EMR TEST
29. The purpose of the jaw-thrust maneuver is to: A) open the airway of an unconscious uninjured patient. B) keep the airway clear of foreign bodies or secretions. C) open a patient's airway without manipulating the neck. D) maintain the airway of a conscious patient who was injured.
open a patient's airway without manipulating the neck.
37. Which of the following is NOT a component of the scene size-up? A) ensuring that the scene is safe for you to enter B) determining the need for additional resources C) determining whether the patient is sick or injured D) strict adherence to standard precautions at all times
determining whether the patient is sick or injured
80. When applying a bandage, you should: A) tighten it until the pulse beyond the injury weakens. B) recall that bandages are used to prevent contamination. C) ensure that the dressing completely covers the wound. D) check circulation beyond the wound every 20 minutes.
ensure that the dressing completely covers the wound.
60. A law enforcement officer requests medical assistance for a 22-year-old man whom the officer pulled over for reckless driving. You arrive approximately 8 minutes before responding paramedics. The patient is conscious but clearly confused. His speech is slurred and he appears to be drunk. You should: A) ask the patient if he has a history of diabetes. B) look for alcohol containers in the patient's car. C) suspect that the patient abuses heroin frequently. D) assume that the patient is having a severe stroke.
A) ask the patient if he has a history of diabetes.
36. Pulse oximetry is used to: A) assess the amount of oxygen saturated in red blood cells. B) determine the underlying cause of the patient's condition. C) assess the amount of carbon dioxide eliminated per breath. D) determine how much room air oxygen the patient is breathing.
A) assess the amount of oxygen saturated in red blood cells.
18. Documentation regarding patient care provided by the EMR should: A) be clear, concise, accurate, and readable. B) include no more than two sets of vital signs. C) remain on file for a maximum of 18 months. D) occur at the same time the patient is being treated.
A) be clear, concise, accurate, and readable.
26. The MOST sensitive cells in the human body are in the: A) brain. B) lungs. C) heart. D) kidneys.
A) brain.
57. Emphysema is caused by: A) damage to the alveoli in the lungs. B) a bacterial infection within the lungs. C) inflammation of the airways in the lungs. D) narrowing of the small airways in the lungs.
A) damage to the alveoli in the lungs.
90. During the second stage of labor: A) delivery of the infant occurs. B) the amniotic sac ruptures. C) the uterus begins to contract. D) delivery of the placenta occurs.
A) delivery of the infant occurs.
59. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is a tool that assesses: A) facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech. B) arm drift, pupil reaction to light, and speech. C) balance, abnormal speech, and long-term memory. D) short-term memory, arm drift, and blood pressure.
A) facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech.
70. Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) flushed, dry skin. B) lightheadedness. C) profuse sweating. D) nausea and dizziness.
A) flushed, dry skin.
33. When inserting a nasal airway, you should: A) insert the airway into the larger nostril first. B) follow the curvature of the roof of the nose. C) insert the airway with the bevel facing outward. D) coat the airway with a petroleum-based lubricant.
A) insert the airway into the larger nostril first.
46. Rapid, shallow respirations are characteristic of: A) shock. B) a stroke. C) head trauma. D) a drug overdose.
A) shock.
28. The lungs are protected by the _________ at the front and by the _________ at the sides and back. A) sternum, rib cage B) diaphragm, sternum C) rib cage, diaphragm D) sternum, diaphragm
A) sternum, rib cage
3. The EMR must possess the ability to: A) treat patients using limited equipment. B) sustain a patient's life for several hours. C) avoid improvisation whenever possible. D) function at the same level as a paramedic.
A) treat patients using limited equipment.
11. To comply with the standard of care, the EMR must: A) treat the patient to the best of his or her ability and provide care that a reasonable, prudent person with similar training would provide under similar circumstances. B) provide prompt and competent care that is consistent with what is deemed appropriate by the paramedic in charge and that is clearly defined in the EMS system protocols. C) provide the same prompt and competent care that an individual with a higher level of training would have provided under the same or similar circumstances. D) treat the patient in a manner that is consistent with what is expected of the general public and that meets or exceeds the EMR's established scope of practice.
A) treat the patient to the best of his or her ability and provide care that a reasonable, prudent person with similar training would provide under similar circumstances.
73. The initial stage of drowning usually involves: A) panic. B) a seizure. C) exhaustion. D) laryngospasm.
A.) Panic
63. Absorption occurs when a poison enters the body through: A) the mouth and is absorbed by the digestive system. B) intact skin and spreads through the circulatory system. C) the mouth or nose and is absorbed by the respiratory system. D) an opening in the skin and spreads through the circulatory system.
