CompTIA Project+ Wrong Answers

You're program manager for your organization and are planning a program. One of the plans you need to create will define how you'll transfer program benefits to your organization's operations. Which program management plan represents this process? A Program transition plan B Benefits transfer plan C Program closure plan D Operational transfer plan

Answer option A is correct. A program transition plan defines how your program's benefits are moved from program control to organizational control. Benefits can be moved from the program to operations throughout the program, not just at program closure.

This document describes the procedures for preparing a WBS (work breakdown structure), how changes to scope will be addressed, how deliverables will be verified, and other elements. A Scope management plan B Project charter C Scope statement D Request for proposal

Answer option A is correct. A scope management plan describes procedures for preparing a scope statement and WBS, a definition of how deliverables will be verified, and a description of the process for controlling changes.

This procedure performed in the administrative closure process assures that you can produce sign-offs and other project documents should the need arise, and it provides a reference for future projects. A Archiving project documents B Capturing historical information C Writing the project close report D Documenting lessons learned

Answer option A is correct. Archiving project documents assures that you can produce sign-offs and other project documents should the need arise, and it provides a reference for future projects.

Your project has completed a project scope and its stakeholders have signed off on project deliverables. Frances, another project manager in your organization, wants to know when you and your project team will help her team deliver the software solution your project created for users in the organization. What should you tell Frances? A Complete the solution implementation on her own, as your project scope has been completed. B Allow her to use your project team, as your project is complete and your resources are available. C Complete a change request in order for your project to assume delivery of the software solution to users. D Create a project charter for the software solution delivery because your project is completed.

Answer option A is correct. As tough as this choice sounds, it's the correct answer. Because your project team has completed a project scope and you've signed off on all project deliverables from the stakeholders, you can't do additional project work. In addition, Frances is project manager of the solution delivery, not you or your project team.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You need to determine who will need project information, when and how often it should be distributed, and its format. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish this objective? A Communication planning B Information distribution C Organizational planning D Human resources planning

Answer option A is correct. Communication planning defines the type of information, frequency, format, and method of distribution that a project stakeholder requires during a project.

A project closure report includes activities required to formally end the project. Which of the following is not included in a project closure report? A Earned value analysis B Summary of project schedule C Recap of the original goals and objectives of the project D Lessons learned and historical data

Answer option A is correct. Earned value analysis is included in cost estimation and represents the value of work completed up to a specified date, as compared to the budget.

Which of the following is a tool for helping a company compare its actual performance with its potential performance? A Gap analysis B What-if scenario analysis C Risk analysis D Baseline

Answer option A is correct. Gap analysis is a technique that helps a company compare its actual performance with its potential performance. It's a formal study of what a business is doing currently and what it would like to do in the future. Gap analysis provides a foundation for measuring investment of time, money, and human resources required to achieve a particular outcome. The goal of gap analysis is to identify any gap between optimized allocation and integration of inputs, and the current level of allocation; it helps provide the company with insight into areas that might be improved. The gap analysis process involves determining, documenting, and approving variance between business requirements and current capabilities.

This schedule network analysis technique allows for conditional loops. A Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) B Arrow diagramming method (ADM) C Precedence diagramming method (PDM) D Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)

Answer option A is correct. Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) is rarely used in practice but allows for conditional loops in a project schedule.

Organizational planning happens during the human resource planning process. Each of the following is an environmental factor you should take into consideration when performing organizational planning except for which one? A Labor union agreements B Personnel policies C Location and logistics D Interpersonal factors

Answer option A is correct. Labor union agreements are a constraint you should consider when planning for human resources. Other environmental factors applicable to human resource planning are organizational and technical.

You ask your team members for a quantitative task duration estimate. What technique will they use to determine this? A Parametric estimating B Analogous estimating C Bottom-up estimating D Expert judgment

Answer option A is correct. Parametric estimates are quantitatively based estimates typically calculated by evaluating rate times quantity.

Your project is nine months into the executing process. While preparing to review your team members' performance, all of the following are appropriate except for which one? A Provide feedback about past inadequate performance behaviors for the first time at the next performance meeting. B Outline specific consequences for poor behavior that haven't been corrected since the last discussion with the team member on this topic. C Review performance expectations, and specify new expectations for the next performance. D Determine rewards for superior performance.

Answer option A is correct. Performance feedback, particularly when negative, is best given in a timely fashion. This project has been underway for nine months. Addressing a situation that occurred earlier in the project for the first time after some time has elapsed is not an effective way to help team members correct their behaviors.

You've been assigned manager of a new project that involves development of a new interface for your existing time management system. During your previous status meeting, your project's sponsor asked whether you'd need additional funds reserved for it or he could apply them to another project. Which of the following would probably give you this information? A Performance reports B Project cost baseline C Affinity diagram D Project network diagram

Answer option A is correct. Performance reports organize and summarize project performance information, including, but not limited to, variance analysis, forecast of completion (time and cost), current values of costs, and so on. This information should tell you whether you need additional funding for your project.

Which of the following is the core function and primary responsibility of project managers? A Integrating the project work and assuring the satisfaction of stakeholders B Assuring the project comes in on time and under budget C Managing project resources appropriately and communicating project status D Developing the project plan and obtaining approval from stakeholders

Answer option A is correct. Project integration is the core function of project managers, and assuring the satisfaction of the stakeholders is their primary responsibility.

A quality audit is the process of an audit team systematically inspecting product quality. During which of the following is a quality audit implemented? A Quality assurance B Quality planning C Quality checklist D Quality control

Answer option A is correct. Quality assurance is a prevention-driven process of systematically inspecting project activities to reduce error yet meet all project requirements.

Which of the following statements best defines quantitative risk analysis? A The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives B The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact C The review of risk events of high probability and highest impact on project objectives D The planning and quantification of risk responses by probability and impact of each risk event

Answer option A is correct. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It's performed on risk that has been prioritized through qualitative risk analysis.

Human resources, equipment, materials, supplies, and the quantity of each are planned for during this process. A Resource planning B Cost estimating C Procurement planning D Organizational planning

Answer option A is correct. Resource planning is where resources, including human, equipment, materials, supplies and the quantity of each are determined.

You're manager of an IT project that's currently in its monitoring and controlling phase. A user approaches you with a change request that you evaluate and find necessary, even though the change will result in a large impact to scope. What's your next step? A Determine whether there's an alternative solution that would have less impact on the scope, and discuss the trade-off with the stakeholder. B Discuss the change request with your team members, and document a plan to implement the change. C Meet with the project sponsor and stakeholders, and obtain sign-off for the change. D Evaluate the change request to see whether it can be postponed to a later project phase.

Answer option A is correct. The best alternative in cases in which there would be large impacts to scope is to determine whether there's a trade-off or alternative that would meet stakeholder needs while reducing impact to project scope.

During the planning process, you were asked to estimate project cost to create a project budget. Which of the following tools is best used for estimating project cost? A Historical document B Vendor estimate C Stakeholders estimate D Parametric estimate

Answer option A is correct. The best tool for project cost estimation is a historical document or data based on analogous estimation. A historical document provides a high-level cost estimate for an entire project, project phase, or deliverable, and thus comprises the project budget.

Which of the following activity sequencing techniques represents the statement below? "It graphically represents schedule activities as nodes and defines the sequence relationship between them." A Precedence diagram method (PDM) B Conditional diagram method (CDM) C Arrow diagram method (ADM) D Critical chain method (CCM)

Answer option A is correct. The precedence diagram method (PDM) is a technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to illustrate the sequence in which activities are to be performed.

