Core 1 practice questions review
Which of the following types of optical discs can only support storing up to 700 MB on a single piece of media? BD-R SD DVD-R CD-RW
A CD can store up to 700 MB. A DVD can store 4.7 GB for a single-layer disc or 8.5 GB for a dual-layer disc. A Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB for a single-layer disc or 50 GB for a dual-layer disc. A SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.
What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes
For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass? Transfer roller Pickup roller Transfer belt Duplexing assembly
The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.
Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation's memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed? No boot device available NTLDR not found Operating system not found BIOS ROM checksum error
"No boot device available" is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were "Operating system not found" or "NTLDR not found," this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The "BIOS ROM checksum error" would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.
What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly? ping 127.0.0.1 ping 192.168.1.1 ping 8.8.8.8 ping 1.1.1.1
127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC's drive
Your company's printer is displaying an error of "Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty." Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using? Inkjet Thermal Impact 3-D Laser
3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.
Which of the following types of power supplies allows the installer to attach or remove cables from the power supply as needed to reduce cable clutter inside the computer's case? Dual voltage power supply 750 watt rated power supply Modular power supply Redundant power supply
A modular power supply will allow the user to attach or detach cables to the power supply as needed. This helps reduce the cable clutter inside of the case and increases airflow for cooling. A redundant power supply is when a single piece of computer equipment operates using two or more physical power supplies. Each of the power supplies will have the capacity to run the device on its own, which will allow it to operate even if one goes down. A 750-watt power supply is commonly used in gaming computers since they have high-powered graphics cards. A dual voltage power supply allows the power supply to use either 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is installed in a computer or server to connect to an ethernet switch using a CAT 6 cable? Digital subscriber line Optical network terminal Network interface card Cable modem
A network interface card is an expansion card that enables a PC to connect to a LAN. Network interface cards are also referred to as network adapters. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)? Access point Hub Router Managed switch
A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator.
Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101? Wireless access point Unmanaged switch Router Hub
A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.
Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee? Install the operating system Connect the thin client to the network (Correct) Install the latest security updates (Correct) Connect the device to a second monitor Connect the thin client to a printer Install the necessary applications (Correct)
A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.
When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network? VDI VPN Virtual NIC VNC
A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.
What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use? Cloud Print Internet Printing Protocol Line Printer Daemon Bonjour
Bonjour, Apple's zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP. Cloud Print is a service that allows users to print from any device in the network cloud to any printer that has Cloud Print support enabled.
Dion Training's video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card? The number of SATA connectors available The power supply's wattage rating The power supply's efficiency rating The power supply supports a 12 VDC input
Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system's power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card. SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives. The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output. The power supply's efficiency rating would tell the user how much of the input power is being converted to output power, but this is not important in deciding if the power supply can support the new graphics card.
You want to build a new gaming computer but intend to reuse as many of the parts as possible from your old computer. You have determined that the motherboard and the case will be reused, and you will purchase a new graphics card, sound card, network interface card, and a USB 3.0 expansion card to increase your system's overall speed and performance. You are a bit worried that your old computer's power supply may not be able to support all of these new expansion cards. Which of the following cards is MOST likely to consume the most power during operations and require you to purchase a new power supply to support it? Sound card NIC Graphics card USB 3.0
Explanation The power consumption of today's graphics cards has increased a lot. The top models demand between 110 and 270 watts from the power supply; in fact, a powerful graphics card under full load requires as much power as the rest of the components of a PC system combined. If your old computer didn't have a dedicated graphics card, it is unlikely that the power supply will be powerful enough to support one without replacing the power supply. Most business computers have a 300-watt power supply. Most low-end gaming computers have a power supply of 450 to 500 watts. If you are building a high-end gaming workstation, you may require a power supply with 750 watts to 850 watts to support all processing power, graphics processing, and other expansion cards installed in the system.
What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize? 21, 22 22, 23 21, 23 20, 21
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21.
Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address? 192.168.1.34 169.254.64.23 33.52.7.83 127.0.0.1
IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. An APIPA address is also referred to as a link-local address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.
Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system? Share the use of the system's memory Can be upgraded or replaced Cannot be upgraded or replaced Less expensive than an integrated video card
It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system's RAM. An integrated video card cannot be upgraded since it is part of the processor or motherboard. If a system is being designed for gaming, video editing, or 3D rendering, it should use a separate video card with a dedicated GPU.
Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one? Battery Cellular card DC jack Screen
It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.