B) intact skin and spreads through the circulatory system.
41. A patient is said to be alert if he or she: A) is confused but is able to tell you the approximate time. B) is able to answer questions accurately and appropriately. C) has not experienced any significant illnesses or injuries. D) reacts to a loud stimulus, such as when you raise your voice.
B) is able to answer questions accurately and appropriately.
98. A geriatric patient is MOST accurately defined as a person who: A) has decreased mobility. B) is older than 65 years. C) receives social security benefits. D) cannot take care of himself or herself.
B) is older than 65 years.
95. When communicating with a sick child, you should: A) stand over the child and speak in a calm, relaxed voice. B) kneel down at the child's level and establish eye contact. C) encourage the child to move freely to minimize anxiety. D) reassure the child that any procedures will not be painful.
B) kneel down at the child's level and establish eye contact.
82. A superficial burn is characterized by: A) the formation of blisters. B) reddened and painful skin. C) a high risk of severe infection. D) a lack of pain as a result of nerve damage.
B) reddened and painful skin.
8. A CISD is used to: A) determine whether any errors in patient care occurred. B) alleviate the stress reactions caused by high-stress incidents. C) investigate potential wrongdoings by the EMS responder. D) identify the exact stressors that resulted in the stress reaction.
B.) alleviate the stress reactions caused by high-stress incidents.
21. Air is inhaled into the lungs when the diaphragm: A) relaxes and moves upward in the chest. B) contracts and moves downward in the chest. C) relaxes and moves downward in the chest. D) contracts and moves upward in the chest.
B.) contracts and moves downward in the chest.
1. When EMTs or paramedics arrive at the scene of an emergency, the EMR should: A) accompany the patient to the receiving medical facility. B) assume that his or her assistance will no longer be required. C) assist the EMTs in continuing the care that he or she initiated. D) obtain a signature from the EMT who is assuming patient care.
C. assist the EMTs in continuing the care that he or she initiated.
96. What are the components of the PAT? A) work of breathing, appearance, and skin condition B) skin circulation, respiratory rate, and blood pressure C) pulse rate, blood pressure, and pupil reaction to light D) appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation
D) appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation
43. The purpose of the secondary assessment is to: A) rapidly identify and immediately correct any conditions that pose an imminent threat to the patient's life. B) diagnose the patient's condition and inform the incoming EMS unit of your physical examination findings. C) assess for non-life-threatening conditions after immediate life threats have been identified and corrected during the primary assessment. D) obtain the patient's vital signs to determine whether his or her condition is deteriorating or improving over a specific period of time.
C.) assess for non-life-threatening conditions after immediate life threats have been identified and corrected during the primary assessment.
20. The respiratory system functions by: A) transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body. B) eliminating damaged blood cells from the body. C) bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide. D) ensuring that an adequate amount of oxygen reaches the body's cells.
C.) bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide.
17. The purpose of the Good Samaritan law is to: A) encourage citizens to become EMRs. B) afford protection to EMS personnel who commit negligent acts. C) protect citizens from liability when rendering care in good faith. D) provide total immunity from being sued to all EMS professionals.
C.) protect citizens from liability when rendering care in good faith.
56. A major sign or symptom of CHF is: A) chest pain. B) cold, pale skin. C) a rapid pulse rate. D) breathing difficulty.
D) breathing difficulty
12. The scope of care under which the EMR functions is specified by the: A) National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. B) State Department of Public Safety. C) National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians. D) EMS system medical director.
D.) EMS system medical director.
19. A patient is in the anatomic position when he or she is: A) standing facing you with arms to the side and palms touching the side of the lower extremities. B) lying down on his or her back with the arms at the sides and the palms facing downward. C) lying down on his or her side with the arms above the head and the hands clenched in a fist. D) standing facing you with arms at the sides and the palms of the hands facing outward.
D.) standing facing you with arms at the sides and the palms of the hands facing outward.
39. The MOST important aspect of standard precautions is: A) donning the appropriate attire shortly after making patient contact. B) wearing gloves, eye protection, and a gown to every emergency call. C) wearing gloves until you can determine whether additional protection is needed. D) anticipating the type of standard precautions needed before arriving at the scene.
anticipating the type of standard precautions needed before arriving at the scene.
65. Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A) headache B) disorientation C) flulike symptoms D) severe neck rigidity
severe neck rigidity
67. Symptoms of exposure to an organophosphate insecticide or nerve agent include: A) dry mouth, rapid heart rate, and hypertension. B) excessive thirst, a headache, and pupil dilation. C) slow heart rate, salivation, and excessive tearing. D) facial swelling, joint pain, and trouble swallowing.
slow heart rate, salivation, and excessive tearing.
100. Which of the following is NOT a technique used for communicating with older patients? A) speaking slowly and loudly B) showing the patient respect C) looking directly at the patient D) using clear, simple language
speaking slowly and loudly
15. The presence of rigor mortis indicates tha=t: A) the body's tissues are beginning to decay. B) death has occurred within the last 15 minutes. C) the patient is dead and cannot be resuscitated. D) the muscles of the body are permanently stiff.
the patient is dead and cannot be resuscitated.
23. A pulse is felt: A) when a wave of pressure is created by the heart as it forces blood into the arteries. B) on any part of the body where a large vein lies close to the surface of the skin. C) as oxygen and nutrients pass from the blood cells into the cells of the body tissues. D) wherever a large capillary lies between a bony structure and a thin layer of skin.
A) when a wave of pressure is created by the heart as it forces blood into the arteries.
61. The abdomen is separated from the chest by the: A) pelvis. B) rib cage. C) intestines. D) diaphragm.
D) diaphragm.
47. Normal capillary refill time is: A) less than 1 second. B) 2 seconds or less. C) less than 3 seconds. D) 4 seconds or less.
B) 2 seconds or less.
6. Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct? A) Mass-casualty incidents typically produce low stress levels. B) Past experiences may make it difficult to deal with stress. C) Most emergency calls produce only a minor level of stress.
B) Past experiences may make it difficult to deal with stress.
51. The MOST common cause of seizures in infants and young children is: A) epilepsy. B) a sudden high fever. C) a severe head injury. D) drug or alcohol poisoning.
B) a sudden high fever.
75. The circulatory system consists of all of the following components, EXCEPT: A) veins. B) alveoli. C) arteries. D) the heart.
B) alveoli.
24. Tendons function by: A) connecting bones to each other. B) attaching muscles to the bones. C) supporting two bones at a joint. D) providing the body's framework.
B) attaching muscles to the bones.
92. Contractions are timed from the: A) end of one to the end of the next. B) beginning of one to the beginning of the next. C) end of one to the beginning of the next. D) beginning of one to the end of the next.
B) beginning of one to the beginning of the next.
34. Rescue breathing in the adult is adequate if: A) the patient's abdomen rises and falls with each breath. B) breaths are delivered over 1 second and the chest rises. C) breaths are delivered at a rate of 12 to 20 times per minute. D) the patient's head is in a flexed position during each breath.
B) breaths are delivered over 1 second and the chest rises.
74. Shock is MOST accurately defined as: A) massive internal bleeding. B) cardiovascular system collapse. C) excess carbon dioxide removal. D) failure of the respiratory system.
B) cardiovascular system collapse.
22. In contrast to veins, arteries: A) return blood back to the heart under low pressure. B) carry blood away from the heart under high pressure. C) return blood back to the heart under high pressure. D) carry blood away from the heart under low pressure.
B) carry blood away from the heart under high pressure.
9. As an EMR, your MOST important consideration is: A) accessing the patient. B) ensuring your own safety. C) providing competent patient care. D) assisting paramedics at the scene.
B) ensuring your own safety.
66. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by: A) itching, a rapid pulse, high blood pressure, and anxiety. B) hives, a rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and unconsciousness. C) rapid facial swelling followed immediately by cardiac arrest. D) red streaks to the face, a weak pulse, and extreme hyperactivity.
B) hives, a rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and unconsciousness.
32. Nasal airways can be used: A) in conscious patients only. B) in both conscious and unconscious patients. C) only in semiconscious patients with a gag reflex. D) only in unconscious patients without a gag reflex.
B) in both conscious and unconscious patients.
31. The main purpose of the oral airway is to: A) allow simultaneous suctioning and rescue breathing. B) maintain the airway after it has been opened manually. C) replace either the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver. D) prevent secretions from entering the trachea and lungs.
B) maintain the airway after it has been opened manually.
71. A patient who is suffering from heatstroke: A) usually has skin that is hot and moist. B) may be semiconscious or unconscious. C) requires gradual cooling of his or her body. D) usually experiences permanent brain damage.
B) may be semiconscious or unconscious.
