. B) Antagonistic bacteria. C) Parasitic bacteria. D) Commensal bacteria. E) None of the above.

...B

41) Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of A) Antagonism. B) Commensalism. C) Parasitism. D) Synergism. E) None of the above.

...B

5. The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called a. ecology. b. epidemiology. c. communicable disease. d. morbidity and mortality. e. public health.

...B

7. In the figure above, what is the endemic level of rotavirus infections? a. 0% b. Approximately 10% c. Approximately 20% d. 35% e. The month of January

...B

8) Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A) Endemic a disease that is constantly present in a population B) Epidemic fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time C) Pandemic a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D) Sporadic a disease that affects a population occasionally E) None of the above

...B

During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥39oC lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetti. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetti antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. 11. The case study is an example of a. human reservoirs. b. a zoonosis. c. a nonliving reservoir. d. a vector. e. a focal infection.

...B

10) Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Streptomycin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Erythromycin E) Chloramphenicol

...C

10. Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a a. communicable disease. b. latent infection. c. nosocomial infection. d. sporadic disease. e. viral infection

...C

11) All of the following act by competitive inhibition except A) Ethambutol. B) Isoniazid. C) Streptomycin. D) Sulfonamide. E) None of the above.

...C

12) Nosocomial infections are most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Enterococcus. D) Pseudomonas. E) Klebsiella.

...C

12. In the case study, the etiologic agent of the disease is a. sheep. b. soil. c. C. burnetii. d. pneumonia. e. wind.

...C

15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) Body odor. B) Fewer diseases. C) Increased susceptibility to disease. D) Normal microbiota returning immediately. E) No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

...C

17. Which of the following processes depends on the F factor plasmid? a. transformation b. transduction c. conjugation d. translocation e. recombination

...C

19) All of the following statements about biological transmission are true except A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C) Houseflies are an important vector. D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.

...C

20) Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis? A) Uracil B) Thymine C) Flucytosine D) Guanine E) None of the above

...C

22. The best definition of an antibody is a. a serum protein. b. a protein that inactivates or kills an antigen. c. a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen. d. an enzyme. e. None of the above

...C

28) All of the following are advantages of using two antibiotics together except A) Prevention of drug resistance. B) Lessening the toxicity of individual drugs. C) Two are always twice as effective as one. D) Providing treatment prior to diagnosis. E) None of the above.

...C

32) A needlestick is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...C

34) In the presence of penicillin a cell dies because A) It lacks a cell wall. B) It plasmolyzes. C) It undergoes osmotic lysis. D) It lacks a cell membrane. E) None of the above.

...C

38. The nature of bacterial capsules a. causes widespread blood clotting. b. allows phagocytes to readily engulf these bacteria. c. affects the virulence of these bacteria. d. has no effect on the virulence of bacteria. e. All of the above

...C

43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) Communicable disease. B) Latent infection. C) Nosocomial infection. D) Sporadic disease. E) None of the above.

...C

45) Which one of the following does not contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) Formation of biofilms. B) Lapse in aseptic techniques. C) Gram-negative cell walls. D) Lack of hand-washing. E) Lack of insect control.

...C

6) Which of the following antibiotics is not bactericidal? A) Aminoglycosides B) Cephalosporins C) Polyenes D) Rifampins E) Penicillin

...C

7) Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission A) Doesn't require an arthropod. B) Involves fomites. C) Doesn't involve specific diseases. D) Requires direct contact. E) Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases.

...C

Figure 14.2 28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) Direct contact B) Droplet transmission C) Fomite D) Vector E) Vehicle transmission

...C

1. The major significance of Koch's work was that a. microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. b. diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. c. microorganisms can be cultured. d. microorganisms cause disease. e. microorganisms are the result of disease.

...D

11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection

...D

13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota A) Cause diseases. B) Are found in a certain location on the host. C) Are acquired by direct contact. D) Are present for a relatively short time. E) None of the above.

...D

17) All of the following are communicable diseases except A) Malaria. B) AIDS. C) Tuberculosis. D) Tetanus. E) Typhoid fever.

...D

24) Which of the following statements is false? A) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis. B) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis. C) Amantadine inhibits release of viral nucleic acid. D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis. E) None of the above.

...D

27) All of the following statements about drug resistance are true except A) It may be carried on a plasmid. B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation. C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug.

...D

34) Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...D

36. The best definition of cell mediated immunity is: a. immunity involving macrophages. b. immunity involving stem cells. c. immunity involving the lymphatic system. d. immunity involving T cells. e. immunity involving platelets.

...D

37. The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is a. infection. b. contamination. c. disease. d. adhesion.

...D

39) Which one of the following is not an example of microbial antagonism? A) Acid production by bacteria B) Bacteriocin production C) Bacteria occupying host receptors D) Bacteria causing disease E) None of the above

...D

4) The major significance of Koch's work was that A) Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) Microorganisms can be cultured. D) Microorganisms cause disease. E) Microorganisms are the result of disease.

...D

5) Semisynthetic penicillins differ from natural penicillins in all of the following respects except that both are A) Broad spectrum. B) Resistant to penicillinase. C) Resistant to stomach acids. D) Bactericidal. E) None of the above.

...D

6. Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except a. antibiotic resistance. b. climatic changes. c. public health failures. d. microbes trying to cause disease. e. travel.

...D

9. Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of a. direct contact. b. droplet transmission. c. fomite. d. vector. e. vehicle transmission.

...D

Figure 14.1 24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except A) Antibiotic resistance. B) Climatic changes. C) Digging up soil. D) Microbes trying to cause disease. E) Travel.

...D

Figure 20.4 19) The antibiotic streptomycin binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.4. The effect is to A) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes. B) Prevent binding of tRNA in eukaryotes. C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes. D) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes. E) None of the above.

...D

10) Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection

...E

13) Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polyenes B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin

...E

13. In the case study, the method of transmission of this disease was a. direct contact. b. droplet. c. indirect contact. d. vector-borne. e. vehicle.

...E

14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is not true? A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They are caused by opportunists. C) They are caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They are caused by normal microbiota. E) None of the above.

...E

15. Which of the following is not a condition of Koch's postulates? a. Isolate the causative agent of a disease b. Cultivate the microbe in the lab c. Inoculate a test animal to observe the disease d. Grow the organism in pure culture e. Produce a vaccine

...E

16) Which of the following is not a reservoir of infection? A) A sick person B) A healthy person C) A sick animal D) A hospital E) None of the above

...E

16. The presence of Staphylococci on healthy skin helps to prevent pathogenic bacteria from colonizing and causing disease. This is an example of: a. virulence. b. pathogenicity. c. antibiosis. d. opportunism. e. microbial antagonism.

...E

18) Which of the following is a fomite? A) Water B) Droplets from a sneeze C) Pus D) Insects E) A hypodermic needle

...E

2) The first antibiotic discovered was A) Quinine. B) Salvarsan. C) Streptomycin. D) Sulfa drugs. E) Penicillin.

...E

20) Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A) Acute a short-lasting primary infection B) Inapparent infection characteristic of a carrier state C) Chronic a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) Primary infection an initial illness E) Secondary infection a long-lasting illness

...E

23) The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Aminoglycosides. B) Chloramphenicol. C) Lincomycin. D) Macrolides. E) Tetracyclines.

...E

23. Which of the following causes pores in target cells? a. Antigen b. Hapten c. IL-1 d. IL-2 e. Perforin

...E

25) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Malaria vector B) Salmonellosis vehicle transmission C) Syphilis direct contact D) Influenza droplet infection E) None of the above

...E

26) All of the following can contribute to postoperative infections except A) Using syringes more than once. B) Normal microbiota on the operating room staff. C) Errors in aseptic technique. D) Antibiotic resistance. E) None of the above.

...E

3. Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia? a. Bacteremia b. Focal infection c. Local infection d. Septicemia e. Systemic infection

...E

31) Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...E

33) Legionellosis transmitted by a grocery store mist machine is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

...E

4. Which of the following is a fomite? a. Water b. Droplets from a sneeze c. Pus d. Insects e. A hypodermic needle

...E

5) Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because A) Some microorganisms can't be cultured in laboratory media. B) Some microorganisms don't cause the same disease in laboratory animals. C) Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions. D) Some microorganisms can't be observed. E) All diseases aren't caused by microorganisms.

...E

7) Which one of the following does not belong with the others? A) Bacitracin B) Cephalosporin C) Monobactam D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin

...E

2. Lymphocytes are large agranulocytes.

...FALSE

5. Interferon is produced by viruses.

...FALSE

8. C3a causes opsonization.

...FALSE

20. Nosocomial infections occur in compromised patients. a. True b. False

...T

21. Insects can act as mechanical and biological vectors. a. True b. False

...T

1. Wandering macrophages experience margination.

...TRUE

10. In a process called clonal deletion, lymphocytes that destroy host tissues are destroyed.

...TRUE

3. The hypothalamus of the brain controls body temperature.

...TRUE

4. Apoptosis is the term used to describe cellular suicide.

...TRUE

6. Exotoxins are composed of proteins.

...TRUE

7. Histamine increases permeability of capillaries so that leukocytes can more readily reach the infection site.

...TRUE

9. Like B cells, T cells originate from stem cells in bone marrow.

...TRUE

Physical factor of first line of defense

1. Skin Epidermis consists of tightly packed cells with Keratin, a protective protein 2. Mucous membranes Mucus: Traps microbes Ciliary escalator: Microbes trapped in mucus are transported away from the lungs 3. Lacrimal apparatus: Washes eye Saliva: Washes microbes off Urine: Flows out Vaginal secretions: Flow out

Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic (fever) response? 1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. 2. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins. 3. IL-1 is released by macrophages. 4. The body's thermostat is set to a higher level, and fever occurs. 5. IL-1 travels via the blood to the hypothalamus.

1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.

Which statement is not true of endotoxins? 1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production. 2. They are more heat-resistant than exotoxins are. 3. They can lyse amoebocytes found in crab hemolymph. 4. They can induce chills, fever, aches, clotting, shock, and miscarriage. 5. Endotoxins are produced by Neisseria meningitidis and E. coli.

1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production.

microbial mechanism of pathogenicity

1. capsules Prevent phagocytosis Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Bacillus anthracis 2. call wall components M protein resists phagocytosis Streptococcus pyogenes Opa protein inhibits T helper cells Neisseria gonorrhoeae Mycolic acid (waxy lipid) resists digestion Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3. enzymes Enzymes secreted by the pathogen Dissolve structural chemicals in the body Help pathogen maintain infection, invade further, and avoid body defenses 4. Antigenic variation ex flu gonorrea Antigens are surface protein that induce immune response by the host. Alter surface proteins to evade immune response 5.Invasion Invasins Salmonella alters host actin to enter a host cell Use actin to move from one cell to the next Listeria

Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of entry? 1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract 2. chlamydia; skin 3. influenza; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract 4. measles; parenteral route 5. hookworm; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract

1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract

how pathogens damge host cell

1. using the host nutrients siderphores Siderophores releases by the pathogen takes away and use host's iron. 2. Direct damage Disrupt host cell function Produce waste products Toxins

How many strands is DNA composed of?

2

Viruses can evade host defenses by ________. 1. producing enzymes that destroy antibody molecules 2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system 3. producing leukocidins that actively destroy white blood cells 4. inhibiting phagocytosis due to the presence of the viral envelope

2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system

Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one? 1. A more severe disease will result. 2. A milder disease will result. 3. A different disease of the same severity will result. 4. Pathogens cannot enter by alternate routes.

2. A milder disease will result

The pathogenicity of which of the following is not the result of lysogeny? 1. Clostridium botulinum 2. Clostridium tetani 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Streptococcus pyogenes 5. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

2. Clostridium tetani

Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of biofilms? 1. exotoxins 2. adhesins 3. siderophores 4. hemolysins 5. invasins

2. adhesins

Which one of these pairs is not correctly matched? 1. collagenase; breaks down connective tissue 2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots 3. leukocidin; lyses WBC membranes 4. siderophore; traps iron 5. IgA protease; digest antibodies

2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots

Which of these statements is not true for bacterial capsules? 1. For Streptococcus pneumoniae, the encapsulated strain is more virulent. 2. Pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria can produce capsules. 3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur. 4. The importance of the capsule to virulence for Streptococcus pneumoniae can be determined because there are strains both with and without the capsule. 5. Capsules related to virulence are produced by the causative agents of anthrax and bubonic plague.

3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur.

The LD50 of Vibrio choleraeis 108 cells through the oral route. If the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to 104. Which of these explanations is the most likely? 1. Vibrio cholerae makes toxin only in the presence of stomach acid. 2. Stomach acid increases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 4. Sodium bicarbonate inactivates Vibrio cholerae. 5. Sodium bicarbonate decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.

3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.

All of these answers are true of A-B exotoxins except ________. 1. Many exotoxins are A-B toxins. 2. They consist of two polypeptide components. 3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria. 4. The A portion of the toxin is the active component. 5. The B portion of the toxin binds to surface receptors on host cells.

3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria.

