CP CH 32 Skin Integrity and Wounds

The nurse is taking care of a client who asks about wound dehiscence. It is the second postoperative day. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

"Dehiscence is when a wound has partial or total separation of the wound layers." Explanation: Dehiscence is the partial or total separation of wound layers as a result of excessive stress on wounds that are not healed. Clients at greater risk for these complications include those who are obese or malnourished, smoke tobacco, use anticoagulants, have infected wounds, or experience excessive coughing, vomiting, or straining. An increase in the flow of fluid from the wound between postoperative days 4 and 5 may be a sign of an impending dehiscence. The client may say that "something has suddenly given way." If dehiscence occurs, cover the wound area with sterile towels moistened with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride solution and notify the physician. Once dehiscence occurs, the wound is managed like any open wound.

To determine a client's risk for pressure injury development, it is most important for the nurse to ask the client which question?

"Do you experience incontinence?" Explanation: The client's health history is an essential component in assessing the client's integumentary status and identification of risk factors for problems with the skin. The priority question addresses a source of moisture on the skin. Moisture makes the skin more susceptible to injury because it can create an environment in which microorganisms can multiply, and the skin is more likely to blister, suffer abrasions, and become macerated (softening or disintegration of the skin in response to moisture). Sound nutrition is important in the prevention and treatment of pressure injuries. The number of meals eaten per day does not give a clear assessment of nutritional status. The nurse should question the client about the skin care regimen, such as the use of lotions, but this would not be the priority in determining the risk for pressure injury development. Asking the client about any recent illnesses is not a priority in determining the risk for pressure injury development.

The nurse is caring for a client with an ankle sprain. Which client statement regarding an ice pack indicates that nursing teaching has been effective?

"I will put a layer of cloth between my skin and the ice pack." Explanation: Teaching has been effective when the client understands that a layer of cloth is needed between the ice pack and skin to preserve skin integrity. The ice pack should be removed if the skin becomes mottled or numb; this indicates that the cold therapy is too cold. The ice pack can be in place for no more than 20-30 minutes at a time, and a minimum of 30 minutes should go by before it is reapplied.

An older adult client who is scheduled for surgery asks about self-care at home after the surgery is complete. What education will the nurse provide? Select all that apply.

"It may take you longer to heal than someone younger." "Eat nourishing foods after surgery to promote healing." "Wound healing can take longer if you have been exposed often to the sun." "Monitor your moods after surgery. Depression after surgery is not normal." Explanation: Wound healing can be delayed in older adult clients, especially those with long-term sun exposure. Eating healthy foods can speed healing. A home health aide can assist with caregiving to reduce stress. Depression, which is abnormal after surgery, can affect wound healing. It is not advisable to encourage the client to do everything alone at home to build strength, as this could be dangerous if the client is not physically capable.

The registered nurse (RN) observes the licensed practical nurse (LPN) preforming this action when applying a topical gel to a client's surigical wound during a dressing change. What instructions should the RN provide the LPN regarding this action?

"To best avoid further traumatizing the wound bed, apply the gel with a sterile cotton tip applicator." Explanation: The nurse should apply any topical medications, foams, gels, and/or gauze to the wound as prescribed; ensuring that the product stays confined to the wound and does not impact on intact surrounding tissue/skin. Applying the medicated gel with an applicator allows for better control over the application, thus minimizing any additional trauma to wound. The procedure should be preformed using sterile technique, but clean technique can be used when proving care to chronic or pressure injury wounds. To manage contamination risk, cleansing of a wound should be done from top to center to outside.

The nurse and client are looking at a client's heel pressure injury. The client asks, "Why is there a small part of this wound that is dry and brown?" What is the nurse's appropriate response?

"Necrotic tissue is devitalized tissue that must be removed to promote healing." Explanation: The tissue the client is inquiring about is not normal. Dry brown or black tissue is necrotic. Slough is dead moist, stringy dead tissue on the wound surface that is yellow, tan, gray, or green. Undermining is tissue erosion from underneath intact skin at the wound edge.

The nurse is teaching a client about wound care at home following a cesarean birth of her baby. Which client statement requires further nursing teaching?