30. Suctioning of an adult patient's mouth is limited to 15 seconds at a time because: A) prolonged suctioning often causes soft tissue damage. B) oxygen is being removed from the patient as well as secretions. C) most suction devices automatically turn off after 15 seconds. D) any patient who needs suctioning also needs rescue breathing.
B) oxygen is being removed from the patient as well as secretions
49. Reassessment begins by: A) obtaining vital signs. B) repeating the primary assessment. C) performing a head-to-toe examination. D) checking the effectiveness of your treatment.
B) repeating the primary assessment.
77. Oxygen benefits the shock patient because it: A) provides quick relief from pain and anxiety. B) saturates the reduced number of red blood cells. C) activates platelets and helps to stop hemorrhage. D) generates heat and maintains body temperature.
B) saturates the reduced number of red blood cells.
84. Muscles are attached to bones by: A) joints. B) tendons. C) cartilage. D) ligaments.
B) tendons.
2. Which of the following MOST accurately describes an emergency medical responder (EMR)? A) an individual who responds to the scene in an ambulance B) the first medically trained person to arrive at the scene C) an individual who provides initial advanced life support (ALS) D) a fire fighter or police officer who assists the paramedics
B) the first medically trained person to arrive at the scene
94. During a breech birth: A) the umbilical cord has a knot tied in it. B) the infant's head is not the presenting part. C) the labor process speeds up significantly. D) a limb is protruding from the vaginal opening.
B) the infant's head is not the presenting part.
99. Dementia is MOST accurately defined as: A) an acute deterioration in mental function caused by a stroke. B) a hereditary condition that is most common after the age of 70 years. C) a progressive and usually irreversible decline in mental functions. D) a normal process in which the patient slowly loses mental function.
C) a progressive and usually irreversible decline in mental functions.
53. Immediately following a seizure, the patient is often: A) fully awake and alert. B) unconscious for 2 hours. C) anxious, confused, or hostile. D) hyperactive but cooperative.
C) anxious, confused, or hostile.
78. Capillary bleeding is characterized by: A) rapid and profuse blood loss. B) a steady flow of dark red blood. C) blood that oozes from the patient's injury. D) bright red blood that spurts from the injury.
C) blood that oozes from the patient's injury.
54. Angina pectoris is a condition that occurs when: A) blood flow to the entire heart ceases. B) a blood clot lodges in a coronary artery. C) cardiac oxygen demand exceeds supply. D) a coronary artery is completely blocked.
C) cardiac oxygen demand exceeds supply.
86. An important aspect of splinting is to: A) carefully straighten an injured joint before applying a splint. B) always realign a deformed extremity prior to applying a splint. C) check distal circulation and sensation before and after splinting. D) immobilize the major joint that is immediately below the injury.
C) check distal circulation and sensation before and after splinting.
45. The circulatory status of an extremity is assessed by: A) looking for signs of obvious injury. B) asking the patient to move the extremity. C) checking the pulse and capillary refill time. D) determining whether the patient can feel your touch.
C) checking the pulse and capillary refill time.
91. The third stage of labor involves: A) delivery of the infant. B) crowning of the infant. C) delivery of the placenta. D) the onset of contractions.
C) delivery of the placenta.
55. Congestive heart failure (CHF) is caused by: A) narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. B) a severe infection that affects the lungs. C) failure of the heart to pump adequately. D) a significant decrease in blood pressure.
C) failure of the heart to pump adequately.
83. The spinal cord: A) passes alongside each vertebra down the spinal column. B) functions by providing primary support for the entire body. C) is a group of nerves that carry messages to and from the brain. D) comprises many small bones that are attached by ligaments.
C) is a group of nerves that carry messages to and from the brain.
13. An advance directive is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A) legal document that allows EMS providers to provide all necessary treatment. B) notarized document that specifies who may and may not provide emergency care. C) legal document that indicates the care to be provided if the patient is incapacitated. D) document in which the patient's family determines what care the patient is to receive.
C) legal document that indicates the care to be provided if the patient is incapacitated.
76. General treatment for shock includes: A) elevating the patient's head 6" to 12" (15.2 to 30.4 cm). B) giving the patient small sips of warm water. C) maintaining body temperature with blankets. D) definitively treating the cause of the shock.
C) maintaining body temperature with blankets.
68. A patient who has attempted suicide by intentional poisoning: A) requires at least 6 months of rehabilitation. B) is usually depressed and rather easy to treat. C) needs both medical and psychological support. D) will typically have homicidal thoughts as well.