The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10-50 endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000 endospores. This means that ________. 1. not enough information is available to answer this question 2. neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired. 3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax 4. inhalation anthrax is easier to acquire than cutaneous anthrax 5. both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired

3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax

Which of these conditions would not affect the ability of Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth? 1. the lack of a glycocalyx 2. the lack of the enzyme glucosyltransferase 3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque 4. the inability to form dextran 5. the lack of sucrose

3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque

Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth ________. 350 years ago 3500 years ago 3.5 million years ago 3.5 billion years ago 3.5 x 1012 years ago

3.5 billion years ago

How many properties of vectors are there? 3 2 1 4

4

In table 10.1 which is found only in prokaryotes

4,6

All of the following are examples of cytopathic effects of viruses except ________. 1. cell surface antigens change 2. host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia 3. inclusion bodies are found in the cytoplasm or nucleus 4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.

4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.

Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be associated with the development of cancer? 1. cell fusion 2. stimulation of interferon production 3. inclusion bodies 4. loss of contact inhibition 5. cell death

4. loss of contact inhibition

Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following except ________. 1. Bacillus anthracis 2. Klebsiella pneumoniae 3. Yersinia pestis 4. Haemophilus influenzae 5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which statement is true of endotoxins? 1. They are disease specific. 2. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. 3. They are proteins. 4. They increase blood pressure. 5. They are released upon cell lysis.

5. They are released upon cell lysis.

Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for movement of bacteria within host cells? 1. invasins 2. cilia 3. flagella 4. pseudopods 5. actin molecules

5. actin molecules

What is the direction of DNA synthesis during replication

5¹ ---〉 3¹

all of the following are reasons for classifying viruses in the three domains and not in a fourth domain except

?

10. Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by: a. The Limulus amoebocyte lysate test. b. counting the viable bacteria. c. filtering out the cells. d. looking for turbidity. e. None of the above.

A

11. Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness? a. Toxins b. Capsule c. Cell wall proteins d. Hyaluronidase e. Leukocidins

A

13. Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis C) Injury to plasma membrane D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis E) Competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase

A

16. Cytopathic effects are changes in the host cells due to a. viral infections. b. protozoan and helminthic infections. c. fungal infections. d. bacterial infections. e. All of the above.

A

18. The chemicals causing symptoms of anaphylaxis are a. Found in basophils and mast cells b. Interferons c. Antigens d. Antigen‑antibody complexes e. The proteins of the complement system.

A

31. The definition of lysogeny is a. phage DNA is incorporated into the host cell DNA. b. lysis of the host cell due to a phage. c. the period during replication when virions are not present. d. when the burst time takes an unusually long time.

A

32. Which of the following is not a membrane-disrupting toxin? a. A-B toxin b. Hemolysin c. Leukocidins d. Streptolysin O e. Streptolysin S

A

38. Injecting small, repeated doses of the allergen (antigen) into the skin in order to produce blocking antibodies.

A

40. An encapsulated bacterium can be virulent because the capsule a. Resists phagocytosis b. Helps the bacterium attach c. Destroys host tissue d. Interferes with physiological properties e. Many pathogens don't have capsules, therefore, capsules do not contribute to virulence.

A

40. Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occurs in humans. Which of the following would be the most severe? a. Deficiency of C3 b. Deficiency of C5 c. Deficiency of C6 d. Deficiency of C7 e. Deficiency of C8

A

8. Which antibody class is abundant in body secretions? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM

A

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A) Viral infections. B) Protozoan infections. C) Fungal infections. D) Bacterial infections. E) Helminthic infections.

A

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) It was the first antibiotic. B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells. C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. D) It has selective toxicity. E) It kills bacteria.

A

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA.

A

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the A) Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. B) Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. C) Skin. D) Parenteral route. E) All are used equally

A

Use this figure to answer questions 33-34. 33. Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies? a. a and b b. a and c c. b and c d. c and d e. a and d

A

What cell structure does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells? A) fimbriae Feedback: Correct! B) cell wall waxes C) M proteins D) capsules E) flagella

A

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin

A

Which of the following statements is true? a. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together. b. Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. c. A parasite is not in a symbiosis with its host. d. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. e. At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

A

Gamma rays kills microbe by producing highly reactive oxidizing molecules such as superoxides and free radicals a) True b) False

True

What is the term that means a disease of animals that can be transmitted to humans?

zoonose (sing.), zoonoses (pl.)

A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be classified as a/an ________.

A-B toxin

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? A) Aminoglycosides B) Cephalosporins C) Polyenes D) Rifampins E) Penicillin

C

Which of the following substances is NOT effective against nonenveloped viruses? A) Ozone B) Ethylene oxide C) Alcohol D) Chlorine E) All are equally effective.

C) Alcohol

Sign

A change in a body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease

Symptom

A change in body function that is felt by a patient as a result of disease

6. The process by which neutrophils squeeze through capillary walls in response to inflammatory signals is called a. emigration b. chemotaxis c. margination d. opsonization

A DIAPADESIS

In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes

A decrease in blood pressure

Contagious disease

A disease that is easily spread from one host to another

Noncommunicable diseas e:

A disease that is not transmitted from one host to another

Communicable disease

A disease that is spread from one host to another

Selective toxicity

A drug that kills harmful microbes without damaging the host

Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs? A) Glutaraldehyde B) Chlorine bleach C) Chlorhexidine D) Soap E) Phenol

C) Chlorhexidine

The cultivation of some animal viruses (e.g., Simian AIDS) typically requires what? Blood A live animal Bacteria Proper nutrition Agar

A live animal

What is a helminth? A unicellular eukaryotic animal A multicellular eukaryotic animal A tricellular prokaryotic animal An annelid worm

A multicellular eukaryotic animal

Which of these organisms does not produce an enterotoxin? 1. Shigella spp. 2. Clostridium botulinum 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Staphylococcus aureus

Colostridium botulinum

Symptoms of bacteria meningitis includes: a) Stiff neck b) Tightening of jaw and neck c) Vomiting d) Difficulty breathing e) Severe headache a) A, C, D, E b) A, C, E c) A, B, C d) A, E e) All of the above

A, C, E

Syndrome

A specific group of signs and symptoms that accompany a disease

Antibiotic

A substance produced by a microbe that, in small amounts, inhibits another microbe

Antigen (Ag)

A substance that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or sensitized T cells Antibodies (Ab) interact with epitopes or antigenic determinants A substance with low molecular weight is not antigenic unless it is attached to a carrier molecule. Low molecular weight antigens are called haptens

Antibiotic ressistance

A variety of mutations can lead to antibiotic resistance Mechanisms of antibiotic resistance Enzymatic destruction of drug Prevention of penetration of drug Alteration of drug's target site Rapid ejection of the drug Resistance genes are often on plasmids or transposons that can be transferred between bacteria Misuse of antibiotics selects for resistance mutants. Misuse includes Using outdated or weakened antibiotics Using antibiotics for the common cold and other inappropriate conditions Using antibiotics in animal feed Failing complete the prescribed regimen Using someone else's leftover prescription

35. Reaction using red blood cells as the indicator and hemolysis indicates an antigen‑antibody reaction.

Complement fixation

Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to hospital-acquired infections? A) All of these may contribute to hospital-acquired infection. B) Invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria. C) Bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash. D) Some bacteria metabolize disinfectants. E) Gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.

A) All of these may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.

Which of the following will NOT destroy prions? A) Boiling B) NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C C) Proteases D) All of these destroy prions. E) Incineration

A) Boiling

Which of the following is NOT used to disinfect water? A) Heat B) Ozone C) Gamma radiation D) Chlorine E) Copper sulfate

A) Heat

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Beta-propiolactone C) Ethylene oxide D) Propylene oxide E) Glutaraldehyde

A) Hydrogen peroxide

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Inhibition of RNA synthesis B) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis C) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis D) Competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase E) Injury to plasma membrane

A) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal? A) Polyenes B) Penicillin C) Rifampins D) Aminoglycosides E) Cephalosporins

A) Polyenes

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Tetracyclines. B) Chloramphenicol. C) Lincomycin. D) Aminoglycosides. E) Macrolides.

A) Tetracyclines.

Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth? A) They are equivalent treatments. B) None is effective. C) 63°C for 30 min. D) 140°C for 4 sec. E) 72°C for 15 sec.

A) They are equivalent treatments.

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A) Two are always twice as effective as one. B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. C) All of these are advantages. D) It can prevent drug resistance. E) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis

A) Two are always twice as effective as one.

Drug resistance occurs A) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately. B) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. C) Because bacteria are normal microbiota. D) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. E) All of these.

A) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

Of the following viruses, which ones cause diseases of the brain and meninges? a) Rabies b) St. Louis encephalitis virus c) Herpes simplex virus type 1 d) Smallpox a) A, B, C, D b) B only c) A, B, C d) A, B e) A, D

A, B

Staphylococcus aureus strains (or their products) can cause: a) Toxic shock syndrome b) Food poisoning c) Scalded skin syndrome a) C only b) A, B c) A only d) A, B, C e) A, C

A, B, C

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produce antibiotics a) Fungi b) Viruses c) Bacteria d) Protozoa a) C, D b) C only c) A, B d) A, C, D e) A, C

A, C

Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal? A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes B. Inclusion bodies C. Antigenic changes D. Giant cells E. Transformation

A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes

What test assumes that any compound causes a mutation is a microbe that is a carcinogen and may cause birth defects?

AMES test

Using the code UAGCGGCCU, what will the tRNA anticodons be?

AUCGCCGGA

What is the start codon?

AUG

Toxigenicity

Ability to produce a toxin

Immunity

Ability to ward off disease

Fever

Abnormally high body temperature Hypothalamus normally set at 37°C Gram-negative endotoxin cause phagocytes to release interleukin-1 (IL-1) Hypothalamus releases prostaglandins that reset the hypothalamus to a high temperature Body increases rate of metabolism and shivering which raise temperature Vasodilation and sweating: Body temperature falls (crisis) chill is a sign of body temp rising

Which of the following is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? All members are photosynthetic. Absorption of dissolved organic matter Absorption of dissolved inorganic matter All members are microscopic. All members are macroscopic.

Absorption of dissolved organic matter

All of the following diseases are caused by the Staphylococcus aureus except which one? a) Pimples b) Toxic shock syndrome c) Scalded skin syndrome d) Acne

Acne

All of the following skin diseases are caused by viruses except which one? a) Herpes simplex b) Acne c) Warts d) Chickenpox

Acne

Primary infection

Acute infection that causes the initial illness

Second line of defense

Acute-phase proteins activated (complement, cytokine, and kinins) Vasodilation (histamine, kinins, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes) Redness Swelling (edema) Pain Heat

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'? Adenine Thymine Cytosine Guanine Uracil

Adenine

_______ are molecules on bacterial cell surfaces that enable them to adhere to the surface of host cells.

Adhesins

adherence

Adhesins/ligands bind to receptors on host cells Glycocalyx: Streptococcus mutans Fimbriae: Escherichia coli M protein: Streptococcus pyogenes Form biofilms

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is: a) Composed of mostly E. coli b) Not changed c) Affected by sexual activity d) Affected by estrogen

Affected by estrogen

33. Reaction between antibody and particulate antigen.

Agglutination reaction

Plant pathogen that causes crown gall

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Which organisms live mostly in an aquatic environment? Helminth Lichen Algae Fungi

Algae

Which of the following is not a complication of gonorrhea? a) Sterility b) Endocarditis c) Pelvic inflammatory disease d) All are complications of gonorrhea

All are complications of gonorrhea

How are viruses classified? Nucleic acid Strategy for replication Morphology Size and number of capsomeres All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following can be used to make recombinant DNA? protoplast fusion Tungsten "bullets" microinjection Transformation All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is a arthropod? Spider Mites Bees All of the above

All of the above

A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because: a) She is immune to tuberculosis b) She had tuberculosis c) All of these d) She has been vaccinated e) She has tuberculosis

All of these

Bacteria death will result from damage to which of the following structure? a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane c) All of these d) Proteins e) Nucleic acids

All of these

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to: a) decrease in uptake of the drug b) alteration in the target site c) All of these d) increase in pumping out of the drug e) drug-inactivating enzyme

All of these

Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold is/are: a) Avoiding close contact with people with cold b) All of these c) Avoiding crowds d) Hand washing e) Avoiding touching one's eyes

All of these

Enterobacteriaceae are a group of gram-negative rods, which ferment glucose. Disease(s) caused by members of this group include(s): a) Gastroenteritis b) All of these c) Pneumonia d) Nosocomial infection e) Bloody diarrhea

All of these

Hepatitis B virus is mainly spread by a) Blood products b) Needle stick c) Semen d) Blood e) All of these

All of these

Meningitis can be caused by: a) Protozoa b) Bacteria c) Viruses d) Fungi e) All of these

All of these

Presence of blood in stool of a patient with diarrhea is the result of a) Loss of protein b) EHEC infection c) All of these d) None of these e) Shigella infection

All of these

Which infection is caused by S. aureus? a) Pimples b) Furuncle c) All of these d) Carbuncle e) Impetigo

All of these

Which of the following is considered a function of skin a) Prevents fluid loss b) Regulates body temperature c) Harbors normal flora d) All of these e) Keeps pathogens from establishing themselves

All of these

Which of the following may result in the development of the resistance to antimicrobial drugs? a) Plasmid exchange among bacteria b) Bacteria may pump the drugs out, so they won't be effective anymore c) Bacteria producing enzymes that inactivate the drugs d) Mutation in chromosomal genes e) All of these may result in development of the resistance to antimicrobial drugs

All of these

Which of the following cannot be killed by autoclave? a) Organisms with capsules b) Pathogens c) Organisms with spores d) Organisms with thick cell walls e) All of these can be killed by autoclave

All of these can be killed by autoclave

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a serious disease. This disease of women is defined as the clinical syndrome resulting from the ascending spread of microorganism from vagina and cervix to the endometrium, the fallopian tube. Which of the following statements does not apply to this disease? a) It is the most common cause of involuntary infertility in women b) All statements apply to PID c) it is caused by Neisseria gonorrhea d) Not all infections result in PID e) PID is caused by more than one microorganism

All statements apply to PID

All of the following can be transmitted to humans from domestic cats except a) American trypanosomiasis b) Plague c) Toxoplasmosis d) Cat-scratch fever

American trypanosomiasis

H. pylori is, in part, able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce a) Amino acid b) Ammonia c) Fatty acid d) Lactic acid

Ammonia

a. Native immunity b. Naturally acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity 22. Type of immunity resulting from vaccination.

