DE Test Prep

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1. In order to produce fire fighting foam, what three items must be educted or injected in correct ratios? (480) A. Foam concentrate, water, and air B. Hydrocarbons, foam solution, and air C. Foam solutions, gelling agent, and water D. Polar solvents, foam concentrate, and water

1. With the exception of operations that feature a vacuum tanker or the use of a hydrant, most water shuttles require at least ___ pumpers for water supply. (445) A. two B. three C. four D. five

10. What is the smallest type of foam storage container? (485) A. Pails B. Totes C. Barrels D. Apparatus tanks

11. In relay operations, elevation pressure: (428) A. is less than simple friction loss when water must be pumped uphill. B is greater than simple friction loss if water must be pumped downhill. C. is affected both by the amount of water being moved and by the topography. D. is not affected by the amount of water being moved, only by the topography.

11. When at draft, the sum of the pump discharge pressure and intake pressure correction that takes into account friction loss in the intake hose and height of the lift is called: (407) A. net pump discharge pressure. B. average pump discharge pressure. C. practical pump discharge pressure. D. theoretical pump discharge pressure.

12. When should driver/operators become familiar with drafting sources within their jurisdiction? (410) A. Preincident planning B. During mutual aid exercises C. Annual community awareness days D. When scene conditions require drafting

13. When relaying long distances: (432) A. equalize spacing between pumpers as much as possible. B. spacing between pumpers should be determined by most convenient location. C. pumpers in the front of the relay should be further apart than pumpers toward the end of the relay. D. pumpers in the front of the relay should be closer together than pumpers toward the end of the relay.

13. Which test is included in the minimum requirements of NFPA® 1901 for apparatus performance testing? (518) A. Overload test B. Overdrive test C. Hydrostatic test D. Primer control test

14. Although it is not always possible, why is it advantageous to have roadways closed to nonemergency vehicles during water shuttle operations? (453) A. To lessen traffic congestion and reduce the possibility of collision B. To keep the public from seeing the operation and reduce onlookers C. To reduce the driver/operator's temptation to "make up time" by speeding D. To eliminate the need for traffic control assistance from local law enforcement

14. Putting a relay into operation begins with: (432) A. the largest capacity pumper working from the water source. B. the smallest capacity pumper working from the water source. C. a pumper with average capacity working from the water source. D. the pumper with the most experienced crew working from the water source.

14. When conducting pump performance tests using a static water source, how deep must the water be? (518) A. 4 ft (1.2 m) B. 6 ft (1.8 m) C. 8 ft (2.4 m) D. 10 ft (3.0 m)

15. When conducting pumper performance testing, the air temperature should always be above: (518) A. 0°F (-18°C). B. 10°F (-12°C). C. 25°F (-4°C). D. 32°F (0°C).

16. Because it forms a rigid coating that adheres well and is slow to drain, the best consistency of Class A foam for vertical surfaces is: (488) A. dry foam. B. wet foam. C. hard foam. D. medium foam.

18. A pitot tube is required if a ___ is not used during performance testing. (522) A. flowmeter B. stop watch C. pitot clamp D. gauge stand

19. If a flowmeter is used during performance testing, what piece of equipment may be used in place of smooth bore nozzles? (522) A. Fog nozzles B. Any handline nozzle C. Master stream nozzles D. Air aspirating foam nozzles

2. When road tests are conducted as part of manufacturers' testing, what type of conditions should be present? (516) A. Flat, dry, paved roads in good condition B. Flat, dry, unpaved roads in good condition C. Both flat and hilly roads, regardless of condition D. A mixture of paved and unpaved roads in good condition

20. A flowmeter might be used instead of a pitot gauge during a pump performance test, because flowmeters are: (522) A. more efficient. B. more accurate. C. less expensive. D. easier to operate.

23. Which is an underground water storage receptacle usually found in an area not serviced by a hydrant system? (415) A. Cistern B. Ground reservoir C. Private water storage tank D. Agricultural irrigation system

24. When need for relay pumping has ended, the operation should be discontinued: (434) A. from the fire scene first. B. from the relay pumpers first. C. by all pumpers at the same time. D. from all relay pumpers then the attack pumper.

24. Which pieces of equipment are evaluated for air leaks using a vacuum test? (523) A. Priming device, pump, and intake hose B. Priming device, pump, and output hose C. Onboard water tank seals and intake hose D. Onboard water tank seals and priming device

26. What should be done to prevent water hammer? (434) A. Close all valves slowly. B. Close all valves quickly. C. Avoid closing valves during operations. D. Close valves half-way, wait, then close fully.

27. Low energy foam systems impart pressure on the foam solution with the use of the: (494) A. main fire pump. B. mechanical blower. C. self-educting pickup tube. D. variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system.

27. When should an overhead pipe be used during water tender top-fill procedures? (457) A. When there is no other way of filling through the top opening B. When a limited number of water tenders are available, because it is faster C. When an abundance of water tenders is available, because it takes more time D. When a pumper is not available to draft from the site and pump directly into the tender

28. At the fill site, ___ firefighter(s) should be assigned to maneuver and connect each fill line that is laid out. (458) A. one B. two C. three D. four

28. When conducting discharge pressure gauge and flowmeter operational tests, a difference in readings between the flowmeter and pitot gauge must not be more than: (525) A. 10 percent. B. 20 percent. C. 30 percent. D. 40 percent.

28. Which is a basic foam proportioner that is designed to be attached directly to the pump panel discharge or connected at some point in the hose lay? (494) A. In-line foam eductors B. Foam nozzle eductors C. Jet ratio controller (JRC) D. Self-educting master stream nozzle

3. In a relay operation, which pumper receives water from the source pumper, raises the pressure, and supplies water to the next apparatus? (427) A. Relay pumper B. Primary pumper C. Secondary pumper D. Water supply pumper

30. When medium diameter hose(MDH) is used in relay operations, generally: (435) A. multiple hoselines are laid. B. it is supplemented with small diameter hose (SDH). C. it must be supplemented with large diameter hose (LDH). D. the MDH will still require only one supply line to meet fireground requirements.

32. What is the purpose of relay relief valves? (435) A. Enhance firefighter safety B. Require fewer personnel for the system C. Allow equipment to exceed recommendations D. Allow faster operation of the parts of the relay

32. When completing performance testing, what is MOST likely to happen if an apparatus achieves results of less than 90 percent of its originally rated capabilities? (526) A. It will be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities. B. It will be documented as out of service but kept for training purposes. C. It will be given a higher rating based on the results of the most recent testing. D. It will be permanently placed out of service and replaced with a new apparatus.

33. In some installed in-line eductor systems, a(an) ___ proportioner is installed to reduce the friction loss across the eductor. (497) A. bypass B. injection C. expansion D. around-the-pump

33. What is the primary advantage of using a nurse tanker (tender) during dump site operations? (460) A. Capacity of its tank B. Training of driver/operators C. cost of maintaining the apparatus D. Time required to pump water from a shuttle tender

35. Which is the most common apparatus-mounted foam proportioner and consists of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump? (498) A. Around-the-pump proportioner B. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner C. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection proportioner D. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioner

36. Which foam proportioner test measures the velocity of light that travels through foam and compares it to a base reading? (528) A. Foam solution refractivity test B. Foam solution conductivity test C. Foam concentrate displacement method D. Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

38. Batch mixing is generally only used with which types of foam concentrates? (501) A. Class A and regular AFFF concentrates B. Class B and regular AFFF concentrates C. Class A and alcohol resistant AFFF concentrates D. Class B and alcohol resistant AFFF concentrates

39. What should the dump site pumper do to ensure that prime is not lost when other discharges are shut down? (462) A. Flow a small waste line back into the tank B. Prime its pump and begin to draft from the tank C. Utilize a low-level strainer to allow for continuous drafting D. Make sure the dump valve is properly aligned with the tank

4. Maximum lift at a given altitude: (404) A. will be less than theoretical lift. B. will be the same as theoretical lift. C. will be greater than theoretical lift. D. may be either greater or less than theoretical lift.

4. What is MOST likely to happen if an apparatus fails to comply with bid specifications? (517) A. The apparatus will be rejected by the purchaser. B. The manufacturer will offer the apparatus at a reduced price. C. All apparatus-mounted equipment will be replaced before retesting. D. The failure will be documented and the apparatus will be placed into service.

4. Which pumper may be of smaller capacity due to its ability to use acquired energy of previous pumpers in the relay? (427) A. Relay pumper B. Primary pumper C. Secondary pumper D. Fire attack pumper

41. The MOST efficient way to transfer water between portable tanks is through the use of a(an): (463) A. jet siphon. B. drain opening. C. additional pumper. D. 1½-inch (38 mm) hoseline.

44. For a portable foam application device, once foam concentrate and water have mixed to form a foam solution, the solution must be: (503) A. aerated. B. pre-mixed. C. hydrolyzed. D. proportioned.

45. Which is a common handline nozzle used for foam application? (503) A. Fog nozzle B. Jet ratio nozzle C. Mechanical nozzle D. Balanced pressure nozzle

47. Which kind of nozzle allows firefighters the option of operating fixed flow, selective flow, or automatic flow when applying a low expansion, short duration foam blanket? (504) A. Fog nozzles B. Smooth bore nozzles C. Air-aspirating foam nozzles D. Master stream foam nozzles

53. Direct application is a method of attack that is BEST used with: (506) A. Class A foam. B. Class B foam. C. aqueous film forming foam. D. film forming fluoroprotein foam.

54. What should a driver/operator do immediately upon indication that the water supply or pumping ability may be unattainable or interrupted? (366) A. Notify officer or Incident Commander B. Call for backup pumpers to arrive at the scene C. Wait several minutes and see if the problem corrects itself D. Attempt to correct the problem before notifying anyone

55. Which is the MOST likely scenario if a supply line that was charged suddenly loses water? (366) A. The supply line has burst. B. Vandals have turned off the water supply. C. The personnel operating the supply line are inexperienced. D. It is just a momentary pressure change and water will return.

56. The process of foam decomposition results in the consumption of: (508) A. oxygen. B. aquatic life. C. fresh water. D. carbon dioxide.

57. Why is it important to avoid direct application of Class A foam to natural bodies of water? (508) A. It can harm aquatic life. B. It will lose its effectiveness. C. It is oil-based and will not mix with water. D. Water increases the ambient temperature of the foam.

58. In what way are durable agents similar to Class A foam? (509) A. Both products are used in a similar fashion. B. Both products are water absorbent polymers. C. Both products are inexpensive and easily stored. D. Both products form small bubbles filled with water.

6. Which test is performed to ensure that the pumps and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands? (517) A. Hydrostatic testing B. Hydrophobic testing C. Pumping output testing D. Pumping overload testing

7. The distance of the relay is an important operational consideration because the longer the hose lay, the: (428) A. more friction loss will be encountered. B. larger the maximum lift will be achieved. C. more the diameter of hose must be decreased. D. greater the total volume of water that will be required.

7. Which proportioning method uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio in comparison to the flow? (483) A. Injection B. Induction C. Premixing D. Batch mixing

A carefully placed solid or straight stream from the exterior of the building is often referred to as: (741) A. blitz attack. B. fire control. C. fire confinement. D. showering the fire.

A guideline when developing a customized pump chart is to: (285) A. round pump discharge pressure calculations to the nearest 5 psi (35 kPa). B. round pump discharge pressure calculations to the nearest 10 psi (70 kPa). C. round pump discharge pressure calculations to the nearest 20 psi (140 kPa). D. use exact numbers from the pump chart rather than rounding pump discharge pressure calculations.

A solid stream nozzle produces a fire stream that has a: (194) A. tight stream and little spray or shower effect. B. variable stream with little spray or shower effect. C. wide stream with intermittent spray or shower effect. D. tight stream that has significant spray or shower effect.

Aerial devices can be used to: (721) A. support ventilation operations. B. penetrate a building from the outside. C. create an anchor for high angle rescue. D. support any amount of weight during emergencies.

Aerial ladder devices with water delivery systems may be equipped with remote controls that allow the driver/operator to manipulate the: (687) A. fire stream pattern. B. ladder device angle. C. load-bearing capacity. D. hydrant water pressure.

All aerial device movements should be slow, smooth, and controlled because of the: (683) A. forces being generated. B. static water pressure build-up. C. likelihood of overheating the engine. D. number of firefighters located inside the building.

An aerial device protective water curtain nozzle should be located beneath the: (690-691) A. platform. B. turntable. C. telescoping ladder. D. articulating water tower.

An apparatus equipped with Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR) will have a tank in addition to a fuel tank that must be filled with Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) and the DEF tank should be: (95) A. topped off every time the apparatus is fueled. B. topped off every other time the apparatus is fueled. C. filled every time the apparatus undergoes a weekly inspection. D. filled every time the apparatus undergoes a monthly inspection.

An apparatus that is equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders, is BEST referred to as a: (22) A. quint. B. midi-pumper. C. mini-pumper. D. rescue apparatus.

Any significant deviation from normal oil pressure reading is MOST likely to indicate: (326) A. an equipment malfunction. B. a decrease in available fuel supply. C. a decrease in revolutions per minute. D. an increase in revolutions per minute.

Apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF) will have: (95) A. very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke. B. the same exhaust emissions as all other apparatus. C. exhaust emissions 25% cleaner than most apparatus. D. exhaust emissions 30% cleaner than most apparatus.

Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below: (43) A. 80 psi (560 kPa). B. 90 psi (630 kPa). C. 100 psi (700 kPa). D. 120 psi (840 kPa).

Bed ladder systems are mostly found on: (567) A. older aerial devices. B. newer aerial devices. C. aerial devices manufactured in Europe. D. aerial devices manufactured by certain manufacturers.

Before placing apparatus in motion, the driver/operator should ensure any hose carried on apparatus: (120) A. will not come loose during travel. B. are tied down in at least two different places. C. are tied down in at least five different places. D. take up a minimum of 60% of the apparatus storage space.

Before using any waxes or polishes on a fire apparatus: (35) A. reference the manufacturer's manual. B. cover any equipment on the apparatus. C. allot at least four hours to finish the task. D. ensure no emergency incidents are ongoing.

Cold weather causes an increased viscosity of the hydraulic oil, which: (693) A. slows overall machine operations. B. increases overall machine operation. C. increases the volume in the reservoir. D. increases the pressure in hydraulic lines.

Driver/operators are subject to any statute, rule, regulation, or ordinance that governs any other vehicle operator: (83) A. unless specifically exempt. B. and no exemptions can be made. C. for the first year of employment as a driver/operator. D. for the first two years of employment as a driver/operator.

During a visual inspection of the aerial apparatus, the hydraulic fluid should be checked and filled when the stabilizers and aerial device are all in their stowed positions because: (583) A. if the hydraulic cylinders are deployed, the reservoir level will read lower than normal. B. if the hydraulic cylinders are deployed, the reservoir level will read higher than normal. C. checking the hydraulic fluid while the hydraulic cylinders are deployed may cause the hydraulic cylinders to fail. D. checking the hydraulic fluid while the hydraulic cylinders are deployed may put too much pressure on the hydraulic system.

During an emergency medical incident, how should the driver/operator position the apparatus if it is not possible to locate off of the street? (629) A. Should position apparatus to shield firefighters from traffic B. Should position apparatus near an intersection stop light to signal traffic C. Should position apparatus on the opposite side of the street from the incident D. Should position apparatus as far away from the incident as reasonably possible

During drafting operations, what can occur when water is being discharged faster than it is coming into the pump? (354) A. Cavitation B. Pressure loss C. Water hammer D. Pressure surge

During response to a possible hazardous materials incident, the apparatus should approach from: (153) A. uphill and upwind. B. uphill and downwind. C. upwind and downhill. D. downhill and downwind.

During the initial setup, it is the driver/operator's responsibility to: (739) A. consider the potential water supply demand. B. assume the role of the incident safety officer. C. determine whether to conduct defensive operations. D. perform commanding operations and direct all firefighters.

Extending the aerial device on the short-jacked side of the apparatus will likely overturn the apparatus if the: (643) A. gravity circle extends beyond the base of stability. B. gravity circle shrinks within the base of the apparatus tires. C. aerial apparatus is extended further than half of its capacity. D. aerial apparatus is raised more than 40 degrees above the horizon.

For which of the following is a nozzle pressure of 100 psi (700 kPa) a safe and efficient nozzle pressure? (219) A. Fog nozzle B. Low pressure fog nozzle C. Solid stream nozzle (handline) D. Solid stream nozzle (master stream)

Gate valves are most commonly operated by: (317) A. a handwheel. B. bar handles. C. retracting handles. D. quarter-turn handles.

High pressure fog nozzles are BEST suited for: (199) A. wildland fires. B. structural fires. C. multiple alarm fires. D. hazardous materials fires.

How does the driver/operator know when pumping operations may begin for most apparatus equipped with midship pumps? (310) A. Indicator light in cab B. Indicator valve on pump C. Time since initial prepping D. Hand signals from firefighter on the ground

If a jurisdiction is performing tests using equipment they own in order to achieve more accurate results, the testing should be conducted: (212) A. using actual hose that will be used during firefighting operations. B. using hose that is different than hose used during firefighting operations. C. using both older and new hose and then taking an average of the test results. D. using different diameters of hose and then taking an average of the test results.

If visual contact with the aerial device cannot be maintained, then the operator MUST: (679) A. rely on a spotter. B. halt all operations. C. continue operations. D. reposition the apparatus.

In a manual transmission, excessive freeplay of the pedal may: (41) A. result in the clutch not releasing completely. B. require the driver/operator to change gears. C. result in the vehicle locking up and stopping suddenly. D. cause the clutch to slip, overheat, and wear out sooner than necessary.

In addition to a control pedestal on the turntable, NFPA® 1901 also requires a control station: (564) A. in the platform. B. at the fire station. C. on a completely separate vehicle. D. as a remote control device that can be carried.

Manual stabilizers are most likely to be found on: (664) A. older midship and tractor-drawn aerials. B. modern midship and tractor-drawn aerials. C. older water towers and elevating platform aerials. D. modern aerial ladders and elevating platform aerials.

Master stream nozzles would MOST likely be used at an incident where: (199) A. handlines would be ineffective. B. water flow can be relatively low. C. extra personnel are available. D. conditions require an offensive posture.

Most apparatus are designed so that the procedure for making the pump operational is performed: (336) A. entirely from the cab of the vehicle. B. entirely from the outside of the vehicle. C. both from the cab of the vehicle and outside of the vehicle. D. with remote control switches that can be located virtually anywhere.

Most manufacturers recommend that the centrifugal fire pump be drained: (306) A. between fire calls. B. at least once a month. C. at least twice a month. D. after the pump is used for ten hours.

Most modern truck batteries: (46) A. are maintenance free. B. require moderate maintenance. C. require considerable maintenance. D. require specialized factory maintenance.

NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, requires a placard in every apparatus, listing: (99) A. vehicle height and weight in feet and tons. B. the year apparatus was initially put into service. C. vehicle width and the distance from undercarriage to roadway. D. maximum allowed combined passenger and equipment weight.

On an aerial apparatus, what refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at wheelbase midpoint? (97) A. Breakover angle B. Angle of approach C. Angle of departure D. Angle of culmination

On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot? (94) A. DPF indicator B. Regeneration Inhibit Switch C. Manual Regeneration Switch D. High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

Once on the scene of a highway incident, the use of warning lights should be: (151) A. reduced as much as possible. B. used as a major means of notifying motorists. C. used intermittently to limit incident scene noise. D. continued until the incident reaches the termination stage.

Protection from convective fire spread can be accomplished by: (746) A. applying large fog streams into the thermal column. B. applying large straight streams into the thermal column. C. directing a fog stream into the air between fire and exposure. D. directing a straight stream into the air between fire and exposure.

Pump discharge pressure must be sufficient to overcome: (218) A. all pressure loss. B. 50 percent of pressure loss. C. at least 75 percent of pressure loss. D. 125 percent of all pressure loss.

Small children and adults incapable of climbing down the ladder by themselves will need to: (729) A. be carried or supported. B. be hoisted down with a harness. C. be carried down in a Stokes basket. D. find another way out of the building.

Stabilizers should always be raised following the reverse order by which they were deployed because: (663) A. it avoids undue stress on any component of the apparatus. B. it is the easiest method for the driver/operator to remember. C. doing so will cause less strain on potentially unstable terrain. D. doing so will require less hydraulic power to retract the stabilizers.

The driver/operator should never position a tractor-drawn aerial apparatus with the tractor and trailer at an angle greater than 90 degrees because: (665) A. damage to the truck may occur. B. it requires more space than is usually available. C. it requires a great amount of fuel to operate in that position. D. such a position limits the maximum reach of the aerial device.

The first principle of friction loss states that if all other conditions are the same, friction loss: (178) A varies directly with length of hose or pipe. B. is independent of the length of hose or pipe. C. is reduced by half each time the length of hose or pipe doubles. D. increases by 25% every time the length of hose or pipe doubles.

The fourth principle of pressure states that the pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is: (173) A. proportional to its depth. B. independent of its depth. C. dependent upon the length of time in vessel. D. variable even when vessels remain the same.

The gpm flowing method may be used: (288) A. for various diameter hose. B. only on small diameter hose. C. for 3-inch hose manufactured within the past 5 years. D. for 5-inch hose manufactured within the past 7 years.

The operation of a centrifugal pump is based on the principle that a rapidly revolving disk tends to throw water introduced at its center: (299) A. toward the outer edges of the disk. B. toward the inside edges of the disk. C. in a very tight circle around the center of the disk. D. intermittently toward the outer and inner edges of the disk.

The piping for fire protection and domestic/industrial services for private water supply systems are: (189) A. almost always separate. B. generally interconnected. C. cost prohibitive for businesses. D. prone to multiple breakdowns.

Though historically some manufacturers of telescoping water towers have equipped them with ladders, they are recommended to be used only as emergency escape routes because the affixed ladder: (560) A. must meet the requirements of NFPA® 1901 to be truly considered an aerial ladder. B. is built to handle regular use and is only meant to be an emergency escape route. C. rarely has enough space to have multiple personnel work safely and comfortably. D. has not been put through the same rigorous quality tests that the rest of the device has.

Tire selections for fire apparatus are based on: (38) A. gross axle weight ratings for the apparatus. B. projected number of miles driven on the tires. C. minimum and maximum speeds for the apparatus. D. condition of roadways and highways in the jurisdiction.

Total pressure loss includes friction loss and elevation pressure loss combined with the loss associated with: (210) A. appliances. B. evaporation. C. variation in temperatures. D. improper use of equipment.

Water may be used to smother fires in a combustible liquid when the: (168) A. liquid's specific gravity is higher than 1. B. liquid's specific gravity is less than than 1. C. ambient air temperature is below 32°F (0°C). D. ambient air temperature is above 32°F (0°C).

What can BEST assist the driver/operator when operating an aerial device in high wind conditions? (692) A. Load chart B. Weather map C. Level reading equipment D. Hydraulic calculation handbook

What can occur when pumping at a low residual pressure while being supplied by other apparatus? (339) A. Cavitation of the pump B. Friction loss becomes too significant to overcome C. Firefighters may be unable to handle the supply hose D. Intake pressure from the supply source may be reduced to a point that may damage the pump

What incident scene control zone includes the area closest to the release of the material? (154) A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Center zone

What is a guideline for loading hose while driving an apparatus? (91) A. Drive apparatus only in a forward direction. B. Drive apparatus only forward or backward; do not turn. C. Put out caution cones for other traffic driving in the area. D. Members may stand on apparatus only to reposition themselves.

What is a key factor when operating an aerial device on a grade? (692) A. Load restrictions for the given grade B. Fast operations to reduce operating time C. Unbalance apparatus to counter increased risks D. Balance the uneven side with unneeded equipment

What is one of the five features NFPA® 1901 establishes an apparatus must have to qualify as a quint? (560-561) A. Fire pump B. Water tower C. Piercing nozzle D. Communication system

What is the MOST likely reason for a locked wheel skid? (108) A. Braking too hard at high speed B. Braking intermittently at low speed C. Braking while turning the wheels more than twenty degrees D. Braking while turning the wheels more than forty-five degrees

What is the function of mobile water supply apparatus? (17) A. Transport water to areas where a water system is nonexistent or inadequate B. Limit the amount of hose necessary to fight fires in highly populated areas C. Transport water to areas where more than one apparatus is needed for suppression D. Act as a backup water supply system to conventional sources of water at structural fires

What is the primary function of a water tower? (560) A. To deploy elevated master streams B. To provide rotation of the aerial ladder C. To gain access to upper levels of an emergency scene D. To provide power to scene lighting and extrication tools

What is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections? (89) A. Minimize mechanical failure B. Justify additional shift hours C. Keep warranties from lapsing D. Maintain discipline in the department

What is the process of operating an aerial device in a slow, smooth, and controlled motion? (683) A. Feathering B. Fine tuning C. Joy sticking D. Ice shrugging

What is the purpose of the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)? (111) A. Improve traction and handling B. Decrease time for total stopping C. Increase the amount of weight carried D. Improve visual lead time of the driver/operator

What is the purpose of using an oil supply or other type of fluid with conventional primers? (322) A. Seals the gaps between gears and case B. Enables primer to shut off automatically C. Creates spaces between gears and case D. Stops dirt and debris from getting in the housing

What is the second option for rescuing victims at an incident involving large commercial passenger aircraft? (748) A. Using portable stairs at the exit doors B. Using a trampoline to catch victims that jump C. Using escape chutes or slides on the aircraft D. Using an aerial device at exit doors or aircraft wings

What may cause dry, solid ground to become unstable during warm weather operations? (614) A. Fireground runoff B. Multiple parked apparatus C. The presence of drainage culverts D. Asphalt softening due to extreme heat

What must be done before the deployment of the stabilizers? (651) A. Chock the wheels. B. Make sure each stabilizer is bearing weight. C. Make sure the aerial device is properly bedded. D. Transfer hydraulic power from the stabilizer system to the aerial operations system.