In the closing process, which of the following is the purpose of formal project closure? A To provide lessons learned for future projects B To analyze project performance C To outline the responsibilities of each team member D To notify the requester of the change

Answer option A is correct. The purpose of formal project closure in the closing process is to provide lessons learned for future projects. Lessons-learned documentation is information one gathers and documents throughout a project. It can be used to benefit the current or future projects.

You're a project manager at uCertify, Inc. You and your team are working on your project's executing process group. There are several actions that occur during executing processes, including managing project quality, managing risks, preparing performance reports and information, and more. Which of the following actions does not start in earnest during this phase? A Approving corrective actions B Managing costs within the budget C Following the communications plan D Scheduling meetings

Answer option A is correct. The various actions that start in earnest during the executing process group are as follows: -Scheduling meetings -Managing costs within the budget -Following a communications plan -Managing scope Corrective actions are approved during the monitoring and controlling phase but are implemented in the executing process phase. This exemplifies the iterative nature of project management, because actions might be approved in one process group but actually implemented in another.

You're project manager for your organization and are creating a time estimate for your project. Your project will require the installation of 1,500 doors on your organization's campus; the doors are fireproof and mandated by law. Roger, a project team member, estimates that each door will take 1.5 hours to install and test successfully; you've used that figure to estimate a total installation time for all doors at 2,250 hours of labor. What type of estimate have you created? A Parametric B Expert judgment C Bottom-up D Rough order of magnitude

Answer option A is correct. This is a parametric estimate because you're using the 1.5 hours parameter that Roger calculated for each door.

You've identified a new risk in your project that will likely cause serious delays to your project completion date. What should you first do with the newly identified risk? A Add the risk event to the project's risk register, along with any additional information you've discovered about the risk. B Ask the project team and subject matters experts to perform quantitative risk analysis to confirm the impact of the risk event. C Alert management to the delays the risk will likely cause the project schedule. D Ask for additional funds to be added to the project's contingency reserve to pay for labor to offset the delay the risk will cause.

Answer option A is correct. Whenever a new risk is identified, it's added to the risk register to document the risk and its characteristics. Risk register A risk register is a document that contains results of qualitative and quantitative risk analyses and risk response planning. Description, category, cause, probability of occurrence, impact on objectives, proposed responses, owner, and current status of all identified risks are entered in the risk register.

You managed the GHG project, which had a budget of $567,000 and was expected to last two years. You completed the project in 26 months. The actual project cost was $589,987. What was its earned value? A $567,000 B $.93 C -$22,987 D $589,987

Answer option A is correct. The earned value can be found by multiplying the percent complete times the budget at completion. Because this project is 100 percent complete, the earned value is $567,000.

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the SPI? A .95 B -3 C .98 D -2

Answer option A is correct. The formula for SPI is EV divided by PV (in this case, 81 / 85 = .95).

What type of a project network diagram displays project activities across a calendar, with breaks in activities to allow for weekends, holidays, and other time off from the project? A Critical path B Gantt chart C Control chart D Critical chain project network diagram

Answer option B is correct. A Gantt chart is a scheduling tool that illustrates project work across a calendar to show when project work is slated to take place, with allowances for time away from the project.

A project manager assigns team members from four different countries to work on the same project. While generating a resource management plan, which of the following should be considered first? A Understanding the international country code of all team members B Reviewing holiday and vacation schedules with all team members C Discussing the project timeline and milestones D Locating each employee on the map in the office

Answer option B is correct. A resource management plan identifies and documents project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships. While generating a resource management plan, a project manager should first review holiday and vacation schedules with all team members. This helps in planning a project scope document, according to which the team will work to accomplish a project completion date. In short, a resource management plan will determine project duration.

You're manager of the NJY Electrical Grid Project. Cathy, an electrical engineer on your project team, will complete all electrical design activities as part of her duties. Cathy's electrical engineering duties are best described by what project management term? A Accountability B Responsibility C Role D Assignments

Answer option B is correct. A responsibility is the work that a project team member is expected to perform during a project.

Which of the following should a project manager mandate to record changes in a project plan document made by stakeholders? A Change request B Version control C Quality metric D Issue log

Answer option B is correct. A version control system records changes into a set of files and helps recall some specific versions later; thus, it's mandated by a project manager to identify changes in a project plan document.

There are seven risk responses a project manager can use to address risk events. Which of the following is a risk response that's appropriate to positive or negative risk events, depending on the project? A Avoidance B Acceptance C Transference D Sharing

Answer option B is correct. Acceptance is a risk response appropriate to either positive or negative risk events. Acceptance response is a part of risk response planning. Acceptance response indicates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance is the only response to both threats and opportunities.

You're project manager for a moderately sized project that's well into its executing phase. What's the largest risk that you'll be monitoring for during this time? A The sponsor losing interest in the project B Scope creep C A vendor going out of business D A team member leaving the company

Answer option B is correct. By far, the largest risk to a project during its executing phase is "scope creep:" uncontrolled changes in project scope. Customers drop by the cubicle of one of your team's developers and drop a hint or two that they'd like to see this and that in the code. The obliging team member tries to meet the request. The problem with this scenario is that you've already gone through a requirements definition, everyone has signed off on a scope statement, and tasks are already assigned and well underway. Adding something extra now is out of scope, and if it isn't stopped, it has the potential to impact the schedule and budget.

Which of the following is not true of cost estimating? A Cost estimates are provided by team members. B Cost estimates make up the project budget. C Cost estimates have a quality factor built into them. D You should average all cost estimates.

Answer option B is correct. Cost estimates don't make up a project budget; they act as an input to the budget. They're provided by team members who will perform the cost-estimated task.

David is manager of the HGF project for his company. He, his project team, and several key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk analysis. Tracy, a project team member, doesn't understand why they need to complete a qualitative risk analysis. Which of the following is the best description of qualitative risk analysis? A It's a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for project risks. B It's a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for plan risk responses and lays a foundation for quantitative analysis. C Qualitative risk analysis helps segment project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and create fast and accurate risk responses. D All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.

Answer option B is correct. Of all the choices, this is the most accurate. Qualitative risk analysis is fast and cost-effective, and it helps establish risk priorities for responses. Qualitative analysis almost always precedes quantitative analysis. Qualitative risk analysis uses the likelihood and impact of identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. It establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or risk response plan by evaluating precedence of risks that could have an impact on project scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. Qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response.

You're manager of the NGHQ project for your organization. Your project team has 21 members dispersed throughout the US. You've created some ground rules regarding work performance, communications, and working hours for the project team to follow. Who's responsible for enforcing the ground rules once they're established? A The team leader for each locale B The project team C The project sponsor D The functional management

Answer option B is correct. Once ground rules are established, it's up to a project manager and project team to enforce them.

You're program manager of your organization and have created a program that will produce things for the organization throughout the program, not only at program closure. All of the following are elements you might transfer to the organization throughout the program's life cycle, except for which one? A Risk management outcomes B Program personnel C Outputs from team development D Benefits

Answer option B is correct. Program personnel generally remain on a program for its duration. Its transition plan defines what's transferred to the organization and when the transfer might happen.