Artificially acquired active immunity

23. Type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection.

Artificially acquired passive immunity

What kind of DNA or RNA do viruses contain? Single-stranded DNA Double-stranded DNA Single-stranded RNA Double-stranded RNA Any one of the above

Any one of the above

What tissues can opportunistic mycoses infect? Skin only Mouth only Mouth and throat Any tissue Feet

Any tissue

What is a disease vector? A protist that causes disease Circular DNA in eukaryotes An arthropod that carries a disease The opening in a eukaryotic cell wall

An arthropod that carries a disease

The symptoms of tetanus are due to

An exotoxin produced by clostridium tetani

Systemic infection

An infection throughout the body

The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following except a) Hyaluronidase b) Anaerobic environment c) Necrotizing exotoxins d) Microbial fermentation e) Proteolytic enzymes

Anaerobic environment

Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because a) These types of infections are not caused by bacteria b) The infection moves along the peripheral nerves c) Antibiotics damage nerve tissues d) Antibiotic cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier

Antibiotic cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier

Antitoxin

Antibodies against a specific toxin

. Hapten

Antigen is combined with carrier molecules

T-dependent antigens

Antigen that requires a TH cell for antibody production TH cell produces cytokines that activate the B cell Antibody producing B cells are called plasma cells Longlived activated B cells responsible for enhanced secondary response is called memory cells

unusual cell wall, lives in extremes

Archaeobacteria

How do Archaeobacteria differ from the gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci?

Archaeobacteria lack peptidoglycan.

phatogenic properties of viruses

Attachment sites mimic substances useful to cells. Hiding attachment sites from immune response Attacking immune system directly Cytopathic Effects of Viruses Visible effects of viral infection

Which of the following treatments achieves sterilization? a) Autoclaving b) Pasteurization c) Boiling d) Commercial canning

Autoclaving

Rheumatic fever is a(n): a) Autoimmune sequel to a streptococcal infection b) Secondary infection streptococcal infection c) Streptococcal superinfection d) Primary streptococcal infection

Autoimmune sequel to a streptococcal infection

Antifungal drug

Azoles Miconazole Triazoles Treatment of cuteneous mycoses, (athlet's foot, Yeast infection)

10. A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry? A) Skin B) Parenteral route C) Mucous membranes D) All of these E) None of these

B

14. Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Viruses. B) Bacteria. C) Fungi. D) Protozoa. E) All of these.

B

17. A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry? a. Skin b. Parenteral route c. Mucous membranes d. Gastrointestinal

B

17. The best definition of an antigen is a. Something foreign in the body. b. A macromolecule that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies. c. A chemical that combines with antibodies. d. A pathogen. e. A protein that combines with antibodies.

B

2. Which of the following best describes the difference in the way B cells and cytotoxic T cells respond to invaders? a. B cells kills viruses directly; cytotoxic T cells kills virus-infected cells. b. B cells secrete antibodies against a virus; cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected cells. c. B cells accomplish cell-mediated immunity; cytotoxic T cells accomplish humoral immunity. d. B cells respond the first time the invader is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.

B

20. Autoimmunity may be due to a. Recognition of "foreign" antigens. b. Cross reactive IgG and IgM antibodies. c. Immunologic paralysis d. Immunologic suppression e. Immunologic tolerance

B

20. Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? a. Basophil b. Eosinophil c. Lymphocyte d. Monocyte e. Neutrophil

B

25. Which subunit of the exotoxin is the binding portion of the molecule? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

B

29. IL-2, produced by TH cells, a. activate macrophages. b. stimulates TH cell maturation. c. causes phagocytosis. d. activates antigen-presenting cells.

B

3. Which is a method of avoiding phagocytosis? A) Producing fimbriae B) Inducing endocytosis C) Producing toxins D) Inducing TNF E) Producing iron-binding proteins

B

41. Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity? a. basophils b. neutrophils c. lymphocytes d. mast cells e. eosinophils

B

43. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with endotoxins? a. typhoid fever d. urinary tract infections b. diphtheria e. all involve endotoxins. c. epidemic Meningitis

B

47. The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called a. ecology b. epidemiology c. serology d. morbidity and mortality 4. public health

B

48. Interferon is a substance a. produced by a cell to protect itself from viral infection b. produced by a virally‑infected cell which initiates the synthesis of molecules that inhibit viral replication in neighboring uninfected cells. c. produced by a virally‑infected cell that prevents penetration of viruses into neighboring infected cells. d. that interferes with the reproduction of bacteria. e. that interferes with the lysis of virally‑infected cells.

B

49. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Complement ‑ a group of proteins found in normal which act in a cascade to lyse cells. b. Toxoid ‑ an endotoxin used as a vaccine c. Antibody ‑ a protein produced by the body in response to an antigen and capable of combining specifically with that antigen. d. Haptene ‑ an incomplete antigen; needs a carrier molecule e. Antitoxin ‑ antibodies against a toxin

B

8. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Endemic ‑ a disease that is constantly present in a population. b. Epidemic ‑ fraction of the population having a disease at a specific time. c. Pandemic ‑ a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time. d. Sporadic ‑ a disease that affects a population occasionally. e. Pathogen ‑ disease causing.

B

Drug resistance occurs A) Because bacteria are normal microbiota. B) When antibiotics are used indiscriminately. C) Against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. D) When antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. E) All of these

B

How do A-B toxins function? A) The A domain binds to a target cell receptor, while the B domain has a specific function. B) The B domain binds to a target cell receptor, while the A domain has a specific function. Feedback: Correct! C) The B domain acts as a neurotoxin, while the A domain acts as a cytotoxin. D) They bind to the membrane of the host cell, creating a pore.

B

The ID50 is a A) Measure of pathogenicity. B) Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population. C) Dose that will kill some of the test population. D) Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. E) Dose that will kill 50% of the test population.

B

Which of the following CANNOT be used for adherence? A) Fimbriae B) Cell membrane mannose C) Glycoproteins D) Lipoproteins E) Capsules

B

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? A) Cephalosporins B) Macrolides C) Natural penicillins D) Semisynthetic penicillins E) Vancomycin

B

For questions 12-15, match the letters to the appropriate description. A. Neutrophil B. B cell C. Mast cell D. Helper T cell E. Memory B cell 12. Carries out humoral immunity

B CELL

Humoral immunity

B cells mature in the bone marrow Chickens: Bursa of Fabricius Due to antibodies

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Penicillin B) Amphotericin B C) Bacitracin D) Polymyxin E) Cephalosporin

B) Amphotericin B

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Fungi. B) Bacteria. C) Viruses. D) All of these. E) Protozoa.

B) Bacteria.

Which of the following will NOT inactivate endospores? A) Autoclave B) High pressure C) Chlorine dioxide D) Plasma E) Supercritical CO2

B) High pressure

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to A) Prevent transcription. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. D) Prevent attachment of tRNA and mRNA. E) Prevent attachment of tRNA.

B) Prevent peptide bond formation.

Which organism most easily causes an infection? A. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1 C. E. coli O157:H7 ID50-20 D. Shigella ID50-10 E. Can't tell

B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1

Endotoxins are A. Specific in their method of action. B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall. C. Associated with gram-positive bacteria. D. Excreted from the cell. E. None of the above.

B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall.

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally not true? A. They are more potent than endotoxins. B. They are not inactivated by heat. C. They are composed of proteins. D. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. E. They have specific methods of action.

B. They are not inactivated by heat

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A. Bacterial infections. B. Viral infections. C. Protozoan and helminthic infections. D. Fungal infections. E. All of the above.

B. Viral infections.

What is the causal agent of anthrax?

Bacillus anthracis

What is the best know microbial insect pathogen? It is sold commercially as Dipel.

Bacillus thuringiensis

Which of the following groups of microorganisms has the rRNA loop present Archaea Eukarya Bacteria Viruses

Bacteria

Why is selective toxicity more difficult to obtain with antiviral and antifungal drugs than with antibacterial drugs? Because a) Bacteria are prokaryotes and different from their host b) Fungi are too large and viruses are too small c) Fungi and viruses are eukaryotes d) Fungi are prokaryotes and different from their host

Bacteria are prokaryotes and different from their host

Bacterial endocarditis is a serious life-threatening disease. Which of the following are characteristic of bacterial endocarditis? a) Bacterial endocarditis is caused by Streptococci or Staphylococci b) It is the inflammation of heart muscle c) Bacterial endocarditis is caused by Escherichia coli d) All of these e) It constricts heart valves

Bacterial endocarditis is caused by Streptococci or Staphylococci

Which of the following organisms are resistant to destruction by typical control methods? a) None of these b) Bacterial endospores c) Gram positive bacteria d) Fungal spores

Bacterial endospores

Why are algae important in the aquatic food chain? Because they convert oxygen into food for the rest of the aquatic life Because they convert carbon dioxide into oxygen Because they convert carbon dioxide into consumable organic molecules Because they convert spilled oil into a less toxic chemical

Because they convert carbon dioxide into consumable organic molecules

Why are slime molds unique? Because they are slimy Because they have both fungal and amoebal characteristics and are classified as protists Because they live in moist environments unlike the other eukaryotes Because they are unicellular None of the above

Because they have both fungal and amoebal characteristics and are classified as protists

most widely accepted way of classifying prokaryote

Bergey's Manual

name of reference book used to ID bacteria

Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology

Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could easily be prevented by _________

Boiling food prior to consumption

All of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning are true except a) Suspect foods are those not cooked before eating b) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms c) Replacing water and electrolytes treats it d) It can be prevented by refrigeration e) Boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating can prevent it

Boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating can prevent it

Human pathogen that causes Lyme disease

Borrelia burgdorferi

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? A) It can prevent drug resistance. B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. C) Two are always twice as effective as one. D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. E) All of these are advantages.

C

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Etiology ‑ cause of disease. b. Pathogenic ‑ capable of causing disease. c. Infection ‑ disease. d. Symptoms ‑ changes in body function. e. Virulence ‑ degree of pathogenicity.

C

Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Streptomycin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Erythromycin E) Chloramphenicol

C

penicillim Ampicillin

Broad spectrum

. Which of the following is generally not true about exotoxins a. they are more potent than endotoxins. b. they are composed of proteins. c. they are not destroyed by heat d. they have specific methods of action. e. they are produced by gram‑positive bacteria.

C

15. Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally false? A) They are more potent than endotoxins. B) They are composed of proteins. C) They are not destroyed by heat. D) They have specific methods of action. E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.

C

19. Which of the following does not cause vasodilation? a. Kinins b. Prostaglandins c. Lysozymes d. Histamine

C

19. Which of the following is an example of systemic anaphylaxis? a. Hay fever b. Asthma c. Shock d. Hives e. All of the above.

C

34. What can attach to a host cell? a. a and c b. b and c c. b d. d e. e

C

4. Compared with nonspecific defenses, specific defenses a. do not distinguish between one threat and another b. are always present at birth c. protect against threats on an individual basis d. deny entrance of pathogens to the body

C

4. Endotoxins are A) Associated with gram-positive bacteria. B) Specific in their method of action. C) Part of the gram-negative cell wall. D) Excreted from the cell. E) A-B toxins

C

8. Most pathogens that gain access through the skin A) Can penetrate intact skin. B) Just infect the skin itself. C) Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. D) Must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. E) Must be injected.

C

9) Which of these infections can cause septicemia? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection

C

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) It has selective toxicity. B) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis. C) It was the first antibiotic. D) It kills bacteria. E) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells.

C) It was the first antibiotic.

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Monobactam B) Penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Cephalosporin E) Bacitracin

C) Streptomycin

Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by A) Ethylene oxide. B) Plasma sterilization. C) Supercritical fluids. D) Peroxygens. E) Glutaraldehyde

C) Supercritical fluids.

Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? A) Temperature B) pH C) All of these D) Presence of organic matter E) Number of bacteria present

C. All of these

All of the following may be used for adherence except A. Glycoproteins. B. Lipoproteins. C. Cell membrane mannose. D. Fimbriae. E. Capsules.

C. Cell membrane mannose.

Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is A. Staphylococcal enterotoxin. B. Cholera toxin. C. Ciguatera. D. Aflatoxin. E. A mycotoxin.