What must driver/operators complete before being allowed to drive under emergency conditions? (87) A. A thorough training program B. A six-month observation period C. A twelve-month observation period D. A commercial emergency apparatus certificate

What must occur before conducting operations with an articulating aerial apparatus? (685) A. The apparatus must be stabilized. B. The operator must engage the pump. C. The operator must disengage the power take off. D. The apparatus must be connected to a water source.

What should firefighters be wearing when performing spotting duties? (114) A. Reflective vests B. Standard turnout clothing C. International orange jumpsuits D. Standard station wear clothing

What should the driver/operator do if he or she loses sight of the spotter during backing? (114) A. Stop and set the parking brake. B. Continue backing the apparatus slowly. C. Sound the horn twice then continue backing. D. Call for additional spotters for the backing operation.

What staging protocol is MOST likely to be applied to initial response of more than one fire department unit? (150) A. Level I staging B. Level II staging C. Level III staging D. Level IV staging

When a nozzle is above the level of the pump, there is: (176) A. pressure loss. B. pressure gain. C. no change in pressure. D. either pressure loss or pressure gain.

When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and not discharging water, pressure shown on intake gauge is: (347) A. static pressure. B. residual pressure. C. atmospheric pressure. D. the pressure from previous operations.

When an incident commander makes the decision to apply water from an aerial master stream, the driver/operator needs to know: (739) A. the placement of the stream. B. which firefighter will be at the tip. C. the placement of the detachable waterway. D. which firefighter will be operating the primary controls.

When conducting a walk-around inspection, who should the driver/operator talk to in order to get the MOST accurate impression of how the vehicle last operated? (36) A. Last person to drive apparatus B. Communications personnel who talked with driver C. Department mechanic who last serviced apparatus D. Any department member who last rode in apparatus

When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given third priority? (723) A. Those in the hazard area B. Those in the exposed area C. The largest group of people D. Those in the greatest danger

When drafting, what should be done when positioning the intake hose if the bottom slopes steeply from the water's edge? (358) A. Place a roof ladder in the water and lay intake hose on it. B. Suspend strainer off the bottom by tying it to an anchor point. C. Place salvage covers in the water and lay intake hose on top of the covers. D. Place a shovel or other flat metal object on the top to protect the strainer.

When giving a hand signal and the spotter crosses both forearms into a large X, this means: (116) A. stop the apparatus. B. continue backing slowly. C. slow down the apparatus. D. pull forward and reestablish backing.

When jackknifing an apparatus, the greatest stability occurs when the angle is approximately: (620) A. 60 degrees. B. 90 degrees. C. 120 degrees. D. 180 degrees.

When laying supply hose to the fire scene during a roadway response, lay the hose: (138) A. to the side of the street. B. so that it is not on the street. C. alternating sides of the street. D. down the middle of the street.

When must driver/operators follow departmental SOPs for positioning at the fire scene? (612) A. On every response B. At large responses C. At small responses D. Only when it is appropriate

When operating ___ stabilizers, the first operation is to extend the parallel arms to their maximum travel distance, if possible. (654) A. box B. X-style C. A-frame D. post-type

When pinnable waterways are operated in the firefighting mode, the master stream nozzle is: (687) A. at the tip of aerial device. B. one aerial section lower from the tip. C. attached to the cab on the aerial device. D. mounted to a stand secured to the ground.

When positioning an apparatus with the rear uphill on a grade, which tactical impact should be considered? (615) A. It will be easier to reach the ground with a platform operating off of the rear. B. The rear compartments will be more difficult to reach once the apparatus is leveled. C. With the rear tires off the ground, the truck has less resistance to sliding downhill. D. It will be more difficult to reach the ground with a platform operating off of the rear.

When positioning during wildland fire attack, the vehicle should be positioned facing the direction of an exit path with the: (148) A. front wheels straight. B. wheels left unchocked. C. emergency brake disengaged. D. front wheels turned slightly to the left or right.

When possible, driver/operators should always approach incidents from: (624) A. upwind and uphill. B. downwind and uphill. C. upwind and downhill. D. downwind and downhill.

When preparing to start the apparatus, whether for emergency response or a routine trip, the driver/operator must first know the destination and: (94) A. route of travel. B. number of victims. C. travel time to incident. D. parking options at the incident.

When should fire departments identify suitable drafting sites in their response district? (141) A. During preincident planning B. En route to the incident scene C. After occupants/owners request D. After arriving at the incident scene

When should the driver/operator park on a soft surface? (614) A. Only as a last alternative B. When closest to the fire scene C. When furthest from the fire scene D. Only when the primary positions are taken

When spotting an apparatus at a structural fire incident, driver/operators should be the MOST aware of: (630) A. falling debris. B. dead-end accesses. C. hazardous materials. D. passing motor vehicles.

When the fire pump is already activated and in use, the driver/operator must notify personnel on handlines and other nozzles when they are activating the hydraulic system because: (646) A. this action will lower the water supply to the nozzles. B. this action will increase the water supply to the nozzles. C. this action may affect the water supply in an unpredictable way. D. this action will stop the water supply to any nozzles or handlines.

Where is the primary control position for the aerial operator? (680) A. At the lower controls B. At the tip or in the platform C. In the cab of the aerial apparatus D. On the middle fly section of the ladder

Where should a pumper be positioned to supply a fire department connection most efficiently? (141) A. As closely as possible to the water source B. As close as possible to the seat of the fire C. Half way between the water source and the fire D. The first available parking area near the incident

Which BEST describes friction loss for master stream appliances? (213) A. 25 psi (175 kPa) for all appliances B. 10 psi (70 kPa) loss for each appliance C. Generally considered to be insignificant D. Generally considered to be one-half of rated loss

Which NFPA® standard establishes the number of sections and minimum reach required of an aerial apparatus? (543-544) A. NFPA® 1901 B. NFPA® 1911 C. NFPA® 1962 D. NFPA® 1989

Which NFPA® standard outlines the requirements for a ladder belt and tether? (676) A. NFPA® 1983 B. NFPA® 1901 C. NFPA® 1002

Which ability or skill is necessary to understand maps, dispatch instructions, and preincident plans? (80) A. Reading skills B. Computer skills C. Physical fitness D. Mathematical skills

Which action fire departments should take when a large volume of water is needed in an area? (182) A. Request that water utility department increase water pressure B. Request that nearby homeowners and businesses stop water usage C. Completely fill pumpers with water then attempt an offensive fire attack D. Ration water used at the incident scene so that exposures are protected first

Which action is recommended by IFSTA when backing apparatus? (113) A. Use one or more spotters. B. Use radios or hand signals, but not both. C. Back the apparatus as quickly as possible. D. Avoid using the backup camera at incidents.

Which apparatus are MOST likely to be used for ice rescue? (21) A. Fireboats B. Wildland fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which apparatus are known as brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus? (19) A. Wildland fire apparatus B. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which apparatus is MOST likely to have a pump and roll system that allows apparatus to be driven while discharging water? (19) A. Wildland fire apparatus B. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which auxiliary brake device uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine's inherent braking ability? (110) A. Exhaust brake B. Electromagnetic retarder C. Engine compression brake D. Transmission output retarder

Which carrying method is BEST used for a heavier person? (730) A. Knee-sit B. Leg-push C. Arm-wrap D. Two-arm under carry

Which component in a load management system will shut down less important electrical equipment systems if an overload condition occurs? (40) A. Load monitor B. Load delineator C. Load sequencer D. Load alignment indicator

Which component provides fall protection for aerial ladder devices? (676) A. Handrails B. Device wiring C. Railings and gates D. Detachable waterways

Which determines the additional water available from a hydrant? (347) A. Difference between static pressure and residual pressure B. Difference between friction loss and current water pressure C. Difference between static pressure and atmospheric pressure D. Sum of static pressure, residual pressure, and atmospheric pressure

Which equipment allows rescuers to plug their equipment into standard electrical outlets? (24) A. Adapters B. Junction boxes C. Multi-use cords D. Twist-lock receptacles

Which equipment converts a vehicle's 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220-volt AC current? (23) A. Inverter B. Mini-generator C. Portable generator D. Vehicle-mounted generator

Which equipment is MOST likely to be used when a small amount of power is needed near the vehicle? (23) A. Inverter B. Mini-generator C. Portable generator D. Vehicle-mounted generator

Which factor BEST determines the most advantageous position for an attack pumper? (136) A. Size-up B. Mutual aid C. Experience of crew D. Time of day or night

Which hydraulic system component transforms power into mechanical force? (546) A. Actuator B. Rotary gear C. Hydraulic fluid D. Hydraulic pump

Which indicates the status of the vehicle's alternator? (326) A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Tachometer D. Pumping engine throttle

Which interlock device prevents the cab from rising if the engine is running? (566) A. Cab interlock B. Rotation interlock C. Nozzle stow interlock D. Body collision interlock

Which is MOST commonly used in defensive operations? (738) A. Elevated master streams B. 1¾-inch (45 mm) handlines C. 2½-inch (65 mm) handlines D. Master stream fixed to the ground

Which is MOST likely to be the cause if a driver/operator receives a message from an attack team that the volume of water at the nozzle has suddenly decreased without a corresponding change at the flowmeter? (283) A. A hoseline may have burst. B. The water supply has been compromised. C. An object has fallen on top of the hoseline. D. The attack team is improperly using appliances.

Which is a cause of friction loss in fire hose? (177) A. Sharp bends B. Use of newer nozzles C. Ambient temperature D. Lack of adequate personnel

Which is a safety guideline for operating pumping apparatus in a wildland environment? (148) A. Keep headlights on whenever engine is running B. Position in unburned fuel areas whenever possible C. Use a frontal attack if fire is spreading rapidly upslope D. Leave windows opened slightly to hear outside environment

Which is a safety guideline unique to aircraft incidents? (632) A. Do not drive through pools of jet fuel. B. Do not park over manholes or storm drains. C. Position apparatus to shield firefighters from traffic. D. Do not position the apparatus within the structural collapse zone.

Which is a type of variable flow nozzle with the ability to change patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure? (198) A. Automatic fog nozzle B. Constant flow fog nozzle C. High pressure fog nozzle D. Selectable gallonage nozzle

Which is an example of on scene communication? (720) A. Apparatus location and turntable placement B. Incident commander communicating apparatus positioning C. Officers communicating the direction of approach to the scene D. Aerial operations and the use of headsets to communicate between personnel

Which is one of the three main portions of an aerial ladder to which firefighters and driver/operators commonly refer? (544) A. Rungs B. Foot pad C. Pail shelf D. Holster top

Which is the BEST description of pressure? (170) A. Force per unit area B. Weight per unit area C. Relative measure of weight D. Simple measure of movement

Which is the BEST potential sign of structural collapse that may be identified from an overhead look on an aerial device at a structural incident? (631) A. Bulging walls B. Falling pieces of glass C. Falling roof-mounted signs D. Smoke coming from the walls

Which is the correct customary formula for determining pump discharge pressure? (218) A. Nozzle pressure plus total pressure loss B. Nozzle pressure divided by total pressure loss C. Elevation loss plus friction loss minus nozzle pressure D. Friction loss plus elevation loss multiplied by total pressure loss

Which is the customary formula for discharge rate? (195) A. GPM= 29.7 x d2 x √NP B. GPM= 14.7 x d2 x √NP C. GPM= d2 x √NP x 1.7 D. GPM= d2 x √NP x 2.5

Which is the most common type of valve and permits the full flow of water through a line with a minimum friction loss? (316) A. Ball-type valve B. Slot-type valve C. Flap-over valve D. Retracting valve

Which means of moving water uses one or more pumps that take water from a primary source and discharge it through filtration and treatment processes? (183) A. Direct pumping system B. Linear pumping system C. Primary pumping system D. Forced distribution system

Which method of determining friction loss involves the use of in-line gauges to measure friction loss at various flows through specific hose layouts? (211) A. Performing tests B. Using calculations C. Historical information D. Manufacturer guidelines

Which nozzle may also be referred to as a distributor? (200) A. Cellar nozzle B. Broken nozzle C. Piercing nozzle D. Chimney nozzle

Which nozzle may require insertion of an inline shut off valve at a location back from the nozzle to increase safety and ease of operation? (201) A. Cellar nozzle B. Broken nozzle C. Piercing nozzle D. Chimney nozzle

Which of the following NFPA® standards now requires a two-way communication system on all aerial device apparatus? (573) A. NFPA® 1901 B. NFPA® 1911 C. NFPA® 1962 D. NFPA® 1989

Which of the following is the formula for friction loss? (212) A. FL= CQ²L B. FL= CL2Q C. FL= CQ²L x 2 D. FL= CQ² ÷ L

Which part of a centrifugal pump transmits energy in the form of velocity to the water? (299) A. Impeller B. Inline hose C. Gated valves D. Pump casing

Which primer uses a compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump creating a Venturi Effect that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants? (324) A. Air primer B. Exhaust primer C. Vacuum primer D. Positive displacement primer

Which stability control system becomes active when the antilock braking system computer senses an imminent roll over condition? (112) A. Roll stability control B. Electronic stability control C. Axle differential stability control D. Automatic sensor stability control

Which statement BEST describes the process of climbing an aerial device? (677) A. Personnel may climb once device is positioned. B. Personnel should climb while positioning the device. C. Personnel should climb to the tip before positioning the device. D. Personnel may climb and/or ride while extending the ladder.

Which statement about adding unequal lengths of hose to an established wyed hose layout is MOST accurate? (217) A. Friction loss must be determined for each attack line. B. Friction loss can be assumed to be the same for all attack lines. C. Friction loss only needs to be determined for the initial attack line. D. Friction loss in a wyed hose layout does not need to be considered.

Which statement about inspecting a parked apparatus is MOST accurate? (37) A. Whenever an apparatus is parked, chock its wheels. B. Whenever an apparatus is parked, turn the front wheels slightly. C. Whenever an apparatus is parked, ensure all windows are rolled up. D. Whenever an apparatus is parked, disengage all electrical devices.

Which statement about the freezing point of water is MOST accurate? (167) A. Below 32°F (0°C), water converts to a solid state of matter. B. Below 40°F (4°C), water is able to convert to a solid state of matter. C. Water will not freeze until ambient temperature and surface water temperature are the same. D. Water will not freeze until surface water temperature is lower than ambient temperature.

Which term refers to any pressure less than atmospheric pressure? (175) A. Vacuum B. Head pressure C. Static pressure D. Perfect vacuum

Which term refers to the distance that the vehicle travels from the time brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop? (105) A. Braking distance B. Reaction distance C. Total stopping distance D. Complete stopping distance

Which term refers to the forward velocity pressure while water is flowing from a discharge opening? (176) A. Flow pressure B. Head pressure C. Residual pressure D. Normal operating pressure

Which type of apparatus is preferred when placing one or more firefighters at the position where the elevated master stream is going to be deployed? (690) A. Elevating platform B. Telescoping ladder C. Articulating water tower D. Telescoping ladder with a pinnable waterway

Which type of auxiliary cooling device is inserted into one of the hoses used in the engine cooling system so the engine coolant must travel through it as it circulates through the system? (329) A. Marine cooler B. Outboard cooler C. Inline front-mounted cooler D. Immersion type auxiliary cooler

Which type of light provides general lighting for the scene and is often mounted so that it may be raised, lowered, or turned to provide the best possible lighting? (24) A. Fixed lights B. Portable lights C. Banks of lights D. Multi-use lights

Which type of nozzle is able to break up water to allow better steam conversion? (740) A. Fog nozzle B. Penetrating nozzle C. Solid stream nozzle D. Smooth bore nozzle

Which type of pump has power supplied through the use of a split shaft gear case (transfer case) located in the drive line between the transmission and rear axle? (309) A. Midship pump B. Rear-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which type of stabilizers extend straight away from the truck and have jacks that extend straight down to the ground? (644) A. Box stabilizers B. X-style stabilizers C. A-frame stabilizers D. Post-type stabilizers

Which type of terrain allows for the maximum stability of the apparatus and for the greatest range of safe movement of the aerial apparatus? (654) A. Even terrain B. Uphill terrain C. Uneven terrain D. Downhill terrain

Which will BEST help identify areas that are safe and unsafe for aerial apparatus placement? (661) A. Pre-incident planning B. Emergency scene survey C. Driver/operator's best judgment D. Company officer's knowledge of the area

Which will help position the apparatus in a safe location that maximizes its capabilities at a technical rescue incident? (635) A. Maintaining adequate distance from any unstable terrain B. Parking as close to the incident as physically possible C. Parking in a highly visible location so that responders can easily see the apparatus D. Maintaining an equal distance between the incident and any logistical support

Which would MOST likely be exempt when emergency vehicles have their audible and visual warning lights on? (84) A. Speed limits B. Use of seat belts C. Use of turn signals D. Yielding to pedestrians

Which would be an appropriate option for a systematic maintenance program? (30) A. Contract out repair work B. Bid out repair work at the end of fiscal year C. Assign repair work to any available personnel D. Discontinue repair work and purchase new items

Which would be the BEST option to reduce friction loss caused by hose length? (181) A. Reduce the length of the lay B. Increase the length of the lay C. Use a different type of nozzle D. Increase the velocity of the water

Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance? (89) A. Any firefighter B. Shift supervisor C. Union representative D. Human resources personnel

Why do many fire departments prefer to use quints? (562) A. Quints are capable of supplying their own elevated master streams. B. Quints are more affordable and require much less maintenance than other apparatus. C. Quints are configured so that driver/operator training can be done in minimal time. D. Quints are specifically designed to withstand extreme climates and inclement weather.

Why should hoselines be kept short for apparatus capable of mounting a mobile fire attack? (148) A. To facilitate movement B. To minimize possible damage C. To ensure backup hose is available D. To allow for use by fewer firefighters

10. When drafting, as lift or friction loss in hard intake hose is increased, water supply capability of the pump: (406) A. increases. B decreases. C. remains the same. D. may either increase or decrease.

10. Why should departments predetermine the most advantageous sites and routes for water shuttle operations during preincident planning? (450) A. It is nearly impossible for the Incident Commander to think clearly in the chaos of the incident. B. The IC or Water Supply Group Supervisor will be able to establish a reliable water supply more quickly during an incident. C. During some incidents, several water tenders may make multiple round trips to keep the scene supplied with water. D. When incidents occur on streets with two-way access, the area near the fire may be encumbered by apparatus and hoselines.

13. Which may be one of the most hazardous tasks for the driver/operator during water shuttle operations? (453) A. Opening the vents B. Driving the travel route C. Operating the vacuum pump D. Operating the remote dump valve

14. What is the commonly used guideline for proportioning Class A foam for exposure protection with standard fog nozzles? (488) A. 0.2 to 0.5 percent concentrate B. 0.5 to 1.0 percent concentrate C. 0.3 to 0.7 percent concentrate D. 0.1 to 0.2 percent concentrate

15. When drafting from a static source, the source pumper: (432) A. must have the same pump discharge pressure as other pumpers in the relay operation. B. may need to develop a higher pump discharge pressure than other pumpers in the relay operation. C. may need to develop a lower pump discharge pressure than other pumpers in the relay operation. D. must vary pump discharge pressure to within a range used by other pumpers in the relay operation.

17. A water shuttle operation must be integrated into the Incident Command structure, which should adhere to: (454) A. Title 29 CFR 1910.120 regulations. B. the National Incident Management System (NIMS). C. the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) standards. D. the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) standards.

17. According to NFPA® 1911, all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within _____ of testing. (521) A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 6 months D. 12 months

19. As a relay pumper, it is advisable for driver/operators to maintain an intake pressure of: (433) A. 10 to 20 psi (70 to 140 kPa). B. 20 to 30 psi (140 to 210 kPa). C. 30 to 40 psi (210 to 280 kPa). D. 40 to 50 psi (280 to 350 kPa).

2. In accordance with NFPA® 1901, water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least: (445) A. 750 gpm (3 000 L/min). B. 1,000 gpm (4 000 L/min). C. 1,250 gpm (5 000 L/min). D. 1,500 gpm (6 000 L/min).

21. The goal of the fill site is BEST described as: (455) A. setting up portable tanks for jet siphoning. B. loading tenders as safely and efficiently as possible. C. discharging water from tenders in a continuous supply. D. ensuring that all pumping systems are operating correctly.

21. When relay pumpers are equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, one guideline is that it should be set to: (434) A. the same discharge pressure as the previous pumper in the relay. B. 10 psi (70 kPa) above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay. C. 10 psi (70 kPa) below the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay. D. within ten percent of the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.

22. Driver/operators calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle by: (491) A. dividing the area of the fire by the flow rate. B. dividing the flow rate by the area of the fire. C. multiplying the flow rate by the area of the fire. D. multiplying nozzle pressure by the area of the fire.

23. The driver/operator of the attack pumper should not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure: (434) A. varies within a range of ten percent. B. does not drop below 20 psi (140 kPa). C. does not drop below 40 psi (280 kPa). D. varies within a range of twenty percent.

24. Commonly, water tenders have at least ___ 2½ inch (65 mm) direct tank fill connection(s) or one LDH direct tank fill connection on the rear of the apparatus. (456) A. one B. two C. three D. four

24. Which statement about regular protein foams is MOST accurate? (492) A. They are more fluid than most other low expansion foams. B. They degrade more quickly and are becoming increasingly rare. C. They are a combination of protein-based foam and synthetic foam. D. They are derived from animal protein and contain no additives or chemicals.

25. Which water source typically contains many millions of gallons (liters) of water and may be found on large commercial or industrial properties? (415) A. Cistern B. Ground reservoir C. Private water storage tank D. Agricultural irrigation system

26. For a pumper with a 1,250 gpm (5 000 L/min) capacity, how quickly must it achieve prime during the priming system performance test? (524) A. 15 seconds or less B. 30 seconds or less C. 1 minute or less D. 2 minutes or less

26. Which foam is MOST likely to be used to combat concealed space fires in cellars or other subterranean spaces? (494) A. Fluoroprotein foam B. High-expansion foam C. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) D. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)

27. Which test is performed in a three-part sequence and may be completed while the pump is still set up after the pumping test? (525) A. Priming system test B. Pressure control test C. Tank-to-pump flow test D. Flowmeter operational test

29. Why should the tender driver/operator remain in the apparatus cab at the fill site? (458) A. To reduce risk of injury or accident B. To ensure peak efficiency in apparatus movement C. To allow for short break periods for adequate rehabilitation D. To be able to operate various parts of the tender via remote control

3. When drafting, water is forced in and continues to rise until the pump is full of water or pressure within the pump and intake hose: (404) A. begins to vary. B. equals atmospheric pressure. C. is less than atmospheric pressure. D. is greater than atmospheric pressure.

3. Which are examples of polar solvent fuels requiring the use of special polymeric fire fighting foam? (480) A. Water and acetone B. Alcohol and ketones C. Esters and cooking oils D. Kerosene and crude oils

31. Why should all responding tenders fill their tanks before returning to quarters at the conclusion of an incident? (459) A. It is required by OSHA regulations. B. It returns the apparatus to a "ready" status after an incident. C. It flushes the apparatus to lessen the chance of contamination. D. It is necessary in order to shut down all the rest of the equipment.

32. A type of in-line eductor that may be used to supply foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream foam nozzle is called a: (497) A. handline eductor. B. jet ratio controller. C. mechanical blower. D. fog nozzle eductor.

33. Foam proportioning equipment testing should occur before being placed in service and: (527) A. after each use. B. periodically thereafter. C. only if the foam seems ineffective. D. when the type of foam is changed.

34. During portable water tank operations, once a tank is positioned, a ___ deploys a hard intake hose with a low-level strainer into the tank. (460-461) A. hoseline pumper B. dump site pumper C. attack site pumper D. portable water tank pumper

34. Installed in-line eductors are most commonly used to proportion which class of foam? (497) A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class K

35. Many screw-on intake pressure relief valves are also equipped with a gate valve that allows the: (435) A. pump to be manually shut off. B. water supply to the pump to be shut off. C. water supply to the pump to be doubled. D. pump to signal when water is no longer required.

36. What is the function of bleeder valves? (435) A. Allow water supply to the pump to be shut off B. Allow air to bleed off as incoming supply hose is charged C. Break the large diameter hose (LDH) into two or more hoselines D. Allow excess water to bleed off as incoming supply hose is charged

36. Which is a proportioner used on large mobile apparatus installations, such as ARFF vehicles, and is one of the most accurate methods of foam proportioning? (499) A. Around-the-pump proportioner B. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner C. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection proportioner D. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioner

37. Which foam proportioner test verifies the ability of the foam product to conduct electricity? (529) A. Foam solution refractivity test B. Foam solution conductivity test C. Foam concentrate displacement method D. Foam concentrate pump discharge method

38. Any portable tank, regardless of type, should be set up on a surface that is as level as possible and have a capacity at least ___ larger than the water tank on the apparatus that will supply it. (462) A. 250 gallons (1 000 L) B. 500 gallons (2 000 L) C. 750 gallons (3 000 L) D. 1000 gallons (4 000 L)

39. Class A foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than: (501) A. 2 hours. B. 24 hours. C. one week. D. one month.

4. What is released as fire fighting foam breaks down, providing a cooling effect on the fuel and suppressing the process of heat-producing oxidation? (481) A. Gel B. Water C. Proteins D. Polar solvents

40. When using the batch mixing proportioning method, frothing can be avoided by: (501) A. using a lower proportion of foam. B. slowly circulating water in the tank. C. draining and refilling the water tank. D. removing lubricants from pump seals.

42. During a jet siphon operation, the pump's prime will be lost if: (463) A. the hoseline is too small or too large. B. the apparatus tank is allowed to run dry. C. parallel jet siphons are used to transfer water. D. the dump site pumper is used to supply hoselines for all jet siphons.