Tim's laptop was recently upgraded to Windows 11 but is now running more slowly due to the increased memory requirements. He has decided to install some additional RAM to speed up the laptop. Which of the following should he install? DIMM GDDR5 SODIMM VRAM
Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. GDDR5 is the DDR5 memory for a graphics card, not a laptop. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.
You have just installed a second monitor for a salesperson's workstation. The user wants to clone the display so that both monitors show the exact same image. This will allow them to see one of the displays while their customer sees the other from across their desk. When you connect the second monitor and clone the display, the second monitor displays text twice as large as the other monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure? Refresh rate Resolution Color depth Extended mode
Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen's resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10.
Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply) PRL PRI Firmware Baseband
PRL PRI The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.
Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device? 802.11ac 802.3at 802.11s 802.3af
Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.
A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST? Backup the hard drive Run chkdsk Reformat the hard drive Run diskpart
S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.
What type of network cable should be used to prevent crosstalk? Plenum STP RJ-11 UTP
STP Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Cables are often clustered together with a high amount of data passing through from one device to another, causing EMI (electromagnetic interference). EMI causes signal interference and errors in the transfer of data that is known as crosstalk. Unshielded cables do not contain this braided foil shield and are more affected by EMI than a shielded cable. Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.
Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring? 21 80 22 143
Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.
The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue? Configure a static IP for the printer Rollback the print drivers on the print server Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access point Update the print drivers on each employee's machine
Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to create network infrastructures within the cloud? Cable modem Optical network terminal Software-defined networking Digital subscriber line
Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.
Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States? 4G GSM CDMA 3G
The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint). Most of the world instead uses GSM. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.
Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default? Static IP Gateway Subnet mask Dynamic IP
The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.
Which of the following ports is used for the request and distribution of DHCP configuration information? 67 80 162 53
The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper).
Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network? Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network
The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.
Jason presents a "how to pass your certification exams on the first attempt" lesson for his students using an overhead projector. After 24 minutes, the project goes blank. Jason allows the students to take a 15-minute coffee break while he attempts to turn the project back on. The project runs for another 4 minutes and then turns off again. What is MOST likely wrong with the projector and the laptop setup? The projector is overheating The sleep setting on the laptop is too short The laptop's display driver needs to be updated The HDMI cable is unplugged
The most likely cause is that the projector is overheating. A faulty or clogged cooling fan could cause this. If the projector overheats, it will turn off the projector's bulb to reduce the machine's heat load. The laptop's sleep setting is not the cause since it is randomly turning off at different amounts of time.
Which of the following ports are used by the NetBIOS protocol to share files and printers on a Windows network? (Select ANY that apply) 21 110 443 139
The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.
Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines? Rogue VM Virtual NIC Symmetric multiprocessing Resource pooling
The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.
What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or WiFi adapter available? Order another printer with network capabilities and share it on the network Establish a printer share on the network switch Order a printer port converter to share a non-networked printer Establish a print share on the local host
The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.
Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping? Increase the MTU Enforce MAC filtering Configure the DHCP server Implement QoS
To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets' timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads. MAC Filtering refers to a security access control method whereby the MAC address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. MTU is the largest unit that can be transmitted across a network. If the MTU is set at a value above 1500, the network is configured to support jumbo frames.
Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors? VT AMD-V HT Intel-V
To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology. If you are using an AMD processor, it should support AMD-V (AMD's virtualization technology). HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. Intel-V is a made-up term used as a distractor on this question.
You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen? The monitor will cause distorted images on the screen The display will show incorrect colors on the screen The monitor will be dim or start to flicker The monitor will be black and white
Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won't display at all. The other options are not possible.
You connect a VOIP device on a user's desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch? Fiber Coaxial CAT 6 CAT 3
VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device's power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.
You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community's public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue? Enable DHCP inside of your laptop's network adapter settings Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn't blocking your access to the website Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.
A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has only two hard drives available for use and needs to ensure that the data's fault tolerance and redundancy. Which of the following would be is the best configuration to implement? RAID 5 RAID 0 RAID 10 RAID 1
While either a RAID 0 or RAID 1 can be used with only two drives, only a RAID 1 will provide redundancy and fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. With a RAID 1, one of the hard drives can fail while the other drive can still operate until the bad drive is replaced. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 5 requires at least three hard drives to operate, and a RAID 10 requires at least four hard drives to operate; therefore, neither is an acceptable solution to this problem.