"Reinforced adhesive skin closures will hold my wound together until it heals." Explanation: After a cesarean birth, a client will be sutured and have staples put in place for a number of days. The health care provider or nurse will remove staples. Reinforced adhesive skin closures are not strong enough to hold this type of wound together.

The nurse and client are looking at the client's heel pressure injury. The client asks, "Why does my heel look black?" What is the nurse's appropriate response?

"That is necrotic tissue, which must be removed to promote healing." Explanation: Wounds that are brown or black are necrotic and not considered normal. Slough is dead moist, stringy dead tissue on the wound surface that is yellow, tan, gray, or green. Undermining is tissue erosion from underneath intact skin at the wound edge.

A client who had a knee replacement asks the nurse, "Why do I need this little bulb coming out of my knee?" What is the appropriate nursing response?

"The drain allows removal of blood and drainage from the surgical wound, which enables healing and protects the skin around the wound." Explanation: The bulb-like drain allows removal of blood and drainage from the surgical wound. All the statements are factual and true; however, the name of the drain, how it works, when it will be removed, and measurement of the exudate are drain management skills and knowledge. Only, "the drain allows removal of blood and drainage from the surgical wound, which enables healing and protects the skin around the wound" answers the clients question about why the drain is present.

The nurse is teaching a client about healing of a minor surgical wound by first intention. What teaching will the nurse include?

"Very little scar tissue will form." Explanation: Very little scar tissue is expected to form in a minor surgical wound. Second-intention healing involves a complex reparative process in which the margins of the wound are not in direct contact. Third-intention healing takes place when the wound edges are intentionally left widely separated and later brought together for closure.

The acute care nurse is caring for a client whose large surgical wound is healing by secondary intention. The client asks, "Why is my wound still open? Will it ever heal?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

"Your wound will heal slowly as granulation tissue forms and fills the wound." Explanation: This statement is correct, because it provides education to the client: "Your wound will heal slowly as granulation tissue forms and fills the wound." Large wounds with extensive tissue loss may not be able to be closed by primary intention, which is surgical intervention. Secondary intention, in which the wound is left open and closes naturally, is not done if less of a scar is necessary. Third intention is when a wound is left open for a few days and then, if there is no indication of infection, closed by a surgeon.

The nurse is preparing to apply an external heating pad. To be effective yet not cause damage to the underlying tissue, in which temperature range will the nurse set the pad?

105°F to 109°F (40.5°C to 43°C) Explanation: The nurse should set the external heating pad in the 105°F to 109°F (40.5°C to 43°C) range, which is physiologically effective and comfortable for the client. Lower temperatures are not as effective, and higher temperatures may cause damage to the underlying skin and tissues.

A nurse is caring for a client who has had a left-side mastectomy. The nurse notes an intact Penrose drain. Which statement about Penrose drains is true?

A Penrose drain promotes passive drainage into a dressing. Explanation: A Penrose drain is an open drainage system that promotes passive drainage of fluid into a dressing. The Jackson-Pratt drain has a small bulblike collection chamber that is kept under negative pressure. A Hemovac is a round collection chamber with a spring inside that also must be kept under negative pressure.

The dressing change on a deep upper-arm wound is painful for the client. How does the nurse prepare the client for a dressing change?

Administer a prescribed oral analgesic 30 to 45 minutes prior to the dressing change. Explanation: The nurse should administer a prescribed analgesic 30 to 45 minutes prior to changing the dressing. Analgesic administration immediately prior to a dressing change will not allow the analgesic to reach its maximum pain control impact. Distraction techniques are helpful when used in conjunction with pain medication, but they should not be used alone for a painful procedure. Cold therapy should be used immediately after an injury to control bleeding, edema, and pain. Cold therapy could damage tissues when used on impaired skin integrity.

The nurse has removed the sutures and is now planning to apply wound closure strips. What should the nurse do before applying the strips?

Apply a skin protectant to the skin around the incision. Explanation: Before applying the wound closure strips, the nurse should apply a skin protectant to the skin surrounding the incision site. The skin barrier will help the closure strips adhere to the skin and helps prevent skin irritation and excoriation from tape, adhesives, and wound drainage. The skin protectant should not be placed on the incision itself. Nothing should be placed over the incision site itself before the closure strips are applied.