You're preparing to complete quantitative risk analysis with your project team and several subject matter experts. You gather necessary inputs, including the project's cost management plan. Why is it necessary to include your project's cost management plan in preparation for quantitative risk analysis? A The project's cost management plan provides direction on how costs might be changed because of identified risks. B The project's cost management plan provides control that might help determine a structure for quantitative analysis of the budget. C The project's cost management plan can help you determine the allowable total project cost. D The project's cost management plan is not an input in the quantitative risk analysis process.

Answer option B is correct. The cost management plan is an input in the quantitative risk analysis process because of the cost management control it provides. The cost management plan sets how project costs are managed during its life cycle. It defines a format and principles by which project costs are measured, reported, and controlled. The cost management plan identifies the person responsible for managing costs, those with the authority to approve changes to the project or its budget, and how cost performance is quantitatively calculated and reported upon.

You're a new project manager for your company. The previous project manager left abruptly. While reviewing your predecessor's last project, you find that the project scope document is poorly formulated and missing several key requirements. What's your next step? A Ask that the project be killed. B Notify and meet with the sponsor. C Write up the additional requirements, and ask the sponsor to approve. D Add the new requirements to the scope document, and discuss it at the next project status meeting.

Answer option B is correct. The first and most important step whenever there are problems or issues (including missing documentation, additional requirements, and so on) is to notify and meet with your project sponsor. It's a good idea to take your ideas for next steps to the meeting, but you will want direction from the sponsor before doing anything further.

When faced with a proposed scope deviation, what will be your first order of business? A Say no. B Determine the cause. C Calculate budget variances. D Quantify the effect of the deviation in terms of cost, resources, and time.

Answer option B is correct. The first order of business is to ascertain why the proposed scope deviation is needed. After validating that the proposed change is necessary, you have to validate its impact on scope in budget, time, and resources.

You're a project manager at uCertify, Inc. You have to provide stakeholders with information regarding your project in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, emails, and so on. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish the above task? A Information planning B Information distribution C Communication planning D Communication distribution

Answer option B is correct. The information distribution process provides stakeholders with project information in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, emails, and so on.

Which of the following is the least precise cash-flow technique? A Net present value B Payback period estimate C Discounted cash flows D Internal rate of return (IRR)

Answer option B is correct. The payback period is a cash-flow technique for identifying the length of time it takes for the organization to recover all the costs of producing the project. It compares the initial investment to the expected cash inflows over the life of the project and determines how many time periods elapse before the project pays for itself. Payback period is the least precise of all cash-flow techniques.

When taking over an incomplete project, what item should be of most interest to a new project manager? A Project plan B Project scope document C Project charter D Project concept document

Answer option B is correct. The project's scope document should be of primary importance to a new project manager. The scope statement consists of a product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.

The only output of the "perform qualitative risk analysis" process are risk register updates. When a project manager updates a risk register, he'll need to include all of the following except for which one? A Risk scores B Risk probability-impact matrix C Watchlist of low-priority risks D Trends in qualitative risk analysis

Answer option B is correct. The risk matrix is not included as part of the risk register updates. The goal of "perform qualitative risk analysis" process is to rank risks and determine which need further analysis and, eventually, risk response plans. The output of this process is project documents updates, which involves updating the risk register. According to the PMBOK guide, the risk register is updated with the following information: -Risk ranking (or priority) for the identified risks -Risk scores -Updated probability and impact analysis -Risk urgency information -Causes of risk -List of risks requiring near-term responses -List of risks that need additional analysis and response -Watch list of low-priority risks -Trends in qualitative risk analysis results

Jeff is manager of a project to install 8,000 editions of a software package onto computers in his company. He's estimated that with the cost of the software license, the time to install and verify the software, and the software training for each user, the total cost of the software license per recipient is $450. He estimates the total cost of the project will be $3,600,000. What type of cost estimation is Jeff using in this example? A Top-down estimate B Parametric estimate C Definitive estimate D Bottom-up estimate

Answer option B is correct. This is an example of a parametric estimate, as the parameter is $450 per recipient of software. A parametric estimate uses a parameter to predict project costs, such as cost per network drop or cost per software license. Parametric estimation utilizes the statistical relationship between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables.

Which of the following documents will you prepare at last during scope definition? A Scope document B Work breakdown structure (WBS) C Scope management plan D Project plan

Answer option B is correct. WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all project work and is completed after a scope management plan and scope statements are completed.

You're the manager of the HJH project for your company. You've created the probability-impact risk matrix as shown in the figure below: Risk A 0.55 -10,000 B 0.4 -65,000 C 0.3 -90,000 D 0.6 -25,000 E 0.45 -30,000 F 0.7 -245,000 If Risk D happens in this project, how much will be left in the contingency reserve? A $258,500 B $233,500 C $243,500 D $440,000

Answer option B is correct. To answer this question, you need to calculate the contingency reserve to be used at the project manager's discretion to deal with anticipated, but uncertain, events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each risk event. The sum of risk events equals the project's contingency reserve. In this case, Risk contingency fund = (0.55x10,000)+(0.4x65,000)+(0.3x90,000)+(0.6x25,000)+(0.45x30,000)+(0.7x245,000) = 258,500 Therefore, when Risk D happens, it will cost the project $25,000. This $25,000 is subtracted from the contingency reserve of $258,500, leaving a balance of $233,500 for all other risks.

One of the most important elements of a scope management plan is an approved change request. Which of the steps below should you take following approval of a change request? A Ensure that no further action is required by the change request board. B Update the project plan to reflect the approved change request. C Update the project charter to reflect the approved change request. D Check the issue log for review during project closure.

Answer option B is correct. In a scope management plan, a change request includes a description of the change, the reason for it, its impact if not implemented, and the originator of the request. Once the change request is approved, the project manager must update the project plan to reflect the change.

You're manager of the TRT project, now in its execution phase. Rick, a team member, has complained that other team members are isolating him, and that this isolation is bothering him. Which of the following is not a recommended step to resolve the issue? A Solicit feedback on Rick from other team members. B Shift Rick to another project. C Solicit more feedback from Rick. D Apply team building measures to improve team effectiveness.

Answer option B is correct. Shifting Rick to another project is not the way to resolve this issue. Rick is a part of the team, and you owe it to all team members to solicit more information from all of those involved before making any decision. Furthermore, one of your professional abilities is to improve overall team effectiveness.

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the CPI? A -3 B .98 C -2 D .95

Answer option B is correct. The formula for CPI is EV divided by AC (in this case, 81 / 83 = .98)

You're project manager for BlueWell, Inc. You're recording the activity status for your project team's performance. Based on their current performance, your project is likely to be three months late. What type of communication should your team generate to address this performance issue? A Exceptions report B Issue report C Performance report D Variance analysis

Answer option C is correct. A performance report is needed to communicate variance between planned work and actual work. The project team generates the performance report, which details activities, milestones, problems, accomplishments, and identified issues. It's used to report key information such as: Current status Scheduled activities Significant accomplishment for the period Forecasts Issues

What term is assigned to project completion that allows its next phase to begin? A Milestones B Step funding C Phase gate D Project phase closure

Answer option C is correct. A phase gate describes conditions that allow the next phase of a project to begin, depending on past performance in the project.

Which of the following calendars is used to define the working and nonworking days and times for tasks? A Resource calendar B Project schedule C Project calendar D Corporate calendar

Answer option C is correct. A project calendar shows the list of working and nonworking days (either holidays or planned time off when no work will be done). Nonworking days are considered idle time.