42. Which is a limitation of CAFS? (503) A. CAFS requires closer proximity to the fire. B. In event of a hose burst, compressed air will intensify the reaction of hoseline. C. Foam produced by a CAFS does not adhere to a fuel surface as well as low energy foam. D. Hoselines containing high energy foam solution weigh more than those containing plain water.

47. When should occupancies with automatic sprinkler systems be identified? (362) A. After initial incident call B During preincident planning C. During initial size-up of the scene D. After incident action plan has been put into action

5. What is the maximum speed that must be reached by apparatus during road tests? (516) A. 40 mph (65 km/h) B. 50 mph (80 km/h) C. 60 mph (95 km/h) D. 70 mph (110 km/h)

50. Both of the basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators produce foam containing: (505) A. low air content. B. high air content. C. low water content. D. high water content.

52. In which situation is it acceptable to mix together different manufacturers' foam concentrates? (505) A. If they are Class A CAFS foams B. If they are mil-spec concentrates C. If they are not mil-spec concentrates D. If they are Class B polar solvent foams

56. Which is the MOST likely scenario if a supply line loses water but the supply line is intact? (366) A. Vandals have turned off the water supply. B. The hydrant or water main has failed. C. The personnel operating the supply line are inexperienced. D. It is just a momentary pressure change and water will return.

6. Which are designed to work in conjunction with proportioners to produce the best possible foam? (482) A. Pickup tubes B. Foam nozzles C. In-line eductors D. Jet ratio controllers

6. Which statement about using large diameter hose during a fill operation is MOST accurate? (447) A. Handling times will be shorter. B. It may actually provide little advantage. C. The hose will be light and easy to handle. D. More than one fill connection will be required.

8. Which action generally increases the safety of a gravity dump? (448) A. Installation of extension piping B. Installation of a remote dump valve C. Installation of a manual dump valve D. Installation of 8-inch or larger square piping

8. Which statement about batch mixing is accurate? (483) A. It is very complex. B. It is potentially inaccurate. C. It is most effective during large incidents. D. It uses the pressure of a water stream to draft foam.

9. After factoring in surrounding atmospheric pressure and friction loss in the intake hose, every fire pump operating properly should have a dependable lift of: (406) A. exactly 10 feet (3 m). B. at least 14.7 feet (4.5 m). C. at least 21.5 feet (6.5 m). D. between 20 (6 m) and 25 feet (7.5 m).

9. Centrifugal pumps are rated to pump at their maximum volume capacity at _____ at draft. (428) A. 100 psi (700 kPa) B. 150 psi (1 050 kPa) C. 250 psi (1 750 kPa) D. 275 psi (1 925 kPa)

9. What is the purpose of acceptance testing? (517) A. To ensure that driver/operators are well qualified to operate all onboard apparatus equipment B. To demonstrate to the purchaser that the apparatus conforms to all bid specifications at the time of delivery C. To ensure that pumps and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands D. To allow purchasers to test multiple apparatus models and accept the model that best suits their jurisdictional needs

A flowmeter should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus: (282) A. 1 percent. B. 3 percent. C. 6 percent. D. 10 percent.

A safe zone must be established around roadway incidents in order to: (151) A. prevent any onlookers. B. protect personnel and victims. C. provide multiple areas for staging. D. allow traffic to be routed normally.

A solid stream nozzle is designed so that the volume of water flowing through the nozzle: (194) A. is intermittent and reaches the orifice in bursts. B. is gradually reduced until just before the orifice. C. is gradually increased until just before the orifice. D. may either increase or decrease before the orifice.

According to NFPA® 1901, mobile water supply apparatus must be equipped with a tank capacity of at least: (17) A. 500 gallons (2 000 L). B. 1,000 gallons (4 000 L). C. 2,000 gallons (8 000 L). D. 3,500 gallons (14 000 L).

After the driver/operator perceives the need to stop the vehicle, the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal is: (105) A. braking distance. B. reaction distance. C. total stopping distance. D. complete stopping distance.

After transitioning to an external water supply, the driver/operator should: (345) A. open the tank-to-pump valve. B. close the tank-to-pump valve. C. open the four-way hydrant valve. D. close the four-way hydrant valve.

An aerial device should not be repositioned if it is: (721) A. no longer needed. B. used as an emergency escape. C. unable to reach the seat of the fire. D. blocking access of other equipment.

An articulating aerial platform's ability to go "up and over" into areas that are not accessible with a straight line apparatus is MOST helpful in: (559) A. forcible entry. B. rescue operations. C. salvage and overhaul. D. ventilation operations.

Any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be: (120) A. placed underneath the seats or to the side of the seats. B. secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet. C. placed in storage compartments on the outside of the apparatus. D. held in place by rope, webbing, or another secure means.

Apparatus should be weighed after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that axle loading is balanced: (98) A. within 2 percent from side to side. B. within 7 percent from side to side. C. within 15 percent from side to side. D. within 21 percent from side to side.

Articulating aerial equipment consists of two types, water towers and: (684) A. aerial ladders. B. aerial platforms. C. aerial ladder platforms. D. aerial telescoping devices.

As an extinguishing agent, water is generally an: (169) A. expensive but readily available commodity. B. inexpensive and readily available commodity. C. expensive and not readily available commodity. D. inexpensive but not readily available commodity.

Based on NFPA® 1901, as a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750 gpm (3 000 L/min) or greater must be equipped with at least: (314) A. one 2½-inch (65 mm) discharge. B. two 2½-inch (65 mm) discharges. C. three 2½-inch (65 mm) discharges. D. four 2½-inch (65 mm) discharges.

By positioning the truck body in line with the expected position of aerial use, the stability of the apparatus: (619-620) A. will not change. B. can be increased. C. can be decreased. D. will not be known.

Compared to full-size pumpers, initial attack fire apparatus have: (16) A. larger chassis. B. smaller chassis. C. larger agent tank sizes. D. the same chassis and agent tank sizes.

Detachable ladder pipes should be operated from the: (688-689) A. lower section (fly). B. turntable using ropes. C. tip controls in the platform. D. remote control connections.

Driver/operators should examine electrical cords daily: (576) A. to ensure each cord is properly labeled. B. for damage to insulation and connections. C. to ensure that the sockets of the cord have been capped. D. and mark the cords with permanent marker as inspected.

During pumping operations, driver/operators should maintain a residual pressure on the master intake gauge: (340) A. of at least 10 psi (70 kPa). B. of at least 20 psi (140 kPa). C. that is exactly 40 psi (280 kPa). D. between 20 psi (140 kPa) and 40 psi (280 kPa).

Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within: (282) A. 2 inches (50 mm) of the control valve for that discharge. B. 6 inches (150 mm) of the control valve for that discharge. C. 8 inches (200 mm) of the control valve for that discharge. D. 12 inches (300 mm) of the control valve for that discharge.

Engineering design has proven that aerial ladder trusses lend more strength if assembled members form: (543) A. squares. B. triangles. C. octagons. D. hexagons.

Fire pumps are tested at regularly scheduled intervals to compare actual performance to: (48) A. past performance. B. specific standards. C. national averages for performance. D. neighboring jurisdiction performance.

Firefighters involved in rescue operations using an aerial device MUST always be aware of: (721) A. signs of arson. B. weight limitations. C. hydrant water pressure. D. fitness level of all personnel.

Firefighters should never hold onto the ladder hand rails, rungs, or lacing while: (701) A. rotating the ladder. B. extending the ladder. C. ascending the ladder. D. descending the ladder.

Flowmeters reflect water pressure that will be discharged through the nozzle: (282) A. in ideal conditions. B. if the hoseline is functioning at its rated capacity. C. if the hoseline is functioning at least 75% of its rated capacity. D. after the hoseline has been operational for more than two to three minutes.

Foam tanks on municipal fire pumpers are often designed to be refilled: (16) A. directly from 1 gallon (4 L) containers. B. directly from 5 gallon (20 L) containers. C. indirectly from larger portable containers. D. only after returning to the fire department station.

For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh: (167) A. 5.5 lb/gal (.66 kg/L). B. 8.3 lb/gal (1 kg/L). C. 10.2 lb/gal (1.2 kg/L). D. 12 lb/gal (1.5 kg/L).

For which of the following is a nozzle pressure of 50 or 75 psi (350 or 525 kPa) a safe and efficient nozzle pressure? (219) A. Fog nozzle B. Low pressure fog nozzle C. Solid stream nozzle (handline) D. Solid stream nozzle (master stream)

How does wind affect exposure protection? (745) A. Wind will smother and reduce flame spread. B. Wind enhances the effects of radiated and convection heat transfer. C. Wind helps by cooling and lowering temperatures on the surface of exposures. D. Wind reduces fire spread by limiting the amount of oxygen delivered to the fire.

If an apparatus is to be positioned in a dead-end access, it should be backed into position if possible because it will: (624) A. provide easier access to rear compartments. B. make an escape faster if it becomes necessary. C. always allow for less extension of the aerial device. D. always allow for greater extension of the aerial device.

If breathing air systems are installed on aerial devices with elevating platforms, NFPA® 1901 establishes requirements for: (573) A. Heat protection shield B. Low air warning alarms C. Dimensions of the piping system D. Location of the system on the aerial device

If multiple apparatus must work on a bridge, they should not be parked on the same span because: (628) A. it limits the area the master elevated streams would be able to cover. B. the combined static load may exceed the bridge's design limitations. C. it limits the amount of space on the bridge for firefighters to move and work. D. the combined force of multiple elevated streams could cause damage to the bridge.

In a centrifugal pump, the speed of the impeller dictates the amount of pressure developed and the faster the disk is turned,: (299) A. the softer water is thrown, giving the water less velocity. B. the harder water is thrown, giving the water more velocity. C. the more likely the water will gravitate toward the center. D. the more likely the water will build up in the pump causing a problem.

In a grid system, large pipes (mains), with relatively widespread spacing, that convey large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to smaller mains are called: (184) A. distributors. B. primary feeders. C. secondary feeders. D. circulating feeders.

In a multistage pump, setting the transfer valve to series (pressure) results in: (302) A. a much lower pressure than would be achieved in parallel operation. B. a much higher pressure than would be achieved in parallel operation. C. approximately the same pressure that would be achieved in parallel operation. D. pressure that is either slightly higher or slightly lower than achieved in parallel operation.

In general, steering wheel play should be no more than approximately: (41) A. 5 degrees in either direction. B. 10 degrees in either direction. C. 15 degrees in either direction. D. 20 degrees in either direction.

In most fire departments, it is standard operating procedure (SOP) for firefighters to don protective gear: (90) A. after getting into apparatus. B. before getting into apparatus. C. after initial incident survey has occurred. D. after arrival at the site of the emergency.

In order for a pumper to approach its rated capacity using a traditional strainer, there must be at least _____ of water over the strainer. (355) A. 12 inches (300 mm) B. 24 inches (600 mm) C. 36 inches (900 mm) D. 42 inches (1 050 mm)

In order to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts, NFPA® 1901 requires aerial apparatus to be equipped with: (579) A. roof patching materials and floor squeegees. B. multiple salvage covers and two scoop shovels. C. deodorizing equipment and two portable pumps. D. water vacuums and atmospheric monitoring equipment.

In order to convert head in feet to head pressure in psi, you must divide the number of feet by: (175) A. 1.50. B. 2.304. C. 4.302. D. 6.32.

In the formula for friction loss, the "L" refers to: (212) A. flow rate. B. hose length. C. distance of fire stream. D. friction loss coefficient.

In which scene control zone does the decontamination process usually occur? (154) A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Center zone

In which type of stabilizer must the driver/operator swing the extension arm into place and turn the screw jack manually? (664) A. Box stabilizers B. Manual stabilizers C. Post-type stabilizers D. Fulcrum-type stabilizers

It is generally recommended that intake relief valves be set to open when intake pressure rises more than: (320) A. 5 psi (35 kPa) above the necessary operating pressure. B. 10 psi (70 kPa) above the necessary operating pressure. C. 20 psi (140 kPa) above the necessary operating pressure. D. 30 psi (210 kPa) above the necessary operating pressure.

Junction boxes are used at emergency scenes when: (576) A. a single connection is needed. B. multiple connections are needed. C. equipment needs to be interchanged. D. equipment has different types of receptacles.

Master stream appliances should be operated at a maximum of: (194) A. 50 psi (350 kPa). B. 80 psi (560 kPa). C. 100 psi (700 kPa). D. 150 psi (1050 kPa).

NFPA® 1901 requires a protective water fog curtain nozzle to be provided on the bottom of an elevated platform that can be operated to: (557) A. provide assistance to the elevated master stream in intense fire situations. B. provide an additional barrier when the platform is exposed to high levels of heat. C. assist breathing air systems by washing away smoke and debris in the surrounding air. D. take care of minor fires from an elevated angle without activating the master stream.

On an aerial apparatus, what refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus? (97) A. Breakover angle B. Angle of approach C. Angle of departure D. Angle of culmination

Once the driver/operator is assured that the preliminary activities are successfully completed and the ground is prepared for stabilization activities, the selector valve may be operated to: (653) A. activate the interlock of the stabilizers. B. provide hydraulic power to the stabilizing system. C. activate the retraction sequence of the stabilizers. D. provide hydraulic power to the aerial operation system.

Parking lots with the potential for stabilization problems should be identified: (614) A. at the fire scene. B. in preincident plans. C. while en route to the fire scene. D. after stabilization problems have occurred.

Portable lights are used where fixed lights are not able to reach or: (575) A. when softer lighting is needed. B. when additional lighting is necessary. C. where stable, unmoving lights are needed. D. where firefighters are not available to operate lighting.

Pressure control devices that are a part of a fire apparatus pumping system must operate within: (318) A. two to seven seconds after the discharge pressure rises. B. three to ten seconds after the discharge pressure rises. C. ten to twenty seconds after the discharge pressure rises. D. twenty to thirty seconds after the discharge pressure rises.

The ability to initiate a successful drafting operation depends on creating: (322) A. a pressure within the pump and intake hose that is similar to the atmosphere. B. a lower pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere. C. a higher pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere. D. twice the pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere.

The condensed Q formula FL = Q² is used with: (287) A. 2½ -inch hose. B. 3-inch hose. C. 4-inch hose. D. 5-inch hose.

The driver/operator must consider that when a standpipe or hoseline is charged, there: (284) A. may be residual pressure that will cause flow before nozzle is opened. B. is no flow through the system or hose layout until the nozzle is opened. C. will be a significant delay from the time the nozzle is opened until full flow. D. can be significant flow through the system even when the nozzle is unopened.

The function of the hydraulic system is to provide power for operating the various hydraulic components needed to: (546) A. operate the electrical system and turn on the engine. B. stabilize the apparatus and operate the aerial device. C. power ventilation equipment and raise ground ladders. D. operate the engine and activate the emergency brakes.

The primary difference between aerial ladder platforms and telescoping aerial platforms is: (558) A. telescoping aerial platforms are connected by a hinge. B. telescoping aerial platforms are not intended for climbing. C. telescoping aerial platforms have a nozzle located inside the platform. D. telescoping aerial platforms can only be controlled from the platform.

The pump discharge pressure should be calculated and set based on: (219) A. average of all hoseline pressure requirements. B. hoseline with the greatest pressure requirement. C. median of lowest and highest pressure requirements. D. hoseline most likely to be used more during operations.

The second principle of friction loss illustrates that (178) A. friction loss and velocity are unrelated. B. friction loss develops much faster than change in velocity. C. friction loss develops much slower than change in velocity. D. friction loss develops at the same rate as change in velocity.

The sixth principle of pressure states that the pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is: (174) A. greater at the center. B. independent of the shape of the vessel. C. greater toward the outside of the vessel. D. dependent upon the shape of the vessel.

The two common types of ventilation equipment used to supplement the natural flow of heat, smoke, and gases from a fire building are exhaust fans and: (579) A. water vacuums. B. positive-pressure blowers. C. negative-pressure blowers. D. atmospheric monitoring equipment.

The working height for aerial ladders is measured from the: (552) A. lowest ladder rung to the highest rung with the ladder at maximum elevation and extension. B. ground to the highest ladder rung with the ladder at maximum elevation and extension. C. base of the turntable to the highest rung with the ladder at maximum elevation and extension. D. ground to the lowest ladder rung with the ladder at half of the maximum elevation and extension.

Tiller operators must be particularly aware of: (117) A. poor gas mileage. B. proper overhead clearance. C. excessive wear on apparatus tires. D. improper storage of items on apparatus.

To create an effective fire stream during drafting operations, a lift of no greater than _____ is recommended. (357) A. 10 feet (3 m) B. 20 feet (6 m) C. 30 feet (9 m) D. 40 feet (12 m)

To maintain control when in an acceleration skid, the driver/operator should not apply brakes, but should instead ease off the accelerator, and: (108) A. then apply the brakes forcefully. B. straighten out the front wheels as vehicle begins to respond. C. turn the front wheels in the same direction as the skid. D. turn the front wheels in the opposite direction from the skid.

Water is: (167) A. compressible only in a vacuum. B. considered to be virtually incompressible. C. compressible only at very low temperatures. D. compressible only at very high temperatures.

Weight carried on most apparatus can contribute to: (98) A. problems with the apparatus brakes. B. skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer. C. increased road traction, causing decreased ability for speed. D. inability of the apparatus to navigate normal road conditions.

What are required to prevent the apparatus from tipping as the aerial device is extended away from the centerline of the chassis? (644) A. Interlock B. Stabilizers C. Selector valve D. Holding valves

What automatically reduces engine torque and applies brakes to wheels that have lost traction and have begun to spin? (111) A. Antilock braking system (ABS) B. Automatic traction control (ATC) C. Inclement weather control (IWC) D. Secondary braking control system (SBC)

What can be studied to help an operator recognize when an aerial operation is nearing a critical condition due to ladder capacity? (682) A. Knuckle B. Load chart C. Hydraulic calculations D. Electrical specification chart

What can cause poor traction? (98) A. Under-loaded front axles B. Too little weight on driving axles C. Too much weight on steering axle D. Either too much or too little weight on steering axles

What do fixed breathing air systems allow firefighters to do while working at the tip of the aerial device? (573) A. Breathe clean air with full SCBA on B. Breathe clean air without the need to don SCBA C. Refill SCBA cylinders without having to dismount D. Create an additional barrier in high levels of heat

What generally accounts for a significant percentage of all damage repair costs for a fire department? (86) A. Parking accidents B. Backing accidents C. Dumping operations D. Maintenance mishaps

What is a limitation of ladder belts and tethers? (677) A. Most ladder belts and tethers are designed for self-rescue. B. Most ladder belts and tethers are not designed for self-rescue. C. Most ladder belts and tethers can be attached to a feature on the aerial device. D. Most ladder belts and tethers can support the weight of multiple people and equipment.

What is the BEST guarantee that an apparatus will perform within its design limitations? (586) A. An extended warranty from the original manufacturers of the apparatus B. An organized system of apparatus testing and regular maintenance C. An insurance policy that will cover any damage that may occur during operations D. Limiting the number of mutual aid incidents that the apparatus responds to

What is the BEST way to accomplish a blitz attack with an elevated master stream? (741) A. Deflect water off the floor of the fire room B. Deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room C. Penetrate through the adjacent fire room with a solid stream D. Penetrate through the roof of the building with a solid stream

What is the MOST reliable method of obtaining wind speed at the location of aerial device operation? (692) A. Information from the dispatch center B. Calibrated wind-measuring equipment C. Information from TV and news reports D. Weather information from the Internet

What location is generally considered the safest position for apparatus placement should a structural collapse occur? (138) A. Middle of the structure B. Corners of the structure C. Slightly to the front of the structure D. One-third the distance from the middle of the structure

What must all riders be doing, in addition to being seated within the cab or body, before the apparatus is put into motion? (90) A. Wearing helmets B. Wearing seat belts C. Wearing universal precaution equipment D. Carrying extra personal protective clothing

What results when the aerial device is positioned perpendicular to the objective? (724) A. No twisting stresses are imposed on the aerial device. B. The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are reduced. C. The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are increased. D. The twisting stresses imposed on the aerial are similar to when the device is in line with the turntable.

What scene control zone is also known as the yellow zone? (154) A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Center zone

What should always be used when backing up an apparatus? (699) A. Cones B. A spotter C. Flashlights D. Floor markings

What should be done each time nonpotable water is pumped through an apparatus? (356) A. Nothing needs to be done to the pump and piping system. B. Pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed with fresh water soon afterwards. C. Pump and piping should be drained and allowed to totally dry out before the next use. D. Pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed with special cleaning solution soon afterwards.

What should be done first when preparing to shut down a drafting operation? (362) A. Completely shut down engine B. Slowly decrease engine speed to idle C. Leave engine in the highest gear possible D. Increase engine speed then quickly decrease engine speed

What should driver/operators look for when approaching a vehicle to be inspected? (37) A. Whether or not doors are locked B. Terrain on which vehicle is parked C. Levels on all gauges on the apparatus D. Damage to interior of the apparatus cab

What staging protocol is MOST likely to be enacted when a large number of units are responding to an incident? (150) A. Level I staging B. Level II staging C. Level III staging D. Level IV staging

What term is often used to define pumping apparatus smaller than a full-size pumper? (16) A. Low-pumper B. Mini-pumper C. Half-pumper D. Fast-action pumper

When a defensive attack is employed: (738) A. firefighters attack from within the building. B. risk of building collapse must be considered. C. the Incident Commander should call for mutual aid. D. fire apparatus can be positioned closer to the structure.

When a nozzle is below the level of the pump, there is: (176) A. pressure loss. B. pressure gain. C. no change in pressure. D. either pressure loss or pressure gain.

When a pumper is being supplied by another pumper, net pump discharge pressure is the difference between pump discharge pressure and: (219) A. outgoing pressure from supply source. B. incoming pressure from supply source. C. average total pressure of both pumpers. D. combined total pressure of both pumpers.

When a pumper is discharging water, the intake gauge displays: (347) A. static pressure. B. residual pressure. C. atmospheric pressure. D. average or median pressure.

When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given fourth priority? (723) A. Those in the hazard area B. Those in the exposed area C. The largest group of people D. Those in the greatest danger

When considering stress on the aerial device, which is the BEST source for the driver/operator to find information about an aerial apparatus' maximum loading? (621) A. SOPs for extra stabilization B. Manufacturer's recommendations C. The company officer's knowledge D. The driver/operator's past experience

When engineers estimate the amount of water that a large city needs, the: (183) A. only needs taken into account are the industrial/domestic needs. B. domestic/industrial requirements will far exceed that required for fire protection. C. requirements for fire protection will far exceed those for domestic/industrial needs. D. needs for fire protection and domestic/industrial needs should be considered to be the same.

When pinnable waterways are operated in the rescue mode, the master stream nozzle is: (687) A. at the tip of the aerial device. B. one aerial section lower than the tip. C. attached to the cab on the aerial device. D. mounted to a stand secured to the ground.

When positioning the aerial apparatus and deploying the stabilizers during an emergency, the goal is to: (646-651) A. only deploy the apparatus when it is absolutely needed. B. ensure one move and one setup without having to reposition. C. deploy as quickly as possible, even if it means cutting corners. D. ensure the best position, even if it means having to reposition.

When positioning to support aerial apparatus, pumpers providing water supply for elevated stream operations should position: (141) A. near the closest exit for the incident. B. as closely to aerial apparatus as practical. C. between the building and aerial apparatus. D. as far away from aerial apparatus as practical.

When possible, the driver/operator should position an aerial apparatus at the: (699) A. side of the building. B. corner of the building. C. side with the largest window. D. side with the most visible fire.

When priming the pump and beginning drafting operations, a two-stage pump: (358) A. must have the transfer valve in the series (pressure) position. B. must have the transfer valve in the parallel (volume) position. C. can have the transfer valve in either the series (pressure) or parallel (volume) position. D. must initially have the transfer valve in the series (pressure) position but then switch to the parallel (volume) position.

When responding to hazardous materials incidents, which is the BEST reason the aerial apparatus should not be parked over manholes or storm drains? (632) A. The manhole or drainage cover may slip and threaten stability of the apparatus. B. Flammable material flowing into the underground system could ignite and explode. C. Haz mat technicians may need to enter the underground system at certain points of entry. D. Haz mat technicians may need to monitor the underground system for contamination.

When shutting down a drafting operation, why should the positive displacement primer be operated for several seconds until primer oil or fluid comes out of discharge from the priming pump? (362) A. Ensures primer works efficiently B. Aids in lubrication of priming pump C. Avoids contamination of priming pump D. Ensures fluid is removed from the priming pump

When the first apparatus arrives at an incident where no fire is evident, the driver/operator should: (136) A. pull to the center of the building. B. pull apparatus past the front of the building. C. stop apparatus short of the front of the building. D. drive apparatus around the block and back to the building.

When two hoselines of equal length are Siamesed to supply a fire stream, friction loss is approximately: (216) A. the same as that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure. B. 25 percent less than that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure. C. 10 percent more than that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure. D. 50 percent less than that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure.

When using a static water source, prime the pump by: (313) A. turning a valve a quarter-turn clockwise. B. removing all or most of the air from the pump. C. inserting a small amount of air into the pump. D. turning a valve a quarter-turn counterclockwise.

When water converts to steam within a closed space, the fire: (168) A. may react with the steam violently. B. may be extinguished by smothering. C. will become larger and more difficult to extinguish. D. will stay in the incipient stage until it is extinguished.

