CPT Exam Missed Questions

When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations? Select one: a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.4 d. 0.3

a. 0.1

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 15 to 60 seconds b. 0 to 15 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds Incorrect d. 90 to 120 seconds

a. 15 to 60 seconds

Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective? Select one: a. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity b. 20 minutes of walking c. 20 minutes of low-intensity activity d. 5 minutes of high-intensity activity Incorrect

a. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 4 to 8 drills per workout b. 1 or 2 drills per workout c. 9 or 10 drills per workout d. 2 or 3 drills per workout Incorrect

a. 4 to 8 drills per workout

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual

a. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Alveolar sacs b. Bronchioles c. Trachea d. Pulmonary arteries

a. Alveolar sacs

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? Select one: a. Anterior cruciate ligament injury b. Shoulder injury c. Patellar fracture d. Foot injury

a. Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch

a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Anti-inflammatory properties b. Increased energy c. Proinflammatory properties d. Improved thyroid function

a. Anti-inflammatory properties

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Appearance imagery b. Technique imagery c. Energy imagery Incorrect d. Positive self-talk

a. Appearance imagery

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Select one: a. Arteriosclerosis b. Atherosclerosis c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia

a. Arteriosclerosis

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Biomechanics c. Kinesiology d. Osteokinematics

a. Arthrokinematics

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition Incorrect d. Synergistic dominance

a. Autogenic inhibition

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Back extension b. Plank c. Medicine ball overhead throw d. Dead bug

a. Back extension

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Bench press b. Push-up c. Barbell squat Incorrect d. Pull-up

a. Bench press

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. b. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity. c. Biologically active forms are less efficient. d. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.

a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Brachioradialis b. Biceps brachii c. Brachialis d. Triceps brachii

a. Brachioradialis

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1? Select one: a. Develop an appropriate aerobic base b. Develop anaerobic capacity c. Improve anaerobic capacity and power d. Develop aerobic efficiency

a. Develop an appropriate aerobic base

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test? Select one: a. Environmental temperature b. Talk test c. Exercise modality d. Duration of each stage

a. Environmental temperature

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Family b. Exercise leader c. Exercise group Incorrect d. The community

a. Family

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. First class b. Fourth class c. Second class Incorrect d. Third class

a. First class

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Flexibility exercises b. Strengthening exercises c. Balance exercises d. Plyometric exercises

a. Flexibility exercises

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements b. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs c. Stabilize individual vertebral segments d. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments

a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Rectus abdominis c. Hip flexor complex d. Gastrocnemius and soleus

a. Gluteus maximus

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Latissimus dorsi c. Hip flexor complex d. Lumbar extensors

a. Gluteus maximus

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators

a. Hamstrings and erector spinae

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Latissimus dorsi c. Erector spinae d. Rectus abdominis

a. Iliopsoas

Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate? Select one: a. It is not a curable disease. b. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms. c. It is an acute disease. Incorrect d. It is typically a stress-induced condition.

a. It is not a curable disease.

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. 40-yard dash c. Pro shuttle d. Vertical jump

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Select one: a. Movement assessments b. Body composition assessments c. Strength assessments d. PAR-Q+

a. Movement assessments

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? Select one: a. Muscular Development b. Stabilization Endurance c. Maximal Strength d. Strength Endurance

a. Muscular Development

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Peripheral heart action system b. Pyramid system Incorrect c. Drop set d. Complex training

a. Peripheral heart action system

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 5

a. Phase 4

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt b. Medial pelvic tilt c. Lateral pelvic tilt Incorrect d. Anterior pelvic tilt

a. Posterior pelvic tilt

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Power Training b. Strength Endurance Training Incorrect c. Muscular Development Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

a. Power Training

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Preparation b. Action c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation

a. Preparation

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Provide them with education and knowledge b. Encourage them to make plans to exercise c. Tell them to exercise with a friend d. Help them identify barriers to exercise

a. Provide them with education and knowledge

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? Select one: a. Pyruvate b. Amino acids c. Glycogen d. Fatty acids

a. Pyruvate

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Muscle imbalance c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Length-tension relationship

a. Reciprocal inhibition

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium Incorrect d. Left ventricle

a. Right atrium

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row b. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press c. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat d. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown Incorrect

a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Vestibular system c. Visual system d. Auditory system

a. Somatosensory system

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power b. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength c. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power d. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance

a. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered length-tension relationship

a. Synergistic dominance

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Thoracic and sacral b. Cervical and thoracic c. Thoracic and lumbar d. Cervical and sacral

a. Thoracic and sacral

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Select one: a. Tissue overload b. Motor unit recruitment Incorrect c. Functional movement d. Force production

a. Tissue overload

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions

a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Select one: a. Training frequency b. Intensity c. Volume d. Recovery