Which of the following project documents graphically depicts project team members and their interrelationship? A Project team directory B Project charter C Project organization chart D Project scope statement

Answer option C is correct. A project organization chart graphically depicts project team members and their interrelationship. It shows an organization's hierarchical structure, usually displayed from the top down (see the figure below).

This type of estimate is predicated on historical data and expert judgment. A Parametric B Appraisal C Top-down D Bottom-up

Answer option C is correct. A top-down estimate relies on historical data and expert judgment. It's also known as analogous estimating.

You're project manager for your organization and are working with your project team to create a WBS. What's the smallest element in your WBS called? A Work package — the deliverable created by project planning B Work package — the deliverable that maps to its project scope statement C Work package — the deliverable created by the project effort D Work package — the effort to create project deliverables

Answer option C is correct. A work package is the smallest element in a project's WBS and represents the deliverable created by project effort, not the effort itself.

Tom works as a project manager for BlueWell, Inc. He's determining which risks can affect his project. Which of the following inputs of the "identify risks" process is useful in doing so and provides a quantitative assessment of likely cost to complete scheduled activities? A Cost management plan B Activity duration estimates C Activity cost estimates D Risk management plan

Answer option C is correct. An activity-cost-estimates review is valuable in identifying risks, as it provides a quantitative assessment of expected cost to complete scheduled activities and is expressed as a range, with range width indicating degrees of risk.

Which of the following estimating techniques is less accurate but allows you to use cost estimates from previous similar projects to help you quickly determine estimates for a current project? A Three-point B Bottom-up C Analogous D Parametric modeling

Answer option C is correct. Analogous estimation uses parameter values such as scope, cost, and budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity, from a previous, similar activity as basis for estimation of a similar parameter in a future activity. It's a top-down estimating technique that's also a form of expert judgment; however, it provides a lower degree of accuracy than other estimation techniques. Analogous estimation is used primarily when there's a limited amount of detailed information about a project or program.

On an average project, project managers spend most of their time performing which of the following activities? A Interfacing with the sponsor and stakeholders B Controlling the tasks C Planning the project D Managing the people who are performing the project work

Answer option C is correct. For an average project, project managers spend the majority of their time on well-developed project planning activities, such as creating the project scope statement, WBS, schedule, budget, and project plan.

Steven is project manager for the HNN organization. HNN employs a project-based management structure. Steven's current project has a budget of $345,000 and a deadline for completion in seven months. The project is of low to moderate priority in the organization's portfolio. What percentage of the project team's schedule is likely to be spent on Steven's project alone? A Low to moderate B Low C High to almost total D Moderate to high

Answer option C is correct. In a project-based environment, a project team will participate on a project in a nearly full-time role.

Two project managers are working on their respective projects in a matrix environment. They're in conflict over a particular resource they both require. Who has the authority in this environment to decide where and how the resource in question will be used? A Customers of the organization B Team members of both the projects C Functional management of the organization D Project manager with more work experience

Answer option C is correct. In the case of a conflict between two project managers over a particular resource, functional management of their organization will decide where and how the resource will be used. A functional manager performs various management roles in an administrative or functional business area, such as human resources, finance, accounting, or procurement. She's assigned her own permanent staff to carry out ongoing work. She must have a clear directive to manage all tasks within her functional area of responsibility.

Which of the following project documents created during its closing process describes what went well and what went poorly on the project? A Project close report B Post-mortem C Lessons learned D Post-project review

Answer option C is correct. Lessons learned describe what went well and what went poorly on a project. They're included in a project close report, post-mortem report, and post-project review.

What percentage of a message is sent through nonverbal means (e.g., facial expressions, hand gestures, body language)? A 20 to 30 percent B 10 to 20 percent C Greater than 50 percent D 30 to 40 percent

Answer option C is correct. More than 50 percent of a message is conveyed through nonverbal means.

To build a diverse project team that can work together efficiently and effectively, which of the following is the most important skill a project manager should have? A Programming skill B Communication skill C Interpersonal skill D Negotiation skill

Answer option C is correct. Of all these, interpersonal skill is most important for building a diverse project team, as it includes proficiencies such as communication skill, emotional intelligence, conflict resolution, negotiation, influence, team building, and group facilitation. This skill also allows a project manager to capitalize on strengths of all team members and enhances cooperation among team members by anticipating their actions and acknowledging their concerns regarding the project.

Gary is project manager for his company. He's working with project stakeholders on its requirements, and examining how risks might affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes project risk. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of project risk? A It's an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. B It's an uncertain event that can affect project costs. C It's an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective. D It's an unknown event that can affect the project scope.

Answer option C is correct. Risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Project risk is concerned with expected value of one or more results of one or more future project events. It's an uncertain condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Objectives can be scope, schedule, cost, or quality. Project risk is always projected into the future.

This process concerns formally accepting project deliverables and obtaining sign-off. A Project closure B Project finalization C Scope verification D Scope control

Answer option C is correct. Scope verification is the formal acceptance of project deliverables and obtaining of stakeholder sign-off. Scope control is the monitoring and controlling of project scope. Project closure is the final approval of and sign-off for the entire project.

Which of the following best describes the output of the estimate cost process? A It is a value used to calculate cost per use and cost per unit. B It is a systematic approach to locating the least expensive options to complete the work. C It is the actual cost estimate of the resources required to complete the work. D It defines how the project manager should control cost variances.

Answer option C is correct. The output of the estimate cost process is the actual cost estimate of resources required to complete project work.

You're manager of the NHO project and are hosting a software development workshop to gather project requirements. In the workshop, what name's assigned to the person who records the workshop minutes? A Paralegal B Secretary C Scribe D Reporter

Answer option C is correct. The person who keeps the minutes in a workshop is commonly called a scribe, or recorder. Not a reporter. Recorder not reporter. Scribe for sure.

You're manager of a complex project. Your experience on previous projects tells you that a complex project can be completed in not less than 24 months, but a project sponsor is determined that this complex project must be completed within 12 months. Which of the following tools can you use to demonstrate the improbability of the proposed timeline? A Pareto analysis B Quantitative risk analysis C Monte Carlo analysis D Decision tree analysis

Answer option C is correct. You will use Monte Carlo analysis, a technique/tool in which a distribution of possible activity durations is defined for each activity and is used to calculate a distribution of possible project outcomes.

Which of the following best describes elements of a work breakdown structure (WBS)? A They analyze the risk. B Elements are part of a weak matrix. C They are deliverables. D The elements are the description of the required work.

Answer option C is correct. The elements of a WBS are deliverables.

Which of the following terms refers to a project team comprised of people from different cultures? A Attributed B Homogeneous C Heterogeneous D Ethnocentric

Answer option C is correct. A heterogeneous project team is comprised of team members from different cultures.

All of the following describe the purpose for the information distribution process except for which one? A Information may take the form of status reports, project meetings, and so on. B This is where the communications management plan is put into action. C Barriers such as cultural differences, geographical locations, and technology should be taken into account during this process. D Lessons learned and feedbacks are gathered from stakeholders.

Answer option C is correct. Barriers such as cultural differences, geographical locations, and technology, along with time-zone differences and hierarchical barriers are taken into account when managing project teams.

Complete the following sentence: Quality control is a(n)_______________ process while quality assurance is a(n)________________ process. A Inspection, costly B Prevention, inspection C Inspection, prevention D Management, inspection

Answer option C is correct. Quality control is an inspection-driven process because it's completed by inspecting project work results. Quality assurance is a prevention-driven process, because there's an effort to do the work right the first time.