Which action by the nurse is most appropriate when attempting to remove surgical staples that have dried blood or drainage on them?

Apply moist saline compresses to loosen crusts before attempting to remove the staples. Explanation: When attempting to remove surgical sutures with dried blood on them, the nurse should first apply moist saline compresses to loosen the crusts before attempting to remove the sutures. Just removing the staples without addressing the dried blood will make the procedure more uncomfortable for the client. The nurse does not need to notify the health care provider, because this is a common finding and the nurse does not need a prescription to remove the dried blood with moistened gauze. Warm compresses are not needed in this instance to remove the dried blood; also, they require a prescription from the health care provider.

The nurse is helping a confused client with a large leg wound order dinner. Which food item is most appropriate for the nurse to select to promote wound healing?

Fish Explanation: To promote wound healing, the nurse should ensure that the client's diet is high in protein, vitamin A, and vitamin C. The fish is high in protein and is therefore the most appropriate choice to promote wound healing. Pasta salad has a high carbohydrate amount with no protein. Banana has a high amount of vitamin C but no protein. Green beans have some protein but not as much as fish.

When removing a wound dressing, the nurse observes some skin irritation next to the right side of the wound edge where the tape was removed. Because the client requires frequent dressing changes, the nurse decides to use Montgomery straps to secure the dressing from now on. How will the nurse apply the skin barrier needed before applying the straps?

Apply skin barrier at least 1 in (2.5 cm) away from the area of irritation. Explanation: The skin barrier should be placed at least 1 in (2.5 cm) away from the area of irritation and should be placed on both sides of the wound. Skin barrier should not be placed over the area of irritation; it should only be placed on skin that is intact. The skin barrier should be applied to both sides of the wound as the Montgomery straps are applied to both sides of the wound on the intact skin surrounding the wound and 1 in (2.5 cm) away from any irritated or nonintact skin.

A nurse is cleaning the wound of a client who has been injured by a gunshot. Which guideline is recommended for this procedure?

Clean the wound from the top to the bottom and from the center to outside. Explanation: Using sterile technique, clean the wound from the top to the bottom and from the center to the outside. Dry the area with a gauze sponge, not an absorbent cloth.

Which is not considered a skin appendage?

Connective tissue Explanation: Hair, the sebaceous gland, and eccrine sweat glands are skin appendages that are formed with the enfolding of the epidermis into the dermis. The dermis is composed of connective tissue.

A postoperative client is being transferred from the bed to a gurney and states, "I feel like something has just given away." What should the nurse assess in the client?

Dehiscence of the wound Explanation: Dehiscence is the partial or total separation of wound layers as a result of excessive stress on wounds that are not healed. Clients at greater risk for these complications include those who are obese or malnourished, smoke tobacco, use anticoagulants, have infected wounds, or experience excessive coughing, vomiting, or straining. An increase in the flow of fluid from the wound between postoperative days 4 and 5 may be a sign of an impending dehiscence. The client may say that "something has suddenly given way." If dehiscence occurs, cover the wound area with sterile towels moistened with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride solution and notify the physician. Once dehiscence occurs, the wound is managed like any open wound. Manifestations of infection include redness, warmth, swelling, and heat. With herniation, there is protrusion through a bodily opening. Evisceration is a term that describes protrusion of intra-abdominal contents.

Which clients would be considered at risk for skin alterations? Select all that apply.

a teenager with multiple body piercings a client receiving radiation therapy a client with diabetes Explanation: Body piercings, radiation therapy, and diabetes place clients at risk for skin alterations. Having a homosexual relationship with multiple partners would also place a client at risk for HIV and skin alterations. Cardiac monitoring and respiratory disorders are not risk factors.

The wound care nurse evaluates a client's wound after being consulted. The client's wound healing has been slow. Upon assessment of the wound, the wound care nurse informs the medical-surgical nurse that the wound healing is being delayed due to the client's state of dehydration and dehydrated tissues in the wound that are crusty. What is another term for localized dehydration in a wound?

Desiccation Explanation: Desiccation is localized wound dehydration. Maceration is localized wound overhydration or excessive moisture. Necrosis is death of tissue in the wound. Evisceration is complete separation of the wound, with protrusion of viscera through the incisional area.