When would be the BEST time to develop apparatus placement procedures involving access to occupancies and overhead obstructions? (610) A. At the fire scene B. During preincident planning C. When en route to a fire scene D. When a new aerial apparatus is purchased

Whenever possible, the driver/operator should avoid ___ by getting as close to the desired objective as safely possible. (612) A. extensions at any angle B. long extensions at low angles C. short extensions at high angles D. extensions directly above the apparatus

Where is the secondary control position for the aerial operator? (680) A. At the lower controls B. At the tip or in the platform C. In the cab of the aerial apparatus D. On the middle fly section of the ladder

Which apparatus are MOST likely to serve applications such as long-term pumping operations at landfills? (22) A. Wildland fire apparatus B. Trailer-mounted fire pumps C. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which apparatus would be MOST beneficial in assisting municipal fire departments with large scale flammable liquid incidents? (20) A. Wildland fire apparatus B. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which component allows sections of the aerial device to extend and retract without causing excessive wear on parts of the device that come into contact with each other? (562) A. Cable systems B. Slide and rollers C. Hydraulic systems D. Chains and pulleys

Which customary formula would be used to determine elevation pressure in a multistory building? (214) A. 1 psi x (number of stories − 1) B. 5 psi x (number of stories − 1) C. 10 psi x (number of stories − 1) D. 15 psi x (number of stories − 2)

Which department member is MOST likely to be responsible for apparatus-mounted special systems, as well as for the fire pump? (22) A. Battalion chief B. Driver/operator C. Senior firefighter D. Incident Commander

Which equipment is used to supply power to several connections from one supply source? (24) A. Adapters B. Junction boxes C. Multi-use cords D. Twist-lock receptacles

Which factor involves taking into consideration the capability of nearby jurisdictions when determining the capacity of mobile water supply apparatus? (17) A. Terrain B. Interoperability C. Monetary constraints D. Bridge and weight limits

Which is MOST appropriate when moving capable adult victims down aerial ladders? (729) A. Firefighters should always carry victims down the ladder. B. Firefighters should always lead the adult victim down the ladder. C. Victims should always climb down the ladder with another victim, not by themselves. D. Victims should always be lowered to the ground instead of climbing down the ladder.

Which is a constant in the metric formula for discharge rate? (195) A. 0.03 B. 0.067 C. 0.096 D. 1.75

Which is a factor that works against an aerial device's strength? (621) A. Grades B. Stresses C. Spotting D. Jackknifing

Which is a good indicator of underground voids when spotting an aerial apparatus? (615) A. Uneven grades B. Manhole covers C. Significant cracking in concrete D. Shiny, glass-like areas on asphalt

Which is a guideline when working on, around, or under apparatus? (119) A. Always carry a hand-held radio. B. Always have a second person present. C. Always let at least one person know where you are. D. Work on apparatus only when maintenance personnel are present.

Which is a method of protecting personnel from traffic at an incident? (138) A. Allow vehicles through one at a time B. Block lanes of the road where firefighters are operating C. Stop all traffic within 50 yards of the scene in any direction D. Stop all traffic within 100 yards of the scene in any direction

Which is a safety and efficiency requirement that should be met by mobile water supply apparatus? (18) A. Ability to operate in any type of terrain or weather B. Suspension and steering matched to terrain requirements C. Water capacity that provides 10% more water than needed D. Water capacity that provides 50% more water than needed

Which is a simple guideline for the customary system of measurement that may be used to achieve approximate solid stream nozzle reaction on the fireground? (203) A. NR = Q/2 B. NR = Q/3 C. NR = Q x 1.5 D. NR = Q x 2.7

Which is a way to minimize stresses on the aerial device when positioning an apparatus on a longitudinal grade? (660) A. Placing the apparatus crosswise on the grade B. Using the stabilizers to level the apparatus as much as possible C. Operating articulating aerial devices off of the front of the vehicle D. Operating the aerial device directly over either side of the apparatus

Which is important to maintain when moving the device with people on the ladder? (677) A. Water pressure B. Communication C. Two points of contact D. Contact with device cables

Which is the customary formula for determining nozzle reaction for solid stream nozzles? (203) A. NR = d² x NP B. NR = 1.57 x d² x NP C. NR = 0.057 x d² x NP D. NR = 29.7 x d2 √NP

Which is the first consideration in establishing a drafting operation? (354) A. Pumper size B. Site selection C. Available personnel D. Potential growth of the fire

Which is the preferred type of hose for making hydrant connections? (143) A. Small diameter intake hose B. Large diameter intake hose C. Hose in sections at least 100 feet in length D. Hose in sections less than 50 feet in length

Which is typically driven through a gear box and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of the crankshaft? (308) A. Midship pump B. Front-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which is used to operate the priming device when the pump will draft from a static water supply? (328) A. Tachometer B. Primer control C. Master intake gauge D. Water tank level indicator

Which method of determining friction loss relies on the use of mathematical equations or field application methods? (211) A. Performing tests B. Using calculations C. Historical information D. Manufacturer guidelines

Which nozzle is designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure? (197) A. Automatic fog nozzle B. Constant flow fog nozzle C. High pressure fog nozzle D. Selectable gallonage nozzle

Which of the following is the most common place for accidents to occur? (85) A. Parking lots B. Intersections C. Undivided highways D. Bridges or overpasses

Which option may water tower systems may be equipped with that enhances water tower use under special conditions? (572) A. Aerial ladder B. Video camera C. Elevated platform D. Detachable pipe system

Which primer is generally found on skid-mounted pumps or older fire apparatus and requires a great deal of maintenance to remove carbon deposits? (323) A. Air primer B. Exhaust primer C. Vacuum primer D. Positive displacement primer

Which problem is MOST likely to cause an inability to prime? (359) A. Lift is too low B. Engine speed (rpm) is too low C. Engine speed (rpm) is too high D. Excess fluid in the priming reservoir

Which provides a reading of residual pressure when the pump is operating from a hydrant or is receiving water through a supply line from another pumper? (325) A. Tachometer B. Master intake gauge C. Pumping engine throttle D. Master discharge pressure gauge

Which provides a relative indication of battery condition? (326) A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Tachometer D. Pumping engine throttle

Which pump design has the disadvantage of the driver/operator being more directly exposed to oncoming traffic than in other pump-mounting positions? (312) A. Midship pump B. Rear-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which pump design offers advantages such as more even weight distribution on the chassis and more usable compartment space? (312) A. Midship pump B. Rear-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which situation would pose excessive lateral stress on an aerial device? (736) A. Large amounts of snow on the ladder B. Extending an aerial device into swiftly moving water C. Having a heavy load near the tip of the aerial ladder D. Lowering a victim in a Stokes basket from the lifting eye(s)

Which stability control system applies brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction the operator positions the steering wheel? (112) A. Roll stability control B. Electronic stability control C. Axle differential stability control D. Automatic sensor stability control

Which standard establishes the requirements for annual testing of the breathing air system and the quality of the stored air? (573) A. NFPA® 1901 B. NFPA® 1911 C. NFPA® 1962 D. NFPA® 1989

Which statement about excessive speed and braking is MOST accurate? (87) A. Excessive speed affects reaction time, not braking. B. Excessive speed can cause difficulties when braking. C. Excessive speed is dangerous but has no effect on braking. D. Excessive speed affects braking only when brakes are pumped.

Which statement about the driver/operator and maintenance responsibilities is MOST accurate? (30) A. All maintenance is generally contracted out to a service shop. B. The driver/operator is often able to correct minor deficiencies. C. The driver/operator performs all maintenance of the apparatus. D. A certified mechanic must perform all maintenance on the apparatus.

Which statement about water and electricity is accurate? (170) A. Water is a poor conductor of electricity. B. Water is a good conductor of electricity. C. Water conducts electricity only at very high voltages. D. Water can conduct electricity, but does not create hazardous situations.

Which statement about water curtains is MOST accurate? (169) A. Radiant heat does not pass through water, so water curtains are very effective. B. Radiant heat easily passes through water, rendering water curtains ineffective. C. Radiant heat passes through water but with difficulty, so the effectiveness of water curtains is difficult to determine. D. Radiant heat passes through cold water but not warm water, so the effectiveness of water curtains depends on temperature.

Which term refers to positioning the apparatus in a location that provides the utmost efficiency for operating on the fireground? (613) A. Spacing B. Spotting C. Stabilizing D. Jackknifing

Which term refers to stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, hose and adapters? (175) A. Head pressure B. Static pressure C. Residual pressure D. Normal operating pressure

Which type of apparatus is often divided into three general categories: major fire fighting vehicles, rapid intervention vehicles, and combined agent vehicles? (20) A. Wildland fire apparatus B. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which type of cylinders has the function of elevating the aerial device from its stowed position? (550) A. Locking cylinders B. Hoisting cylinders C. Stabilizer cylinders D. Double acting cylinders

Which type of flowmeter is mounted at the top of a straight section of discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends into the waterway? (282) A. Bypass B. Paddlewheel C. Front mount D. Spring probe

Which type of flowmeter uses a sensor to measure the speed at which it spins and translates the information into a flow measurement? (282) A. Bypass B. Paddlewheel C. Front mount D. Spring probe

Which type of light ranges from 300 to 1,000 watts and is advantageous where illumination is needed away from the apparatus? (23-24) A. Fixed lights B. Portable lights C. Banks of lights D. Multi-use lights

Which type of nozzle provides excellent penetration into fire areas? (740) A. Fog nozzle B. Solid stream nozzle C. Shower curtain nozzle D. Penetrating fog nozzle

Which type of pump consists of two gears that rotate in a tightly meshed pattern inside a watertight case? (296) A. Rotary gate pump B. Rotary gear pump C. Rotary vane pump D. Rotary inline pump

Which type of pump is MOST vulnerable to damage from exposure or a vehicle collision? (309) A. Midship pump B. Front-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which type of seal offers superior resistance to warping, stretching, and corrosion? (307) A. Brass B. Ceramic C. Cast iron D. Carbon fiber

Which type of valve limits the pressure built up in the hydraulic system, thus preventing damage due to overpressurization? (549) A. Stack valve B. Relief valve C. Check valve D. Selector valve

Who should the fire department coordinate with before flushing hydrants in nonemergency situations? (188) A. Law enforcement B. Local water authority C. Local transportation authority D. Neighboring housing additions

Why should firefighters and passengers use extreme caution when mounting and dismounting an aerial device from an aircraft's wings? (748) A. To avoid unbalancing the plane B. The surface of the wings is slippery C. The wings cannot support any additional weight D. To avoid creating any possible damage to the aircraft

1. Lift can be described as the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the: (403) A. nozzle. B. fire scene itself. C. center of the pump intake. D. highest point on the fire apparatus.

1. Which standard is commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications? (516) A. NFPA® 1500 B. NFPA® 1521 C. NFPA® 1901 D. NFPA® 1931

12. Regardless of the type of tank, what is one characteristic that all foam storage containers share? (486) A. Oxygenation B. Refrigeration C. Airtight storage D. Room for expansion

13. The formula of Class A foam includes _____ that reduce the surface tension of water in the foam solution. (487) A. gelling agents B. polar solvents C. hydrocarbon surfactants D. protein foam concentrates

15. The minimum amount of foam solution that must be used on a fire per minute per square foot (square meter) of fire is called the: (488) A. eduction rate. B. injection rate. C. application rate. D. proportioning rate.

16. Which statement BEST exemplifies a problem that steep grades can cause during a water shuttle operation? (454) A. Shuttles cannot be filled as fully in order to prevent overflow during shuttle operation. B. Water is more likely to spill from apparatus during shuttle operations on a steep grade. C. Uphill grades slow the operation, and downhill grades require constant attention to control the vehicle. D. Uphill grades require constant attention to vehicle speed control, and downhill grades slow the operation.

16. Which would be the MOST likely concern after traversing frozen ground in order to reach a drafting site? (411) A. Ice may build up on apparatus parts. B. Chocking wheels is not possible in icy conditions. C. Thawing may occur from an increase in air temperature. D. Temperatures will decrease resulting in ground becoming even more solid.

19. Low-level strainers are most commonly used to draft from: (412) A. lakes. B. small ponds. C. portable water tanks. D. running streams or creeks.

19. What are Mil-Spec concentrates? (489) A. Experimental foams still in the development phase B. Foam concentrates used only in U.S. Military operations C. Foam concentrates manufactured to U.S. Military specifications D. Foam concentrates manufactured by the Milhouse Specialty Company

19. What should the Water Supply Group Supervisor do if water demand begins to outpace supply? (455) A. Find a new fill site B. Speed up operations C. Summon additional tenders D. Find an additional dump site

2. During the process of drafting, which results in water being forced into the hose and pump because of a partial vacuum created in the pump? (404) A. Pressure in the intake hose and pump equals atmospheric pressure. B. Pressure in the intake hose and pump fluctuates more than ten percent. C. Pressure in the intake hose and pump drops to lower than atmospheric pressure. D. Pressure in the intake hose and pump increases to higher than atmospheric pressure.

20. What do some jurisdictions do to help avoid problems with silt and debris? (412) A. Use a double-layered strainer B. Avoid drafting from these areas C. Install dry hydrants at favorable drafting locations D. Designate equipment that is used only in these locations

20. Which factor is MOST likely to affect the degree of expansion in a foam solution? (490) A. Biodegradability B. Rate of application C. Method of aeration D. Decomposition rate

21. Any operation that causes salt or dirty water to be drawn into a pump requires the pump be flushed with: (412) A. foam solution after pumping operation is complete. B. distilled water after pumping operation is complete. C. clean fresh water after pumping operation is complete. D. special cleaning solution after pumping operation is complete.

21. During service testing, personnel should operate the engine throttle slowly in order to help prevent which potentially dangerous situation from occurring? (523) A. Sudden speed changes B. Gradual speed changes C. Sudden pressure changes D. Gradual pressure changes

21. Which variable affects a foam's rate of application? (490) A. Environmental considerations B. The type of foam proportioner used C. Whether the fuel is contained or uncontained D. The ambient temperature at the incident site

22. All firefighters working in close proximity to bodies of water must wear personal flotation devices and use safety lines: (414) A. if the depth is greater than 3 feet. B. if the depth is greater than 5 feet. C. regardless of the assumed depth. D. unless a certified water safety swimmer.

22. Attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set: (434) A. at exactly 50 psi (350 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition. B. at exactly 75 psi (525 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition. C. between 50 and 75 psi (350 and 525 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition. D. between 75 and 100 psi (525 and 700 kPa) to establish a stable operating condition.

22. Ideally, the fill site pumper should be positioned so as to allow a view of both the: (456) A. approach and departure routes. B. hydrant and the portable pumps. C. water source and the water tender to be filled. D. driver/operator and the firefighter maneuvering the fill line.

23. What piece of equipment is used to determine engine speed during performance testing? (523) A. Flow meter B. Pitot gauge C. Tachometer D. Speedometer

23. Which may increase the options available for using static water supply at many incidents? (456) A. Booster lines B. Discharge lines C. Portable pumps D. Top-mounted pumps

23. Why might fuel and fire consume a portion or the entire foam blanket? (491) A. Presence of polar solvents B. Presence of thermal drafts C. Inconsistent application time D. Incorrect type or concentration used

24. Which water source is the fire department MOST likely to require the owner to equip with appropriate connection points for fire department use? (415) A. Cistern B. Ground reservoir C. Private water storage tank D. Agricultural irrigation system

25. Which foam consists of fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with solvents to create a high boiling point? (492) A. Fluoroprotein foam B. High-expansion foam C. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) D. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP)

25. Which is the BEST way to control flow from the fill site pumper? (457) A. Shutting down the fill site pumper B. Closing the direct tank fill valve on the tender C. Using the discharge gates on the pumping apparatus D. Using a manifold between the last two sections of hose to act as a valve

26. Which water source is MOST likely to have access that may be difficult because of their backyard location and the presence of fences? (415) A. Cisterns B. Ground reservoirs C. Swimming pools D. Private water storage tanks

28. Which is an advantage when operating in an open relay? (435) A. Requires less experienced personnel B. Decreases operational costs of incidents C. Eliminates pressure surges and inconsistent supply D. Increases amount of water available for fire suppression

28. Which water source may be equipped with connections similar to a dry hydrant for quick fire department hook-ups? (418) A. Cisterns B. Agricultural irrigation systems C. Large indoor or outdoor pools D. Small private residential pools

29. When operating an in-line foam eductor, which of the following operating guidelines must be followed to achieve properly proportioned finished foam? (495) A. The inlet pressure should be decreased as much as possible in order to create the Venturi effect. B. Back pressure should be increased as much as possible in order to create the best foam induction. C. The flow in gallons per minute (L/min) through the eductor must not exceed its rated capacity. D. The pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not be less than 70 percent of the eductor inlet pressure.

29. Which is a characteristic of the open relay method? (435) A. Increases number of personnel required for the relay B. Provides significant cost savings for long-term operations C. Requires no adapters or other appliances to connect intake hoses in the system D. Requires a variety of adapters or other appliances to connect intake hoses in the system

29. Which test verifies that the piping between the onboard tank and pump is sufficient to supply the minimum amount of water as specified by NFPA® 1901 and the design of the manufacturer? (525) A. Priming system test B. Pressure control test C. Tank-to-pump flow test D. Discharge pressure gauge test

29. Which water source generally supplies water via open canals and portable pipes? (418) A. Cisterns B. Private water storage tanks C. Agricultural irrigation systems D. Large indoor or outdoor pools

30. After the onboard water tank is full, what is the next step in the fill operation? (459) A. The driver/operator can then be signaled to proceed. B. A signal should be given for the next tender to move into position. C. The fill site personnel should slowly close the valve(s) on the gate or manifold. D. The direct tank fill valve on the tender should be closed and the hose(s) removed from the inlet and placed away from the path of any apparatus.

30. Viscosity, or the thickness and ability of a liquid to flow freely, is MOST likely to be affected by: (495) A. humidity. B. elevation. C. temperature. D. nozzle pressure.

30. Which water source is MOST likely to require specially threaded adapters or other tools to operate the system? (418) A. Cisterns B. Private water storage tanks C. Agricultural irrigation systems D. Large indoor or outdoor pools

31. When large diameter hose (LDH) is used in relay operations: (435) A. it is supplemented with small diameter hose (SDH). B. it is supplemented with medium diameter hose (MDH). C. the LDH often requires only one supply line to meet fireground requirements. D. multiple supply lines are still required to meet fireground requirements.

31. Which apparatus performance tests require that a discharge hoseline from a second pumper be connected to the apparatus being tested? (526) A. Priming system test B. Tank-to-pump flow test C. Internal intake pressure relief valve test D. Discharge pressure gauge and flowmeter operational tests

33. Pressure relief valves reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and other water supply components that may be caused by water hammer when valves are operated too quickly or: (435) A. water supply fluctuates. B. valves are operated too slowly. C. intake pressures rise dramatically. D. intake pressures decrease dramatically.

34. Which foam proportioner test checks the volume of foam concentrate that is drawn through the system? (527) A. Foam solution refractivity test B. Foam solution conductivity test C. Foam concentrate displacement method D. Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

37. The most common style of portable tank: (462) A. consists of a large bladder with a floating collar around the opening. B. has a hose connection near its bottom to aid drafting operations. C. folds and is mounted and removed from the apparatus, as with a ground ladder. D. requires that framework be assembled at the scene and the liner attached to the inside.

37. Which statement about variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioners is MOST accurate? (500) A. It is the simplest method of proportioning foam. B. It is a method compatible only with high energy foam systems. C. It consists of a variable speed mechanism driven electrically or hydraulically that operates a foam concentrate pump. D. It features the ability to monitor the demand for foam concentrate and adjust the amount of concentrate supplied.

37. Which valves allow later arriving pumpers to tie into the relay and boost pressure and volume after it has already started flowing, without interrupting the water supply? (436) A. Gate valves B. Bleeder valves C. Inline relay valves D. Periphery relay valves

40. What is the goal of a portable multi-tank operation? (463) A. Maintain the same level of water in all tanks B. Reduce wear and damage on tank liners by distributing the work C. Keep the tank from which the attack pumper is drafting full at all times D. Minimize backing and turning by offering multiple dumping locations

41. High-energy foam generating systems/CAFS differ from other methods because: (502) A. the flow of concentrate matches the pressure demand better. B. the concentrate is supplied from atmospheric pressure foam tanks on the apparatus. C. they introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into the hoseline. D. they introduce compressed air into the foam solution after discharge into the hoseline.

44. Which of the following maintains certain criteria for determining the proper specifications for water tender apparatus? (464) A. National guidelines B. State/provincial guidelines C. Each individual jurisdiction D. Incident Command System (ICS)

45. How is the gpm (L/min) data for a water tender MOST likely to be used during preplanning? (464) A. To decide how much gas the vehicle will need during the incident B. To determine how fast a specific type of fire can be extinguished C. To determine how many tenders are required to provide a particular flow for a given target hazard D. To report the information to the National Incident Management System (NIMS) for comparison with other tenders

46. A smooth bore nozzle is limited to application of which classification of foam? (504) A. Any Class A foam B. Any Class B foam C. Class A foam from a CAFS D. Class B foam from a CAFS

47. Another method of calculating a flow rate for a specific tender rates the water supply performance of fire departments that protect rural areas and measures data by: (465-466) A. timing the water tender during an incident. B. recording times during a series of incidents and taking an average. C. using a series of formulas originally developed by the Insurance Services Office (ISO). D. dividing the amount of water the tender dumped during a trial run by the time the round trip took.

48. If a sprinkler system is to be supplied at the fire department connection and no specific information is available, the general guideline is to discharge _____ into the FDC. (363) A. 50 psi (350 kPa) B. 75 psi (525 kPa) C. 150 psi (1 050 kPa) D. 250 psi (1 750 kPa)

48. Which kind of nozzle inducts air into foam solution by a Venturi action and is the only nozzle that should be used with protein and fluoroprotein concentrates? (504) A. Fog nozzles B. Smooth bore nozzles C. Air-aspirating foam nozzles D. Master stream foam nozzles

49. What are the two basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators? (505) A. Water aspirating and hydrolyzed B. Hydrolyzed and burnback resistant C. Water aspirating and mechanical blower D. Burnback resistant and mechanical blower

49. When supporting standpipe operations, fire attack crews should: (364) A. use both house hose and attack lines. B. avoid using the standpipe unless fire is growing. C. bring attack lines to initiate standpipe operations. D. use the house hose installed at standpipe connection.

51. Which statement is true about the adequate and/or inadequate production of foam when an in-line proportioner is used? (505) A. A nozzle placed too far above the eductor will result in excessive foaming. B. Too long an attack line on the discharge side of the eductor will diminish the Venturi effect. C. A partially closed nozzle will result in a flow rate that will not allow the creation of a Venturi effect. D. It is acceptable to mix foam concentrates from different manufacturers as long as they are the same class.

52. Friction loss in standpipes is generally: (365) A. large regardless of flow. B. small regardless of flow. C. small unless flow is very large. D. so variable that it cannot be correctly accounted for.

53. When a dry standpipe system is charged, water will be discharged: (365) A. only in the area of the fire itself. B. at all points regardless of position of valves. C. at all points where caps are off and valve is open. D. at all points where caps are on and valve is closed.

54. Which method for Class B foam application involves directing the foam onto a vertical surface and allowing it to run down and spread across pooled fuel product? (506) A. Roll-on method B. Rain-down method C. Bank-down method D. Direct application method

55. What is determined by the rate at which natural bacteria can degrade foam? (508) A. Hydrolization B. Decomposition C. Biodegradability D. Burnback resistance

6. In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately: (404) A. 10 feet (3 m). B. 15 feet (4.5 m). C. 25 feet (7.5 m). D. 40 feet (12 m).

7. NFPA® 1901 requires that water be capable of being dumped from the: (448) A. front and rear of the apparatus. B. left and right of the apparatus. C. left, right, and rear of the apparatus. D. left, right, and front of the apparatus.

8. The engine speed interlock test is part of which category of preperformance tests? (517) A. Acceptance tests B. Manufacturers' tests C. Pump certification tests D. Engineering system tests

9. On water tenders, remote controlled vents are preferable to manually operated vents because: (449) A. if the apparatus is parked on a grade, water may run out of the vents. B. the vents may freeze between dumping operations in cold weather climates. C. manually operated vents may require the driver/operator to climb on top of the tank. D. inadequate venting during dumping operations may result in a suction effect that collapses the tank.

9. Which proportioning method uses premeasured portions of water and foam concentrate that are mixed in a container? (484) A. Injection B. Induction C. Premixing D. Batch mixing

A dead-end fire hydrant is a fire hydrant that: (184) A. is located last on a street. B. receives water from two directions. C. receives water from only one direction. D. is located where turn-around in not possible.

A driver/operator MUST be well trained in the: (679) A. operation of multiple aerial devices. B. emergency repair of aerial devices. C. function of each control on an aerial device. D. technical configuration of each mechanical operation inside the aerial device.

A driver/operator uses a pump chart by locating the nozzle or the layout in question on the chart, accounting for the number of feet (meters) in the layout, and: (285) A. reading across the row to find the required pump discharge pressure. B. multiplying the number of feet by the diameter of the hose used in layout. C. plotting where each column intersects to find the required pump discharge pressure. D. inserting the required numbers into an electronic calculator to come up with correct pump discharge pressure.

A trained and authorized aerial operator MUST staff the _____ any time the aerial is in operation? (680) A. stabilizers B. tip of the device C. primary controls D. pump control panel

According to NFPA® 1901, fire department pumpers should have a minimum pump capacity of: (14) A. 250 gpm (1 000 L/min). B. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min). C. 750 gpm (3 000 L/min). D. 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min).

According to NFPA® 1901, fire department pumpers should have a water tank capacity of at least: (14) A. 100 gallons (400 liters). B. 250 gallons (1 000 liters). C. 300 gallons (1 200 liters). D. 750 gallons (3 000 liters).