Which of the following is calculated by dividing the number of days projected for a task by its budgeted cost? A Budget at Completion (BAC) B Estimate at Completion (EAC) C Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) D Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP)

Answer option C is correct. The BCWS is calculated by dividing the number of days projected for a task by its budgeted cost. The BCWS, also known as planned value (PV), is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or WBS component.

Ned's manager of a new project. He's determining which project team members he should recruit for the eight months it's slated to last. All of the following are enterprise environmental factors to consider in acquiring project team members, except for which one? A Interest in working on the project B Cost to use the resource C Duration as an employee D Availability to work on the project

Answer option C is correct. When selecting project team members, you don't consider the duration of their employment. The most important factors to consider are their experience and ability.

Who makes "go/no-go" decisions during phase-gate review? A Board of project managers B Stakeholders C Program manager D Program governance board

Answer option D is correct. "Go/no-go" decisions are commonly made by a program governance board and included in a performance report. They're made during phase-gate reviews and are the signal to move to the next phase.

While creating a new project, which of the following contains final project acceptance criteria? A Project charter B Quality metric C Transition plan D Project scope document

Answer option D is correct. A project scope document should be of most interest to a new project manager. The scope statement describes the product, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints, and thus contains final project acceptance criteria.

You're manager of your organization's Workstation Improvement Project, which will replace 925 workstations with new computers for company employees. Mark, the sales manager, has requested that your project add 250 laptops as part of this project, as his sales force travels and thus has no need for workstations. Mark insists that his department will pay for the laptops. All of the following components will be affected by this change request except for which one? A There will be a need for additional procurement management processes. B There will be a need for additional risk analysis for the laptops. C There will be a need for additional time to install the laptops. D There will be a need for an additional project scope statement because of the change request.

Answer option D is correct. An additional scope statement won't be needed if this change is approved. The change can be added to the existing project scope statement.

In a change-driven environment, what's more important than formal communications with regard to effective requirements management? A Message of communication B Correct communication C Type of communication D Frequency of communication

Answer option D is correct. Change-driven approaches focus more on frequency of communication than on formal documentation. Official documentation is often in writing, but informal communication takes precedence over more formal written communication.

An ACD project is underway, and conflict has arisen between resource managers and project managers. What's the best method of avoiding staffing conflict between resource managers and project managers? A Ask one party to force their solution on the other party. B Ask each of the parties to give up something to reach a solution. C Discuss areas of agreement rather than areas of difference. D Discover the facts regarding the issue and let the facts help define the solution.

Answer option D is correct. Confrontation is the best way to resolve conflict. A key action of this technique is to go on a fact-finding mission to find the one right solution to the problem. Once you uncover the facts, you present them to the parties, thus making the decision clear and rendering it permanent. Project managers use this conflict resolution approach most often; it's an example of a win-win solution.

This is the process of aggregating all cost estimates and establishing a project cost baseline. A Cost control B Cost estimating C Activity resource estimating D Cost budgeting

Answer option D is correct. Cost budgeting is the process of aggregating cost estimates and establishing a project cost baseline.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You have to keep resources levelly loaded, but will require them to be flexible in their start time. You have to quickly switch between tasks and task chains to keep the whole project on schedule. Which of the following methods will you use to accomplish the above task? A Precedence diagramming method (PDM) B Arrow diagramming method (ADM) C Linear scheduling method (LSM) D Critical chain project management (CCPM)

Answer option D is correct. Critical chain project management (CCPM) is a method of planning and managing projects that emphasizes resources required to execute project tasks. This is in contrast to the more traditional critical path and PERT methods, which emphasize task order and rigid scheduling. A critical chain project network tends to keep resources levelly loaded, but requires them to be flexible in their start times and to quickly switch between tasks and task chains to keep the whole project on schedule.

What is the most commonly used form of network diagramming? A Activity on arrow (AOA) B Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) C Critical path method (CPM) D Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

Answer option D is correct. Precedence diagramming is the most-used diagramming method. PDM uses boxes to represent project activities and arrows to connect the boxes and show dependencies.

Quality metrics, quality checklists, and exit criteria are defined in which of the following processes? A Quality control B Quality audits C Quality execution D Quality planning

Answer option D is correct. Quality metrics are a standard of measurement defined in a quality management plan that determines what will be measured and how it will be measured. They're defined in the quality planning process, as are quality checklists and exit criteria.

Frank is manager of the NHQ project for his company. He's working with his project team, key stakeholders, and several subject matter experts on risks of dealing with new project materials. Frank wants to utilize a risk analysis method that will help his team make decisions regarding the current uncertainty concerning the new materials. Which risk analysis approach can Frank use to make decisions in the presence of uncertainty? A Qualitative risk analysis B Delphi technique C Monte Carlo technique D Quantitative risk analysis

Answer option D is correct. Quantitative risk analysis presents a quantitative approach to decision-making in the presence of uncertainty.

This is a leftover risk that appears after an original risk event has occurred or after risk responses have been planned. A Risk trigger B Secondary risk C Contingency risk D Residual risk

Answer option D is correct. Residual risks appear after an original risk event has occurred or lingered following planned and executed risk responses. Risk triggers are indicators that a risk event is about to occur. Secondary risks emerge as a direct result of another risk or of implementing a risk response.

For computing quantitative risk analysis, which of the following analyses determines which risk events might have the highest impact on a project? A Earned monetary value analysis B Decision tree analysis C Monte Carlo analysis D Sensitivity analysis

Answer option D is correct. Sensitivity analysis helps determine which risk events have the highest potential impact on a project as a whole. It analyzes the uncertainty of each project objective to predict the likelihood of reaching project objectives in relation to other risk events.

This document describes project deliverables, a code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, and criteria for acceptance. A Project scope statement B Project description C Scope management plan D WBS dictionary

Answer option D is correct. The WBS dictionary describes project deliverables, a code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, criteria for acceptance, and other information that helps clarify deliverables.

You're project manager for your organization. A vendor has told you that the cost of resources you'll use in your project will increase by 40 percent, but they can deliver the product within 10 days. Another vendor has a substantially lower price, but they can only deliver the product in 21 days. How should you document the increase in price? A Reject the vendor's price increase and choose the vendor with the lower price. B Enter the price increase into the cost change control system. C Document the scenario for examination by the project team. D Document the scenario consideration in both the schedule change control system and the cost change control system.

Answer option D is correct. The best solution is to consider which is more important in your context—cost or schedule. Cost change and schedule change control systems can help you determine the driving factor for your project.

Which of the following project management process groups utilizes the most project time? A Planning B Closing C Initiation D Executing

Answer option D is correct. The executing process group is a stage or phase of a project. It starts after the planning phase of a project is completed, and consists of the processes used to complete the work defined in the project management plan and thereby accomplish the project's requirements. The execution process involves coordinating people and resources, as well as integrating and performing project activities in accordance with the project management plan. The deliverables are produced as outputs from the processes performed, as defined in the project management plan. The executing process group utilizes the most project time and resources.

Who among the following stakeholders is responsible for designing and implementing potential solutions and providing specialist expertise? A Project manager B Domain subject matter expert C Operational support D Implementation SME

Answer option D is correct. The implementation SME is responsible for designing and implementing potential solutions and providing specialist expertise. Subsets of the implementation SME role include developers, software engineers, organizational change management professionals, system architects, trainers, and usability professionals.