The nurse is performing frequent skin assessment at the site where cold therapy has been in place. The nurse notes pallor at the site and the client reports "it feels numb." What is the best action by the nurse at this time?

Discontinue the therapy and assess the client. Explanation: The best action by the nurse at this time is to discontinue the therapy and assess the client; this should be done before notifying the health care provider or documenting the event. Gently rubbing the area or massaging it would not be appropriate at this time.

When applying an external heating pad, which prescription from the health care provider would the nurse question?

Leave heating pad on for 40 to 45 minutes, then off for 2 hours. Explanation: The nurse should question the prescription to leave the heating pad on for 40 to 45 minutes, because this is too long and could cause a rebound phenomenon. Using heat for more than 20 to 30 minutes can result in tissue congestion, vasoconstriction, and increases the risk of tissue damage. All other prescriptions are recommended guidelines for use of a heating pad.

A nurse removing sutures from a client's traumatic wound notices that the sutures are encrusted with blood and difficult to remove. What would be the nurse's most appropriate action?

Moisten sterile gauze with sterile saline to gently loosen crusts before removing sutures. Explanation: If sutures are crusted with dried blood or secretions, making them difficult to remove, the nurse should moisten sterile gauze with sterile saline and gently loosen crusts before removing the sutures; soap is not used for this purpose. Picking at the sutures could cause pain and bleeding. Crusting does not necessarily indicate inadequate wound healing.

When assessing the right heel of a client who is confined to bed, the nurse notes a thick, leathery, black scab. What is the correct action by the nurse?

Off-load pressure from the heel. Explanation: The correct action by the nurse is to off-load pressure from the heel. This can be accomplished by placing a pillow under the client's leg so that the heel is touching neither the bed or the pillow. The hard leathery, black scar is an eschar that forms a protective covering over the heel and should not be debrided. The surgeon does not need to be consulted for a debridement. Utilizing an antiembolism stocking on the client will not impact the status of the heel wound.

A nurse is caring for a client with quadriplegia. Which intervention by the nurse will prevent a heel or ankle pressure injury for the client?

Placing the client in a side lying position with a pillow between the mattress and the lower leg, and a pillow between the lower legs Explanation: Pressure injuries are caused by unrelieved compression of the skin that results in damage to underlying tissues. Pressure points in bed vary depending on the size and shape of client and the position. Pressure points while sitting in a chair or wheelchair also vary depending of the style, shape, and construction of the chair or wheelchair, the clients position in the chair, and the size and shape of the client. Any boney prominence or areas under a large amount of pressure against a hard or semihard surface can create a pressure injury. To protect clients at risk for pressure injury, the nurse implements a 2-hour turn schedule, uses a pressure redistribution support surface, keeps pressure points from pressing on the bed or chair by using positioning devices or pillows, keeps boney prominences from rubbing on each other, minimizes exposure of skin to incontinence, perspiration, or would drainage, and provides adequate calories and nutrients. A pillow placed between the lower legs in side-lying position will prevent ankle to ankle pressure, but not ankle to mattress pressure. Placing a pillow under the knees while positioned supine will increase pressure on the heels. While using a wheelchair, it is best to have the client wear well-fitted shoes and position the feet on the footplate and remove the heel rest or heel loop.

Collection of a wound culture has been ordered for a client whose traumatic hand wound is showing signs of infection. When collecting this laboratory specimen, which action should the nurse take?

Rotate the swab several times over the wound surface to obtain an adequate specimen. Explanation: The nurse should press and rotate the swab several times over the wound surface. The swab should be inserted into the culture tube at the bedside, immediately after collection. Saline or any other fluid is not added to the tube and anesthetics are not applied prior to collection.

A client's pressure injury is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. How would the nurse document this pressure injury?

Stage II Explanation: A stage II pressure injury involves partial thickness loss of dermis and presents as a shallow, open ulcer. A stage II injury could present as a blister, abrasion, or shallow crater. A stage I pressure injury is a defined area of intact skin with nonblanchable redness of a localized area, usually over a bony prominence. Darkly pigmented skin may not have visible blanching; its color may differ from the surrounding skin. The area may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue. A stage III injury presents with full-thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle is not exposed. Slough that may be present does not obscure the depth of tissue loss. Injuries at this stage may include undermining and tunneling. Stage IV injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present on some part of the wound bed and often include undermining and tunneling.