C. Ciguatera.

Which of the following is the most serious Staphylococcal skin infection? a) Foliculitis b) Furuncles c) Impetigo d) Carbunclosis

Carbunclosis

Which of the following organisms doesn't produce an exotoxin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium tetani C. Salmonella typhi D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae E. Clostridium botulinum

C. Salmonella typhi

Which of the following does NOT directly result from application of heat? A) Damage to nucleic acids B) Breaking of hydrogen bonds C) Cell lysis D) Breaking of sulfhydryl bonds E) Denaturing of enzymes

C. cell lysis

The material that is released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia: a) Exotoxin b) Components of gram-negative outer membrane c) Teichoic acid d) Protein A

Components of gram-negative outer membrane

T Helper Cells

CD4+ or TH cells TCRs recognize Ags and MHC II on APC TLRs are a costimulatory signal on APC and TH TH cells produce cytokines and differentiate into TH1 TH2 Memory cells TH1 produces IFN-gwhich activates cells related to cell-mediated immunity, macrophages, and Abs TH2 activate eosinophils and B cells to produce IgE

T Cytotoxic Cells

CD8+ or TC cells Target cells are self carrying endogenous antigens Activated into cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) CTLs recognize Ag + MHC I Induce apoptosis in target cell CTL releases perforin and granzymes

ways of bacteria evading the complement system

Capsules prevent C activation Surface lipid-carbohydrates prevent membrane attack complex (MAC) formation Enzymatic digestion of C5a

Quaternary ammonium compounds are a) Cationic detergents which help wash surfaces b) Strong disinfectant used to sterilize heavily contaminated hospital refuse c) None of these d) Very effective against endospores

Cationic detergents which help wash surfaces

Superantigens

Cause an intense immune response due to release of cytokines from host cells Symptoms: fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, shock, and death

When considering the treatment of fungal infections, what is an important structural component of the fungi to consider? Spore Cell membrane Nucleus Hyphae Thallus

Cell membrane

To what are codons and anticodons attached?

Codons are attached to mRNA; anticodons are attached to tRNA

What bacteria is responsible for the LSD drug? (*involved the Salem witch trials)

Claviceps purpurea

Members of this group of bacteria are G negative, lactose fermenters that can cause variety of diseases such as urinary tract infection, diarrhea, septicemia, and Enteric fever. Some are part of the normal flora of intestines. What are they? a) Toxopamosis b) Enterobacteriaceae c) Fungi d) Clostridium e) Sporozoa

Clostridium

A-B toxins

Consists of two parts designated A and B Part A is the active(enzyme) component and B is the binding component. Ex: Diphtheria toxin

Various activities of the normal microbiota make it hard for pathogens to compete

Consumption of nutrients makes them unavailable to pathogens Create an environment unfavorable to other microorganisms by changing pH Helps stimulate the body's second line of defense Promote overall health by providing vitamins to host May be opportunistic pathogens

Polio virus enters the body via: a) Infected blood b) Respiratory system c) Contaminated water d) Skin

Contaminated water

Part of the ability of germs to produce dental caries depends on their ability to: a) Convert sucrose to lactic acid b) Convert protein to acids c) Attach to the gum d) None of these

Convert sucrose to lactic acid

The hoarseness and barking cough, as a result of infection in epiglottis and larynx, are typical symptoms of: a) Croup b) Pneumonia c) Whooping cough d) Tuberculosis

Croup

The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is a) Cut out and replaced b) Repaired during transcription c) Repaired during translation d) Repaired by DNA replication e) Never repaired

Cut out and replaced

Given the following LD50 values for Bacillus anthracis, through which portal of entry is it easiest to get anthrax? 1. All are equally easy portals of entry. 2. Cutaneous-50 endospores 3. Inhalation-20,000 endospores 4. Ingestion-1,000,000 endospores

Cutaneous 50 endospores

1. Which of the following results in long-term immunity? a. the passage of maternal antibodies to her developing fetus b. the inflammatory response to a splinter c. the administration of serum obtained from people immune to rabies d. the administration of the chicken pox vaccine e. the passage of maternal antibodies to her nursing infant

D

11. Which of the following choices show the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected tissues? a. Macrophages - monocytes b. Lymphocytes - macrophages c. Neutrophils - macrophages d. Neutrophils - monocytes e. Macrophages - neutrophils

D

14. Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to a. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. b. Waste products excreted by the parasite. c. Products released from damaged tissues. d. All of the above. e. None of the above.

D

15. Which of the following is not a mechanical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection? a. Layers of cells b. Tears c. Saliva d. Lysozyme e. All are mechanical factors.

D

16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation? a. Redness b. Pain c. Local heat. d. Fever e. Swelling

D

18. The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier. a. Producing fimbriae b. Inducing endocytosis c. Producing toxins d. Inducing TNF e. All of the above

D

21. Which type of graft is the least compatible? a. Autograft d. Xenograft b. Allograft e. All are equally compatible. c. Isograft

D

24. Cell death caused by perforin is caused by a. CD8 cells b. TH cells c. B cells d. TC cells

D

26. Type of immunity resulting from vaccination. a. Innate immunity b. Naturally acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity

D

27. The specificity of an antibody is due to a. the heavy chains b. the light chains c. the constant regions of the heavy and light chains d. the variable regions of the heavy and light chains e. All of the above

D

50. Cancer cells may escape the immune system because a. They are recognized as "self". b. Antibodies are not formed against cancer cells c. Cytotoxic T cells react with tumor specific antigens d. Tumor cells shed their specific antigens e. None of the above.

D

9. Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by a. A-B toxins. b. Lipid A. c. membrane-disrupting toxins. d. superantigens.

D

9. Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease? a. Rabies b. Common cold c. Measles d. Tetanus e. Plague

D

A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A) Resists phagocytosis. B) Helps the bacterium attach. C) Destroys host tissues. D) Is toxic. E) All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence

D

Which of the following is NOT considered entry via the parenteral route? A) Injection B) Bite C) Surgery D) Hair follicle E) Skin cu

D

Which of the following statements about M protein is false? A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. B) It is found on fimbriae. C) It is heat- and acid-resistant. D) It is readily digested by phagocytes. E) It is a protein.

D

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false? A) It may be carried on a plasmid. B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation. C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug

D

Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-Soap; 2-Acid-anionic detergent; 3-Quats. A) 2, 1, 3 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 2, 1 E) 1, 3, 2

D) 3, 2, 1

Which of the following substances is NOT used to preserve foods? A) Sodium nitrite B) Potassium sorbate C) Nisin D) Biguanides E) Sodium propionate

D) Biguanides

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is false? A) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. B) It may be carried on a plasmid. C) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug. D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. E) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation.

D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? A) Vancomycin B) Cephalosporins C) Semisynthetic penicillins D) Macrolides E) Natural penicillins

D) Macrolides

Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization? A) Formaldehyde B) Dry heat C) Autoclave D) Pasteurization E) Ethylene oxide

D) Pasteurization

The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following? A) The formation of ozone B) The formation of hydrochloric acid C) The formation of free O D) The formation of hypochlorous acid E) Disruption of the plasma membrane

D) The formation of hypochlorous acid

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) CuSO4 - algicide B) H2O2 - open wounds C) Organic acids - food preservation D) Alcohols - open wounds E) Ag - burns

D. Alcohols

Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic disease are due to A. Waste products excreted by the parasite. B. Products released from damaged tissues. C. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? A. It is an exotoxin. B. It causes diarrhea. C. It causes vomiting. D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E. None of the above.

D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.

All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies except A. IgA protease. B. Invasims. C. Antigenic change. D. Membrane-disrupting toxins. E. None of the above

D. Membrane-disrupting toxins.

Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by A. Membrane-disrupting toxins. B. A-B toxins. C. Lipid A. D. Superantigens. E. All of the above.

D. Superantigens.

What are restriction enzymes

DNA cutting enzymes that exist in many bacteria

What enzyme joins the discontinuous fragments of the lagging strand?

DNA ligase

In DNA replication, what enzyme builds a new complimentary strand on the template?

DNA polymerase

What is the most important enzyme in DNA replication?

DNA polymerase

What sequence does a mutation change?

DNA sequence

Mortality

Deaths from notifiable diseases

Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of septic shock? a) Heart murmur b) Decreased blood pressure c) Maculopapular rash d) Lymphangitis

Decreased blood pressure

Innate immunity

Defenses against any pathogen

Collection of bacteria that adhere to the surface of the teeth are called: a) Dental plaque b) Periodontal disease c) Halitosis d) Dental caries

Dental plaque

Dissimilatory sulfate-reducing, or sulfur-reducing bacteria

Desulfovibrio

Acute inflammation

Develops quickly and is short lived Is usually beneficial Important in the second line of defense Dilation and increased permeability of the blood vessels Migration of phagocytes Tissue repair

Chronic inflammation

Develops slowly and lasts a long time Can cause damage to tissues

IgA

Dimer 10-15% of serum Abs In secretions Mucosal protection Half-life = 6 days

Epidemic disease

Disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time

Endemic disease

Disease constantly present in a population

Chronic disease

Disease develops slowly

Sporadic disease

Disease that occurs occasionally in a population

Latent disease

Disease with a period of no symptoms when the causative agent is inactive

Emerging Infectious Diseases

Diseases that are new, increasing in incidence, or showing a potential to increase in the near future

The genus "Desulfovibrio" is place in what section according to Bergey?

Dissimilatory Sulfate or Sulfur-reducing Bacteria

What is the correct order of taxonomy from the most general to the most specific?

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Cellular immunity

Due to T cells T cells mature in the thymus

7.Which of the following is not a predisposing factor to disease? a. Inadequate nutrition. b. Fatigue. c. Age. d. Preexisting illness. e. All are predisposing factors.

E

10. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Malaria ‑ Vector b. Salmonellosis ‑ common vehicle c. Syphilis ‑ direct contact d. Influenza ‑ droplet infection e. All are correctly matched.

E

12. In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) Can't tell.

E

12. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Leukocidins ‑ destroy neutrophils. b. hemolysins ‑ lyse red blood cells. c. Hyaluronidase ‑ break down substance between cells. d. Kinase ‑ destroys fibrin clots. e. Coagulase ‑ destroys fibrin clots.

E

21. Type of immunity resulting from the transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection. a. Innate immunity b. Naturally acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity e. Artificially acquired passive immunity

E

42. Serology a. is a powerful tool for diagnosing infectious diseases. b. is the science of vaccine production. c. uses the presence of specific antibody in serum to indicate exposure to pathogenic microbes. d. can be used to identify bacteria isolated from patients with infectious diseases. e. all except b

E

45. Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? a. a sick person b. a healthy person c. a sick animal d. a hospital e. All are reservoirs.

E

46. The LD50 is a a. measure of pathogenicity b. Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population. c. Dose that will kill some of the test population. d. Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. e. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population.

E

6. Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polyenes B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin

E

7. Which antibody class can fix complement? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgF e. IgM

E

Which of the following is mismatched? a. Acute ‑ a short lasting primary infection b. Inapparent ‑ infection characteristic of a carrier state c. Chronic ‑ a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months. d. Primary infection ‑ an initial illness. e. Secondary infection ‑ a long ‑ lasting illness.

E

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Bacitracin B) Cephalosporin C) Monobactam D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin

E

Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins? A) Aldehydes B) Halogens C) Phenolics D) Bisphenols E) Alcohols

E) Alcohols

Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? A) Requires a long time to achieve sterilization B) Cannot be used with glassware C) Cannot kill endospores D) Cannot inactivate viruses E) Cannot be used with heat-labile materials

E) Cannot be used with heat-labile materials

Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Erythromycin B) Tetracycline C) Streptomycin D) Chloramphenicol E) Penicillin

E) Penicillin

Which of the following statements is false? A. Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. B. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C. Kinase destroys fibrin clots. D. Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.

E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.

Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness? A. Capsule B. Hyaluronidase C. Cell wall D. Ligands E. Exotoxins

E. Exotoxins

All of the following are true about M protein except A. It is heat- and acid-resistant. B. It is a protein. C. It is found on fimbriae. D. It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.

E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.

All of the following are gram-positive. Which does not belong with the others? Actinomyces Bacillus Corynebacterium Listeria Mycobacterium

Mycobacterium

Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses A. Cell death B. Increased cell growth C. Inclusion bodies form in the cytoplasm or nucleus D. Host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia E. None of the above

E. None of the above

A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A. All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence. B. Helps the bacterium attach. C. Resists phagocytosis. D. Destroys host tissues. E. None of the above.

E. None of the above.

Which of the following organisms causes the most severe disease? A. Shigella disenteria ID50-10 B. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 C. Salmonella enteriditis ID50-20 D. Parainfluenza virus ID50-200 E. Can't tell

E. can't tell

Which of the following substances can sterilize? A) Phenolics B) Chlorine C) Alcohol D) Soap E) Ethylene oxide

E. ethylene oxide

Which of the following is not a characteristic of spirochetes? Possess an axial filament Gram-negative Helical shape Easily observed with brightfield microscopy Difficult to culture in vitro

Easily observed with brightfield microscopy

The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella are: a) Milk and cheese b) Seafood c) Meat and dairy d) Eggs and Poultry

Eggs and Poultry

What technique is necessary to view viral size? DNA analysis Brightfield microscopy Electron Microscopy Gas Chromatography

Electron Microscopy

The release of endotoxins as bacteria are destroyed by phagocytes causes the phagocytes to release tumor necrosis factor (TNF) the life-threatening loss of blood pressure occuring due to the action of TNF is called __________.