a. Training frequency

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Axial d. Frontal

a. Transverse

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option? Select one: a. Working for a premium health club company b. Offering in-home training services c. Creating online coaching programs d. Working for a low-cost health club company

a. Working for a premium health club company

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. Rockport 1-mile walk test c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test d. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test Incorrect

a. YMCA 3-minute step test

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? Select one: a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.8 d. 0.6

b. 0.4

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event? Select one: a. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity b. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity c. 2 to 3 liters of fluid d. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid Incorrect

b. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate b. 140 beats per minute c. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise Incorrect d. 120 beats per minute

b. 140 beats per minute

What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest? Select one: a. 19 breaths per minute b. 15 breaths per minute c. 7 breaths per minute d. 25 breaths per minute

b. 15 breaths per minute

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 75 minutes per week b. 150 minutes per week c. 125 minutes per week d. 300 minutes per week

b. 150 minutes per week

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 2.5 mL/kg/min b. 3.5 mL/kg/min c. 5.0 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min

b. 3.5 mL/kg/min

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 2 seconds b. 4 seconds c. 1 second d. 3 seconds

b. 4 seconds

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. A cadence of 36 steps per minute b. A cadence of 96 steps per minute c. A cadence of 60 steps per minute d. A cadence of 112 steps per minute

b. A cadence of 96 steps per minute

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted c. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary d. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle

b. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain b. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion c. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth Incorrect d. Stabilization, strength, and power

b. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

Kettlebells were first used in which setting? Select one: a. Eastern European gymnastic programs b. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales c. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators d. The Russian military

b. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases. b. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. c. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases. d. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.

b. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

For what is vitamin D most important? Select one: a. Eyesight b. Bone health c. Skin pigmentation Incorrect d. Hair growth

b. Bone health

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training Incorrect b. Cable machines c. Terra-Core d. TRX Rip Trainer

b. Cable machines

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? Select one: a. Central to the right and anterior to the spine b. Central to the left and anterior to the spine c. Central to the left and posterior to the spine d. Central to the right and posterior to the spine

b. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Select one: a. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization. b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. c. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency. Incorrect d. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients.

b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Select one: a. Raking leaves b. Cleaning c. Getting in and out of the car d. Moving a grocery cart

b. Cleaning

Which of the following is a component of agility training? Select one: a. Reaction b. Deceleration c. Assessment of visual stimuli d. Stride rate

b. Deceleration

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Erector spinae c. Pelvic floor muscles d. Transverse abdominis

b. Erector spinae

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Feedback b. Feed-forward c. Antagonist function d. Synergist function

b. Feed-forward

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? Select one: a. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work b. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss c. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes d. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work

b. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary? Select one: a. Strength and conditioning coach b. Fitness manager c. General manager Incorrect d. Master instructor

b. Fitness manager

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Peripheral resistance b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart c. Venous pooling d. Valsalva maneuver

b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Pilates Incorrect b. Gentle static stretching c. Deep soft-tissue massage d. General cardiovascular exercise

b. Gentle static stretching

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The electron transport chain b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system Incorrect

b. Glycolysis

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function? Select one: a. It converts ADP back to ATP. b. It stimulates actin and myosin activity. c. It helps transmit the motor signal. d. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.

b. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Myofibril b. Mediastinum c. Atrium d. Ventricle

b. Mediastinum

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness? Select one: a. ViPR b. Medicine ball c. Kettlebell d. Sandbag

b. Medicine ball

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Multifidus c. Gluteus maximus d. Erector spinae

b. Multifidus

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? Select one: a. Coronary b. Muscular c. Vascular d. Digestive

b. Muscular

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? Select one: a. Bone b. Nerves c. Soft tissue d. Heart

b. Nerves

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? Select one: a. Action self-efficacy b. Planning c. Outcome expectations d. Subjective norms

b. Planning

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. Strength endurance b. Power c. Muscular development d. Stabilization endurance

b. Power

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Reliability c. Validity d. Relevance

b. Reliability

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Select one: a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction c. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction d. Pull the elbows into extension Incorrect

b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? Select one: a. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening b. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change c. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse d. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion

b. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Vision b. Somatosensation c. Sensorimotor function d. Vestibular Incorrect

b. Somatosensation

What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Select one: a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization b. Squat jump with stabilization c. Depth jumps d. Box jump-down with stabilization

b. Squat jump with stabilization

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Ball bridge b. Standing cable hip extension c. Floor bridge d. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver

b. Standing cable hip extension

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Select one: a. Reverse crunch b. Standing cobra c. Floor bridge d. Knee-up

b. Standing cobra

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Select one: a. Resistance bands b. Strength machines c. Terra-Core d. Suspended bodyweight training

b. Strength machines

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Antagonist b. Synergist c. Agonist d. Stabilizer

b. Synergist

What is glycogen? Select one: a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans b. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals c. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans

b. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals

How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. c. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. d. A disease characterized by low bone density.