A nurse is removing the staples from a client's surgical incision, as ordered. After removing the first few staples, the nurse notes that the edges of the wound pull apart as each staple is removed. What is the nurse's best action?

Stop removing staples and inform the surgeon Explanation: If there are signs of dehiscence, the nurse should stop removing staples and inform the surgeon. The surgeon may or may not order further staple removal. An occlusive dressing or ABD pad will not adequately prevent further dehiscence.

A client receiving a sitz bath complains of light-headedness to the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Stop the sitz bath, call for help, and help the client to the toilet to sit down. Explanation: If the client complains of feeling light-headed or dizzy during a sitz bath: Stop the sitz bath. Do not attempt to ambulate the client alone. Use call light to summon help. Let the client sit on the toilet until feeling subsides or help has arrived to assist the client back to bed. This does not necessarily warrant a code blue unless the nurse suspects an acute onset of a serious health problem.

A nursing instructor is teaching a student nurse about the layers of the skin. Which layer should the student nurse understand is a potential source of energy in an undernourished client?

Subcutaneous tissue Explanation: The subcutaneous tissue is the skin layer that is responsible for storing fat for energy. The epidermis is the outer layer that protects the body with a waterproof layer of cells. The dermis contains the nerves, hair follicles, blood vessels, and glands. The muscle layer moves the skeleton.

A nurse is caring for a client who has an avulsion of her left thumb. Which description should the nurse understand as being the definition of avulsion?

Tearing of a structure from its normal position Explanation: An avulsion involves tearing of a structure from its normal position on the body. Tearing of the skin and tissue with some type of instrument with the tissue not aligned is a laceration. Cutting with a sharp instrument with wound edges in close approximation and correct alignment is an incision. A puncture of the skin is simply a puncture.

The nurse is applying a heating pad to a client experiencing neck pain. Which nursing action is performed correctly?

The nurse keeps the pad in place for 20 to 30 minutes, assessing it regularly. Explanation: The nurse would keep the heating pad in place for 20 to 30 minutes, assessing it regularly. The nurse would not use a safety pin to attach the pad to the bedding. The pin could create problems with this electric device. The nurse would not place the heating pad directly under the client's neck. The nurse would not cover the heating pad with a heavy blanket.

The nurse caring for a postoperative client is cleaning the client's wound. Which nursing action reflects the proper procedure for wound care?

The nurse works outward from the wound in lines parallel to it. Explanation: A postoperative wound has well-approximated edges. With a postoperative wound, the nurse should work from the incision outward, in lines parallel to the incision. This method would be considered from clean to dirty. The nurse would not use friction when cleaning the wound. The nurse would not use povidone-iodine to fight infection in the wound. The nurse would not swab the wound from the bottom to the top.

A student nurse is preparing to perform a dressing change for a pressure injury on a client's sacrum area. The chart states that the pressure injury is staged as "unstageable." Which wound description should the student nurse expect to assess?

The wound is 3 × 5 cm, with yellow tissue covering the entire wound. Explanation: The wound with yellow tissue covering the entire wound is unstageable. The depth of the wound cannot be determined, because it is covered entirely with slough. A stage III wound will have subcutaneous tissue visible. A stage IV wound will have tendon, muscle, or bone exposed. A suspected deep tissue injury presents as a maroon or purple lesion or blood-filled blister.

What intervention should the nurse teach the client to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples?

To splint the area when engaging in activity Explanation: To support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort, the nurse should teach the client to splint the area when engaging in activities such as changing positions, coughing, or ambulating. Teaching the client to ambulate using a cane or walker may be necessary but is not done to support the underlying tissues or to decrease discomfort. It is done to ensure the client can use the ambulatory devices correctly. There is no indication that the client needs to stay in bed; in fact, ambulation should be encouraged. Teaching the client to turn the head away while coughing is done to aid in prevention of infection.

A Penrose drain typically exits a client's skin through a stab wound created by the surgeon.