Endotoxic shock

Which of the following is the usual cause of septic shock? a) Septicemia b) Lymphangitis c) Endotoxin d) Exotoxin

Endotoxin

Loss of water due to the accumulation of ions in the intestinal tract is the characteristic of _____ infection: a) Enterotoxigenic EC b) Helicobacter pylori c) Enterotohemorrhagic EC d) Salmonella typhi e) Shigella dysenteries

Enterotoxigenic EC

Influenzavirus is an example of this type of virus: Enveloped helical viruses Polyhedral viruses Enveloped polyhedral viruses Complex viruses

Enveloped helical viruses

Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA: GCATGGATCCCAATGC?

Enzyme Recognition BamHI G¯GATCC CCTAG↑G

Which enzyme does not make sticky ends?

Enzyme Recognition HaeIII GG¯CC CC↑GG

What does ELISA stand for?

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Plant pathogen that causes Fire blight of apples

Erwinia amylovora

produces enzymes that degrade plant cells

Erwinia caratovora

Which one of the following is NOT a skin disease cased by a virus? a) Smallpox b) Shingles c) Erysipelas d) Herpes e) Chickenpox

Erysipelas

Antibiotics may affect different sites (target sites) on bacteria. One of the most common sites is protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria. Which of the following antibiotics affect protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria? a) Quinolone b) Rifampin c) Erythromycin d) Novobiocin e) Penicillin

Erythromycin

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably a) Entamoeba coli b) Giardia lamblia c) Shigella d) Salmonella typhi e) Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably a) Entamoeba coli b) Salmonella typhi c) Shigella d) Giardia lamblia e) Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli

A fungi is what type of microorganism? Bacteria Prokaryote Eukaryote Spore

Eukaryote

all of the following are true about archaea except

Evidence suggests they evolved from eukaryotes

The product of S. aureus that causes scalded skin syndrome is: a) Leukocidins b) Exfoliative toxin c) Endotoxin d) Protein A e) Exotoxin

Exfoliative toxin

The symptoms of Cholera are due to the action of: a) Exotoxins b) Pili c) Exotoxins d) Flagella

Exotoxins

What are found primarily in the intestines of humans?

Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods (Enterobacteriales or Enterics)

What cell structure does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells?

Fimbriae

cephalosporin

First-generation: Narrow spectrum, gram-positive Second-generation: Extended spectrum includes gram-negative Third-generation: Includes pseudomonads; injected Fourth-generation: Oral

The plaque is typically transmitted via the bite of a) Fleas b) Lice c) Mites d) Ticks

Fleas

What technique is used to identify bacteria in a sample without culturing the bacteria? Fatty acid profiling Flow Cytometry Phage Typing Serology

Flow Cytometry

Prevalence

Fraction of a population having a specific disease at a given time

Incidence

Fraction of a population that contracts a disease during a specific time

antibody Fuction

Function in several ways Activation of complement: part of second line of defense Stimulation of inflammation: part of second line of defense Neutralization: neutralize toxin by binding to a critical portion of toxin. Opsonization: stimulate phagocytosis by binding to neutrophils and macrophages. Agglutination: Bind to two microbial cells causing aggregation and thus increasing the chance of detection. Killing by Oxidation: Catalyze the production of hydrogen peroxide and other potent oxidants to kill bacteria.

haustoria

Fungi that derive their nutrients from living plants and animals usually have modifiable hyphae called:

A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is a) Gangrene b) Hyperbaric treatment c) Burns d) Debridement e) An infected finger

Gangrene

What is typically the final step in genetic engineering? Plasmid is formed Vector is selected DNA is copied Genes or proteins are harvested

Genes or proteins are harvested

Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications: a) Are transmitted via water b) Are treated with antibiotics c) Have shorter incubation times d) Are accompanied by fever e) Are more severe

Have shorter incubation times

Emerging Infectious Diseases Contributing factors

Genetic recombination E. coli O157, avian influenza (H5N1) Evolution of new strains V. cholerae O139 Inappropriate use of antibiotics and pesticides Antibiotic-resistant strains Changes in weather patterns Hantavirus Modern transportation West Nile virus Ecological disaster, war, and expanding human settlement Coccidioidomycosis Animal control measures Lyme disease Public health failure Diphtheria

What is the science of heredity called?

Genetics

vamcomycin

Glycopeptide Narrow spectrum Important "last line" against antibiotic-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)

This sexually transmitted disease affects both male and female. Infection in males affects urethra and anal canal, but the infection is usually asymptomatic in females: a) Gonorrhea b) Herpes c) PID d) AIDS e) Syphilis

Gonorrhea

Which of these diseases cannot be prevented by toxoids? 1. botulism 2. tetanus 3. gram-negative septic shock 4. diphtheria

Gram negative septic shock

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat

Gram-negative bacterial infections

Which of the following lacks a cell wall: Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, or Mycobacterium?

Mycoplasma

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

Granular leukocytes destroy cells that don't express MHC I Kill virus-infected and tumor cells Attack parasites

Septicemia

Growth of bacteria in the blood

In DNA replication, what enzyme unwinds the DNA?

Gyrase

13. Cell most commonly infected by HIV

HELPER T CELL

Protease inhibitors are effective drugs against a) HIV b) Toxic shock syndrome c) Impetigo d) Herpes virus e) Staph infection

HIV

The members of this genus often inhabit the mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract, mouth, vagina, and intestinal tract. They are pathogenic. Salmonella Klebsiella Enterobacter Haemophilus

Haemophilus

This genera is in the family Pasteurellaceae and is an important pathogen in humans. It requires blood in growth media.

Haemophilus

The most common cause of meningitis in children is a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Neisseria meningitides c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis d) Streptococcus pneumoniae e) Haemophilus influenzae

Haemophilus influenzae

Which one of these is not an example of the parenteral route? 1. insect bite 2. cut 3. injection 4. hair follicle

Hair follicle

Which of the following lacks a cell wall? Borrelia Mycoplasma Mycobacterium Clostridium Nocardia

Mycoplasma

These resemble a long rod and they cause Ebola: Helical viruses Polyhedral viruses Enveloped viruses Complex viruses

Helical viruses

In DNA replication, what enzyme unzips the DNA?

Helicase

Which of the following causes gastric ulcer? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Escherichia coli c) Vibrio cholera d) Staphylococcus aureus e) Helicobacter pylori

Helicobacter pylori

Causes pneumonia, earaches

Hemophilus influenza

Which of the following causes an infection of the liver? a) Hepatitis A virus b) Vibrio c) Salmonella d) Escherichia e) Shigella

Hepatitis A virus

The etiologic agent of fever blisters a) Poxvirus b) Herpes zoster c) Parvovirus d) Herpes simplex

Herpes simplex

hUMAN receptor

Host Toll-like receptors (TLRs) attach to TLRs induce cytokines that regulate the intensity and duration of immune responses

Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the spread of disease in the body? 1. hyaluronidase 2. hemolysin 3. endotoxin production 4. siderophore production

Hyaluronidase

The dose of microbes required to produce a measurable infection in half of the animals tested is referred to by the abbreviated term __________.

ID- 50

Which of the following is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? If both ferment lactose If both are gram-positive If both are motile If both are aerobic All are equally important.

If both are gram-positive

Match the following choices to the statements in questions 27‑31. Choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD e. IgE 27. Antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears.

IgA

29. Antibodies that are found on mast cells and involved in allergic reactions

IgE

28. Antibodies that protect the fetus and newborn.

IgG

31. Most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

IgG

There are five classes of immunoglobulins

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and Ig E

30. The first antibodies synthesized, a very large molecule.

IgM

Herd immunity

Immunity in most of a population

Adaptive immunity

Immunity, resistance to a specific pathogen

34. An indirect version using anti‑human globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against T. pallidum.

Immunofluorescence

Which of the following skin infection is caused by both Streptococci and Staphylococci a) Carbuncles b) Folliculitis c) Impetigo d) Furuncles

Impetigo

Which of these statements is true regarding portals of exit? 1. In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit. 2. The urinary tract is the most common portal of exit. 3. The portal of exit for chicken pox, measles, and smallpox is the skin. 4. Polioviruses most often use the respiratory portal of exit.

In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit

Where does a virus multiply? In the host cell Outside the host cell before invading In the carrier Only in humans

In the host cell

Toxoid

Inactivated toxin used in a vaccine

Morbidity

Incidence of a specific notifiable disease

The differential white blood cell count test can signal signs of disease

Increased eosinophils can indicate allergies or parasitic worm infection Bacterial diseases often show increase in leukocytes and in neutrophils Viral infections show increase in lymphocytes

fever Advantages

Increases transferrins Increases IL-1 activity Produces Interferon

The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier

Inducing TNF

Bactericidal

Kill microbes directly

Fibrin clots can be dissolved by enzymes called _________.

Kinase

ID50

Infectious dose for 50% of the test population

Drugs that are bacteriostatic a) Kill bacteria b) Kill bacterial spores c) Inhibit bacterial growth d) Promote bacteria growth

Inhibit bacterial growth

Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs)

Inhibit folic acid synthesis Broad spectrum Bacteriostatic

Quinolones and fluoroquinolones

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis Nalidixic acid: Urinary infections Ciprofloxacin Inhibits DNA gyrase Urinary tract infections

Tetracyclines

Inhibitors of protein synthesis Broad spectrum Interferes with tRNA attachment Works against intracellular parasites Suppress normal intestinal microbiota and often cause superinfections. Not advised for children and pregnant women

Macrolides

Inhibitors of protein synthesis Ex Erythromycin(alternative to penicillin) Only Gram-positives Binds 50S; prevents translocation

Artificially acquired passive immunity

Injection of Ab

Artificially acquired active immunity

Injection of Ag (vaccination)

Polymixin B

Injury to the plasma membrane Prevents biosynthesis of fatty acids for the membrane Ex: Polymyxin B Topical Combined with bacitracin and neomycin in over-the-counter preparation gram negative bacteria including pseudomonas spp

Antimicrobial drugs

Interfere with the growth of microbes within a host

The skin and mucus membrane secrete a number of antimicrobial substances, which make the environment somewhat inhabitable for microorganisms. Which of the following is not included in the above list? a) Interferon b) Sebum c) Lysozyme d) Sweat

Interferon

Heat kills microorganisms by a) destruction of carbohydrates in the cell wall b) Irreversible coagulation of proteins c) Dissolving the capsule d) Denaturing nucleic acids

Irreversible coagulation of proteins

Ethylene oxide is gas that a) Is used to sterilize food products b) Is safe to use on human skin c) Is used to sterilize large items such as hospital bed and other heat and moist sensitive items d) Is effective against all microbes except bacterial endospores and viruses

Is used to sterilize large items such as hospital bed and other heat and moist sensitive items

Why is Treponema pallidum (cause of syphilis) an exeption to Koch's postulates? It has never caused disease It has not been cultured on artificial media It causes multiple symptoms and doesn't effect everyone Everyone catches it

It has not been cultured on artificial media

Which of the following is not true of a bacterium that is R+? R+ refers to the possession of a plasmid. R+ can be transferred to a recipient cell. It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. It is F+. None of the above

It is F+

All of following statements about puerperal sepsis are true except a) It is transmitted from mother to fetus b) It is complication of abortion or childbirth c) Health-care personnel cause it d) It begins as a focal infection e) It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques

It is transmitted from mother to fetus

Which of the following is in the correct order from the most general to the most specific? Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species Kingdom-class-order-family-phylum-genus-species Species-genus-family-order-class-phylum-kingdom Species-genus-phylum-family-order-class-kingdom Phylum-kingdom-class-order-genus-family-species

Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial agent? a) Kirby-Bauer Test b) None of these c) Stability Test d) Minimum inhibitory test e) Ames test

Kirby-Bauer Test

The members of this genus are commonly found in water and soil. They are often capable of fixing nitrogen. Salmonella Klebsiella Enterobacter Haemophilus

Klebsiella

Susceptibility

Lack of resistance to a disease

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of a) Mycobacterium b) Neisseria c) Lactobacillus d) Streptococcus e) Staphylococcus

Lactobacillus

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the a) Stomach b) Large intestine c) Small intestine d) Mouth

Large intestine

Herpes virus inhabits host's nerve cells but causes no damage to these cells. This is referred to: a) Latent infection b) Lysogenic infection c) Persistent infection d) Lytic infection e) Oncogenic infection

Latent infection

Which one of the following is not a disease of the upper respiratory tract? a) Legionellosis b) Epiglottitis c) Common cold d) Pharyngitis

Legionellosis

LD50

Lethal dose (of a toxin) for 50% of the test population

Which organism is a symbiotic combination of an alga and a fungus? Helminth Lichen Protozoa Bacteria generally Fungala

Lichen

How do we identify mutagens?

Look at the direct effect or perform animal testing

How do we identify mutants?

Look at the morphology, differential staining, and chemical testing

Host cells transformed by viral infection may ________.

Lose contact inhibition

Gas gangrene is the result of deep wound infections in anaerobic tissue by Clostridium perfringens. Soft tissues die from ischemia which could result in amputation of the limbs. Ischemia is a result of: a) Loss of blood supply to the soft tissues b) Releases of endotoxins by Clostridium c) Release of superantigens in the area d) Sporulation of Clostridium

Loss of blood supply to the soft tissues

Which of the following is not a viral disease of skin? a) Herpes b) Smallpox c) Rubella d) All of these ARE viral disease of skin e) Lyme disease

Lyme disease

Membrane-Disrupting Toxins

Lyse host's cells by Making protein channels in the plasma membrane Leukocidins Hemolysins Streptolysins Disrupting phospholipid bilayer

Lysogenic bacterial cells may express prophage DNA causing them to take on different characteristics in a process referred to as _______________.