Henry and Fred are working together on business analysis duties for implementation of new software. Henry suggests that they should take the current measurement of productivity, then measure again after the solution has been implemented. This benchmarking approach will allow Henry and Fred to see the real effect of the solution on business need. What is the term for this measurement? A Post implementation factor B S-Curve C Yield D Key performance indicators

Answer option D is correct. The measurements are known as key performance indicators, a metric of how well a solution has affected an organization.

Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies successor and predecessor activities to assist a project manager in sequencing project work? A Activity on the Node B Dependency determination C Schedule network template D Precedence diagramming method

Answer option D is correct. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses both predecessors and successors as nodes in the project network diagram. The PDM approach is the most common network diagram approach in use.

A project requires many different resources for its execution. Thus, a project manager has requested a new part from an out-of-state supplier. The supplier promises to ship the part within 24 hours, but due to a trade blockage, the shipment may take 3 to 6 business days to deliver. On the other hand, a local supplier can deliver the part within 4 business days. The project manager wants to execute the project smoothly without any delay. What's the minimum number of days within which the project manager can receive the part? A 1 business day B 6 business days C 3 business days D 4 business days

Answer option D is correct. To minimize the risk of delay in receiving the part on time, the project manager should order the part from the local supplier, so that it can be delivered within 4 business days. If the project manager were to order the part from the out-of-state supplier, the total process would take up to 6 days, which might impact the project schedule.

After a project inspection, a project manager realizes that key personnel have left the organization, and those remaining don't have the skills to cover this shortage. Which of the following documents will most likely be updated to recruit replacements for the team? A Project scope, staffing management plan, and cost management plan B Project charter, project schedule, and cost management plan C Project scope, communications management plan, and staffing management plan D Staffing management plan, risk register, and project schedule

Answer option D is correct. To recruit new skilled personnel, a project manager will most likely update the following three documents: First, he'll update the staffing management plan, as it describes when and how human resources will be added and removed from the project team and what they'll be working on during their tenure. Second, he'll update the risk register, as it helps personnel to communicate the project risk and action plans to other stakeholders. Third, he'll update the project schedule, as it determines start and finish dates for project activities, and then assign resources to those activities.

During execution of a construction project, a project manager requires personnel who can work outdoors, atop tall buildings. Which of the following solutions would best mitigate risk of injury to those personnel without affecting the approved project schedule? A Ensure that personnel do not work in very windy weather. B Ensure that personnel are covered by applicable insurance. C Ensure that personnel are trained in injury response. D Ensure that personnel are furnished with slip-resistant boots.

Answer option D is correct. Whenever personnel work on a construction project and are required to work atop tall buildings, they must wear slip-resistant boots to avoid accidental risk.

Who's responsible for defining key performance indicators (KPIs)? A Process manager B Service owner C Service level manager D Process owner

Answer option D is correct. A process owner is responsible for defining key performance indicators (KPIs). She executes the crucial role of process champion, design lead, supporter, instructor, and protector. The process owner should be a senior-level manager with credibility, influence, and authority across various areas impacted by process activities. She must have the ability to influence and ensure compliance to policies and procedures put in place across cultural and departmental silos of an IT organization. The role of process owner must be defined in the initial planning phase of any ITIL project. She's responsible for overall process quality and oversees management of, and organizational compliance to, process flow, procedures, data models, policies, and technologies associated with the IT business process.

What's the name of the resource requirement tool shown in the figure below? Task Programmer Tester Tech Writer DBA Infrastructure 2.3.1 3 2 2 1 2.3.2 2 2 1 1 2.3.3 2 1 1 2.3.4 4 3 2 1 2.3.5 1 1 2 1 A Resource requirement matrix B RACI chart C Resource definition matrix D Responsibility assignment matrix

Answer option D is correct. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows you to denote the types of skills required in your project team, how many members you'll require for each, and the project tasks for which they'll be needed.

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique will you use to accomplish the task? A Project network diagrams B Influence diagrams C Process flow charts D Ishikawa diagrams

Answer option D is correct. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a cause-and-effect chart or a fishbone diagram, can help identify root causes of risk events. The Ishikawa diagram displays causes of a certain event. A common use of this diagram is to identify causal factors that result in an overall effect and their root causes. It s sometimes called a fishbone diagram because of its resemblance to a fish skeleton. It's considered a basic tool of quality management. The figure below is an example of an Ishikawa diagram.

Sam's manager of the NHT project. Its stakeholders are end users, server administrators, functional managers, external customers, technicians, and executive managers. For this high-profile project, which group of stakeholders is the most important? A End users B Executive management C No stakeholders are more important than other stakeholders. D External customers

Answer option D is correct. Customers, internal or external, are always considered the most important group of project stakeholders. Recall that a stakeholder is anyone with a vested interest in a project's outcome.

Which of the following represents the value of the work completed to date as compared to the budget? A BAC B AC C PV D EV

Answer option D is correct. EV (earned value) is the value of the work completed to date as compared to the budget (AC is actual cost, PV is planned value, and BAC is budget at completion).

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the SV? A .98 B -2 C .95 D -4

Answer option D is correct. The formula for SV is EV minus PV (in this case, 81 - 85 = -4

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 89, EV = 85, BAC = 90, ETC = 2, EAC = 91, what's the VAC? A 91 B 5 C 92 D -1

Answer option D is correct. The formula for VAC is BAC - EAC, so the formula looks like this: 90 - 91 = -1.

You're manager of an important, high-profile project in your matrix structure. Your team must work with a new technology with which most team members have no experience. What should you do in this scenario? A Consult with the project's customer about trimming the scope to meet the current competency level. B Consult with the project sponsor to procure additional, experienced team members. C Consult with the matrix structure's functional management to identify more suitable team members. D Consult with the project team to determine what type of training they need.

Answer option D is correct. When a project team's lacking in competency, the project manager should determine what training is required to help them complete their duties.

Roberta is project manager for his organization. Upper management has asked her to provide them with her metrics for deliverables status, costs incurred, and especially schedule progress (for schedule adherence). What metrics could Roberta provide them? A Milestone list B Cost management and project schedule C Project management plan D Work performance measurements

Answer option D is correct. Work performance measurements are used to assess and record project performance and progress. Typical metrics are deliverables, schedule, and costs, though additional ones such as quality can be added. Created from the WPI, WPMs are an output of control schedule, control cost, and control scope processes, which are themselves monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They're documented and communicated to stakeholders, and used to make project activity metrics such as: -Planned versus actual technical performance and scope performance -Planned versus actual schedule performance -Planned versus actual cost performance

When developing a project's calendar and thinking about a multinational company's holidays, individual team members' calendars, and special days declared by the company, which two date categories might it be easy to overlook? A Religious festivals B Holidays in other countries C Team members who work weekend schedules D Team members who work four 10-hour days E Company holidays

Answer options A and B are correct. In a multinational environment, there may be holidays or religious festivals in other countries that are not celebrated in yours. For example, your company's formal holidays may be applicable only to the United States, with other holidays left up to its foreign office.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're working with your team to validate a project. A new team member wants to know the steps involved in validating a project. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Validate the business case. B Identify and analyze the stakeholders. C Identify the project. D Analyze the feasibility.

Answer options A and B are correct. The steps involved in validating a project are as follows: 1] Validate the business case, which includes feasibility analysis, justification for the project, and alignment to the strategic plan. 2] Identify and analyze the stakeholders.