According to NFPA® 1901, pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm (2 000 L/min) should be able to flow: (312) A. at least 150 gpm (600 L/min). B. at least 250 gpm (1 000 L/min). C. at least 500 gpm (2 000 L/min). D. at least 700 gpm (2 800 L/min).

According to NFPA® 1911, tires must be replaced every: (39) A. three years. B. five years. C. seven years. D. ten years.

After successfully priming the pump, the throttle setting should: (360) A. slowly be decreased before attempting to open any discharges. B. quickly be decreased before attempting to open any discharges. C. slowly be increased before attempting to open any discharges. D. quickly be increased before attempting to open any discharges.

After the apparatus is stabilized laterally on uneven terrain, it is preferable to operate the aerial device over the: (659) A. front of the apparatus. B. back of the apparatus. C. uphill side of the apparatus. D. downhill side of the apparatus.

At a railroad incident, even after it has been confirmed with the railroad company that train traffic has been halted on that set of tracks, the aerial apparatus should: (627) A. not be raised over the tracks for any reason. B. be placed in a jackknifed position to improve stability. C. be kept at least 25 ft. (7.5 m) above the level of the rails. D. be kept perpendicular to the other apparatus at the scene.

Because apparatus of similar function and manufacturer may handle differently or have differing controls, driver/operators must be: (87) A. assigned to only one apparatus. B. assigned no more than two apparatus. C. trained or qualified to drive all assigned vehicles. D. trained or qualified on apparatus with the most features.

Because regular visual and operational inspections of an aerial device are not adequate to ensure the integrity of the aerial device, regular ___ must also occur. (582) A. road tests B. safety tests C. structural testing D. preservice testing

Before attempting a rope lowering system for removing victims in basket litters from elevated positions, the driver/operator MUST: (734-735) A. properly position the victim on their side. B. be familiar with the hydraulic calculation chart C. know the limitations of any hardware used in the process. D. understand the resistance pressure of the aerial device nozzle.

Before being placed into service, the piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of: (312) A. 150 psi (1 050 kPa). B. 300 psi (2 100 kPa). C. 500 psi (3 500 kPa). D. 750 psi (5 250 kPa).

Before retracting the stabilizers, the driver/operator should make sure that: (663) A. the stabilizer pads are placed correctly. B. the stabilizers are all firmly in contact with the ground. C. all personnel and equipment are clear of the apparatus. D. the PTO engagement light is on before leaving the cab.

Before retracting the stabilizers, the wheel chocks should be moved slightly away from the tires as an extra precaution to prevent: (663) A. damage to the tires from the chocks. B. the retracting stabilizers from damaging the chocks. C. setting the apparatus directly on one or both of the chocks. D. the chocks from getting in the way of the retracting stabilizers.

Drain valves provide a way to drain the hose side of the valve after the discharge valve and nozzle are both closed on: (317) A. gated intakes. B. intake fittings. C. discharge fittings. D. all intakes and discharges.

Driver/operator candidates should be evaluated: (118) A. using only one method. B. by multiple departments to ensure objectivity. C. before being allowed to operate apparatus under emergency conditions. D. after being given the opportunity to operate apparatus under emergency conditions.

Driver/operators must perform practical driving exercises: (118) A. by driving at least two different apparatus. B. with the most common apparatus in the department. C. with each type of apparatus they are expected to drive. D. by driving one apparatus they are familiar with and one they are not familiar with.

Driver/operators should not attempt to ford streams with a vehicle unless: (148) A. the stream depth will not reach the top of the tires. B. there is not another route to reach the intended destination. C. it has been specifically designed to operate in such conditions. D. the driver/operator has witnessed another vehicle crossing the stream.

Electronic hydraulic calculators may be handheld or may be: (284) A. permanently affixed to the inside of the driver's door. B. integrated into the mobile data communications device. C. permanently affixed to a location near the pump operator's panel. D. located at the station and calculations are provided over the radio as they are needed.

Engines produced after January 1, 2010 may be equipped with an exhaust after-treatment system called Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR) that: (45) A. uses the latest technology to reduce emissions to zero. B. transforms emissions so they are no longer harmful to the environment. C. uses Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) to help further reduce emissions. D. monitors and records all levels of exhaust from the apparatus and corrects for malfunctions.

For operations spotting an aerial apparatus in windy conditions, the driver/operator should always adhere to: (616) A. SOPs for extra stabilization. B. the driver/operator's best judgment. C. the manufacturer's recommendations. D. the company officer's recommendations.

For water supply, most communities use a: (183) A. gravity system. B. direct pumping system. C. combination of the direct pumping and gravity systems. D. proprietary pumping system that is designed specifically for that community.

For which of the following is a nozzle pressure of 50 psi (350 kPa) a safe and efficient nozzle pressure? (219) A. Fog nozzle B. Low pressure fog nozzle C. Solid stream nozzle (handline) D. Solid stream nozzle (master stream)

For which of the following pumps is pressure determined by changes in the vehicle's speed? (308) A. Midship pump B. Rear-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Generally SOPs involving apparatus placement at a fire scene apply to: (610) A. later-arriving, supporting aerial apparatus. B. all aerial apparatus arriving at the fire scene. C. aerial apparatus assigned to the initial response. D. all vehicles at a fire scene regardless of arrival time.

High pressure fog nozzles: (199) A. have very little forward velocity. B. produce a stream of slow-moving large spray. C. have a relatively low volume of water delivery. D. have a relatively high volume of water delivery.

How do drivers establish visual lead time? (105) A. By dividing speed by travel distance B. By counting the seconds it takes to travel between landmarks C. By scanning the path of travel far enough ahead based upon their speed D. By watching the vehicle directly in front of the apparatus and estimating stop time

How is the pumper position to supply a fire department connection best determined? (141) A. At the incident scene B. As the incident progresses C. Through preincident planning D. During post-incident analysis and critique

How often should apparatus brakes be thoroughly tested? (43) A. Monthly B. Bi-annually C. Annually D. Every three years

If the aerial device is deployed without first setting apparatus stabilizers, the base of stability is limited to the: (642) A. circle formed by the 360-degree rotation of the aerial device. B. stability of the surface that is directly beneath the apparatus. C. rectangle formed at each corner by the tires of the apparatus. D. stability of the surrounding terrain within the immediate location of the apparatus.

If the apparatus cannot be relocated when being exposed to the effects of fire at an incident, the driver/operator should apply: (696) A. a tarp to cover the device. B. dry chemical to the device. C. water streams to the device. D. a barrier in front of the device

If the building has been exposed to severe fire conditions, it is advisable to park: (613) A. on a grade. B. in a jackknifed position. C. outside of the building's collapse zone. D. alongside multiple apparatus on the same span.

In Level II staging, units responding: (150) A. park at the closest available site to the incident scene. B. receive directions on where to respond once at the scene. C. are advised of the staging area location when dispatched and respond directly to that location. D. stage approximately one block away from the scene in their direction of travel and await further instruction.

In a centrifugal pump, with all other factors remaining constant, doubling the speed of the impeller will result in: (300) A. no amount of pressure. B. two times as much pressure. C. four times as much pressure. D. six times as much pressure.

In a grid system, a network of intermediate-sized pipes that reinforce the grid and aid the concentration of required fire flow at any point are called: (185) A. distributors. B. primary feeders. C. secondary feeders. D. circulating feeders.

In a modern apparatus, rotary pumps would MOST likely be used as which of the following types of pumps? (296) A. As large capacity pumps B. As main apparatus pumps C. As low volume, high-pressure pumps D. As high volume, high-pressure pumps

In general, pumps supplying a relay operation or master stream are used to supply large amounts of water, and therefore require: (346) A. multiple settings of the transfer valve. B. use of a series (pressure) setting of the transfer valve. C. use of a parallel (volume) setting of the transfer valve. D. the transfer valve to switch between series and parallel.

In multistage centrifugal pumps, the impellers generally: (301) A. impede the flow of water. B. have no effect on the pump. C. are identical and have the same capacity. D. are different and have varying capacities.

In order for apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, it may take: (99) A. 15% more distance than it does on dry pavement. B. 25% more distance than it does on dry pavement. C. 3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement. D. 6 to 25 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.

In the "inside/outside" method, when would an attack pumper be positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and the aerial apparatus be placed outboard of the pumper? (140) A. If building is not totally engulfed B. If building is a high value property C. If building is less than five floors tall D. If building is less than ten floors tall

In which scene control zone are driver/operators MOST likely to stage their apparatus? (154) A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Center zone

Incident scene control zones: (153) A. must be decided upon en route. B. are unnecessary if there are no bystanders. C. may be expanded or contracted as needed. D. cannot be expanded or contracted once they are in place.

It is recommended that wheels be chocked: (336) A. when parked on a slope. B. if parked more than ten minutes. C. every time the driver/operator exits the cab. D. when the driver/operator will leave the parked apparatus.

Maximum stability is achieved with a tractor-drawn aerial apparatus when the angle of the tractor is ___ degrees from the centerline of the trailer. (665) A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

Modern versions of quarter-turn handles lock by: (316) A. clipping the handle. B. pushing downward. C. rotating the handle in a clockwise direction. D. rotating the handle in a counterclockwise direction.

Movement for the water tower and control of the fire stream are controlled from the: (560) A. fire station. B. aerial device. C. ground level. D. nearby control tower.

NFPA® 1901 requires all components of piping system to be: (312) A. less than five years old. B. less than seven years old. C. made of corrosion resistant material. D. composed of only one type of material.

Pre-piped waterways on elevated master streams generally feature a master stream that may be remotely controlled from the apparatus turntable, and is generally able to move: (200) A. only up and down. B. only side to side up to 30 degrees. C. both up and down and side to side. D. ten degrees from initial position that was set.

Pressure control devices that are a part of a fire apparatus pumping system must restrict the pressure from exceeding: (318-319) A. 10 psi (70 kPa) above the set level. B. 20 psi (140 kPa) above the set level. C. 30 psi (210 kPa) above the set level. D. 70 psi (490 kPa) above the set level.

Procedures for engaging and disengaging PTOs on aerial apparatus depend on the type of transmission the apparatus has and: (646) A. the specific height and weight of the apparatus. B. the maximum extension of the apparatus' aerial device. C. whether or not the apparatus is equipped with a fire pump. D. whether or not the apparatus is equipped with box stabilizers.

Rotating the aerial device 360 degrees will trace a gravity circle, and the apparatus should remain stable as long as this gravity circle: (642) A. stays consistent in size throughout operations. B. does not extend outside of the apparatus tires. C. does not extend outside of the base of stability. D. grows smaller as the aerial device extends during operations.

Single-stage centrifugal fire pumps use a single intake impeller and a simple casing to provide flow capacities up to: (300) A. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min). B. 1,000 gpm (4 000 L/min). C. 2,250 gpm (9 000 L/min). D. 3,500 gpm (14 000 L/min).

Solid stream nozzles on handlines should generally be operated at a maximum of: (194) A. 20 psi (140 kPa) nozzle pressure. B. 30 psi (210 kPa) nozzle pressure. C. 50 psi (350 kPa) nozzle pressure. D. 80 psi (560 kPa) nozzle pressure.

The Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) is the: (41) A. suggested ideal weight of the apparatus. B. weight of the apparatus before any equipment or personnel are added. C. maximum weight at which a vehicle can be safely operated on roadways in ideal conditions. D. minimum weight at which a vehicle can be operated without noticing changes in the operation.

The component in a load management system that turns on various lights at specified intervals so the startup electrical load for all devices does not occur at same time is called the: (40) A. load monitor. B. load delineator. C. load sequencer. D. load alignment indicator.

The distance between the objective and the aerial apparatus should be: (612) A. the least distance possible. B. the greatest distance possible. C. consistent with conditions at the emergency scene. D. at least 1½ times the distance required in order to provide a buffer.

The driver/operator MUST have skills necessary to: (679) A. plan training evolutions. B. be an Emergency Vehicle Technician. C. solve tactical problems at the incident. D. indicate which firefighting equipment to purchase.

The fourth principle of friction loss states that for a given velocity, friction loss is: (179) A. widely variable, regardless of pressure on the water. B. inversely proportional to the pressure on the water. C. approximately the same, regardless of pressure on the water. D. increased by 25% for every 25% increase of pressure on the water.

The second principle of pressure states that fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is: (172) A. greater near the top. B. greater near the bottom. C. the same intensity in all directions. D. variable and not the same in all directions.

The third principle of pressure states that pressure applied to a confined fluid is: (172) A. greater near the top. B. greater near the bottom. C. transmitted equally in all directions. D. variable and not the same in all directions.

The two basic pressurized water supply sources are a fire hydrant and: (339) A. a water tower. B. a portable water tank. C. a supply hose from another pumper. D. an onboard water tank or trailered water tank.

The use of standard formulas and field applications for determining friction loss are generally: (211) A. the same as actual testing results. B. very different than actual testing results. C. relied upon for safe fireground operations. D. not considered reliable for safe fireground operations.

The valves within a water distribution system should be: (186) A. inspected and operated yearly by the fire department. B. inspected and operated monthly by the fire department. C. inspected and operated yearly by the water supply utility. D. inspected and operated monthly by the water supply utility.

The water supply from an onboard water tank is: (336) A. used only for incipient fires. B. a backup supply in case of emergencies. C. the sole source of supply for many incidents. D. not significant enough to be the sole source of supply.

Using an aerial device as an exterior standpipe to upper floors is a tactic that: (744) A. requires an additional fire apparatus. B. increases the weight load capacity of the apparatus. C. can eliminate difficult hose lays up interior stairwells. D. increases the amount of pressure needed to deliver the water.

Using the condensed Q formula for 5-inch hose, what is Q² divided by? (288) A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

Using the condensed Q formula, what is the total pressure loss in 500 feet of 4-inch hose flowing 1,000 gallons per minute? (288) A. 20 psi B. 60 psi C. 100 psi D. 500 psi

Valves that control most of the intake and discharge lines from the pump must: (316) A. be less than five years old. B. allow for slight intake of air. C. be constructed to be airtight. D. be made of only one material.

What agency in the United States establishes basic requirements for licensing a driver? (82) A. National Fire Academy (NFA) B. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) C. Federal Department of Transportation (DOT) D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

What describes effective communication during an incident? (720) A. Effective communication is best in written form. B. Effective communication is achieved when sending emails. C. Effective communication allows for early and correct aerial placement. D. Effective communication often contains jargon and code words to make radio traffic efficient.

What effect can melting ice have on stabilization? (661) A. Melting ice can cause significant damage and leaking of hydraulic fuel. B. Melting ice can cause significant damage outside of the stabilizers. C. Melting ice can create an air gap between the stabilizer pad and the ground. D. Melting ice can freeze the stabilizers to the ground, making retraction difficult.

What is a characteristic of aerial water towers? (684) A. Aerial platforms are smaller than aerial water towers. B. Aerial water towers can lift firefighters and equipment. C. Aerial water towers are equipped with only a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom. D. Aerial water towers are equipped with a platform and a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom.

What is a common method of removing ice from an aerial apparatus? (694) A. Applying grease to all surfaces B. Applying distilled water to surfaces C. Applying high-pressure steam to surfaces D. Applying an anti-freeze agent to surfaces

What is a common use of elevated master streams? (742) A. Hoisting operations B. Offensive operations C. Defensive operations D. Initial attack operations

What is an advantage of positioning an aerial apparatus at the corner of a building? (721) A. It consumes less space on scene. B. It allows firefighters to ascend the ladder more quickly. C. It can potentially reach victims on two sides of a building. D. It reduces the amount of water needed to extinguish the fire.

What is an important consideration when positioning apparatus at a medical incident? (155) A. Positioning so apparatus can exit quickly B. Blocking the view of incident from onlookers C. Leaving ambulance enough room for patient loading D. Positioning near corners of building to mark location

What is one of the two purposes operational inspections serve? (583) A. To test the limits of the aerial device's operating capacity B. To allow preservice tests before the apparatus is ever used C. As a review of the aerial device operation for the driver/operator D. As an exam of the aerial device operation for the driver/operator

What is required so that the elevating platform's position is horizontal to the ground at all times? (556) A. Kickplate B. Platform rail C. Leveling system D. Fog curtain nozzle

What is the MOST crucial to the success of protecting a petroleum storage/processing facility? (634) A. Providing proper ventilation during fires involving processing facilities. B. Being aware of rocky terrain that could prove to be unstable for the apparatus. C. Preincident planning and training sessions between industrial and municipal firefighters. D. Being aware of the challenges petroleum storage/processing facilities present to spotting.

What is the first option for rescuing victims at an incident involving large commercial passenger aircraft? (748) A. Using portable stairs at the exit doors B. Using a trampoline to catch victims that jump C. Using escape chutes or slides on the aircraft D. Using an aerial device at exit doors or aircraft wings

What is the function of ice shrugging? (695) A. Slowly raising and lowering the aerial device to remove ice B. Quickly raising and lowering the aerial device to remove ice C. Slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove ice D. Quickly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove ice

What is the minimum number of points of contact when climbing or riding an apparatus? (701) A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

What is the primary difference between box stabilizers and fulcrum-type stabilizers? (657) A. Fulcrum-type stabilizers can only be deployed in a short-jacked position. B. Fulcrum-type stabilizers can be deployed in any position with minimal space. C. Fulcrum-type stabilizers can only be deployed in the fully extended position. D. Fulcrum-type stabilizers cannot support an apparatus without another type of stabilizer for support.

What may be needed when driving the vehicle in conditions of reduced visibility during a wildland fire attack? (147) A. LED or other special headlights B. Use of aircraft identifying hazards C. Spotter walking ahead of the apparatus D. Firefighter in cab using high quality binoculars

What scene control zone is considered safe and does not require personal protective equipment? (154) A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Center zone

What should be done during the first six months after an apparatus is received? (33) A. Wash infrequently or not at all B. Wash frequently using hot water C. Wash frequently using cold water D. Wash frequently, alternating hot and cold water

What should the driver/operator perform to greatly reduce the chance of failure of an extended ladder? (726) A. Chock the rear wheels. B. Engage the power take-off. C. Engage the ladder extension lock. D. Place cones around the apparatus.

What transmits data to a radio receiver on a traffic light in order to preempt a signal at the intersection and will operate automatically as long as the apparatus is in range and the transmitter is turned on? (103) A. Traffic Signals at Stations B. Voice-Activated Preemption Devices C. GPS Based Traffic Signal Preemption D. Strobe Light Activated Preemption Devices

What type of highly explosive gas can batteries give off? (47) A. Methane gas B. Nitrogen gas C. Hydrogen gas D. Carbon dioxide gas

When a line from a standpipe operation is shut down, the pressure: (283) A. must be entirely shut down and the system restarted. B. must be increased, or the standpipe system will not flow enough water through remaining hoselines. C. must be lowered accordingly, or the standpipe system will attempt to flow excess water through remaining hoselines. D. can remain the same, as the standpipe system will automatically adjust and the remaining hoselines will flow correctly.

When a mobile water supply apparatus uses a quick dump valve to off-load its water supply into folding portable water tanks, the water tender is being used: (18) A. as an intermittent source. B. as a secondary operation. C. in a mobile shuttle operation. D. as a stationary reservoir or "nurse tender."

When an emergency medical incident requires a driver/operator to position apparatus in a street or highway: (155) A. turn on all warning lights and sirens. B. position the vehicle so it takes up as little room as possible. C. use the vehicle as a shield between work area and oncoming traffic. D. conduct operations as quickly as possible with speed as the main priority.

When cleaning the interior of an apparatus using cleaning agents: (35) A. remove all electrical equipment. B. wear approved masks for cleaning. C. ventilate the cab or crew riding area. D. keep all windows rolled up when in the cab.

When climbing or riding on an aerial device, it is essential that: (676) A. firefighters maintain four points of contact. B. operations are always conducted above grade. C. fall protection equipment be available for personnel. D. firefighters climb the device or ride in the platform one at a time.

When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given second priority? (723) A. Those in the hazard area B. Those in the exposed area C. The largest group of people D. Those in the greatest danger

When dealing with the wire rope for an aerial device, firefighters should always: (678) A. attach safety devices to wire rope. B. handle wire rope with ungloved hands. C. stay clear of wire rope during operation. D. wear loose fitting clothes near wire rope.

When determining pressure loss for elevated waterways, the elevation of the master stream: (218) A. increases total pressure loss by 10 percent of height. B. increases total pressure loss by 15 percent of height. C. must be considered as part of the total pressure loss. D. is not considered as it does not significantly affect pressure loss.

When driving an apparatus during inclement weather, the driver should: (699) A. engage hazard lights. B. turn on auxiliary brake. C. turn off auxiliary brake. D. have an empty water supply.

When driving downhill, which of the following should be done to prevent engine damage? (98) A. Allow the vehicle to coast out of gear downhill. B. Limit downhill speed to lower than minimum rpm. C. Limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm. D. Stop apparatus frequently to avoid speed buildup.

When examining tire condition, driver/operators should check: (39) A. tire color. B. tire diameter. C. excessive wear on the sidewalls. D. distance between top of tire and apparatus body.

When is the MOST likely time nondestructive testing will be performed on the aerial apparatus? (586) A. Annually B. Bi-monthly C. After accidents D. After every use

When it is necessary to operate an aerial device in high wind conditions, the driver/operator should spot the apparatus in a manner that: (616) A. blocks much of the wind. B. is perpendicular to the wind. C. minimizes the extension needed. D. decreases the load needed in the aerial device.

When jump-starting a vehicle, the vehicle being used as the power source must have the same voltage electrical system as the apparatus being jump-started in order to: (48) A. connect the vehicles. B. permit the batteries to charge at all. C. prevent damage from occurring to either system. D. provide enough power to jump-start the apparatus.

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel: (101) A. at least 50 to 150 feet (15 to 45 m) apart. B. at least 100 to 300 feet (30 to 90 m) apart. C. at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart. D. at least 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270 m) apart.

When operating a pump not equipped with a thermal relief valve, the best course of action to prevent overheating is to: (306) A. periodically turn the pump off and let it cool down. B. ensure the pump is entirely full of water at all times. C. ensure some water is moving through the pump at all times. D. intermittently turn the pump on and off throughout operations.

When operating at a multistory incident, it is often necessary for firefighters to have a(an): (721) A. extra air cylinder. B. replacement radio. C. emergency escape. D. short rope at a minimum.

When performing a walk-around inspection, the driver/operator begins inspection at the: (36) A. rear of the apparatus and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern. B. front of the apparatus and works around apparatus in a counterclockwise pattern. C. driver's door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern. D. passenger's door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.

When performing chassis lubrication, the manufacturer's manual will recommend the: (46) A. minimum and maximum price range for engine oil. B. number of minutes the chassis lubrication should take. C. Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) numbers for engine oil. D. Automotive Engineers Association (AEA) numbers for engine oil.

When performing ventilation operations, the driver/operator for an aerial device should extend fly sections so a minimum of _____ protrudes over the edge of the roof. (737) A. 2 feet (0.6 m) B. 4 feet (1.3 m) C. 6 feet (2 m) D. 8 feet (2.5 m)

When pressure drops below a specified setting, the electronic pressure governor will: (321) A. shut the engine down. B. increase engine speed. C. return the engine to idle speed. D. intermittently increase and decrease engine speed.

When pumping in the parallel (volume) position: (301) A. each impeller must flow 100 percent of rated capacity. B. only the first impeller takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. C. each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. D. all water from intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller.

When traffic lights along routes heavily used by fire apparatus are controlled, signals should be controlled by a dispatcher, from the fire station, or by: (102) A. police units. B. utility personnel. C. remote control on apparatus. D. remote control carried by shift supervisor.

When using an aerial ladder device for a window rescue, where should the ladder be positioned? (726) A. Position the tip at the windowsill. B. Position the tip above the window. C. Position the first rung even with the windowsill. D. Position the tip 2 feet (600 mm) below the window.

When using multiple hoselines of equal length but different diameter, loss calculations: (215) A. can be estimated. B. are too difficult to perform. C. must be made for each line. D. need only be made for one line.