Lysogenic conversion

Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to invasiveness? 1. endotoxin 2. hemolysin 3. M protein 4. coagulase

M protein

Fever and chill recurrence every 2-3 days due to lysis of erythrocytes is among the symptoms of a) Lyme disease b) Toxoplasmosis c) Hemorrhagic fever d) Malaria e) None of the above

Malaria

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus? a) Malaria b) Rabies c) AIDS d) Herpes

Malaria

Which of the following is a Class? Eukarya Proteobacteria Carnivore Mammalia

Mammalia

Vectors Transmit disease by 2 general methods

Mechanical transmission: Arthropod carries pathogen on feet Biological transmission: Pathogen reproduces in vector

aerobic, facultative anaerobes (obtain energy through fermentation)

Most fungi are _____, thought many yeasts are _______ ________

PORTAL OF ENTRY

Mucous membranes respiratory tract gastrointetinal tract genitourinary tract conjunctiva Skin Parenteral route * many pathogens have their preffered portal of entry to be able to cause disease

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

Mucous membranes of the respiratory tracts

What are agents in the environment that cause permanent changes in the DNA?

Mutagens

Which of the following is best to sterilize heat-labile solutions? a) Pasteurization b) Autoclave c) Membrane filtration d) Dry heat

Membrane filtration

The symptoms of protozoan diseases are usually due to ________.

Metabolic waste products

Aminoglycosides

Mode of action: inhibitors of protein synthesis Streptomycin, neomycin, gentamycin Useful against pseudomonads Broad spectrum Changes shape of 30S subunit Disadvantage: Auditory nerve damage and damage to kidney.

Name the five kingdoms

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia

IgE

Monomer 0.002% of serum Abs On mast cells, on basophils, and in blood Allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms Half-life = 2 days

IgD

Monomer 0.2% of serum Abs In blood, in lymph, and on B cells On B cells, initiate immune response Half-life = 3 days

IgG

Monomer 80% of serum Abs Fix complement In blood, lymph, and intestine Cross placenta Enhance phagocytosis; neutralize toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn Half-life = 23 days

This group of gram-positive classified bacteria lack a cell wall: Mycoplasmas Streptococcus Clostridium Streptomyces

Mycoplasmas

The preferred habitat for S. aureus is a) Genitals b) Hair follicles c) Nasal Chamber d) Throat

Nasal Chamber

25. A human's resistance to canine distemper.

Native immunity

24. Immunity resulting from recovery from an infection.

Naturally acquired active immunity

26. Newborn's immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta.

Naturally acquired passive immunity

Genera of organism that causes gonorrhea

Neisseria

What is the causal agent of gonorrhea?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

What are the four different chemical mutagens?

Nitrous acid, nucleoside analogs, ionizing radiation, and UV radiation

Subclinical disease

No noticeable signs or symptoms (inapparent infection)

Is there a tRNA that will get ACU?

No, therefore, UGA is a stop codon.

the process of inflammation

Nonspecific response to tissue damage resulting from various causes Characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain Two types Acute Chronic

Microbial antagonism/competitive exclusion

Normal microbiota compete with pathogens or alter the environment

Antiviral drug

Nucleoside and nucleotide analogs attachment uncoating

Mortality rate

Number of deaths from a disease in relation to the population in a given time

Morbidity rate

Number of people affected in relation to the total population in a given time period

Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the others? Nucleic acid hybridization Nucleic acid-base composition Amino acid sequencing Biochemical tests Numerical identification

Numerical identification

Secondary infection

Opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection

Effects of Complement Activation

Opsonization or immune adherence: Enhanced phagocytosis Membrane attack complex: Cytolysis Attract phagocytes Inflammation

Match the following choices to the questions 32‑35. Choices may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. Agglutination reaction b. Complement fixation c. ELISA (EIA) d. Immunofluorescence e. Precipitation reaction 32. Reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen, forming lattices.

Precipitation reaction

Toxemia

Presence of toxin in the host's blood

Bacteriostatic

Prevent microbes from growing

A needlestick is an example of what portal of entry

Parenteral

Infections acquired by bites, cuts, wounds, punctures, or surgery occur via the __________ route.

Parenteral

If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the ________.

Parenteral route

Hepatitis B virus transmitted by a finger-stick device is transmitted by which portal of entry?

Parentral

Although unusually resistant to many control factors, TB agent is easily killed by: a) Strong acid b) Strong alkali c) Disinfectants d) Pasteurization

Pasteurization

Pathogen receptor

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

Local infection

Pathogens are limited to a small area of the body

Which of the following is mismatched for the lytic cycle? Attachment - phage attaches by tail fibers to the host cell Penetration - production of phage DNA and proteins Maturation - assembly of phage particles Release - cell wall breaks

Penetration - production of phage DNA and proteins

IgM

Pentamer 5-10% of serum Abs Fix complement In blood, in lymph, and on B cells Agglutinates microbes; first Ab produced in response to infection Half-life = 5 days

The chronic inflammatory condition involving the gum and tissues around the teeth is called: a) Periodontal disease b) Dental plaque c) Dental caries d) Abscess

Periodontal disease

Second line of defense

Phagocytes such as neutrophils,eosinophils,dentritic cell and macrophages inflammation fever antimicrobial subtances

nitrogen fixation on legumes

Rhizobium (?)

Which of the following is a parasitic protozoa? Salmonella Shigella Rhizopoda Fungi

Rhizopoda

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on a) Ribosome b) DNA c) Cell wall d) Cell membrane

Ribosome

A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has a) Influenza b) Tuberculosis c) Mycoplasmal pneumonia d) Pneumococcal pneumonia e) Common cold

Pneumococcal pneumonia

Which of the following is an antifungal drug? a) Stretomycin b) Penicillin c) Acyclovir d) Amantidine e) Polyenes

Polyenes

Antifungal drug

Polyenes Amphotericin B Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

Which of the following is an antifungal drug? a) Polyens b) Penicillin c) Amantidine d) Acyclovir e) Streptomycin

Polyens

Many plant and animal viruses are this, including the adenovirus: Helical viruses Polyhedral viruses Enveloped viruses Complex viruses

Polyhedral viruses

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polymyxin B) Penicillin C) Bacitracin D) Polyenes E) Cephalosporin

Polymyxin

Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on the target cell. If the gangliosides were removed

Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells

T Cells and Cellular Immunity

Produced in the red bone marrow and mature under the influence of the thymus Circulate in the lymph and blood and migrate to the lymph nodes, spleen, and Peyer's patches Part of the cell-mediated immune response because they act directly against various antigens Endogenous invaders Many of the body's cells that harbor intracellular pathogens Abnormal body cells such as cancer cells that produce abnormal cell surface proteins

Diphtheria toxin works on the: a) Fatty acid metabolism b) Mitochondria energy production c) Protein synthesis process d) DNA replication activity

Protein synthesis process

What do you call the science of determining what all of the proteins are expressed in a cell? Genomics Southern blotting Proteomics Orthocloning

Proteomics

Bacteria that spoil food in the refrigerator are most likely a) Psychotrophs b) Psychrophiles c) Thermophiles d) Mesophiles

Psychrophiles

Make the body more susceptible to disease

Short urethra in females Inherited traits, such as the sickle cell gene Climate and weather Fatigue Age Lifestyle Chemotherapy

What are the enzmes used to cut a molecule of DNA everywhere a specific base sequence occurs? These are used in DNA fingerprinting.

RFLPs-Restriction fragment length polymorphisms

In DNA replication, what enzyme lays down the RNA primer?

RNA polymerase

What enzyme synthesizes mRNA?

RNA polymerase

What is the most important enzyme in protein synthesis?

RNA polymerase

This virus travels up the nervous system to penetrate the central nervous system a) Smallpox b) Herpes virus c) Rabies virus d) Polio virus

Rabies virus

Which of these organisms does not produce a neurotoxin? 1. Clostridium botulinum bacteria 2. Clostridium tetani bacterium 3. rabies virus 4. Alexandrium algae

Rabies virus

The best definition of sterilization is a) Removal of unwanted microorganisms b) Removal of Clostridium botulinum endospores c) Removal of all microorganisms d) Elimination of bacteria

Removal of all microorganisms

Contact Direct

Requires close association between infected and susceptible host

Naturally acquired active immunity

Resulting from infection

HIV is an example of which of the following: Togaviridae Rhabdoviridae Retroviridae Reoviriadae

Retroviridae

Which microbe is most frequently transmitted through contaminated poultry? a) Salmonella b) Vibrio c) Staphylococcus d) Streptococcus

Salmonella

Which microscope is used to view a virus in detail (typically)? Compound Fluorescent Simple Scanning electron microscope Dissecting or stereoscope

Scanning electron microscope

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash and a whitish coating on the tongue is: a) Smallpox b) Measles c) Strep throat d) Chickenpox e) Scarlet fever

Scarlet fever

mode of development

Scientists categorize the asexual spores of molds according to their :

Gamma (y) globulin

Serum fraction containing Ab

Globulins

Serum proteins

Antimicrobial subtances the complement system

Set of serum proteins designated numerically according to the order of their discovery Serum proteins activated in a cascade Complement activation may occur in three pathways Activated by Antigen-antibody reaction (Classical pathway) Proteins C3, B, D, P and a pathogen (Alternate pathway) Activated by lectins, produced by liver(Lectin pathway)

Of Escherichia, Salmonella, and Shigella, which genera is best known for dysentery?

Shigella

Based on these LD50 values, which microbe is the most virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal of entry. 1. Cryptosporidium-50 cells 2. Shigella-10 cells 3. E. coli O157-1000 cells 4. Vibrio cholerae-108 cells

Shigella 10 cells

Indirect

Spread by fomites

Which of the following is not an enteric? Salmonella Shigella Escherichia Enterobacter Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus

T-independent antigens

Stimulate the B cell to make Abs

The bacteria responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections are ________. Streptococcus Staphylococcus Salmonella Pseudomonas Neisseria

Streptococcus

This Genus is probably responsible for more illnesses and causes a greater variety of diseases than any other. Ex: scarlet fever

Streptococcus

The cause of strep throat is a) Streptococcus pyogenes-alpha-hemolytic, group B b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Streptococcus pyogenes-beta-hemolytic, group A d) Streptococcus pneumonia

Streptococcus pyogenes-beta-hemolytic, group A

Which part of the world has the highest incidence of AIDS? a) Sub-Saharan Africa b) North and Central America c) Southeast Asia d) South America e) North Africa and Middle East

Sub-Saharan Africa

Toxin

Substance that contributes to pathogenicity

Toxins that stimulate proliferation of T cells non-specifically and provoke intense immune responses are called _________.

Superantigens

Subacute disease

Symptoms between acute and chronic

Acute disease

Symptoms develop rapidly

This disease is caused by Treponema pallidum, and starts with a lesion called chancre on genitals. It goes through three stages if not treated. On secondary stage the disease becomes systemic. Name this disease. a) Genital wart b) Syphilis c) Gonorrhea d) Rabies

Syphilis

This disease manifest itself in three stages a) Syphilis b) Cholera c) Trachoma d) Gonorrhea

Syphilis

Which of the following manifests itself in three stages? a) Trachoma b) AIDS c) Gonorrhea d) Syphilis

Syphilis

Focal infection

Systemic infection that began as a local infection

Classes of T cells

T helper cells (TH) T cytotoxic cells (TC)

fever Disadvantages

Tachycardia Acidosis Dehydration 44-46°C fatal

Which of the following is a flat worm? Taenia saginata Necator americanus Anisakines Enterobius vermicularis

Taenia saginata

Antibiotics may affect different sites (target sites) on bacteria. One of the most common sites is protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria. Which of the following antibiotics affect protein synthesis mechanism of bacteria a) Penicillin b) Rifampin c) Tetracycline d) Quinolone e) Novobiocin

Tetracycline

Pathogenicity

The ability to cause disease

Hepatitis A spreads via: a) blood transfusion b) respiratory route c) body fluids d) droplets e) the fecal-oral route

The fecal-oral route

sexual

The fourth subgroup of Fungi (deuteromycetes) was a repository fungi for which no ________ stage is known

Antiserum

The generic term for serum because it contains Ab

Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by

The limulus amoebocyte lysate test

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever a) Chemotherapy is highly effective b) The classic symptom is diarrhea c) The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder d) The microorganisms become invasive e) The symptoms are due to an exotoxin

The microorganism become invasive

What does the second Koch Postulate state? The same pathogen must be present in every case The pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased animal and grown in pure culture The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original organism

The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased animal and grown in pure culture

The presence of endotoxins in a sterile fluid indicates ________. 1. gram-positive bacteria are growing 2. gram-negative bacteria are growing 3. the fluid is not sterile 4. the presence of gram-negative cell walls

The presence of gram-negative cell walls

Symptoms of helminthic diseases are usually due to ________.