As we know, there are several techniques of detecting and resolving conflict. One such technique is withdrawal, which occurs when a party refuses to discuss the conflict. Which of the following statements is true about withdrawal? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Withdrawal is considered an avoidance technique. B Withdrawal is a way of confronting a problem to find the best solution. C Withdrawal is considered a lose-lose situation. D Withdrawal is considered a win-lose situation.

Answer options A and C are correct. Withdrawal—when one party refuses to discuss the conflict—is an avoidance technique; thus, it never results in resolution. It's probably the worst of all conflict resolution techniques because nothing gets resolved, resulting in a "lose-lose" solution.

Which of the following require a WBS as an input? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Cost estimating B Resource planning C Activity definition D Negotiation

Answer options A, B, and C are correct. Cost estimating, resource planning, and activity definition all require a WBS as an input

Which of the following are described as organizational governance considerations or project processes to be taken into account? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Standards compliance B Phase gate approval C Sponsor approvals D Decision oversight

Answer options A, B, and D are correct. According to CompTIA, organizational governance components include standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval.

During the initiating phase, a project charter authorizes a project to begin. Which of the following elements are included in a project charter? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Project objectives B Risk assessment C Stakeholder identification D Problem statement

Answer options A, D, and C are correct. Here are the key elements of a project charter: -Project goals and objectives -Project description -Problem statement -Key project deliverables -High-level milestones -High-level cost estimates -Stakeholder identification -High-level assumptions -High-level constraints -High-level risks -General project approach -Name of the project manager and their authority level -Name of the sponsor -Other contents

Which of the following activities are related to a project's closing process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Signing off project documents B Identifying project plan variances C Review of lessons learned D Archiving of project documents

Answer options A, D, and C are correct. The closing processes include sign-off, archiving of project documents, turnover to a maintenance group, release of project team members, and review of lessons learned.

As a project manager for uCertify, Inc., you've been instructed to assess specific IT risks associated with an application. You'll use HLRA (high-level risk assessment) to accomplish this task. One of your new team members wants to know why you're using HLRA. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A It acknowledges changes in the sensitivity. B It improves the level of confidence in system security. C It reduces the cost and time element. D It improves regular reviews.

Answer options B and C are correct. HLRA (high-level risk assessment) is a targeted assessment of specific risks associated with an application, using the "80/20 rule." HLRA is used to improve the level of confidence in system security and to reduce cost and time elements. The HLRA components are: -Threat assessment -Risk assessment -Recommendations

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're in the middle of your project's executing phase. Its sponsor is determined to cancel it because of unexpected cost overruns and resource shortages. Which of the following steps will you take next? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Change vendors to obtain a lower bid for hardware and software components. B Prepare project closure documents, including lessons learned. C Perform a post-mortem analysis, and release resources. D Ask the sponsor to allow you to redesign the project with fewer deliverables.

Answer options B and C are correct. If a sponsor opts to cancel a project, you'd still perform its closing procedures to assemble its closure documents, perform a post-mortem analysis, and release project resources.

What are the two types of charts you might utilize to display a project schedule? A Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) B Gantt chart C Histogram D Critical path method (CPM) E Milestone chart

Answer options B and E are correct. Gantt and milestone charts are the two most commonly used formats for displaying a project schedule.

A communication plan is a simple plan that helps in constructing a template in a spreadsheet or table format. Which of the following components are included in the communication plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Format B Frequency C Method of distribution D Stakeholder risk tolerance

Answer options B, A, and C are correct. The following components are included in the communication plan: -Frequency -Format (formal, informal, written, and verbal) -Method of distribution -Distribution list

A work breakdown structure (WBS) is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which of the following are inputs to the Create WBS process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Scope baseline B Scope management plan C Project scope statement D Organizational process assets

Answer options B, C, and D are correct. Create WBS is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. The key benefit of this process is that it provides a structured vision of what has to be delivered. The following are the inputs to the Create WBS process: -A scope management plan -A project scope statement -Requirements documentation -Enterprise environmental factors -Organizational process assets

In which of the following circumstances does a project closure phase occur? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Post-project review B Project completion C Stage completion D Project cancellation

Answer options B, C, and D are correct. Project closure is one of the most necessary activities performed during the closing process; it's necessary at: -Project completion -Stage completion -Project cancellation

In which of the following conditions should avoidance be used in conflict resolution? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Stakes are high B Stakes are low C Stakes are high, but you're not prepared D To maintain neutrality

Answer options B, C, and D are correct. Use the avoidance conflict resolution method under these conditions: Stakes are low Stakes are high, but you're not prepared To maintain neutrality To gain time

Why should you have a formal review of the final project management plan with the sponsor and key stakeholders? Choose three answers. A To catch any last-minute additions B To finalize the document and move into execution C To make sure everyone is on board with the plan D To give the sponsor the ability to back out E To obtain sign-off

Answer options B, C, and E are correct. A formal final review of the comprehensive project management plan is required so that you, the sponsor, and key stakeholders understand what it is you're about to do, can authorize and sign off on that work, and can move the project into the executing phase.

Which of the following are the types of solicitation documents you might use during vendor selection? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A IFB B RFP C IFP D RFQ

Answer options B, D, and A are correct. An RFP (request for proposal), RFQ (request for quote), and IFB (invitation for bid) are all types of solicitation documents you can use to obtain bids from vendors for your project work.

When preparing a project charter, which three elements listed below should you always include? A Team member roster B Key project deliverables C Relation to the organization's strategic plan D Benefit measurement methods E Project justification F General project approach G List of stakeholders

Answer options B, G, and F are correct. A project charter should include three elements: the key project deliverables, a list of stakeholders, and a description of your general project approach. Options E and C are elements of a business case, D is a project selection method, and A is part of the planning process group.

While dealing with a remote team in a project's initial stage, a project manager is having a problem with a remote team member's performance. Which is the best form of communication to address this issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Formal verbal communication B Formal written communication C Informal written communication D Informal verbal communication

Answer options C and D are correct. During the initial stage of a project, new team members are faced with interpersonal, team-building, conflict-resolution, and other challenges. To resolve such issues when they arise, a project manager uses informal verbal/written communication to directly communicate with team members (e.g., telephone, e-mail). At later stages, the project manager uses formal verbal/written communication to communicate with senior team members through project kickoff meetings, team status meetings, written status reports, and team-building or other planned sessions.

You work as a project manager for Honeywell, Inc. You've been distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts to various stakeholders. A company trainee wants to know the various inputs for generating performance reports. What will you tell her? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A Variance analysis B Change request C WPI D WPM

Answer options C and D are correct. For this scenario, you can use the following inputs to generate performance reports: WPI (work performance information): The data gathered on status of project schedule activities performed to accomplish project work. The data are collected as part of the direct and manage-project-execution processes. WPI includes: -Deliverables status -Schedule Progress -Costs incurred WPM (work performance measurements): Created from the WPI, WPMs are an output of control schedule, control cost, and control scope processes, which are themselves monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They're documented and communicated to stakeholders, and used to make project activity metrics such as: -Planned versus actual technical performance and scope performance -Planned versus actual schedule performance -Planned versus actual cost performance

The task of identifying stakeholders shows up in two areas of the Initiating Process group. Which areas are they? A In the business case B In the stakeholder matrix C In the project charter D As a step in validating a project

Answer options C and D are correct. Stakeholders are identified and analyzed during project validation, and listed in the project charter.