True Explanation: A Penrose drain is an open drainage system that exits the skin through a stab wound. The purpose a Penrose drain is to provide a sinus tract for drainage.

A nurse is evaluating a client who was admitted with partial-thickness or second-degree burns. Which describes this type of burn?

Usually moist with blisters, which may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown Explanation: Second-degree burns are moderate to deep partial-thickness burns that may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown. They are usually moist with blisters. First-degree burns are superficial and may be pinkish or red with no blistering. Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns and may vary from brown or black to cherry-red or pearly-white; bullae may be present; can appear dry and leathery.

The nurse considers the impact of shearing forces in the development of pressure injuries in clients. Which client would be most likely to develop a pressure injury from shearing forces?

a client sitting in a chair who slides down Explanation: Shear results when one layer of tissue slides over another layer. Shear separates the skin from underlying tissues. The small blood vessels and capillaries in the area are stretched and possibly tear, resulting in decreased circulation to the tissue cells under the skin. Clients who are pulled, rather than lifted, when being moved up in bed (or from bed to chair or stretcher) are at risk for injury from shearing forces. A client who is partially sitting up in bed is susceptible to shearing force when the skin sticks to the sheet and underlying tissues move downward with the body toward the foot of the bed. This may also occur in a client who sits in a chair but slides down. The client that is most likely to develop a pressure ulcer from shearing forces would be a client sitting in a chair who slides down.

The nurse is assessing a client's surgical wound after abdominal surgery and sees viscera protruding through the abdominal wound opening. Which term best describes this complication?

evisceration Explanation: Evisceration is the protrusion of viscera through an abdominal wound opening. Evisceration can follow dehiscence if the opening extends deeply enough to allow the abdominal fascia to separate and internal organs to protrude.

A client's risk for the development of a pressure injury is most likely due to which lab result?

albumin 2.5 mg/dL Explanation: An albumin level of less than 3.2 mg/dL indicates that the client is nutritionally at risk for the development of a pressure injury. A hemoglobin A1C level greater than 8% puts the client at risk for the development of pressure injuries due to a prolonged high glucose level. Glucose levels greater than 120 mg/dL are a risk factor for the development of pressure injuries. Sodium of 135 mEq/L is normal and would not put the client at risk for the development of a pressure injuries.

A client recovering from abdominal surgery sneezes and then screams, "My insides are hanging out!" What is the initial nursing intervention?

applying sterile dressings with normal saline over the protruding organs and tissue Explanation: The nurse will immediately apply sterile dressing moistened with normal saline over the protruding organs and tissue and call out for someone to contact the surgeon. While waiting for the surgeon, the nurse will continue to assess the area of evisceration and monitor the client's status.

The nurse is preparing to apply a roller bandage to a client with a sprained knee. Which technique does the nurse plan to use?

figure-of-eight turn Explanation: A figure-of-eight turn is used for joints like the elbows and knees. The other answers are incorrect.

A teacher brings a student to the school nurse and explains that the student fell onto both knees while running in the hallway. The knees have since turned shades of blue and purple. Which type of injury does the nurse anticipate assessing?

contusion Explanation: A contusion is an injury to soft tissue, so this is what the nurse expects to see on the basis of the teacher's description of the incident. A puncture involves an opening in the skin caused by a narrow, sharp, pointed object such as a nail. An incision involves a clean separation of skin and tissue with smooth, even edges. An abrasion involves stripping of the surface layers of skin. In an avulsion injury, large areas of skin and underlying tissues have been stripped away.

Upon review of a postoperative client's medication list, the nurse recognizes that which medication will delay the healing of the operative wound?

corticosteroids Explanation: Clients who are taking corticosteroids or require postoperative radiation therapy are at high risk for delayed healing and wound complications. Corticosteroids decrease the inflammatory process, which may delay healing. Antihypertensive drugs, potassium supplements, and laxatives do not delay wound healing.

A postoperative client says during a transfer, "I feel like something just popped." The nurse immediately assesses for:

dehiscence. Explanation: Dehiscence is a total or partial disruption of wound edges. Clients often report feeling that the incision has given way. Manifestations of infection include redness, warmth, swelling, and fever. With herniation, there is protrusion through a bodily opening. Evisceration is a term that describes protrusion of intra-abdominal contents.