b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? Select one: a. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources c. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods d. An aerobic test that measures the participant's ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. Incorrect b. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate. c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. d. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle

b. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Transverse abdominis c. Erector spinae d. External obliques

b. Transverse abdominis

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation? Select one: a. Type 2 diabetes b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis Incorrect d. Type 1 diabetes

b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise? Select one: a. Tubing b. Wobble board c. Cables d. Medicine ball

b. Wobble board

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 6 to 8 reps b. 8 to 10 reps c. 3 to 5 reps d. 1 or 2 reps

c. 3 to 5 reps

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Select one: a. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods b. Ability to stretch only one muscle c. Altered movement patterns d. Ability to stretch in small increments

c. Altered movement patterns

Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement? Select one: a. At the widest point of the waist (while seated) b. At the widest portion of the buttocks (while standing with feet together) c. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing) d. At the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold (while standing)

c. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise Incorrect b. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going c. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities d. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness

c. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Resisting social pressure c. Coping responses d. Implementation intentions

c. Coping responses

What is defined as shortness of breath or labored breathing? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Atherosclerosis c. Dyspnea d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

c. Dyspnea

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Concentric Incorrect

c. Eccentric

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Select one: a. Concentric b. Amortization c. Eccentric d. Acceleration

c. Eccentric

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain? Select one: a. Androgens b. Adrenaline c. Endorphins d. Melatonin

c. Endorphins

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Select one: a. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. b. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. c. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. d. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.

c. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Select one: a. Strength and volume b. Strength and stabilization Incorrect c. Growth and volume d. Growth and stabilization

c. Growth and volume

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip internal rotation b. Hip adduction c. Hip extension d. Hip flexion

c. Hip extension

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Knee flexion b. Hip flexion c. Hip extension d. Ankle dorsiflexion

c. Hip extension

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Upper trapezius c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors d. Abdominals

c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency b. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency d. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability

c. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Local and global muscles b. Back muscles only c. Local muscles d. Global muscles

c. Local muscles

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Hip flexors c. Lower trapezius d. Abdominals

c. Lower trapezius

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Macronutrient b. Trace mineral c. Macromineral d. Vitamin

c. Macromineral

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Single-leg cable row c. Medicine ball soccer throw d. Bench press

c. Medicine ball soccer throw

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight trainers b. BOSU balls c. Medicine balls d. Strength machines

c. Medicine balls

What is adaptive thermogenesis? Select one: a. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure Incorrect b. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake d. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure

c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 1 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 3

c. Phase 5

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Place a small board under the toes b. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature Incorrect c. Place a small board under the heels d. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature

c. Place a small board under the heels

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency. Select one: a. Contemplation b. Precontemplation c. Preparation d. Maintenance

c. Preparation

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Squatting b. Hip hinge c. Pushing d. Pulling

c. Pushing

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their toes b. Reach to their waist c. Reach to their knee d. Reach to their shin Incorrect

c. Reach to their knee

What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Select one: a. Biomechanics b. Osteokinematics Incorrect c. Regional interdependence d. Kinesiology

c. Regional interdependence

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Select one: a. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps b. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps d. Active stretching of the hamstrings

c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training Incorrect b. Maximal Strength Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Power Training

c. Stabilization Endurance Training

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Incorrect c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. d. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? Select one: a. Thoracic spine b. Piriformis c. Tensor fascia latae d. Adductors

c. Tensor fascia latae

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. Glycolysis Incorrect b. The citric acid cycle c. The ATP-PC system d. Oxidative phosphorylation

c. The ATP-PC system

What are the two components of the central nervous system? Select one: a. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems b. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems c. The brain and spinal cord d. The nerves and sensory receptors

c. The brain and spinal cord

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure? Select one: a. The head of the participant b. The midline of the pelvis of the participant Incorrect c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing d. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant

c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Liver function b. Kidney function Incorrect c. Thyroid function d. Heart function

c. Thyroid function

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema b. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance d. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising

c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s b. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols d. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol

c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Linear periodization Incorrect b. Direct periodization c. Undulating periodization d. Localized periodization

c. Undulating periodization

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test d. Rockport walk test Incorrect

c. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? Select one: a. When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" b. When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity c. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" d. When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity

c. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?"