Where are the two operator control stations that are required on all elevating platforms located? (556) A. On opposite sides of the platform B. One on the turntable and one in the cab C. One on the street-level and one in the platform D. One on the street-level and one at the fire station

Which BEST describes friction loss for handline nozzles? (213) A. 25 psi (175 kPa) for all appliances B. 10 psi (70 kPa) loss for each appliance C. Generally considered to be insignificant D. Generally considered to be one-half of rated loss

Which BEST describes the function of a thermal relief valve in newer centrifugal pumps? (306) A. Closes so that water remains in the main water tank and does not circulate B. Opens and closes intermittently so that water can circulate between the pump and main water tank C. Opens to allow overheated water to circulate between the pump and main water tank or into the atmosphere D. Opens and triggers a sensor to shut off the pump so damage will not occur to the pump or main water tank

Which action will help lower high oil temperatures in an aerial device? (697) A. Reducing the water flow rate B. Shutting off some of the lights C. Shutting off the power take off D. Lowering the device to mid-level

Which apparatus has the ability to supply its own master streams and may function with the capabilities of an engine or a ladder company? (21) A. Wildland fire apparatus B. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which component converts energy into linear mechanical force or motion when pressurized hydraulic oil is directed into a chamber created by fitting a piston into a cylindrical barrel? (549) A. Hydraulic pump B. Hydraulic motors C. Hydraulic cylinders D. Hydraulic reservoir

Which component provides fall protection for aerial platform devices? (676) A. Handrails B. Device wiring C. Railings and gates D. Detachable waterways

Which consideration would MOST likely be taken into account when positioning an aerial apparatus with fire pumps? (21) A. Time of day B. Direction of the wind C. Reach of the aerial device D. Number of available personnel

Which customary formula would be used to conduct elevation pressure loss calculations on the fireground? (214) A. 0.10 x Height in feet B 0.25 x Height in feet C. 0.5 x Height in feet D. 1.0 x Height in feet

Which displays engine speed in revolutions per minute? (326) A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Tachometer D. Pumping engine throttle

Which equipment is powered by small gasoline or diesel engines, generally has 110 and/or 220-volt capability, and is available with power capacities up to 5,000 watts? (23) A. Inverter B. Mini-generator C. Portable generator D. Vehicle-mounted generator

Which equipment is useful when remote power is needed away from the apparatus? (23) A. Inverter B. Mini-generator C. Portable generator D. Apparatus-mounted generator

Which factor is a consideration when properly outfitting an apparatus with a portable electric generator? (574) A. Color B. Terrain C. Physical size D. Frequency of use

Which function has historically been assigned to the aerial apparatus crew? (577) A. Water rescue B. Haz mat response C. Search and rescue D. Vehicle extrication

Which hose lay is made from the fire to the water source? (344) A. Simple lay B. Source lay C. Reverse lay D. Forward lay

Which hose lay is made from the hydrant to the fire location? (341) A. Simple lay B. Source lay C. Forward lay D. Reverse lay

Which hose lay would be used when the driver/operator first reports to an incident location in order to size up the scene before laying a supply line? (344) A. Simple lay B. Source lay C. Reverse lay D. Forward lay

Which is a function of apparatus maintenance and inspection records? (31) A. Provide employees tasks during downtime B. Provide employees with a sense of ownership of the apparatus C. In a warranty claim, may be needed to document required maintenance was performed D. Meet union requirements outlining how and w

Which is a guideline IFSTA recommends when backing apparatus? (113) A. Sound horn in a series with as many blasts as possible in thirty seconds B. Sound one long blast of vehicle's horn immediately before backing apparatus C. Sound two short blasts of vehicle's horn immediately before backing apparatus D. Sound four short blasts of vehicle's horn immediately before backing apparatus

Which is a guideline for initial calculations when developing a customized pump chart? (284) A. Develop a main scenario and use it as a basis. B. Include friction loss for all handline appliances. C. Include friction loss for master stream appliances. D. Pump discharge pressure can exceed test pressure for calculations.

Which is a guideline for positioning apparatus at a fire scene? (138) A. Park uphill at all types of incidents B. Park on a soft surface whenever practical C. Attempt to position apparatus upwind of incident D. Attempt to position apparatus downwind of incident

Which is a step the driver/operator takes when transitioning to an external water supply? (338) A. Completely close intake gate valve B. Shut off all operations involving the pump C. Connect supply line into an appropriate intake of the fire pump D. Close bleeder valve on the gated intake so air will not escape

Which is an advantage of using video camera systems and monitors attached to the device tip? (687) A. Replaces the need to conduct a scene size-up of the incident B. Replaces the need to use a spotter when backing the apparatus C. Allows the operator to accurately direct the fire stream to the target D. Allows the operator to take X-rays of the building to locate victims

Which is the MOST likely reason that a fire department would use heavy duty electrical cords? (24) A. Cords can be left outside for extended periods. B. Cords allow greater compatibility with other agencies. C. Cords provide greater abrasion protection on the fireground. D. Cords can supply power to several connections from one supply source.

Which is the correct formula for Net Pump Discharge Pressure? (219) A. Pump Discharge Pressure ÷ Total Pressure B. Pump Discharge Pressure + Intake Reading C. Pump Discharge Pressure − Intake Reading D. Pump Discharge Pressure − Residual Pressure

Which is the customary formula for nozzle reaction for a fog stream nozzle? (204) A. NR = Q x √NP B. NR = 0.025 x Q x √NP C. NR = 0.0505 x Q x √NP D. NR = 0.50 x Q x √NP

Which items should be specified in a systematic maintenance program? (30) A. Manufacturer's representative numbers and equipment depreciation B. Budget request guidelines, request for proposal forms, and spending limits C. Maintenance procedures, when they are performed, and who is responsible D. Employee accountability procedures and neighboring jurisdiction maintenance policies

Which method is generally used to cover the involved area when protecting exposures? (747) A. Narrow vertical patterns B. Solid stream narrow patterns C. Wide sweeping nozzle patterns D. Solid stream wide sweeping nozzle patterns

Which metric formula would be used to calculate elevation pressure loss on the fireground? (214) A. 1 x Height in meters B. 5 x Height in meters C. 10 x Height in meters D. 12 x Height in meters

Which nozzle is commonly used in aircraft fire fighting or to apply water to voids, attics, or other areas inaccessible to standard fire streams? (201) A. Cellar nozzle B. Broken nozzle C. Piercing nozzle D. Chimney nozzle

Which of the following causes water hammer? (181) A. Increasing the water pressure B. Hoses or pipes that have deformities C. Suddenly stopping water moving through a hose or pipe D. Suddenly increasing the amount of water moving through a hose or pipe

Which pattern is MOST often provided by impinging stream nozzles? (196) A. Solid stream B. Variable stream C. Wide-angle fog pattern D. Narrow-angle fog pattern

Which primer is a simple devices that makes use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold of any gasoline-driven engine? (323) A. Air primer B. Exhaust primer C. Vacuum primer D. Positive displacement primer

Which procedure must be completed in order for the driver/operator to be ready to mount the turntable and operate the aerial device? (663) A. The deactivation of the PTO system to secure the apparatus in place B. The retraction of the stabilizers to transfer power to the aerial device C. Transfer of hydraulic power from the stabilizer system to aerial operations D. Transfer of hydraulic power from the aerial operations to the stabilizer system

Which pump may be offered by some manufacturers in a rear-engine design driven off the engine's flywheel? (307) A. Midship pump B. Rear-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which site would be given preference for a drafting location? (142) A. A surface with a large open area B. A surface near a bank of a waterway C. A location accessible from a hard surface D. A site that is accessible without turning or backing

Which situation increases stress on an aerial device? (622) A. When the load on the aerial device is decreased during emergency operations. B. When the aerial device's extension length is shortened during emergency operations. C. When the apparatus is parked on an incline and the aerial device must be operated off of the side of the apparatus. D. When the apparatus is parked on an even surface and the aerial device must be operated in line with the body of the apparatus.

Which skill or ability is needed to connect an intake hose to a hydrant? (82) A. Visual acuity B. Reading skills C. Physical fitness D. Adequate hearing

Which statement about a centrifugal pump is MOST accurate? (300) A. A centrifugal pump can pump air and is self priming. B. Priming is not necessary with the use of a centrifugal pump. C. A centrifugal pump is unable to pump air and is not self priming. D. Some models of centrifugal pumps can pump air and are self priming.

Which statement about a gravity system is MOST accurate? (183) A. Uses a primary water source at the same elevation as the distribution system B. Uses a primary water source located at a lower elevation than the distribution system C. Uses a primary water source located at a higher elevation than the distribution system D. Uses two primary water sources, one at a higher elevation and one at a lower elevation

Which statement about electronic hydraulic calculators is MOST accurate? (284) A. Once pump discharge pressure is determined, it must also be manually verified. B. After variables have been entered, the user must enter the correct formula to arrive at pump discharge pressure. C. Once variables have been entered, the calculator applies preprogrammed formulas to arrive at pump discharge pressure. D. Once variables have been entered, the correct formula is shown and the user must manually arrive at pump discharge pressure.

Which statement about inspections to detect deficiencies or failure of the fire pump or other fire suppression equipment is MOST accurate? (48) A. Items should be checked as personnel have additional time. B. All items should be on the same inspection schedule, either daily or weekly. C. Some items should be checked daily, but other checks may be performed weekly. D. Items should be rotated for inspections, being checked daily then checked weekly.

Which statement about master stream appliances is MOST accurate? (200) A. Only fixed monitors are able to change the stream direction or angle while water is being discharged. B. Each type of monitor cannot change the stream direction or angle while water is being discharged. C. Each type of monitor has ability to change the stream direction or angle while water is being discharged. D. Only combination monitors are able to change the stream direction or angle while water is being discharged.

Which statement about mechanical seals is MOST accurate? (306) A. They are not affected by temperature extremes. B. They form a tight seal but require frequent adjustment. C. It is important to operate the pump regularly to lubricate the seals. D. It is acceptable for the seals to run waterless, as no damage will be incurred.

Which statement about positive displacement pumps is MOST accurate? (296) A. They are the main pumping unit on fire apparatus. B. They are no longer useful in the modern fire service. C. They serve a vital role on modern apparatus because of their ability to pump air and foam. D. They are used as the primary pump in special operations such as drafting operations and wildland fire attack.

Which statement about pump charts is MOST accurate? (284) A. They contain information that must be updated at least monthly for accuracy. B. They contain guidelines for determining pump discharge pressure, but not actual numbers. C. They contain information specific to a jurisdiction's equipment and common hose layout operations. D. They contain generic information regarding the most common hose layouts used by departments.

Which statement about rescue tools is MOST accurate? (24) A. Power systems are always portable. B. Power systems are always apparatus mounted. C. Power systems may be portable or apparatus mounted. D. Power systems on pumping apparatus are not adequate for rescue tools.

Which statement about shutting down a hot engine is MOST accurate? (95) A. Hot engines should immediately be shut down. B. Allow the engine to idle for one minute before shutting down. C. Usually an idling time of three to five minutes is sufficient before shutting down. D. Allow the engine to idle for ten to fifteen minutes before shutting down.

Which statement about the gpm flowing method is MOST accurate? (288) A. It is only applicable to fog streams. B. It is only applicable to solid streams. C. It is applicable to both solid and fog streams. D. It is applicable only when flows are greater than 250 gpm (1 000 L/min).

Which statement about the written test for driver/operators is MOST accurate? (118) A. Written tests must have a computer option. B. Written tests must always be closed book tests. C. The style of questions may vary according to local needs. D. Questions used in the test must be verified by an independent agency.

Which statement about training for tiller operations is MOST correct? (93) A. The tiller instructor must train operators remotely. B. The tiller instructor can stand beside the operator. C. A detachable seat may be placed next to tiller operator's position. D. A built-in harness may be placed next to the tiller operator's position.

Which statement describes the relationship between pressure and altitude? (174) A. Pressure is independent of the altitude. B. Pressure is similar at low and very high altitudes. C. Pressure is greatest at low altitudes and least at very high altitudes. D. Pressure is greatest at very high altitudes and least at low altitudes.

Which statement is MOST accurate regarding lowering a Stokes basket using an aerial ladder? (732) A. It is faster than other lowering methods. B. It is easier than other lowering methods. C. The tactic should be used as a last resort. D. The tactic should be used only in training evolutions.

Which term refers to the portion of total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hoses, adapters? (176) A. Flow pressure B. Head pressure C. Residual pressure D. Normal operating pressure

Which type of positive displacement pump operates using a piston that moves back and forth in a cylinder? (296) A. Inline pump B. Gated pump C. Piston pump D. Rotary pump

Which type of pump is constructed with moveable elements that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearances as the pump is used? (298) A. Rotary gate pump B. Rotary gear pump C. Rotary vane pump D. Rotary inline pump

Which type of valve is commonly used on private water supply systems and the words open or shut appear in a window as the valve approaches one position or the other? (186) A. Gate valve B. Butterfly valve C. Post indicator (PIV) valve D. Outside screw and yoke (OS&Y) valve

Why does altitude impact the production of fire streams? (176) A. Because atmospheric pressure affects temperature B. Because atmospheric pressure affects foam production C. Because atmospheric pressure drops as height above sea level increases D. Because atmospheric pressure increases as height above sea level increases

Why does the third principle of friction loss demonstrate the advantage of larger size hose? (179) A. For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the second power of diameter of hose. B. For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the third power of diameter of hose. C. For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of diameter of hose. D. For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the tenth power of diameter of hose

Why is friction loss in newer, modern fire hose much less than in older fire hose? (177) A. Modern fire hose has shorter sections. B. Modern fire hose has much larger diameters. C. Modern fire hose has a smoother inner lining. D. Modern fire hose has a smoother outer lining.

Why it is essential that piping from the tank on board the apparatus be large enough to allow for adequate streams for fire attack? (312) A. The primary water supply from a hydrant may fail. B. Initial fire attack must be made as close to the fire as physically possible. C. Initially, many fires are fought with water from the tank on board apparatus. D. Water from the tank on board apparatus is used as a last resort for exposure protection.

Why may parking lots be as dangerous as soft soil when spotting apparatus? (614) A. They may contain multiple utility lines in addition to parking spaces. B. Parking lots are especially prone to becoming unstable in cold weather. C. They have thin-skinned paved surfaces that do not provide a stable base. D. Almost all parking lots are built on top of vaulted surfaces with weight restrictions.

Why should diesel engines NOT be idled unnecessarily? (94) A. May interfere with communications systems B. May cause hearing damage to those in the cab C. May cause damage to internal engine components and emission systems D. May cause the electrical system components to turn on and off intermittently

Why should firefighters open the bleeder valve or drain valve between the control valve and cap? (122) A. To prevent loss of water pressure B. To ensure tasks are done in order C. To ensure any trapped pressure is released D. To prevent valves from threading incorrectly

Why should full-speed operations be minimized? (683) A. Most manufacturers recommend moving extremely slowly. B. The speed of operations influences the lift span of the aerial telescoping device. C. A large amount of dynamic stress is placed on the aerial device when the motion is halted. D. The number of firefighters riding or climbing on the device can exceed the load chart specification.

1. Which pumper takes water from a hydrant or static source at the beginning of a relay operation? (426) A. Relay pumper B. Primary pumper C. Fire attack pumper D. Water supply pumper

10. Pump testing should be performed: (517) A. only during acceptance testing. B. only during certification testing. C. both certification tests and road tests. D. both acceptance tests and certification tests.

10. When pumpers in the relay operation increase their pump discharge pressure,: (428) A. volume will always be increased. B. personnel may be unable to keep up with volume. C. increased stress on the pump may cause volume to decrease. D. a point will be reached where increased pressure will not increase volume.

11. In order to eliminate using pails or barrels to supply a foam eductor, fire apparatus equipped with onboard foam proportioning systems usually have ___ piped directly to the delivery system. (485) A. in-line eductors B. jet ratio controllers C. in-line proportioners D. foam concentrate tanks

11. Which location would make the BEST dump site to allow continual forward movement? (450) A. A dead end street B. A private driveway C. A well-travelled street D. A large, nearby parking lot

11. Which test is more important for jurisdictions located at least 2,000 ft (600 m) above sea level? (518) A. Onboard tank capacity test B. Onboard tank overload test C. Priming system overload test D. Pumping engine overload test

12. In addition to yearly testing as required by NFPA® 1911, when should pumper performance be tested? (518) A. After any major incident involving multiple jurisdictions B. Whenever an oil change or other routine maintenance is done C. If the apparatus operates during extreme temperature conditions D. Whenever the apparatus has undergone major pump or powertrain repair

12. Placing additional pumpers in the system will increase flow during a relay operation because it shortens the length of hose each pumper must supply and allows pumpers to: (428) A. periodically take breaks and check all equipment. B. vary the amount of water provided by each pumper. C. operate at higher pressures and maximum flows within the relay operation. D. operate at lower pressures and maximum flows within the relay operation.

12. Which statement about selecting the fill site location is MOST accurate? (450) A. Water shuttle operations rarely require the use of multiple fill and dump sites. B. The most suitable site to meet the needs of an incident is always the geographically closest site. C. The most suitable site to meet the needs of the incident is always the one with the largest water supply. D. Driver/operators and fire officers should be familiar with the water supply capability in the response area prior to an incident.

13. When evaluating adequacy of smaller natural sources, why should caution be used regarding their suitability as a water supply for fire fighting? (410) A. They may have more aquatic life than larger bodies of water. B. Nearby residents may become upset when small streams or ponds are used for fire fighting. C. Environmental regulations often prohibit the use of small streams or ponds for drafting. D. They may be more susceptible to fluctuations in adequacy during periods of drought than larger bodies of water.

14. What is MOST likely to impede access to a natural static water source? (410) A. Wildlife concerns B. Traffic congestion C. Recreational water activities D. Wet/soft ground approaches

15. What is the MOST advisable method of addressing safety hazards such as blind curves and intersections on a water shuttle route? (454) A. Use a pilot vehicle to scout ahead. B. Give two short blasts of the siren before continuing. C. Ask a nearby citizen to signal if there is oncoming traffic. D. Have police officers or fire police control traffic at these points.

15. Which situation is MOST likely to make it necessary to position portable pumps at the supply source during drafting operations? (411) A. When it is a mutual aid incident B. When personnel are limited in number C. When the fire is limited in scope and size D. When fire apparatus cannot make required approach

16. The overall capacity of the relay system is determined by the: (432) A. average of all pumps and hose used in the relay. B. largest pump and the largest diameter of hose used in the relay. C. largest pump and the smallest diameter of hose used in the relay. D. smallest pump and the smallest diameter of hose used in the relay.

16. Which factor would be MOST important to consider when correcting net pump discharge pressure for apparatus testing? (519) A. Pump capacity B. Age of the apparatus C. Diameter of the intake hose D. Friction loss in the intake hose

17. Loss of prime or overheating of the pump is MOST likely the result of: (432) A. extended relay operations. B. not taking periodic breaks during relay operations. C. moving too much water through the pump when using a static water supply. D. failure to keep water moving through the pump when using a static water supply.

17. What affects the breakdown process of Class A foam? (488) A. Surface elevation B. Atmospheric pressure C. Age of the burning fuel D. Ambient air temperature

17. What water depth is generally considered minimum around a barrel-type strainer? (412) A. 6 inches (150 mm) B. 8 inches (200 mm) C. 1 foot (300 mm) D. 2 feet (600 mm)

18. Anyone assigned to the position of Water Supply Group Supervisor must: (454-455) A. be local to the area in question. B. be well liked and easy to work with. C. have extensive training in group supervision or management. D. have considerable experience in pumper, water supply, and shuttle operations.

18. Class B synthetic foam concentrate is made from: (489) A. animal proteins. C. film forming fluoroprotein. B. a mixture of gelling agents. D. a mixture of fluorosurfactants.

18. When providing flow required to reach the capacity of the pumping apparatus, floating strainers may be used for water as shallow as: (412) A. 3 inches (75 mm). B. 6 inches (150 mm). C. 8 inches (200 mm). D. 1 foot (300 mm).

18. When the source and relay pumpers are ready, the discharge supplying the hoseline on the source pumper is: (433) A. closed and the valve on the dump line is closed. B. opened and the valve on the dump line is opened. C. closed while the valve on the dump line is opened. D. opened while the valve on the dump line is closed.

2. In a relay operation, which should be the pumper with the largest pumping capacity? (426) A. Relay pumper B. Primary pumper C. Fire attack pumper D. Water supply pumper

2. Which piece of equipment injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution? (480) A. Venturi device B. Aerating nozzle C. Mechanical blower D. Foam proportioner

20. Apparatus equipped with pressure governors should be set in: (433) A. rpm mode when acting as the attack pumper and while working as a relay pumper. B. pressure mode when acting as the attack pumper and while working as a relay pumper. C. rpm mode when acting as the attack pumper and pressure mode while working as a relay pumper. D. pressure mode when acting as the attack pumper and rpm mode while working as a relay pumper.

20. During large-scale incidents, it may be necessary to establish two or more water shuttle operations under the immediate coordination of a (an): (455) A. first-arriving officer. B. Pumper Group Manager. C. Operations Section Chief. D. Water Supply Branch Director.

22. Which dangerous substance should be monitored for during service testing? (523) A. Sulfur dioxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulfide D. Carbon monoxide

25. What should be done if the pump fails to reach 22 inches of mercury (-75 kPa) during the vacuum test? (523) A. Immediately retest the apparatus a second time. B. Document the test results and retest within two weeks. C. Immediately contact the manufacturer's representative. D. Remove the apparatus from service until repairs can be made.

25. When shutting down the relay, beginning with the attack pumper and coordinating with other pumpers in the relay, each driver/operator should: (434) A. slowly increase the throttle and close the dump line valve. B. slowly increase the throttle and open the dump line valve. C. slowly decrease the throttle and close the dump line valve. D. slowly decrease the throttle and open the dump line valve.

26. At the fill site, how should the stopping point for the water tender driver/operator be denoted once the exact fill spot has been determined? (456) A. With a portable water tank B. With a designated firefighter C. With an additional apparatus D. With a traffic cone or similar marker

27. The open relay method consists of: (435) A. multiple pumpers of exactly the same size operating in a relay. B. using a natural water source for supplying relay pumpers. C. only one source pumper, relay pumper and fire attack pumper. D. deploying portable folding drop tanks at each intake for pumpers in the relay operation.

27. The water supply in a typical residential swimming pool: (416) A. is not suitable for any operation. B. is generally sufficient for extended operations. C. provides water supply for fires while in the incipient stage. D. may contain adequate water supply for a fire in a single family dwelling.

3. If a jurisdiction seeks special requirements from the manufacturer to ensure that the apparatus will perform as required under local conditions, they may be written into the bid specifications as: (516) A. recommendations. B. policies and procedures. C. engineering specifications. D. performance requirements.

3. Which BEST describes a pumper/tender apparatus? (446) A. Large capacity water tender B. Pumper with an onboard water tank C. Pumper with a capacity of 2,000 gallons (8 000 L) or greater D. Tender featuring pumps of 750 gpm (3 000 L/min) or greater

30. During the tank-to-pump flow test, pumpers with an onboard capacity of greater than 500 gallons (2 000 L) must be capable of flowing at least: (526) A. 100 gpm (400 L/min). B. 200 gpm (800 L/min). C. 300 gpm (1 200 L/min). D. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min).

31. Which of the following has a pickup tube that is located in the center bore of the nozzle and uses a modified Venturi design to draw concentrate into its water stream? (496) A. Jet ratio controller B. Foam nozzle eductors C. In-line foam eductors D. Self-educting master stream foam nozzle

32. Direct pumping operations are typically accomplished by having the attack pumper lay out a supply line that is equipped with a(an) _____ in an area accessible to tenders. (459-460) A. baffle B. open butt C. portable tank D. gated or clappered Siamese

34. When pressure relief valves are preset to allow a predetermined amount of pressure into the fire pump and then the incoming pressure exceeds the preset level, the valve will: (435) A. automatically close. B. initiate a warning light that is seen in the cab. C. close slowly and remain closed until excess pressure/water is stabilized. D. open and dump excess pressure/water until water is entering the pump at the correct pressure.

35. Which dumping method is generally considered to be the simplest, quickest method to ensure a constant water supply for fire attack operations? (461) A. Nurse tender operations B. Attack pumper operations C. Direct pumping operations D. Portable water tank operations

35. Which foam proportioner test discharges foam at a predetermined flow into a calibrated tank for a specific period of time? (528) A. Foam solution refractivity test B. Foam solution conductivity test C. Foam concentrate displacement method D. Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

36. During dump site operations, the ___ must have an opening of sufficient size to allow free movement of water at the bottom of the tank and movement of air at the top during rapid filling or unloading. (461-462) A. vent B. open butt C. water tank D. tank baffles

38. When would a discharge manifold be used to break down the large diameter hose (LDH) into two or more hoselines that may then be connected to different pumpers? (436) A. During LDH relay operations with limited water supply B. During LDH relay operations in which personnel are limited C. During LDH relay operations in which the attack pumper is of large capacity D. During LDH relay operations that must supply more than one attack pumper

4. What is an advantage provided by vacuum tenders? (446) A. A vacuum tender is more maneuverable and therefore reduces travel time. B. A vacuum tender connects to pumpers at the fill site faster than standard water tenders. C. A vacuum tender uses a small diameter supply hose with two external fill connections. D. A vacuum tender can self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min).

43. Due to the low eduction rates on a CAFS apparatus, what is required to supply the fire stream at the rate of 0.1 to 1.0 percent? (503) A. A handline nozzle B. Gelling agents in the foam solution C. Film forming fluoroprotein foam (FFFP) D. A variable flow rate sensing proportioner

43. Which statement about shutting down the dump site is MOST accurate? (464) A. Portable tanks should be disassembled, cleaned, and removed from service during site shutdown. B. The dump site should not be disassembled until law enforcement has given approval to do so. C. In some weather, it may be necessary to call for a sanding truck to make roadways safe again for civilian travel. D. Portable water tanks should be drained of any sediment, debris, or nonpotable water and placed back on the apparatus.

46. One method of calculating a flow rate for a specific tender relies on actual field tests conducted under realistic water shuttle conditions and measures the data by: (465) A. timing the water tender during an incident. B. recording times during a series of incidents and taking an average. C. using a series of formulas originally developed by the Insurance Services Office (ISO). D. dividing the amount of water the tender dumped during a trial run by the time the round trip took.

48. In the formulas originally developed by the Insurance Services Office (ISO), what factor is built into the "travel time" formula? (466) A. Time it takes to position the water tender B. Times to make and break connections at the fill and dump sites C. Average travel speed between the fill and dump site of 50 mph (80 km/h) D. Acceleration and deceleration times as the vehicle approaches the fill and dump sites

49. The Insurance Services Office (ISO) formula uses ___ of a tender's total tank capacity to account for water lost or undischarged and remaining in the tank after the dump valve is closed. (467) A. 50 percent B. 66 percent C. 70 percent D. 90 percent

5. Successful water shuttle operations are BEST achieved by: (446-447) A. improving initial response time. B. designing larger water tenders. C. reducing travel time of the shuttle operation. D. using efficient filling and dumping operations.

5. The act of mixing water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution is called: (482) A. aeration. B. eduction. C. hydrolization. D. proportioning.

5. Theoretical lift can be calculated by determining the actual atmospheric pressure of an area and: (404) A. adding that number to the water's pressure per square foot (kPa) while it is in the intake hose. B. subtracting that number from the water's pressure per square foot (kPa) while it is in the intake hose. C. dividing that number by the water's pressure per square foot (kPa) while it is in the intake hose. D. multiplying that number by the water's pressure per square foot (kPa) while it is in the intake hose.