The nurse is preparing to apply a roller bandage to the stump of a client who had a below-the-knee amputation. What is the nurse's first action?

elevating and supporting the stump Explanation: The nurse will first elevate and support the stump, then begin the process of bandaging. The bandage will be applied distally to proximally with equal tension at each turn; the nurse will monitor throughout the application to keep the bandage free from gaps between turns.

A full-thickness or third-degree burn develops a leathery covering called a(an)

eschar. Explanation: The full-thickness or third-degree burn appears dry and leathery. The term for this presentation is called eschar. Eschar is a thick, leathery scab or dry crust that is necrotic.

A nurse is caring for a postsurgical client with a Jackson-Pratt drain. Which type of wound drainage should the nurse report to the health care provider?

foul-smelling drainage that is grayish in color Explanation: Purulent drainage is frequently foul-smelling and may vary in color; such drainage is associated with infection and should be reported to the health care provider. Clear, watery (serous), blood-tinged (serosanguineous), and bloody (sanguineous) drainage are not commonly indicative of infection and may be seen in the drain during various stages of wound healing.

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department with a cut sustained 15 minutes ago while the client was preparing dinner at home. The nurse understands that the wound is in which phase of healing?

hemostasis phase Explanation: Hemostasis is the initial phase after an injury. Hemostasis stimulates other cells to come to the wound to begin other phases of wound healing. The inflammatory phase follows hemostasis; white blood cells move into the wound to remove debris and release growth factors. The proliferation phase is the regenerative phase, in which granulation tissue is formed. The maturation phase involves collagen remodeling.

What type of dressing has the advantage of remaining in place for three to seven days, resulting in less interference with wound healing?

hydrocolloid dressing Explanation: Hydrocolloids are occlusive or semi-occlusive dressings that limit exchange of oxygen between wound and environment, provide minimal to moderate absorption of drainage, maintain a moist wound environment, and may be left in place for three to seven days, thus resulting in less interference with healing. Hydrogels maintain a moist wound environment and are best for partial or full-thickness wounds. Alginates absorb exudate and maintain a moist wound environment. They are best for wounds with heavy exudate. Transparent films allow exchange of oxygen between wound and environment. They are best for small partial-thickness wounds with minimal drainage.

When assessing a wound that a client sustained as a result of surgery, the nurse notes well-approximated edges and no signs of infection. How will the nurse document this assessment finding?

incision Explanation: An incision is a clean separation of skin and tissue with smooth, even edges. Therefore the nurse documents the finding as an incision. In an avulsion, large areas of skin and underlying tissue have been stripped away. An abrasion involves the stripping of the surface layers of skin. A laceration is a separation of skin and tissue with torn, irregular edges. Therefore the nurse does not document the finding as an avulsion, abrasion, or laceration.

The nurse is caring for a bedridden client who is at risk for the development of pressure injuries. In which position can the nurse place the client to relieve pressure on the trochanter area?

oblique Explanation: The oblique position, an alternative to the side-lying position, results in significantly less pressure on the trochanter area. The nurse should not position the head of the bed above 30° unless medically contraindicated, and alternate right side, back, left side, and prone positions (when tolerated) using appropriate equipment to minimize friction and shearing.

Which activity should the nurse implement to decrease shearing force on a client's stage II pressure injury?

preventing the client from sliding in bed Explanation: Shearing force occurs when tissue layers move on one another, causing vessels to stretch as they pass through the subcutaneous tissue.

A medical-surgical nurse is assisting a wound care nurse with the debridement of a client's coccyx wound. What is the primary goal of this action?

removing dead or infected tissue to promote wound healing Explanation: Debridement is the act of removing debris and devitalized tissue in order to promote healing and reduce the risk of infection. Debridement does not directly stimulate the wound bed, and the goal is neither assessment nor the prevention of maceration.