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. Indefinitely b. 1 year c. 6 months d. 4 years

d. 4 years

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 30 seconds Incorrect b. 0 seconds c. 5 minutes d. 60 to 120 seconds

d. 60 to 120 seconds

What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength b. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength c. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue Incorrect d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle b. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature Incorrect c. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? Select one: a. Glucose b. Fat c. ADP Incorrect d. ATP

d. ATP

What is the primary function of the large intestine? Select one: a. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine b. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine c. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum Incorrect d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

d. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Gluteus maximus and medius c. Hip flexors d. Adductor complex

d. Adductor complex

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Peripheral b. Lateral c. Axial Incorrect d. Appendicular

d. Appendicular

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion b. Thighs parallel to the ground c. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Stretch reflex c. Isometric contraction Incorrect d. Autogenic inhibition

d. Autogenic inhibition

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Select one: a. Ball cobra b. Standing dumbbell lateral raise c. Single-leg dumbbell scaption d. Calf raise

d. Calf raise

What are the two categories of bone markings? Select one: a. Surface and deep b. Irregular and flat Incorrect c. Short and long d. Depressions and processes

d. Depressions and processes

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Box jumps c. Single-leg hops d. Depth jumps

d. Depth jumps

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Medicine ball throw b. Bracing c. Back squat d. Drawing-in maneuver

d. Drawing-in maneuver

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Mobility b. Stability c. Proper movement d. Endurance

d. Endurance

How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. b. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. c. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. Incorrect d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? Select one: a. Stating an outcome expectation Incorrect b. Self-monitoring c. Creating a coping plan d. Forming an implementation intention

d. Forming an implementation intention

Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset? Select one: a. Dumbbell shoulder press b. Lat pulldown c. Stability ball push-up d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Bony scoliosis b. Permanent scoliosis c. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis Incorrect d. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

d. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Gluconeogenesis

d. Gluconeogenesis

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Supine reverse crunches b. Stability ball Russian twist c. Supine floor crunches d. Incline plank

d. Incline plank

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for: Select one: a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion b. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches c. Greater support and safety for elderly clients d. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

d. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Laterally Incorrect b. Medially c. Superiorly d. Inferiorly

d. Inferiorly

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? Select one: a. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. c. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

d. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis Incorrect c. Cancer and bleeding disorders d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Pectoralis major c. Anterior deltoid Incorrect d. Latissimus dorsi

d. Latissimus dorsi

How is a general warm-up best defined? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. b. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Posture specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity Incorrect c. Metabolic specificity d. Mechanical specificity

d. Mechanical specificity

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? Select one: a. Less efficiently b. Not at all c. Equally d. More efficiently

d. More efficiently

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Tuck jump b. Power step-up c. Butt kick d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees b. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely c. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Select one: a. Neuromuscular control b. Somatosensation Incorrect c. Sensorimotor function d. Perturbation

d. Perturbation

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Select one: a. Anterior b. Lateral c. Superior d. Posterior

d. Posterior

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Transverse plane b. Sagittal plane c. Anterior chain d. Posterior chain

d. Posterior chain

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Power Training

d. Power Training

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? Select one: a. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone. b. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate. c. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it. d. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

d. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Select one: a. Lengthening reaction b. Synergistic dominance c. Length-tension relationships d. Reciprocal inhibition

d. Reciprocal inhibition

Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) b. Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT) c. Thermic effect of food (TEF) d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rectus abdominis d. Rotatores

d. Rotatores

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways? Select one: a. Enlisting social support b. Action planning c. Coping planning d. Self-monitoring

d. Self-monitoring

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. c. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer. Incorrect d. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

d. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Static balance b. Dynamic balance c. Stable balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

d. Semi-dynamic balance

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? Select one: a. Slow to fatigue b. Increased oxygen delivery c. Smaller in size Incorrect d. Short-term contractions

d. Short-term contractions

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball soccer throw b. Floor crunch c. Cable rotation d. Side plank

d. Side plank

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg balance b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization d. Single-leg squat

d. Single-leg squat

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed? Select one: a. Stomach b. Esophagus c. Large intestine Incorrect d. Small intestine

d. Small intestine

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Digestive b. Vision c. Vestibular d. Somatosensory

d. Somatosensory

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Explosive-shortening phase Incorrect b. Muscular-power phase c. Stretching phase d. Stretch-shortening cycle

d. Stretch-shortening cycle

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice? Select one: a. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake. Incorrect b. Recommend she eat high-calorie "cheat meals" more often. c. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal. d. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

d. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. b. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. b. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety. c. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The Z-lines moving farther apart b. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction c. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. b. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. d. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

d. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading b. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases c. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Fourth class b. First class c. Second class d. Third class

d. Third class

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. Incorrect b. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? b. What makes you think that you're not at risk? c. Why don't you just do this? d. What might you want to change?

d. What might you want to change?

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 3 b. Zone 4 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 2

d. Zone 2

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 4 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 3

d. Zone 3