The presence of the parasite

What is the size of the largest bacterium discovered to date (2004)? The size of a period at the end of a sentence The size of a dime The size of a penny The size of a pin head

The size of period at the end of a sentence

Pathology

The study of a disease. it deals with etiology,pathogenesis and effect of disease on body

Serology

The study of reactions between antibodies and antigens

Epidemiology

The study of where and when diseases occur

molds

The thalli of _____ are large and composed of long, branched, tubular filaments called hyphae

yeast

The thalli of _____ are small, globular, and composed of single cell

Fructicose - erect or hanging cylinders Crustose- lichens grow appressed to their substrates and may extend into the substrate for several millimeters Folliose- leaflike

The three basic shapes of Lichens are:

Organism A has 70% G+C. Are the two organisms related, unrelated, or make entirely different enzymes?

The two organisms are unrelated (?)

thallus

The vegetative body of a fungus is called its:

What does UV radiation do?

forms a thymine dimer and disrupts the normal base pairing

A vaccine for common cold is not feasible because: a) One cannot grow the virus in sufficient amount b) The virus mutate more often than other viruses c) The cause is unknown d) There are many types of rhinovirus

There are many types of rhinovirus

All of the following characteristics apply to the chlamydiae except: a) They are difficult to culture in laboratory b) Some cause eye infection c) Using antibiotics can eliminate them d) They are among the least commonly transmitted STDs e) Some cause pelvic inflammatory disease

They are among the least commonly transmitted STDs

Filamentous fungi can reproduce asexually by

fragmentation of their hyphae / they can form sexual and asexual spores

Why are the use of gram staining and acid fast staining used in a clinical setting? They are expensive They are slow They are quick and provide a good starting point for testing and information They conclusively identify your organism

They are quick and provide a good starting point for testing and information

all of the following are true about the members of kingdom animalia except

They can photosynthesize

Which of the following is not TRUE of the Clostridium genus? a) They produce neurotoxins b) they have endotoxin or LPS c) They produce endospores d) they are obligate anaerobes e) All are TRUE statements

They have endotoxin or LPS

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding polyenes? a) Polyenes are antifungal drugs b) They inhibit protein synthesis mechanism c) They block the biosynthesis of ergosterol d) They inhibit cell membrane synthesis

They inhibit protein synthesis mechanism

Which of the following is not TRUE of Clostridium genus? a) They are gram-positive bacteria capable of producing spores (endospores) b) All are TRUE statements c) they produce neurotoxins d) They can cause food poisoning e) They produce endotoxin or LPS

They produce endotoxin or LPS

all of the following are true about the members of the kingdom plantae except

They use organic carbon sources

What kind of mutation occurs when a base is added or removed?

frameshift mutation

_____ are toxins modified to retain their ability to induce antibody formation but lose their toxicity.

Toxoids

Adenine always pairs with what nitrogenous base in DNA.

Thymine

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'? Adenine Thymine Cytosine Guanine Uracil

Thymine

Why did Koch take a sample of blood from a diseased animal and inject it into a healthy one many times? To be mean To show precision To show reproducibility To prove that animals can be diseased

To show reproducibility

bacitracin

Topical application Against gram-positives

Sepsis

Toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection

When DNA becomes mRNA what has happened? An organism has died Translation Transcription Ligation

Transcription

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal ________

Transferrin

others anticrobial substances

Transferrins Bind serum iron Antimicrobial peptides Lyse bacterial cells

Droplet

Transmission via airborne droplets

Naturally acquired passive immunity

Transplacental or via colostrum

Which of the following is not gram-positive? Treponema Corynebacterium Bacillus Staphylococcus Mycobacterium

Treponema

causes syphilis (Genus)

Treponema

How is motility achieved by the pathogen that causes syphilis?

Treponema pallidum is a spirochite that has rapid rotation about the axis (corkscrew motility through axial filament)

Accumulations of viral proteins and nucleic acids inside infected host cells are called inclusion bodies. T/F

True

Adhesin molecules can vary in structure among strains of a given bacterial species. T/F

True

Although some pathogens cause disease after entering the body via food and water consumption, many such microbes are killed by chemicals involved in the digestive process. T/F

True

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to sterility a) True b) False

True

Interferon mode of action

increase resistance of cells to viral infection, slow the spread of disease

Which disease is NOT included in the DTP vaccine regiment? a) Diphtheria b) Whooping cough c) Pertussis d) Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis

If the DNA code is ATCGCCGGA, what will be the mRNA code?

UAGCGGCCU

Which one of the following kills cells by damaging DNA? a) Pasteurization b) Deep-freezing c) Alcohol d) Ultraviolet light

Ultraviolet light

Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? a) Use with glassware b) Ability to kill endospores c) Use with heat-labile materials d) Length of time e) Ability to inactivate viruses

Use with heat-labile materials

Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? a) Giardia b) Vibrio c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Trichinella e) Clostridium perfringens

Vibrio

Consuming raw oyster could probably transmit a) Salmonella typhi b) Vibrio cholera c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Staphylococcus aureus e) Escherichia coli

Vibrio cholera

Human pathogen that causes cholera

Vibrio cholerae

The etiologic agent of chickenpox is a: a) Virus b) Fungus c) Bacterium d) Prion e) Protozoa

Virus

Name the scientists (last names only) that discovered the structure of DNA.

Watson & Crick

Chitin (strong, flexible, nitrogenous polysaccharide)

What is the cell wall of the fungi formed from?

Fungi Lack chlorophyll and do not perform photosynthesis

What is the main difference between fungi and plants?

mycology

What is the study of fungi called?

penicillin and cephalosporin

What kind of antibiotics to fungi form?

salt, acid, and sugar (inhibits bacteria)

What kind of environments do fungi tolerate?

digestive systems of many herbivores

Where are the Anaerobic fungi found?

Which of the following diseases is not spread by droplet infection? a. Botulism b. Tuberculosis c. Measles d. Common Cold e. Diphtheria

a

they decompose dead organisms and recycle nutrients

Why are fungi beneficial microorganisms?

They cause mycoses (fungal diseases of plants, animals and humans) , 30%

Why aren't all Fungi beneficial? What percentage aren't? What is the infection called?

Pandemic disease

Worldwide epidemic

Cause of plague, black death

Yersinia

Human pathogen that caused the plague

Yersinia pestis

sporangiospore

_____ form inside a sac sporangium, which is often borne on a spore-bearing stalk.

Filamentous fungi

_______ _________ reproduce asexually by producing lightweight spores, which enable the fungi to disperse vast distances on the wind

Conidiospores (aka conidia)

_______ are produced at the tips or sides of the hyphae, but not within a sac. Different kinds include: arthrocondidia and blastoconidia

Chlamydospores

__________ form with a thickened cell wall inside hyphae

A sexually transmitted disease is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission

a

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) Are changes felt by the patient. B) Are changes observed by the physician. C) Are specific for a particular disease. D) Always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of these.

a

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A) Botulism B) Tuberculosis C) Measles D) Common cold E) Diphtheria

a

You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to nitrate ion. This bacterium is ________. Gram-negative using anaerobic respiration a chemoautotroph a photoautotroph a photoheterotroph

a chemoautotroph

the ID50 is _______

a dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population

You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in ID is: a gram stain, lactose fermentation, or DNA fingerprint?

a gram stain

the cultivation of some animal viruses typically requires what

a live animal

what is a helminth

a multicellular eukaryotic animal

What is a small, circular DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosome?

a plasmid

A restriction fragment is ________. a gene a segment of DNA a segment of RNA None of the above

a segment of DNA

A gene is best defined as

a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product

A genus can best be defined as

a taxon comprised of one or more species and below family

A genus can best be defined as _________. a taxon composed of families a taxon comprised of one or more species and below family a taxon belonging to a species a taxon comprised of classes the most specific taxon

a taxon comprised of one or more species and below family

disease

abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally. It is what comes after an infection

Which of the following is the outstanding characteristic of the kingdom fungi

absorption of dissolved matter

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by ________. mutation conjugation transduction transformation All of the above

all of the above

Which of the viral families contain or can replicate oncogenes? Adenovirus Herpesvirus Papovavirus None of the above All of the above

all of the above

If a microbe is injected into a rabbit, what will the rabbit's body produce in response?

an antibody

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called ________. an inducible enzyme a repressible enzyme a restriction enzyme an operator a promoter

an inducible enzyme

serological testing is based on the fact that

antibodies react speciafically with an antigen

Serological testing is based on the fact that...

antibodies react specifically with an antigen.

Humans use __________ to select desirable breeds of animals or strains of plants to cultivate. replica plating mutation artificial selection natural selection All of the above

artificial selection

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

as naked DNA in solution

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell ________. by a bacteriophage as naked DNA in solution by cell-to-cell contact by crossing over by sexual reproduction

as naked DNA in solution

8. A nosocomial infection is A) Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) Acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) Always caused by medical personnel. D) Only a result of surgery. E) Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

b

Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission.

b

The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955indicates A) An endemic level. B) An epidemic level. C) A sporadic infection. D) A communicable disease. E) A pandemic

b

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) Ecology. B) Epidemiology. C) Communicable disease. D) Morbidity and mortality. E) Public health.

b

Which of these infections can cause septicemia? A) Bacteremia B) Focal infection C) Local infection D) Septicemia E) Systemic infection

b

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleaus

bacteria

phage typing is based on the fact that

bacterial viruses attack specific cells

Phage typing is based on the fact that...

bacterial viruses attack specific cells.

Name of virus that attacks bacteria

bacteriophage

What kind of mutation changes only one base pair?

base substitution

The scum that builds up on shower doors, the formation of dental plaque on teeth, and the algae growth on the walls of swimming pools are all examples of _______.

biofilms

Mutualism

both organism benefit ex E. coli

Name two diseases caused by species in the genus Clostridium.

botulism & gas gangrene

penicillin Amoxicillin

broad spectrum,combined with inhibiyor of prnicillinase

12. Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission A) Doesn't require an arthropod. B) Involves fomites. C) Doesn't involve specific diseases. D) Requires direct contact. E) Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases

c

A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmissio

c

A needlestick is an example of A) Direct contact. B) Droplet transmission. C) Fomite. D) Vector. E) Vehicle transmission

c

During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous 3 years. In Situation 14.1, the etiologic agent of the disease is A) Sheep. B) Soil. C) Coxiella burnetii. D) Pneumonia. E) Wind.

c

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) Body odor. B) Fewer diseases. C) Increased susceptibility to disease. D) Normal microbiota returning immediately. E) No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

c

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) Communicable disease. B) Latent infection. C) Nosocomial infection. D) Sporadic disease. E) None of these.

c

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) Formation of biofilms B) Lapse in aseptic techniques C) Gram-negative cell walls D) Lack of handwashing E) Lack of insect control

c

Which of the following is used to classify organisms into the kingdom Protista? a) ability to photosynthesize b) unicellular, prokaryotic cells c) unicellular, eukaryotic cells

c) Unicellular, eukaryotic cells

Which of the following will NOT preserve foods? A) High pressure B) Ionizing radiation C) Microwaves D) Osmotic pressure E) Desiccation

c. microwaves

Complement fixation

causes inflammation, opsonization and cell lysis(cytolisis)

when considering the treatment of fungal infections, what is an important structural component of fungi to consider

cell membrane

fungi are

chemoheterotrophs, and some are parasitic

What are the cellular structures that physically carry heredity information and contain genes?

chromosomes

Opsonization

coating antigen with antibody enhances phagocytosis

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

collection of genes encoding glycoproteins expressed on plasma membrane of mammalian cells

Infection

colonization of the body by pathogens( a pathogen invading your body) An infection is not always caused by a disease

one participant benefits and the other neither benefits or is harmed

commensualism

Microbial Antagonism

competition between microbes

Complement system mode of action

components attract phagocytes, stimulates inflammation, and attack a pathogen's cytoplasmic membrane

transfering of DNA from one bacterium to another that requires cell to cell contact

conjugation

Saxitoxin is produced by ________.

dinoflagellates

antimicrobial peptides

disrupt cell membrane

polymyxin

disrupt cell membrane

during the lysogenic cycle viruses

do NOT cause lysis and death of the host cell right away. (avirulent or temperate phages)

9. Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A) Using syringes more than once B) Normal microbiota on the operating room staff C) Errors in aseptic technique D) Antibiotic resistance E) All of these

e

Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because A) Some microorganisms can't be cultured in laboratory media. B) Some microorganisms don't cause the same disease in laboratory animals. C) Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions. D) Some microorganisms can't be observed. E) Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms

e

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Malaria - vector B) Salmonellosis - vehicle transmission C) Syphilis - direct contact D) Influenza - droplet infection E) All of these are correctly matched

e

Which of the following treatments achieves sterilization? a) Pasteurization b) Autoclaving c) Incineration d) Dry oven a) B & D b) C& D c) A, B, C d) All of these e) B, C, D

e) B, C, D

found in the GI tract, vagina, and oral cavity

enterococcus

a fungiis what type of microorganism

eukaryote

Which one of these substances should not be produced at the same time as coagulase? 1. fibrinolysin 2. fimbriae 3. capsules 4. hemolysin

fibrinolysin

What was the vector for Yersinia pestis (the pathogen that caused the plague)?

fleas

Yeasts belong to the Kingdom ________. Animalia Plantae Protista Fungi Bacteria

fungi

yeasts belong to the kingdom

fungi

dimorphic

fungi that produce two types of thalli are said to be:

What are segments of DNA that code for functional products called?

genes

What do you typically call segments of DNA? Chromosome Genome Genes Fragments

genes

what do you typically call segments of DNA

genes

What is a common method used by bacteria to exchange genetic material?

genetic recombination

a clone is

genetically identical cells derived form a single cell

in the scientific name enerobacter aerogenes enterobacter is

genus

Endotoxins

gram negative outer membrane Lipid a fever its not neutralized by antitoxin ld50 latge Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram negatives Lipid A is the endotoxin. Cause chills, fever, weakness, generalized aches, shock. Shock: Life threatening decrease in blood pressure. Dissimilated intravascular coagulation(DIC) Fever(pyrogenic response)

Is Streptococcus gram positive or gram negative?

gram positive

Boiling is not reliable for sterilization because a) heat resistant endospores are unaffected b) viruses are more sensitive to dry heat that boiling c) water boils at a higher temperature at lower altitudes d) boiling does not kill Gram negative bacteria

heat resistant endospores are unaffected

__________ are bacterial enzymes that lyse erythrocytes.

hemolysins

absorption

how do fungi acquire nutrients?