Why should you obtain formal sign-off when you conclude your project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Sign-off is the trigger for releasing team members back to their functional organization. B Sign-off acknowledges that the project team's no longer accountable for its product. C Sign-off allows the project manager to start a new assignment. D Sign-off describes project successes and failures. E Sign-off indicates that the project meets its documented requirements and the client's accepted project deliverables.

Answer options C, B, A, and E are correct. A sign-off is formal project acceptance. Team members are released according to the staffing management plan, but both the project manager and team members may continue their project involvement until all closure activities are complete.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc., which is a matrix organization. You have to assign project tasks to employees. One of the employees wants to know the characteristics of a matrix organization. How will you reply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Better inter-departmental communication B A mix of full time and part time project resources C Low to moderate project manager authority D Multiple projects compete for the same limited resources

Answer options C, B, and A are correct. A matrix organization is characterized by: -Low to moderate project manager authority -A mix of full time and part time project resources -Better inter-departmental communication

You work as project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're in the project kickoff meeting. Which of the following documents will you review at the meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Project budget B Project scope C Project charter D Project WBS

Answer options C, B, and A are correct. Documents you'll review at the project kickoff meeting are: -Project charter -Project scope -Project budget

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. James, your department head, has approached you with an idea for a project. Which of the following steps will you take for the pre-project setup for project approval? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Develop a project charter. B Validate the project. C Identify the project. D Create a business case analysis.

Answer options C, B, and A are correct. The steps involved in the pre-project setup for project approval are: 1. Identifying the project. 2. Validating the project. 3. Developing a project charter and obtain approval of the project charter.

Your department is responsible for performing system maintenance to customer support servers. A new software package was implemented on these servers last year, and this is the first time maintenance is required. Which of the following three statements are true? Select all correct answers: A This was brought about because of a business need. B This is not temporary in nature. C This was handed off from a project and is now an ongoing operation. D This was brought about because of a technological need. E This does not create a unique product or service. F The project manager is responsible for assigning resources to this task.

Answer options C, B, and E are correct. The work you're undertaking doesn't create a unique product or service; it's part of ongoing operational maintenance.

For what reasons should you create milestones in your project plans? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A To measure quality assurance B To perform a hand-off C To provide a comparison of actual versus estimated time D To indicate completion of a deliverable E To provide a budgetary checkpoint F To signal the end of a task

Answer options C, D, E and F are correct. Milestones are used as checkpoints to determine whether a project is on time and on budget; they can also indicate completion of a deliverable. Milestone charts list the major deliverables, key events, or project phases and show the scheduled and actual completion dates of each milestone. They may include other information, but that information would not be displayed as bar charts.

A well-written change control process should include which of the following components? Choose three. A The cost of change B The amount of time the change will take to implement C Analysis of the impacts of change D The stages at which changes are accepted E Instructions for updating any affected project planning documents

Answer options C, E, and D are correct. The amount of time and money a change requires are outcomes of a change control process, not inputs to it.

Which of the following activities represent the purpose of a project kickoff meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Communicating work package assignments B Communicating stakeholder expectations C Obtaining a signature on a project charter D Communicating project goals and objectives

Answer options D and B are correct. A project kickoff meeting is held at the beginning of the executing phase and serves the following activities: -Introduces team members -Communicates project goals and objectives -Communicates stakeholder expectations -Reviews roles and responsibilities of team members

In a risk management plan, what are the inputs to a risk matrix? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Response plan B Risk description C Type of risk D Contingency plan

Answer options D and C are correct. A risk matrix is used to assess risk in a risk management plan. It defines various types or levels of risk, and thus increases their visibility and helps management in decision making by estimating outcome through a contingency plan. Contingency planning is the development of alternatives to deal with risk events.

Which of the following items are included in a staffing management plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Recognition and rewards B Training needs C Risk prediction D Staff acquisition

Answer options D, A, and B are correct. A staffing management plan is not a project resource; it's a subsidiary of an overall project management plan and defines when project team members will be brought onto and released from the project. It describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. Depending on project needs, it can be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed. The staffing management plan can include staff acquisition, resource calendars, a staff release plan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety.

Select the three types of project selection methods that are considered economic model methods. A Scoring model B NPV C Cost-benefit analysis D Discounted cash flow E Payback period F IRR

Answer options D, B, and F are correct. An economic model includes discounted cash flow, NPV (Net Present Value), and IRR (Internal Rate of Return). Benefit measurement methods include cost-benefit analysis, a scoring model, and a payback period.

Which of the following are tasks performed by a work breakdown structure (WBS)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A It defines assignable resources, such as personnel, from a functional point of view. B It provides a mechanism for performance measurement and control. C It provides a mechanism for collecting and organizing actual costs. D It distributes major project deliverables into smaller components to improve accuracy of cost estimates.

Answer options D, C, and B are correct. WBS tasks are as follows: -Distribute major project deliverables into smaller components to improve accuracy of cost estimates. -Provide a mechanism for collecting and organizing actual costs. -Provide a mechanism for performance measurement and control. The WBS structure describes work activities, not staff or other work resources.

A team member submits a project change request to his project manager, which is later examined by the change control board (CCB ). To ensure quality of implemented project change requests, which of the following will need to occur? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Changes are logged and updated in a change log document. B A new sign-off is obtained on a project scope statement. C Changes are approved and placed into production, once submitted to the change control board. D The stakeholders are notified of approved changes. E Changes are tracked and either accepted or rejected by the CCB.

Answer options D, E, A, and B are correct. Whenever there is a significant expansion in project scope, a team member submits a project change request to the project manager, which is later examined by the CCB. The following will occur to ensure quality of implemented project change requests: Changes are tracked and either accepted or rejected by the CCB. Once the changes are approved they are logged and updated in a change log document. When changes are approved and examined by the CCB , the project manager must take these additional steps: Modify the project scope statement. Obtain a new sign-off on the project scope statement. Notify stakeholders of the approved changes.

Which quality standards are documented in a quality management plan? Choose three. A Quality metrics B Quality verification C Quality checklists D Quality audit E Exit criteria F Quality standards

Answer options E, C, and A are correct. Quality metrics, quality checklists, and exit criteria are quality standards used to determine whether project quality standards are met.

What are the three types of matrix organizations? A Weak matrix B Project-based matrix C Strong matrix. D Program matrix E Functional matrix F Balanced matrix

Answer options F, C, and A are correct. The three types of matrix structures are: 1] Balanced matrix: Shares equal emphasis between projects and functional work. The project manager and the functional manager share power. 2] Strong matrix: Emphasizes project work over functional duties. The project manager has most of the power. 3] Weak matrix: Emphasizes functional work over project work and operates more like a functional hierarchy. The functional mangers have most of the power.

What are three elements that might be required for a quality turnover of project deliverables? A Releasing project resources B Transferring project equipment back into the organization C Documenting maintenance costs and ongoing requirements D Documenting final budget figures E Providing end-user training F Providing end-user documentation

Answer options F, E, and C are correct. A quality turnover includes making certain any training requirements are met, that end-user documentation is turned over, that maintenance or licensing costs are identified, and that any ongoing requirements are described to the organization taking over the project's product.

Law requires certain industries to track all document changes. Which of the following should be implemented by a project manager for this purpose? A Change management system B Version control system C Cost control system D Change control system

nswer option B is correct. A project manager should implement a version control system that records changes to a file over time. This system helps recall specific versions later; thus, all project document changes are tracked.