5. Which pumper is responsible for supplying attack lines and appliances required for fire suppression? (427) A. Relay pumper B. Primary pumper C. Secondary pumper D. Fire attack pumper

50. Wet standpipe systems that contain water under pressure: (364) A. will take at least 3-5 minutes before water flows freely. B. must be charged with water from the fire department pumper. C. may be used as soon as the hoseline is stretched and the valve closed. D. may be used as soon as the hoseline is stretched and the valve opened.

51. Which statement about dry pipe systems is MOST accurate? (364) A. It will take at least 5-10 minutes before water flows freely. B. They may be used as soon as the hoseline is stretched and the valve opened. C. They may be used as soon as the hoseline is stretched and the valve closed. D. They must be charged with water from a source such as the fire department pumper.

59. What is a disadvantage of durable agents? (509) A. The products are not biodegradable and can be toxic to the environment. B. These products do not retain their fire retarding properties as long as Class A foam. C. These products can only be batch mixed and may result in discarding expensive product. D. Once applied, surfaces coated with these products become very slippery for walking or driving.

6. Which is MOST likely a factor in determining the need for relay pumping operations? (427) A. Number of personnel available at the scene B. Likelihood of nearby exposures catching fire C. Whether or not fire is a multiple-alarm incident D. Distance between incident scene and the water source

7. As the point of maximum lift is approached, the volume of water available for the fire pump: (404) A. varies widely. B. becomes too difficult to estimate. C. is sufficient water for fire suppression. D. may be too low to be of value in fire suppression.

7. Who is in charge of performing pump certification tests? (517) A. Driver/operators B. Apparatus mechanics C. Manufacturer representatives D. Independent testing organizations

8. The height that a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow is called: (406) A. minimum lift. B. maximum lift. C. theoretical lift. D. dependable lift.

8. Which can be done if the amount of flow through a relay operation needs to be increased? (428) A. Transition to a different water source B. Decrease the time spent on relay operations C. Increase the time spent on relay operations D. Increase the diameter of the supply hose or the number of hoselines

A characteristic of water as an extinguishing agent is that it: (169) A. has a low surface tension that makes it easy to soak into dense materials. B. initially has a low surface tension but after being applied has a high surface tension. C. initially has a high surface tension but after being applied has a low surface tension. D. has a high surface tension that makes it somewhat difficult to soak into dense materials.

A defensive attack is an exterior attack with emphasis on: (742) A. fire attack. B. fire suppression. C. offensive support. D. exposure protection.

A quint apparatus may be operated as: (561) A. a ladder company. B. an engine company. C. neither a ladder company nor an engine company D. either a ladder company, an engine company, or both.

Adaptors should be carried so that firefighters can: (576-577) A. provide power to portable lighting. B. make multiple connections to a power source. C. ensure electrical cords are not damaged before use. D. plug their equipment into standard electrical outlets.

After a drafting site has been selected, which is a step in connecting to the pump? (358) A. Connect the intake hose while on the ground. B. Reposition apparatus once all connections are made. C. Engage pump as soon as initial connections are made. D. Couple strainer and required lengths of hose and make them airtight.

Although using aerial platforms to move victims is considerably easier than backing them down aerial ladders, a disadvantage of platforms is that they: (731) A. can only support the weight of two adults. B. cannot carry equipment needed for a rescue. C. cannot reach victims as easily as aerial ladders. D. are not suited to mass evacuations from a single point.

At 212°F (100°C), water converted to steam occupies approximately: (169) A. 20 times its original volume. B. 100 times its original volume. C. 1,200 times its original volume. D. 1,700 times its original volume.

At intersections with a red light, apparatus should: (101) A. slow down and then proceed. B. sound the horn and then proceed. C. drive through as quickly as possible. D. be brought to a complete stop before proceeding.

Caution should be exercised around normally harmless overhead wires such as telephone and cable TV lines because: (617) A. they may become energized at random times. B. thunderstorms can temporarily charge these types of lines. C. any cables have the potential to cause damage to the apparatus. D. they may be in contact with electric lines somewhere down the line and be energized.

Driver/operators must have basic computer skills in order to: (81) A. complete maintenance forms. B. solve mathematical equations. C. comprehend fire service manuals and periodicals. D. access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions.

During drafting operations, the ability to overcome losses in pressure is: (352) A. not limited by any factors. B. limited only by available equipment. C. limited to previous atmospheric pressures. D. limited to atmospheric pressure at sea level.

During nighttime roadway incidents, the minimum number of warning lights should be used because it: (626) A. conserves fuel for the apparatus. B. helps prevent victims from being startled. C. allows officers to use more scene lighting. D. prevents blinding or distracting other drivers.

Flowmeters are especially advantageous when automatic nozzles are employed with handlines or master stream devices because automatic nozzles may lead driver/operators to: (282) A. allow the discharge pressure to vary excessively. B. allow the discharge pressure to quickly overtake the water supply. C. supply excessive discharge pressures, creating a high gallon (liter) per minute flow. D. supply insufficient discharge pressures, creating a low gallon (liter) per minute flow.

For a multistage centrifugal fire pump, switching from volume to pressure: (302) A. has little immediate effect on the discharge pressure. B. results in immediate lowering of the previous discharge pressure. C. results in a slight interruption of the current discharge pressure. D. can result in immediate doubling of previous discharge pressure.

For which of the following is a nozzle pressure of 80 psi (560 kPa) a safe and efficient nozzle pressure? (219) A. Fog nozzle B. Low pressure fog nozzle C. Solid stream nozzle (handline) D. Solid stream nozzle (master stream)

Friction loss is that part of the total pressure lost: (177) A. while water is stationary in pipes. B. as water contacts its intended object. C. as water moves through the atmosphere. D. while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.

Generally, the maximum flow for a handline is 350 gpm (1 400 L/min) because greater flows will: (199) A. cause the nozzle to malfunction. B. require the nozzle to be replaced during fire fighting efforts. C. place too much strain on the water supply system and nozzle itself. D. produce a nozzle reaction that is difficult or dangerous for firefighters to handle.

Hose distances of ___ or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on hydraulic tool operation. (577) A. 10 feet (3 m) B. 25 feet (7.5 m) C. 50 feet (15 m) D. 100 feet (30 m)

How does water temperature affect drafting? (356) A. Hot water affects drafting; cold water has no impact . B. Cold water affects drafting; hot water has no impact. C. Water temperatures have no adverse impact on drafting. D. Water temperatures may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity.

If a gate valve resists turning after fewer than the indicated number of turns required to close the valve, the: (187) A. valve should be considered closed. B. valve should be blown out with water. C. condition should be noted for later repair. D. condition should be reported to the responsible agency.

If a litter does not fit between rails of the aerial ladder, firefighters should: (734) A. carry the litter down the aerial ladder. B. bring the litter down from the building. C. lower the litter using an aerial device lifting eye. D. place the litter on top of handrails perpendicular to the ladder.

If a property is served by both the municipal system and a private source consisting of nonpotable water: (188) A. backflow measures are not needed. B. the systems can be interconnected. C. the private source cannot be considered usable. D. measures must be taken to prevent cross contamination.

If an apparatus features a vacuum-type primer, the engine rpm should be kept: (359) A. below 800 rpm. B. between 1000 and 2000 rpm. C. as high as possible without overtaxing the engine. D. as low as possible without causing the engine to stall.

If discharge flow volume is increased too much when operating from a pressurized water source: (339) A. the area may become flooded. B. it may lead to cavitation of the pump. C. the supply hose may collapse, interrupting the water supply. D. intake pressure from the supply source may be reduced to a point that may damage the pump.

If water is not flowing for an extended period of time during fire attack, why might a circulator, bypass, or booster cooling valve be opened on a pump? (337-338) A. To bleed off excess air B. To increase water pressure C. To decrease water pressure D. To prevent the pump from overheating

If water pressure is applied when the master stream monitor is not securely anchored, the: (569) A. water pressure will likely bend pipes out of shape. B. pin will significantly reduce water flow to the master stream. C. monitor will not be able to function properly and may suffer severe damage from the water pressure. D. pressure will cause the waterway to extend rapidly on its own and pipe sections and the monitor may be launched through the air.

In addition to providing power for portable equipment, vehicle-mounted generators are responsible for providing power for the: (574) A. aerial ladder. B. hydraulic system. C. elevating platform. D. apparatus floodlight system.

In drafting operations, the amount of friction in the intake hose is MOST affected by the: (352) A. ambient temperature. B. size of the static water source. C. size of the onboard water tank. D. diameter and length of the hose.

In most jurisdictions, when civilian drivers encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding, they must: (100) A. continue driving, but at much reduced speeds. B. continue driving as normal so as not to disrupt traffic. C. pull to the left, stop, continue through intersections, and remain motionless. D. pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.

In the metric formula for nozzle reaction for a fog stream nozzle, what does Q stand for? (204) A. Nozzle reaction in Newtons (N) B. Nozzle pressure in kilopascals (kPa) C. The sum of nozzle reaction and nozzle pressure D. Total flow through the nozzle in liters per minute (L/min)

It is important to ensure that any nozzles used in aerial operations are compatible with: (740) A. all hydrant connections. B. any foam application system. C. private residents' water supply. D. the manufacturer's designed waterway.

Most commonly, private water supply systems receive their water from a(an): (188) A. cistern. B. underground well. C. nearby lake or reservoir. D. municipal water supply system.

Newer operators should avoid full-speed operations until: (685) A. their training has been completed. B. the manufacturer gives their approval. C. they have completed 120 hours of operations. D. they are very familiar with the operation of the aerial device.

Nozzle reaction occurs as water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure and: (202) A. a forward pressure pulls firefighters operating the hoseline. B. the resulting vibration of water against the nozzle damages the hose. C. firefighters anticipating the water discharge hold the nozzle stationary. D. a counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hoseline.

On apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF), which of the following lights up when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process? (94) A. DPF indicator B. Regeneration inhibit switch C. Manual regeneration switch D. High Exhaust System Temperature indicator

On apparatus equipped with air brakes, if the engine must be run longer than the specified period of time to build sufficient air pressure: (43) A. the apparatus should be equipped with auxiliary braking. B. the air brakes should be disconnected and not used at all. C. the driver/operator should apply pressure to the gas pedal. D. the apparatus should be inspected and repaired by a certified mechanic.

One visual indicator of a compromised asphalt surface due to extreme heat is: (615) A. large cracks in the asphalt's surface. B. multiple potholes in the asphalt's surface. C. areas in the asphalt that are gray or discolored. D. asphalt that "bleeds" creating a shiny, glass-like surface.

Performing apparatus inspections should occur: (698) A. weekly. B. monthly. C. bi-weekly. D. daily or between each shift.

Pressures for standpipe operations for fire departments may be: (216) A. kept with building maintenance. B. listed on the building entrance information. C. posted on entry and exit passageways in the building. D. labeled on the faceplate of the fire department connection.

Raising the telescoping aerial device means which of the following? (682) A. Extending the fly sections to the desired length B. Rotating the entire assembly from the half-way angle C. Rotating the entire assembly before elevating the platform D. Elevating the entire assembly from its stored position to a desired angle and useful position

Rates of consumption allow engineers and fire protection personnel to determine: (188) A. size of pumpers. B. charges for consumers. C. mutual aid agreements. D. adequacy of the water distribution system.

Techniques for jackknifing tillered aerial apparatus are more important on older models of apparatus than on modern tillered aerial apparatus because: (665) A. most modern apparatus are built with higher quality materials than most older models of apparatus. B. all modern apparatus are built with much stricter safety regulations and requirements than older models were. C. all modern manufacturers guarantee full replacement of their apparatus if they sustain damage while under warranty. D. most modern apparatus are equipped with stabilization systems capable of stabilizing the apparatus, whether jackknifed or not.

The MOST common consideration when spotting an aerial apparatus in cold weather is the: (615) A. presence of vaulted surfaces. B. contraction of concrete due to the cold. C. softening of asphalt due to extreme temperatures. D. presence of ice and snow on the parking surfaces.

The automatic water supply for a sprinkler system is designed to supply: (362) A. only one fire sprinkler at any given time. B. all of the fire sprinklers at any given time. C. a majority of the fire sprinklers at any given time. D. only a fraction of total fire sprinklers at any given time.

The condensed Q formula may be used for operations in which the friction loss can be determined for: (287) A. any handline hose. B. any diameter of hose. C. 1½ - or 2½ -inch hose. D. 3, 4, or 5- inch hose.

The current formula for friction loss accounts for the diameter of the hose, the volume of water flowing, and the: (212) A. expected time. B. level of elevation. C. distance of fire stream. D. length of the hose layout.

The difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is: (176) A. static pressure is normal operating pressure minus 1.0. B. static pressure is normal operating pressure minus 2.30. C. normal operating pressure is residual pressure plus static pressure. D. the friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, valves and fittings.

The driver/operator should not engage the PTO until the aerial apparatus has been: (645) A. shut off for several minutes to cool the systems down. B. running idle for several minutes to warm up the systems. C. properly inspected by the safety officer at the scene before use. D. properly positioned in accordance with the conditions on the scene.

The engine compartment where linkages, fuel injectors, or other controls are located: (32) A. is not affected by the accumulation of dirt. B. should not be cleaned by fire department staff. C. is not easily accessible, so dirt is not a problem. D. may become inoperable due to the collection of dirt.

The fifth principle of pressure states that the pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is: (173) A. variable for similar liquids. B. dependent upon the vessel size. C. independent of the density of the liquid. D. proportional to the density of the liquid.

The first principle of pressure states that fluid pressure is: (172) A. greatest at the center of the vessel. B. different depending upon the vessel. C. congruent to any surface on which it acts. D. perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.

The main feature of relief valves is the ability to: (319) A. regulate amount of water flowing. B. pump to handle excessive pressures. C. warn firefighters when supply is at capacity. D. relieve excessive pressure within the pump discharge.

The main purpose of fire department pumpers is to: (13) A. limit the need for external water sources. B. provide support for other rescue vehicles. C. serve as dual-purpose vehicles for the department. D. provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams.

The process of making a fire pump operational begins: (336) A. when initiating parking maneuvers. B. after the incident action plan has been put into place. C. approximately five minutes before arriving at the incident scene. D. after the apparatus is properly positioned and the parking brake is set.

To calculate friction loss when using multiple hoselines of unequal length, a driver/operator must: (216) A. use estimates because calculations are too complex. B. calculate friction loss for only one hoseline and then estimate the other. C. calculate friction loss for the longest hoseline and double that number for the total. D. calculate friction loss for each hoseline supplied by separate discharges to individual nozzles.

To protect the aerial device and personnel from being threatened by fire, it is preferable to use a: (722) A. solid stream. B. misting stream. C. straight stream. D. wide-angle fog stream.

True pinnable waterways are permanently attached nozzle systems that can be operated from what location on the aerial device? (687) A. From the ground B. From the turntable C. On the cab on the aerial device D. On one section (fly) lower than the tip

Unlike tractor suspension systems, most tiller systems have ___ suspensions that require additional attention during inspections. (581) A. back B. front C. shock D. air bag

Using the knee-sit method is advantageous because: (730) A. firefighters can slide down the ladder quickly. B. firefighters can use both hands to hold the victim. C. the victim is carried over the shoulders of a firefighter, keeping a strong hold. D. the firefighter can use both hands to hold rails while the victim holds on to the firefighter.

Vehicles should not be driven over bridges unless the: (148) A. bridge provides the fastest route. B. bridge was constructed within the last ten years. C. bridge is constructed with supports underneath it. D. weight of the apparatus is known to be within the capacity of the structure.

Voice communication systems in the aerial device are used to: (572) A. relay messages between different crews on the emergency scene. B. permit firefighters at the tip of the aerial device to communicate directly with the fire station. C. record the observations of the firefighters at the tip of the aerial device for SOP development. D. permit firefighters at the tip of the aerial device to communicate with the driver/operator at the aerial operator position.

What NFPA® standard specifies minimum portable equipment that must be carried on all pumpers? (14) A. NFPA® 1021 B. NFPA® 1031 C. NFPA® 1500 D. NFPA® 1901

What can cause a corrosive effect on steel body components? (32) A. Cold temperatures and high winds B. Bright sunlight and hot temperatures C. Protective finishes applied after washing D. Road salt used during inclement weather

What directly affects the reach of the fog stream? (197) A. Ambient temperature B. Stage of fire growth C. Number of personnel D. Volume of water flowing

What effect does positioning other apparatus too close to the articulating aerial device have? (686) A. Conserves space at an incident B. Increases accountability at an incident C. Decreases the walking distance when needing equipment from various apparatus D. The aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making the articulating device inoperable

What happens to an automatic nozzle when the pump discharge pressure rises above the constant operating pressure? (199) A. Automatic nozzle stops functioning efficiently B. Automatic nozzle increases its operating pressure to match that of the pump discharge C. Automatic nozzle decreases its operating pressure to compensate for the pump discharge D. Automatic nozzle maintains its constant operating pressure, within the limitation of its design

What is MOST important for the operator to be aware of when the tip control is used? (680) A. Time of day and day of week B. The number of secondary fire hydrants C. The number of other emergency vehicles D. Electrical hazards and other obstructions

What is a benefit to operating an aerial ladder nozzle with remote controls? (687) A. It reduces the amount of water wasted at an incident. B. The aerial nozzle typically has a shorter reach than handheld lines. C. The remote capability allows the device to be operated off-scene. D. It eliminates the need to place a firefighter in a hazardous position on the tip of the device.

What is a factor in tiller operation that officers and instructors should stress in training? (117) A. Overcorrecting rather than undercorrecting B. Keeping only one hand on the wheel at all times C. Focusing on overhead obstructions rather than side and rear obstructions D. Bringing the trailer quickly into line again as soon as a turn is completed

What is a function of antilock braking systems (ABS)? (43) A. Enables the driver/operator to stop much more quickly B. Warns the driver/operator about oncoming vehicles and hidden hazards in the roadway C. Allows the driver/operator to observe the road and not worry about the braking system D. Assists the driver/operator in keeping apparatus in a straight trajectory during heavy or emergency braking

What is a guideline for keeping weight transfer to a minimum? (98) A. Speed should be ten miles below posted limits. B. Speed should be intermittently slow and then fast. C. Steering should be accomplished in a series of quick motions. D. Steering should be accomplished in a smooth and fluid motion.

What is a main factor that influences a centrifugal fire pump's discharge pressure? (300) A. Ambient temperature B. Age of the centrifugal fire pump C. Experience of those operating the fire pump D. Pressure of water when it enters pump from a pressurized source

What is a main use for aerial ladders? (552) A. Powering scene lighting and extrication tools B. Providing continuous rotation on a horizontal plane C. Providing an emergency escape route for firefighters D. Gaining access to upper levels of an emergency scene

What is a safety recommendation when operating an aerial device with tip controls? (700) A. Never operate during inclement weather. B. Never operate while parked close to a fire. C. Never operate while personnel are on the ladder. D. Never operate from the tip without a primary operator at the main controls.

What is an adverse effect to overcleaning fire apparatus? (33) A. May make parts slippery and difficult to work with B. May weaken the structural integrity of body components C. May void any type of warranty associated with apparatus D. May remove lubrication from the chassis, engine, pump and underbody

What is each section of an articulation aerial device called? (684) A. Fly B. Bed C. Arm D. Boom

What is the MAIN concern of fire departments regarding water treatment facilities? (184) A. Amount of chemicals put into the water B. Cost of the water for the fire department C. Possible damage to apparatus tanks caused by treatment D. Maintenance failure or other events could disable pumping station(s) or severely hamper the purification process

What is the function of a booster line cooling valve? (316) A. Allows water to remain in the tank B. Receives water from two directions C. Circulates tank water through a heat exchanger D. Diverts a portion of discharge water into the tank

What is the function of a pressure governor? (321) A. Regulates engine speed to best use available fuel supply B. Regulates engine speed to match load carrying requirements C. Regulates water flow to match pump discharge requirements D. Regulates engine speed to match pump discharge requirements

What is the function of diesel particulate filters (DPF)? (45) A. Improve mileage B. Improve engine performance C. Protect vital engine components D. Provide for cleaner emissions from diesel engines

What is the most common cause of an inability to prime? (359) A. Engine speed (rpm) is too high B. Inexperience of personnel using the equipment C. Equipment used for priming is incompatible or outdated D. An air leak that prevents primer from developing enough vacuum to successfully draft water

What is the primary consideration for friction loss? (210) A. Length of hose lay B. Elevation differences C. Experience of firefighters D. Volume of water flowing per minute

What is the proper method for reaching a victim trapped in an elevated position? (725) A. The aerial device should be extended straight to the victim. B. The aerial device should be initially extended and then rotated to the victim. C. The aerial device should be initially aimed below the victim and then raised. D. The aerial device should initially be aimed above the victim and then lowered.

What is the purpose of a four-way hydrant valve in making a lay? (341) A. Allows for as many supply lines as necessary B. Enables firefighters to more easily turn on/off the main control valve C. Allows the driver/operator to configure multiple types of lays easily and efficiently D. Allows a second arriving pumper to be connected without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line

What is the purpose of slow-acting valve controls? (317) A. Allow personnel time to preposition hoses B Minimize chances of water being inadvertently discharged C. Maximize the amount of water that can be moved at one time D. Minimize risk of damage caused by water hammer when large volumes of water are being moved

What must be done if stretching a hoseline across a railroad track is absolutely necessary? (154) A. Speed of operations must become a priority. B. Apparatus with warning lights must be stationed at track. C. All local police and highway patrol must be notified of incident. D. The rail company must be notified to confirm rail traffic has been halted along section in question.

What must driver/operators know about the ground ladders found on the aerial apparatus? (578) A. The ladder's exact serial number B. Manufacturer's preservice test procedures C. Procedures for repairing damaged ground ladders D. Procedures for inspecting, testing, and maintaining ground ladders

What results when the floor of the platform and/or the knuckle between booms are not parallel to the ground? (692) A. Easier to climb the ladder B. Easier to raise or extend the ladder C. A lower water pressure at the tip of the device D. A twisting force on the entire aerial device system

What should a driver/operator do when a piece of equipment onboard is found broken, defective, or in need of any type of repair? (31) A. Immediately take the apparatus out of service B. Contact the department mechanic or contract service shop C. Remedy the situation, if possible, so documentation is not required D. Follow the established policy of the AHJ for documenting, reporting, and following up on status of repair

What should be used to clean automotive glass? (34) A. Dry towels or cloths B. Putty knives and a damp cloth rag C. Warm soapy water in conjunction with shop towels D. Commercial glass cleaner in conjunction with a clean cloth rag

What should the driver/operator check once the stabilizers are in place? (652) A. If each stabilizer is exactly the same height as all of the other stabilizers B. If the stabilizer shoes need to be placed underneath the stabilizers C. Whether the stabilizer needs to be short-jacked due to restricted space D. Whether the surface the stabilizers are resting on is stable enough to continue operations

When a mobile water supply apparatus is parked in close proximity to the fire scene and pumpers are using its supply during suppression operations, the water tender is being used: (18) A. as an intermittent source. B. as a secondary operation. C. in a mobile shuttle operation. D. as a stationary reservoir or "nurse tender."

When checking vehicle batteries, driver/operators should check that cable connections are tight and protected with: (46) A. a covering over the entire battery component. B. a coating of specialized apparatus paint product. C. small plastic or rubber caps over the connections. D. a film of grease, petroleum jelly, or battery terminal protection product.

When considering priorities during a rescue situation, who should be given the highest priority? (723) A. Those in the hazard area B. Those in the exposed area C. The largest group of people D. Those in the greatest danger

When determining friction loss in a wyed hoseline in which the hoselines have the same nozzle pressure, hose length, and diameter: (215) A. calculations can be estimated. B. calculations are too difficult to make. C. both of the wyed hoselines need to be considered. D. only one of the wyed hoselines need to be considered.

When developing a customized pump chart, column headings should include information such as flow, nozzle pressure, and: (284) A. number of personnel. B. type of fire strategy used. C. average range of fire streams. D. distance in feet for hose layouts.

When fire conditions are evident upon arrival, the driver/operator should place the apparatus in a safe position that: (136) A. includes room for vehicles in front of and behind the apparatus. B. puts the apparatus as physically close to the fire scene as possible. C. allows personnel to view the entire fire scene from the apparatus. D. includes an exit route for apparatus should a withdrawal become necessary.

When giving hand signals for backing apparatus, hand signals should be: (115) A. repeated twice. B. repeated three times. C. done in a fast, exaggerated motion. D. done in a slow, exaggerated motion.

When is a posttrip inspection conducted? (48) A. After the apparatus has been driven 50 miles B. After the apparatus has been driven 100 miles C. After the apparatus is taken out for any length of time D. After the apparatus has been operated for an extended period of time

When it is necessary to place a firefighter at the end of the aerial device during elevated master stream operations, the elevating platform is safer and has: (571) A. more reach than the aerial ladder. B. less load capacity than the aerial ladder. C. less working room than the aerial ladder. D. more working room than the aerial ladder.

When loading fire hose while driving the apparatus, the safety observer to the operation: (91) A. can be the driver/operator. B. must be the first firefighter loading hose. C. can be any member of the hose loading team. D. must be a member, other than driver/operator and the firefighters loading the hose.

When might tandem pumping operations may be needed? (144) A. During inclement weather conditions B. During the growth stages of a fully involved building C. When one strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers D. When pressures higher than a single engine is capable of supplying are required

When operating the telescoping aerial device, it is recommended to use one motion at a time unless the situation is critical and: (682-683) A. firefighters are on the ladder. B. a firefighter is in the platform. C. the operator needs to reposition the aerial apparatus. D. the operator is qualified to operate the apparatus in that manner.