The nurse is caring for a client who has reported to the emergency department with a steam burn to the right forearm. The burn is pink and has small blisters. The burn is most likely:

second degree or partial thickness Explanation: Partial-thickness burns may be superficial or moderate to deep. A superficial partial-thickness burn (first degree; epidermal) is pinkish or red with no blistering; a mild sunburn is a good example. Moderate to deep partial-thickness burns (second degree; dermal or deep dermal) may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown. They are usually moist with blisters. Exposure to steam can cause this type of burn. A full-thickness burn (third degree) may vary from brown or black to cherry red or pearly white. Thrombosed vessels and blisters or bullae may be present. The full-thickness burn appears dry and leathery.

A nurse is treating a client who has a wound with full-thickness tissue loss and edges that do not readily approximate. The nurse knows that the open wound will gradually fill with granulation tissue. Which type of wound healing is this?

secondary intention Explanation: Healing by secondary intention occurs in wounds with edges that do not readily approximate. The wound gradually fills with granulation tissue, and eventually epithelial cells migrate across the granulation base. Wounds with minimal tissue loss, such as clean surgical incisions and shallow sutured wounds, heal by primary intention. The edges of the wound are approximated and the risk of infection is lower when a wound heals in this manner. Maturation is the final stage of full-thickness wound healing. Tertiary intention occurs when there is a delay between injury and wound closure. The delay may occur when a deep wound is not sutured immediately or is left open until no sign of infection is evident.

A nurse is documenting on a client who has had an appendectomy. During a dressing change of the surgical site, the nurse observed a watery pink drainage on the dressing. Which drainage type should the nurse document?

serosanguineous Explanation: Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and red blood cells. It is usually pink. Serous drainage is a clear drainage consisting of the serous portion of the blood. Sanguineous drainage consists of red blood cells and looks like blood. Purulent drainage has various colors, such as green or yellow; this drainage indicates infection.

A nurse is assessing a client's surgical wound and sees drainage that is pale pink-yellow and thin and contains plasma and red cells. What is this type of drainage?

serosanguineous Explanation: This describes serosanguineous wound drainage. Drainage that is pale yellow, watery, and like the fluid from a blister is called serous. Drainage that is bloody is called sanguineous. Drainage that contains white cells and microorganisms is called purulent.

The nurse is caring for a client with a sacral wound. Upon assessment, the wound is noted to have slough and a bad odor, and it extends into the muscle. How will the nurse categorize this pressure injury?

stage IV Explanation: Stage IV pressure injuries are characterized as exposing muscle and bone and may have slough and a foul odor. Stage I pressure injuries are characterized by intact but reddened skin that is unblanchable. Stage II involves blistering or a skin tear. Stage III involves a shallow skin crater that extends to the subcutaneous tissue; it may have serous or purulent drainage.

A new mother is asking the nurse about care of her baby's skin. The nurse should instruct the mother:

to apply sunscreen when exposed to ultraviolet rays. Explanation: Sunscreen is necessary to protect against damage caused by ultraviolet rays

A nurse is caring for a client with dehydration at the health care facility. The client is receiving glucose intravenously. What type of dressing should the nurse use to cover the IV insertion site?

transparent Explanation: The nurse should use a transparent dressing to cover the IV insertion site, because such dressings allow the nurse to assess a wound without removing the dressing. In addition, they are less bulky than gauze dressings and do not require tape, since they consist of a single sheet of adhesive material. Gauze dressing is ideal for covering fresh wounds that are likely to bleed or wounds that exude drainage. A hydrocolloid dressing helps keep the wound moist. A bandage is a strip or roll of cloth wrapped around a body part to help support the area around the wound.

The nurse is preparing to insert an IV for a client with dehydration. Which dressing supply will the nurse gather to take in the client's room?

transparent Explanation: Transparent dressings are used to protect intravenous insertion sites. Adhesive strips with eyelets are used with gauze dressings to absorb blood or drainage. Hydrocolloid dressings are used to used keep a wound moist.

A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who was admitted after a femur fracture. The primary care provider placed the client on bed rest. Which action should the nurse perform to prevent a pressure injury?

use pillows to maintain a side-lying position as needed Explanation: Using pillows to maintain a side-lying position allows the nursing staff to change position to alleviate and alternate pressure on client's bony prominences. The client's position should be changed a minimum of every 2 hours. In addition, incontinent care should be performed a minimum of every 2 hours and as needed to decrease moisture and irritation of the skin. A foot board prevents foot drop but does not decrease the risk for pressure injury.