What kind of bonds hold the DNA molecule together?

hydrogen bond

filaments of fleshy fungi/mold are called

hyphae

septate, aseptate

hyphae are either _____ (divided into cells by crosswalls) or _______ (not divided by septa)

which of the following is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related

if both are gram positive

Globular proteins called

immunoglobulins

where does a virus multiply

in a host cell

quinolones

inhibit DNA synthesis

antibiotics

inhibit enzymes that catalyze synthesis of important cellular metabolites

Vamcomycin mode of action

inhibitor of cell wal synthesis

Cephalosporin mode of action

inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

bacitracin mode of action

inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

penicillin mode of action

inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

Rifamycin

inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis Inhibits mRNA synthesis Antituberculosis Penetrate tissues and reach therapeutic levels Iin cerebrospinal fluids and abscesses.

Chloramphenicol mode of action

inhibitors of protein synthesis Broad spectrum Binds 50S subunit; inhibits peptide bond formation Disadvantage: Suppression of bone marrow activity

penicillin

inhibits peptidogylcan synthesis

An example of gene therapy is ________. insertion of the insulin gene in E. coli. insertion of the insulin gene in a mammalian cell culture insertion of the insulin gene in a diabetic person's pancreas cells injection of insulin into a diabetic person None of the above

insertion of the insulin gene in a diabetic person's pancreas cells

First line of defense

intact skin mucous membrane and their secretion Normal microbiota

erthromycin

interferes with protein translation by 70s ribosome

Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces ________. makes antibiotics produces conidia forms filaments is aerobic None of the above

is aerobic

Antibody titer

is the amount of Ab in serum

Pasteurization a) is a process which uses intense cold to kill microorganisms b) is the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level c) is a process which uses short burst of radiation to kill microorganisms in food d) is the use of heat to sterilize food products

is the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level

The value of cDNA in genetic engineering is that ________. it lacks exons it lacks introns it's really RNA None of the above

it lacks introns

Which of the following is the correct order from the most general to the most specific

kingdom phylum class order family genus species

Ehrlich's work

led to the identification of antibodies in serum

combination of cyanobacteria (green algae) and fungus

lichens

Probiotics:

live microbes applied to or ingested into the body, intended to exert a beneficial effect ex lactos bacillus

during this cycle, the virus multiplies in the host cell and during release of virons, the host cell breaks open and dies

lytic cycle

What delivers the amino acid to the ribosome?

mRNA

What product of transcription serves as the code for synthesizing new proteins through the process of translation

mRNA

What product of transcription serves as the code for synthesizing new proteins through the process of translation? A new strand of DNA rRNA tRNA mRNA None of the above

mRNA

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is ________. DNA ® mRNA mRNA ® cDNA mRNA ® protein DNA ® DNA None

mRNA ® cDNA

phagocytes mode of action

macrophages,neutrophils, and eosinophils ingest and destroy pathogens

transient microbiota

may be present for days, weeks, or months (visitor they come and go)

Name the three groups of the Archaeobacteria.

methanogens, extreme halophiles, thermoacidophiles

fever mode of action

mobilizes defenses,accelerates repairs,inhibits pathogens

Antimycobacterial antibiotics

moed of action inhibitor of cell wall synthesis Isoniazid (INH) Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis Ethambutol Inhibits incorporation of mycolic acid

Fungi

molds, mushrooms, and yeast are all part of this kingdom:

Exotosins

mostly gram positive by products of growing cell protein no fever neutralized by antitoxin LD50 small Based on structure and function there are three types of exotoxins 1. A-B toxins 2. Membrane disrupting toxins 3. superantigens

pathogens get into a host in a variety of ways called portals of entry, these include

mucous membranes, respiratory tract, eyes, GI tract, genitourinary tract and skin, or sometimes the hair follicles and ducts of sweat glands

molds are

multicellular

What is the study of Fungi called? Bacteriology Mycology Fungalogy Fungal biology

mycology

in transformation, genes are transferred from one cell to another as

naked DNA in a solution

39. Antibodies blocking the cytopathic effect of viruses in cell cultures; can be used to identify viruses.

neutralization

Subunit vaccines can be made by genetic engineering of yeast cells. A side effect of this kind of vaccination might be ________. the disease a yeast infection due to extraneous material that the vaccine doesn't provide immunity None of the above

none of the above

Portal of exit

port of entry is the same as portalof exit Respiratory tract Coughing and sneezing Gastrointestinal tract Feces and saliva Genitourinary tract Urine and vaginal secretions Skin Blood Biting arthropods and needles or syringes

What is the term that means an infection commonly "caught" in a hospital environment?

nosocomial

Prions infections agents consist of protein and do not contain

nucleic acids

Pasteur

observed immunity in chickens injected with weakened pathogens

Normal Microbiota protect the host by

occupying niches that pathogens might occupy producing acids producing bacteriocins

Synergism

occurs when the effect of two drugs together is greater than the effect of either alone

Antagonism

occurs when the effect of two drugs together is less than the effect of either alone

parasitism

one organism benefits at the expense of the other

Commensalism

one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected

Use for questions 36‑39. Use once, more than once, or not at all. a. desensitization b. neutralization c. opsonization d. complementarity e. resistance 36. The coating of a microorganism with plasma proteins such as complement and antibodies; enhances phagocytosis.

opsonization

Microsporidia

organisms that must live within their hosts' cells. they spread from host to host as small resistant spores

Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that ________. the strands of DNA can be separated a chromosome is composed of complementary strands pairing between complementary bases occurs DNA is composed of genes None of the above

pairing between complementary bases occurs

Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that...

pairing between complementary bases occurs.

When one organism is benefited from a relationship and the other is harmed it is known as: Mutualism Symbiosis Parasitism Commensalism

parasitism

when one organism is benefited from a relationship and the other is harmed it is known as

parasitism

Normal microbiota

permanently colonize the host

multicellular fungi (MOLDS) are identified on:

physical appearance, colony characteristics and catabolism

What is the area of lysis called on a bacteria lawn? Clear zone Plaque Cavity Hot zone Mowed

plaque

what is the area of lysis called on a bacterial lawn

plaque

What is an example of a vector

plasmid

bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following

posses prokayotic cells

PAGE electrophoresis profiles provide direct information about...

protein composition (?)

gram-negative, chemoheterotrophic and the largest group of bacteria

proteobacteria

What is the term for looking at proteins and trying to figure out the "punctuation" of the DNA sequence?

proteonomics

unicellular chemoheterotrophic, found in soil and water

protozoa

Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales? Gram reaction Morphology Fermentation of lactose rRNA sequences All of the above

rRNA sequences

How are Protozoa classified? Based on the cell wall Based on the nucleus rRNA sequencing By their DNA

rRNA sequencing

Von Behring

received the Nobel Prize for development of antitoxin

What is rDNA?

recombinant DNA or genetic engineering = inserting genes into cells

Agglutination

reduces number of infectios units to be dealt with

Symbiosis

relationship between normal microbiota and the host

37. Your body's ability to ward off disease.

resistance

Some antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis. This class of antibiotics typically key on a) cell membrane b) peptidoglycan synthesis c) RNA d) cell wall e) ribosome

ribosome

Primary response occur

s after initial contact with antigen

The members of this genus are often pathogenic and inhabit the intestinal tract of many animals, especially cattle and poultry. Salmonella Klebsiella Enterobacter Haemophilus

salmonella

"+" and "-"

scientists designate fungal mating as:

Properties of vectors

self replication, small size, easily manipulated and self preservation

Term used to describe multiplication of bacteria in the blood.

septicemia

multiplication of bacteria in the blood

septicemia

What is the most common method of viral idenfication? Serological Plating (differential media) Nutrient broths Biochemical tests Plating (selective media)

serological

what is the most common method of viral identification

serological testing

Which one of these bacterial proteins can take iron from human lactoferrin? 1. protease 2. siderophore 3. hyaluronidase 4. kinase

siderophore

Barriers and assosiated chemicals mode of action

skin and mucous membranes prevent the entrance of pathogens, chemicals(eg sweat acid, lysozyme,mucus) enhance the protection

used to probe DNA

southern blot

used to locate a specific gene within an entire genome

southern blotting

These kinds of mutations occur as a result of normal cellular operations or interactions with the environment.

spontaneous mutations

T and B cells develop from

stem cells in red bone marrow

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the ________. end-product must not be in excess substrate must bind to the enzyme substrate must bind to the repressor repressor must bind to the operator repressor must not be synthesized

substrate must bind to the repressor

Name the science of classification

taxonomy

What is it when you can change the sequence but still get the same amino acid?

the Wobble effect

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by ________. the allosteric transition the substrate binding to the repressor the corepressor binding to the operator the corepressor-repressor binding to the operator the end-product binding to the promoter

the corepressor-repressor binding to the operator

Why is Thermophilic bacterium important to the PCR?

the enzyme DNA polymerase taken from the Thermophilic bacterium can survive the heating phase without being destroyed during the PCR procedure.

E. coli can make insulin because ________. it needs to regulate its cell-glucose level it's an ancient gene that now has no function the insulin gene was inserted into it it picked up the insulin gene from another cell No reason; it doesn't make insulin.

the insulin gene was inserted into it

Deuteromycetes

the other three divisions of fungi were based on how they produce sexually this Fungi's type of sexual spore is unknown Most of these are either terrestrial saprobes, pathogens of plants, or pathogen of other fungi. Several genera are pathogenic to humans

The greatest hindrance to germicidal activity of a chemical agent is a) the personnel performing the work b) the presence of organic matter c) the quality of the container d) the temperature

the presence of organic matter

1. haploid (n) cells from a _ thallus and a - thallus fuse to form a dikaryon, a cell containing both + and - nuclei. (n+n) 2. after a period of time (hrs--> years and can be centuries), a pair of nuclei within a dikaryon fuse to form one diploid (2n) nucleus 3. Meiosis of the diploid nucleus restores the haploid state 4. the haploid nuclei are partitioned into + and - spores, which reestablish +and - thalli

the process of sexual reproduction in fungi has four basic steps:

sprorangiophore

the spore bearing stalk is called: (which are at either tups or sides of hyphae)

mycelium

the thallus of a mold is composed og hyphae intertwined to form a tangled mass called:

organism a has 70% g and c and organism b has 40% G+C which of the following can be concluded frm these data

the two organisms are unrelated

Zygomycota, Ascomycota, and Basidiomycota

there are three subgroups that scientists have classified fungi under: (based on the type of sexual spore produced)

why are the use of gram staining and acid fast staining used in a clinical setting?

they are quick and provide a good starting point

All of the following are true about the members of the Kingdom Animalia except ________. they are multicellular they have eukaryotic cells they can photosynthesize they use organic carbon sources they use organic energy sources

they can photosynthesize

All of the following are true about the members of the Kingdom Plantae except ________. they are multicellular they have eukaryotic cells they can photosynthesize they use organic carbon sources they use inorganic energy sources

they use organic carbon sources

What is the vector for the pathogen Borrelia burgdorferi (causes Lyme disease)?

ticks

What is the purpose of the Ames test? To test for AIDS To screen mutagens suspected of causing cancer in humans To diagnose cancer To see if DNA has been destroyed

to screen mutagens suspected of causing cancer in humans

What is the name of the process from DNA to the ribosome called?

transcription

when DNA becomes mRNA what has happened

transcription

DNA is transferred using a phage

transduction

What is the transfer of DNA from one cell to another by a bacteriophage called?

transduction

What is the process where genes are transferred from one bacterium to another as "naked" DNA in solution or the changing of a normal cell to a cancerous cell?

transformation

when mRNA is decoded to build a functional protein

translation

What is a sequence of DNA that can move from one site to another?

transposon

yeasts are

unicellular

You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacterium is ________. Gram-negative using anaerobic respiration a chemoautotroph a photoautotroph a photoheterotroph

using anaerobic respiration

The number of antigen-binding sites determines

valence Each antibody has at least two binding sites (bivalent)

There are both chemoheterotrophic, but unlike protozoa they have a cell wall (composed of chitin)

what is the similarity and difference between Fungi and Protzoa?

sperical or oval in shape and undergo bianarry fusion and or reproduce by budding

yeasts

Does Rickettsias rickettsia (the pathogen that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever) require a vector?

yes, obligate parasite; ticks or insects


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