When performing rope rescue operations, it is essential that the lifts be made in a smooth manner in order to: (735) A. reduce the friction in the rope. B. prevent the victim from becoming sick. C. allow for correction during cross-winds. D. ensure that the capacity is not exceeded.

When performing ventilation operations from the tip of an aerial device, firefighters should be: (737) A. positioned slightly below the window. B. positioned on the leeward side of operations. C. secured to the building with a harness and rope. D. secured to the ladder or platform with a safety belt.

When pumping in the series (pressure) position: (302) A. water is only directed into the second impeller. B. only the first impeller takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. C. each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. D. all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller.

When referring to pump wear rings and packing, why must very close tolerances be maintained between pump casing and the hub of the impeller? (304) A. Any variation causes the pump to stop working. B. Excessive openings require the rings be replaced often. C. Incorrect tolerances will cause metal parts to malfunction. D. Any increase in opening lessens the effectiveness of the pump.

When responding to a hazardous materials incident, the driver/operator should: (153) A. drive the apparatus to the scene and initiate defensive actions. B. drive the apparatus to the scene and initiate offensive actions. C. drive the apparatus directly to the scene but not exit vehicle until material is identified. D. not drive the apparatus directly to the scene until the material involved can be identified.

When responding to an incident at a highway, the fire apparatus should be positioned at an angle to: (626) A. hide the scene from passing traffic to avoid distracting the drivers. B. provide easier access to tools and equipment to firefighters at the scene. C. block strong winds that have the potential to disrupt the incident scene. D. act as a shield between the flow of traffic and firefighters working at the incident.

When responding to emergencies, apparatus should: (101) A. leave headlights off unless it is night time. B. flash headlights as the apparatus is moving. C. drive with high beam headlights on constantly. D. turn on headlights as part of the emergency response.

When securing a detachable ladder pipe system on an aerial ladder, the hose should be run directly up the center of the ladder rungs because: (569-570) A. not centering the hose on the ladder often causes a loss in water pressure. B. not centering the hose on the ladder causes unnecessary stress on the hoseline. C. placing the hose on either side of the center makes controlling the direction of the flow more difficult. D. placing the hose on either side of the center causes unnecessary torsional stress on the ladder.

When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus? (96) A. During weekly inspections B. During monthly inspections C. Whenever it changes from day to night D. Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another

When shutting down the hydrant, why should all changes in flow be made smoothly? (351) A. To limit the amount of water that is likely to be wasted B. To ensure that attack lines don't suddenly lose pressure C. To avoid surprising handline crews with sudden changes D. To avoid water hammer and pressure surges on water systems

When stabilizing an aerial apparatus: (699) A. the aerial device should be elevated partially. B. chocks should be placed on the side of stabilizers. C. always set up on soft surfaces to allow the apparatus to set in place. D. never set up on slopes exceeding the manufacturer's recommendations.

When strobe lights (emitters) mounted on apparatus are used to activate sensors in traffic lights, the signal: (102) A. causes a red light in all directions. B. causes either a red or green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel. C. causes a red light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a green light in all other directions. D. causes a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.

When the apparatus is operated in a stationary position during a wildland fire attack, it should be placed in an area that: (147) A. provides an overview of the fire. B. can also be used as the command center. C. allows firefighters to make a temporary fire break. D. affords maximum protection from heat and flames.

When the pump is in operation, the driver/operator must: (337) A. ensure the incident action plan is being followed by all team members. B. monitor the cost involved in running the pump as well as possible water costs. C. ensure all team members are wearing appropriate personal protective equipment. D. monitor all gauges associated with the engine as well as with the operation of the fire pump.

When using an aerial device as a master stream close to ground level, the driver/operator should position the apparatus: (739) A. at a higher grade than the target. B. on the leeward side of the structure. C. so the turntable is parallel with the target. D. so the turntable is directly in line with the target.

When using multiple hoselines of equal length and diameter, loss calculations: (215) A. can be estimated. B. are too difficult to perform. C. must be made for both lines. D. need only be made for one line.

When water converts to a gas, water vapor, or steam, the water: (167) A. immediately dissipates so it is rarely visible. B. changes to droplets that will fall back to the surface. C. only becomes visible if the ambient air temperature is above 40°F (4°C). D. only becomes visible as it rises away from the surface of the liquid and begins to condense.

Where should a master stream nozzle be positioned for a blitz attack on a structure? (739) A. Center of the window opening B. Either side of the window opening C. Upper portion of the window opening D. Lower portion of the window opening

Where should the driver/operator position the aerial apparatus when providing access for ventilating a flat roof? (737) A. On the burned side of the structure furthest away from the area being ventilated B. On the burned side of the structure as close as possible to the area being ventilated C. On the unburned side of the structure furthest away from the area being ventilated D. On the unburned side of the structure as close as possible to the area being ventilated

Where should the working end of the rope be anchored on the aerial device when lifting objects other than people? (735) A. Should be anchored to the tip of the ladder B. Should only be anchored to the lifting eye(s) C. Should be anchored to a static device on the ground D. Should only be anchored to a lower section of the ladder

Which BEST describes the practice of using aerial devices for water rescue? (735) A. Place the tip in the water for victims. B. Lower a firefighter to the victim in the water. C. First angle the device and then extend the ladder to the victim. D. Fire departments should discourage the use of these devices for this type of rescue.

Which BEST describes when the driver/operator is ready to operate the pump to generate sufficient pressure to create an effective fire stream? (337) A. When the fire passes the incipient stage B. When the water source has been identified C. When all personnel have exited the apparatus D. When the fire pump has been made operational

Which NFPA® standard applies to inspecting any aerial apparatus chassis and device? (698) A. NFPA® 1001 B. NFPA® 1201 C. NFPA® 1901 D. NFPA® 1911

Which NFPA® standard details requirements for rope and hardware used for lifting eyes? (735) A. NFPA® 1002 B. NFPA® 1901 C. NFPA® 1911 D. NFPA® 1983

Which National Fire Protection Association® standard specifies methods for brake tests? (43) A. 1021 B. 1031 C. 1900 D. 1911

Which action should the driver/operator conduct when driving an aerial apparatus? (699) A. Obey certain traffic signals B. Always pass on the right of vehicles C. Exceed driving speed during inclement conditions D. Look ahead and anticipate the need to brake or maneuver

Which action would MOST likely be considered reckless when driving an apparatus? (86) A. Driving while talking to a passenger B. Using both visual and auditory warnings C. Taking short cuts to the emergency incident scene D. Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles

Which aerial device would be MOST effective in rescuing victims from behind parapet walls? (728) A. Aerial telescoping ladder B. Aerial telescoping platform C. A two-boom articulating aerial device D. A three-section articulating aerial device

Which apparatus are MOST likely to have design problems? (89) A. Apparatus built before 2002 B. Apparatus designs that have been discontinued C. Apparatus built by smaller commercial companies D. Apparatus built on government surplus or other used vehicle chassis

Which apparatus is MOST likely to be equipped with steerable rear wheels on the trailer? (553) A. Quints B. Trailer-mounted fire pumps C. Mobile water supply apparatus D. Tractor-drawn aerial apparatus

Which apparatus is often designed with the pump panel and one or more preconnected hoselines housed in a compartment? (22) A. Fireboats B. Wildland fire apparatus C. Trailer-mounted fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which are the most common type of valves used on most public water distribution systems? (186) A. Primary valves B. Indicating valves C. Secondary valves D. Nonindicating valves

Which category of primer includes both the rotary vane primer and the rotary gear primer? (322) A. Air primers B. Exhaust primers C. Vacuum primers D. Positive displacement primers

Which command would MOST likely be used to instruct the driver/operator to rotate the device? (679) A. Raise B. Lower C. Extend D. Rotate clockwise

Which component prevents the movement of fluid within the stabilization system? (662) A. Interlock B. Stabilizers C. Selector valve D. Holding valves

Which condition may make fog streams ineffective when protecting exposures at a fire incident? (748) A. Cloudless sky B. Late night hours C. Cooler temperatures D. High wind conditions

Which describes a circulating feed or looped line? (184) A. When a fire hydrant is located in a cul-de-sac B. When a fire hydrant is located at an intersection C. When a fire hydrant receives water from only one direction D. When a fire hydrant receives water from two or more directions

Which device has the ability to reach out, down, and under the surface on which the apparatus is parked? (698) A. A telescoping aerial device B. A telescoping elevating platform C. A two-boom, articulating aerial platform D. A three-boom, articulating aerial platform

Which equipment is powered by gasoline, diesel, power-take-off, or hydraulic systems? (23) A. Inverter B. Mini-generator C. Portable generator D. Vehicle-mounted generator

Which factor BEST determines the flow and reach of a solid stream? (194) A. Water piping and connections B. Age of nozzle and firefighter training C. Ambient temperature and wind direction D. Nozzle pressure and size of the discharge orifice

Which factor MUST be balanced against positioning an apparatus at a safe distance from the structure? (739) A. The location of the staging area B. The weather conditions at the incident C. The distance to the incident command post D. The distance of the fire stream to reach the target

Which feature of a turntable should be checked periodically for wear based upon the manufacturer's torque specifications? (563) A. Turntable base B. Turntable chassis C. Turntable bearings D. Turntable bearing bolts

Which interlock device prevents the aerial device from moving into regions where it could make contact with the body or cab? (566) A. Cab interlock B. Rotation interlock C. Nozzle stow interlock D. Body collision interlock

Which is MOST likely a consideration when parking the apparatus at an emergency medical incident? (155) A. Avoiding sightline of onlookers at the scene B. Allowing room for media personnel to enter and exit C. Proximity of exhaust discharge relative to nearby businesses D. Proximity of exhaust discharge relative to location of patients

Which is a characteristic of "dead end mains" when referring to hydrants? (340) A. Have greater water pressure B. Receive supply from several directions C. Have smaller amounts of sedimentation, deterioration D. Contain higher amounts of sediment and deterioration

Which is a characteristic of master stream nozzles? (199) A. Designed to be used from a mobile position B. Require considerable personnel for operation C. Generate little nozzle reaction even at higher flow rates D. Offer ability to operate at a greater distance from the fire

Which is a characteristic of water? (169) A. Its heat-absorbing capacity is greatest when paired with other extinguishing agents. B. Its heat-absorbing capacity is reduced when paired with other extinguishing agents. C. It has lower heat-absorbing capacity than other common extinguishing agents. D. It has greater heat-absorbing capacity than other common extinguishing agents.

Which is a friction loss guideline in a hose assembly when flowing 350 gpm (1 400 L/min) or greater? (213) A. There is a loss of 25 psi (175 kPa) in all appliances. B. Friction loss is generally considered to be insignificant. C. Friction loss is generally considered to be one-half of rated loss. D. There is a loss of 10 psi (70 kPa) for each appliance, other than master stream devices.

Which is a guideline for apparatus rider safety? (92) A. Firefighters riding in jump seats must wear reflective vests. B. Every firefighter riding on the apparatus must have an individual radio. C. Stop any operation involving apparatus every 15 minutes for a safety check. D. Never allow firefighters to ride on the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus.

Which is a guideline for positioning for structure protection during a wildland fire? (147) A. Park apparatus on the roadway B. Position apparatus on the windward side of the structure C. Park as close as physically possible to the structure D. Clear away any nearby brush that may serve as fuel

Which is a reason pump and suction drains are used on pumper apparatus? (318) A. Remove and replenish contaminated water quickly B. Allow the introduction of small amounts of cleaning solution C. Allow the introduction of a small amount of air into the system D. Remove all water from the system in climates where freezing may occur

Which is a reason that driver/operators may need to determine the amount of water discharged from a solid stream nozzle? (194-195) A. Determine cost of water per minute flowing B. Verify that the nozzle discharges stamped amount C. Calculate amount of foam solution to add to the nozzle D. Test the water supply when a nozzle is attached to a hydrant

Which is a three-way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves? (549) A. Stack valve B. Relief valve C. Check valve D. Selector valve

Which is an advantage to having separate piping arrangements for a private water supply system? (189) A. Allows business to not follow codes B. More cost effective than just one system C. Systems can be used as redundant supply systems D. Neither of the systems is affected by service interruptions to the other

Which is an example of pre arrival communication? (720) A. Officer and operator size up B. Confirm water supply strategy C. Hand signals for aerial deployment D. Decision to stage or commit a vehicle

Which is an example of tactical communication? (720) A. Water supply management B. Officer and operator size up C. Confirm water supply strategy D. Hand signals to guide the aerial ladder into position

Which is an indication that a pump is cavitating? (354) A. Pump does not make any working noises B. A decrease in the throttle will decrease discharge pressure C. An increase in the throttle will increase discharge pressure D. Lack of reaction on the pressure gauge to increases in the throttle

Which is powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle-drive engine? (307) A. Midship pump B. Front-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which is preferred when using an aerial platform for a window rescue? (727) A. Position the platform above the window. B. Position the platform on the windward side of the window. C. Position the platform 2 feet (600 mm) away from the window. D. Position the platform so the top rail is even with the windowsill.

Which is the BEST location to position an aerial platform to ventilate a roof? (737) A. Positioned so the bottom is even with the roof's edge B. Positioned to allow 6 feet (2 m) above the roof's edge C. Positioned so the top railing is even with the roof's edge D. Positioned even with or extended slightly over the roof's edge

Which is the BEST position to raise the aerial device to a victim? (724) A. Positioning the aerial apparatus behind the objective B. Positioning the aerial apparatus in front of the objective C. The extended and rotated aerial device is in line with the turntable D. The extended and rotated aerial device is perpendicular to the objective

Which is the BEST position when using an aerial ladder for a roof rescue? (727) A. Position the tip even with the roof's edge. B. Position the tip three rungs above the roof's edge. C. Position the tip 2 feet (0.6 m) below the roof's edge. D. Position the tip 6 feet (2 m) above the roof's edge.

Which is the BEST position when using an aerial platform for a roof rescue? (727) A. Position the platform 6 feet (2 m) above the roof's edge B. Position the platform so the bottom is even with the roof's edge C. Position the platform so the top railing is even with the roof's edge D. Position the bottom of the platform above and over the roof's edge

Which is the MOST important factor in choosing a draft site? (355) A. Weather conditions B. Accessibility of water C. Type or quality of water D. Amount of water available

Which is the MOST likely problem during drafting if the discharge pressure gauge begins to fluctuate with a corresponding loss of vacuum on the intake gauge? (360) A. Blockage in the pump itself B. Gauge readings are incorrect C. Attempting to exceed capacity of the pump D. Air is coming into the pump along with water

Which is the preferred aerial device position if the victim is to be lifted over the top rail of the platform? (722) A. Position the turntable adjacent to the target. B. Position the device 5 feet (1.5 m) from the target. C. Position the device 10 feet (3 m) below the target. D. Position the turntable directly in line with the target.

Which item is MOST likely to be used in identifying the appropriate location for piercing nozzles in the fuselage? (749) A. Aircraft cargo list B. Portable X-Ray devices C. Aircraft design blueprints D. Thermal imaging cameras

Which manner of producing fog streams occurs by deflecting water around an inside circular stem in the nozzle? (196) A. Circular stream nozzles B. Impinging stream nozzles C. Pressure-deflected streams D. Periphery-deflected streams

Which may be part of a skid-mount assembly or may be mounted on pickup trucks? (307) A. Midship pump B. Rear-mount pump C. Power-take-off (PTO) drive D. Auxiliary engine driven pump

Which method is used to determine additional water available from a hydrant? (350) A. Division method B. Addition method C. Second-digit method D. Squaring-the-lines method

Which method is useful to lower an unconscious or severely injured adult down the aerial ladder? (730) A. The victim should climb down the ladder under their own power. B. The victim should be cradled in a firefighter's arms as they descend the ladder. C. The victim is placed on the firefighter's knee while they slowly descend the ladder. D. The victim positions across the rails of the ladder and is supported by firefighters below.

Which nozzle consists of a solid piece of brass or steel with many small impinging holes that produce a very fine mist? (201) A. Cellar nozzle B. Broken nozzle C. Piercing nozzle D. Chimney nozzle

Which nozzle is designed to allow the firefighter operating the handline to select a flow rate to suit the fire and operating conditions? (197) A. Automatic fog nozzle B. Constant flow fog nozzle C. High pressure fog nozzle D. Selectable gallonage nozzle

Which of the following is clearance that should be maintained between working firefighters and high-voltage transmission lines over 50,000 volts? (617) A. 15 ft. (4.5 m) B. 25 ft. (7.5 m) C. 40 ft. (12 m) D. 50 ft. (15 m)

Which operations MOST commonly requires below-grade operations by an aerial device? (697) A. Training operations B. High-rise operations C. Recovery operations D. Special rescue operations

Which registers pressure as it leaves the pump, but before it reaches gauges for each individual discharge line? (325-326) A. Tachometer B. Master intake gauge C. Pumping engine throttle D. Master discharge pressure gauge

Which should the driver/operator consult to determine if the device can be deployed safely below grade? (697) A. NFPA® 1901 B. The Command Officer C. The training coordinator D. Manufacturer's operating guide

Which standard establishes requirements for the quality of air in breathing air systems? (573) A. NFPA® 1901 B. NFPA® 1911 C. NFPA® 1962 D. NFPA® 1989

Which statement about apparatus-mounted generators with separate engines is MOST accurate? (23) A. They are initially quiet but become very loud after being run for long durations. B. They are initially very loud but become quiet after being run for long durations. C. They have nearly soundless operation and don't interfere with communication. D. They may create noisy work environments making communication difficult.

Which statement about checking fluid levels is MOST accurate? (44) A. Most checks can be conducted while the engine is running. B. Unless gauges have been inaccurate, they can be relied upon for inspections. C. Fluid level measurements should be the same whether the engine is hot or cold. D. Never rely solely on warning lights or gauges; all fluid levels should be inspected.

Which statement about driver/operator training is accurate? (80) A. All firefighters must be qualified as driver/operators. B. Driver/operators do not need to have firefighter certification. C. All fire departments must select driver/operators in the same manner. D. All fire departments must establish and maintain a thorough training program.

Which statement about fire department pumpers and foam capability is MOST accurate? (15) A. Most fire department pumpers are not generally capable of discharging foam. B. Fire department pumpers are often capable of discharging foam on Class A fires but not Class B fires. C. Fire department pumpers are often capable of discharging foam on Class B fires but not Class A fires. D. Many fire departments operate pumpers capable of discharging foam on Class A and/or Class B fires.

Which statement about fire hose and friction loss is MOST accurate? (179) A. Given the same velocity, small and large hose will deliver the same volume. B. Hose size has relatively little effect on velocity required to deliver water. C. The larger the hose, the greater the velocity needed to deliver the same volume. D. The smaller the hose, the greater the velocity needed to deliver the same volume.

Which statement about friction loss is MOST accurate? (180) A. Flow pressure is greatest at the farthest point in the system. B. Flow pressure will always be lowest closest to the source of supply. C. Friction loss in a water system decreases as length of hose or piping increases. D. Friction loss in a water system increases as length of hose or piping increases.

Which statement about hydrant selection is MOST accurate? (340) A. Any hydrant that is near the incident scene is a good choice. B. Hydrants that appear older than ten years should not be used. C. The closest hydrants are always the best choice because of their location. D. The closest hydrants may not be the most prudent choice because of safety or fire fighting needs.

Which statement about manual hydraulic calculators is MOST accurate? (284) A. Consists of a graph in which the intersections of variables provide pump discharge pressure B. Consists of multiple charts in which the user finds rates of flow, size of hose, and length of hose layout C. Consists of index cards that are cross-referenced to rates of flow, size of hose, and length of hose layout D. Consists of a slide or dial that can be moved to cover or reveal rates of flow, size of hose, and length of hose layout

Which statement about positioning for wildland fire attack is MOST accurate? (146) A. Wildland positioning is similar to structural positioning. B. Apparatus should be moved a maximum of three times. C. Apparatus are positioned in a single location and rarely move from that position. D. Apparatus are seldom positioned in same location for the duration of an incident.

Which statement about states/provinces and driver/operator regulations is MOST accurate? (83) A. States or provinces must vote to change federal regulations. B. State or province requirements must be similar within regions. C. States or provinces cannot alter basic federal requirements. D. States or provinces have latitude to alter federal requirements as necessary.

Which statement about the driver/operator and organization in civil or criminal cases is MOST accurate? (84) A. Only the organization can be held responsible. B. Only the driver/operator can be held responsible. C. Neither the driver/operator nor organization can be held responsible. D. Both the driver/operator and organization can be held responsible.

Which statement about the flowmeter is MOST accurate? (282) A. It is generally accurate within 10 percent of actual water flow. B. It is generally accurate within 25 percent of actual water flow. C. It serves as a check to verify calculations based on friction loss, elevation pressure, and length of hoseline. D. It relieves you from relying on calculations based on friction loss, elevation pressure, and length of hoseline.

Which statement about tire types and condition is MOST accurate? (38) A. Tires must be of the same size ratings, but weight ratings can vary up to 20%. B. Any tire types are acceptable, as long as all tires are similar in size and weight ratings. C. It is acceptable to mix radial tires with bias-ply tires, as long as they are the same in the front and rear. D. All tires should be the same size and weight ratings according to appropriate manufacturer specifications.

Which statement about warning devices is MOST accurate? (100) A. Visual warning devices should be used before audible devices. B. Audible warning devices should be used before visible devices. C. Warning devices should be used whenever fire apparatus are on streets. D. Use of warning devices should be limited to response to true emergencies.

Which term refers to absolute zero pressure? (175) A. Vacuum B. Head pressure C. Static pressure D. Perfect vacuum

Which term refers to the pressure found in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands? (176) A. Head pressure B. Static pressure C. Residual pressure D. Normal operating pressure

Which type of apparatus has small fire pumps and tanks that may feature foam proportioning equipment and a tank for foam concentrate? (22) A. Trailer-mounted fire pumps B. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus C. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps D. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps

Which type of auxiliary cooling device works when water supplied by the fire pump passes through a coil or tubing mounted inside the cooler? (329) A. Marine cooler B. Outboard cooler C. Inline front-mounted cooler D. Immersion type auxiliary cooler

Which type of flowmeter employs a stainless steel spring probe to detect water movement in discharge piping? (282) A. Bypass B. Paddlewheel C. Front mount D. Spring probe

Which type of flowmeter has only one simple moving part and tends to require little maintenance? (282) A. Bypass B. Paddlewheel C. Front mount D. Spring probe

Which type of friction loss can usually be minimized by employing proper hose handling techniques? (181) A. Hose length B. Water presure C. Hose diameter D. Sharp bends in the hose

Which type of positive displacement pump is the simplest of all fire apparatus pumps, from the standpoint of design? (296) A. Inline pump B. Gated pump C. Piston pump D. Rotary pump

Which type of valve has a yoke on the outside with threaded stem that controls the gate's opening or closing and is most commonly used on sprinkler systems? (186) A. Gate valve B. Butterfly valve C. Post indicator (PIV) valve D. Outside screw and yoke (OS&Y) valve

While driving a vehicle equipped with anti-lock brakes: (109) A. push the pedal to the floor. B. intermittently pump the pedal and apply pressure. C. pump the pedal repeatedly until apparatus comes to a complete stop. D. maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop.

Why are flowmeters useful in relay pumping operations? (283) A. A volume of water flowing from a receiving pumper can be increased substantially. B. A receiving pumper can refill at a much quicker pace and the driver/operator can focus on tasks. C. All pumpers in the operation can refill with the use of fewer personnel. D. The driver/operator may feed a supply line without having to know the volume of water flowing from receiving pumper.

Why are most fog nozzles designed to operate at or below 100 psi (700 kPa) nozzle pressure? (202) A. Above this pressure, handlines will produce erratic fire streams. B. Above this pressure, nozzles will likely separate from the hose couplings. C. Above this pressure, pump discharges will not keep up with needed supply. D. Above this pressure, handlines become unwieldy for firefighters attempting fire suppression operations.

Why do some jurisdictions require pumpers yield an optimum position close to a building for an aerial apparatus? (140) A. A pumper needs to be able to quickly leave incident scenes. B. A pumper crew is generally more experienced than the aerial crew. C. An aerial crew is generally more experienced than the pumper crew. D. An aerial device, with its fixed length ladder or boom, is of no use positioned beyond its maximum reach.

Why is it important to stay away from a downed power line with both feet on the ground at the same time? (616) A. Laws require that the electric company must first inspect the scene for safety. B. It will prevent you from stepping on ground that may become unstable when energized. C. The scene must remain undisturbed for law enforcement to inspect for potential foul play. D. It will prevent you from becoming a conductor between two areas that are charged differently.

Why is the over-the-shoulder carry the most difficult and riskiest method of moving victims down aerial ladders? (731) A. The victim is likely to resist being carried over the shoulder of a firefighter. B. The firefighter cannot control the victim's legs and feet while descending the ladder. C. The victim is likely to become unconscious when positioned on the shoulder of a firefighter. D. The firefighter will only have one hand available for stability while descending the ladder.

Why is the rotary vane pump more efficient at pumping air than the rotary gear pump? (298) A. Newer design B. Greater capacity C. Fewer moving parts D. Self-adjusting feature

Why is the use of aerial apparatus dangerous for water rescues? (736) A. The ladder is not designed to operate at angles greater than 180 degrees B. Victims usually cannot pull themselves out of the water C. Potential for the victim to become injured by the device tip D. Potential for the aerial device to make contact with swiftly moving waters

Why should a driver/operator use an inspection checklist? (31) A. Eliminates the need for a certified mechanic B. Enables fewer inspections to be conducted on the apparatus C. Ensures the driver/operator does not lie about the inspection D. Ensures the driver/operator conducts a uniform and complete inspection

Why should departments discourage the use of aerial devices for water rescue? (736) A. Liability concerns B. Lack of water rescue training C. Unpredictable victim behavior D. Inability to stabilize the apparatus

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