C) needs both medical and psychological support
25. A person could survive for several days to weeks without all of the following, EXCEPT: A) food. B) water. C) oxygen. D) nutrients.
C) oxygen.
27. A snoring sound heard when an unconscious patient is breathing is MOST often the result of: A) blood or other fluids in the upper airway. B) narrowing of the upper airway structures. C) partial blockage of the airway by the tongue. D) a respiratory rate that is too slow or too fast.
C) partial blockage of the airway by the tongue.
42. A patient presents with yellow skin color. You should suspect: A) a lack of oxygen. B) excessive circulation. C) problems with the liver. D) decreased circulation.
C) problems with the liver.
44. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A) a fast heart rate B) rapid respirations C) severe back pain D) severe external bleeding
C) severe back pain
64. Common early signs of an ingested poison include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) nausea and vomiting. B) burns around the mouth. C) severe difficulty breathing. D) abdominal pain or diarrhea.
C) severe difficulty breathing.
72. Frostnip is also known as: A) mild frostbite. B) deep frostbite. C) superficial frostbite. D) generalized frostbite.
C) superficial frostbite.
4. Roles and responsibilities of the EMR include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) prompt and safe response to the scene. B) ensuring the safety of self and others. C) transporting the patient to the hospital. D) adequately assessing every patient.
C) transporting the patient to the hospital.
10. Which of the following is NOT part of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A) Wear a face shield if blood splatter is anticipated. B) Place needles directly in a puncture-proof container. C) Wash your hands immediately after patient contact. D) Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids.
D) Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids.
50. A patient with an altered mental status has experienced: A) a gradual decrease in his or her respirations. B) a sudden loss of consciousness from a low blood pressure. C) an event that has caused him or her to become combative or violent. D) a gradual or sudden decrease in his or her level of responsiveness.
D) a gradual or sudden decrease in his or her level of responsiveness.
89. Crowning is MOST accurately defined as the: A) beginning of the first stage of the labor process. B) appearance of the placenta as it begins to deliver. C) amount of force with which the uterus contracts. D) appearance of the infant's head during a contraction.
D) appearance of the infant's head during a contraction.
79. Most external bleeding can be controlled by: A) elevating the injury site. B) applying a proximal tourniquet. C) applying light dressings to the wound. D) applying direct pressure to the wound.
D) applying direct pressure to the wound
14. A DNR order is a written request giving permission for medical personnel not to: A) give oxygen to a patient with severe hypoxemia. B) begin resuscitation unless the patient is in shock. C) render treatment to patients with a terminal illness. D) attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
D) attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
58. A stroke is MOST accurately defined as: A) bleeding within the brain as a result of chronic high blood pressure. B) a ruptured artery within the brain that results in brain damage. C) irreversible brain damage caused by a lack of oxygen in the body. D) damage or death of a portion of the brain as a result of a lack of oxygen.
D) damage or death of a portion of the brain as a result of a lack of oxygen.
97. When inserting an oral airway adjunct in a child, you should: A) rotate the oral airway during insertion. B) open the mouth with the tongue-jaw lift maneuver. C) use the largest size oral airway that you can. D) depress the tongue before inserting the airway.
D) depress the tongue before inserting the airway.
81. Burns are classified by the: A) severity of pain. B) method of treatment. C) age of the patient. D) depth of the burn.
D) depth of the burn.
87. You should be MOST suspicious of a hip dislocation if the: A) pelvic bones are unstable and the knee is flexed. B) leg is straight and appears longer than the other. C) hip joint is relaxed and the leg is rotated outward. D) hip joint is locked and the leg is internally rotated.
D) hip joint is locked and the leg is internally rotated.
40. During the primary assessment, you should: A) determine whether additional resources are needed. B) determine whether the scene is safe for you to enter. C) perform a comprehensive examination of the patient. D) identify and correct all life-threatening conditions.
D) identify and correct all life-threatening conditions.
52. Potential causes of seizures include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) severe head injury or stroke. B) complications caused by diabetes. C) severe infections and a high fever. D) increased oxygen levels in the brain.
D) increased oxygen levels in the brain.
85. Thick bands of tissue that connect two bones together are called: A) joints. B) tendons. C) cartilage. D) ligaments.
D) ligaments.
69. High humidity reduces the body's ability to: A) produce sweat. B) cool itself by radiation. C) lose body heat by shivering. D) lose heat through evaporation.
D) lose heat through evaporation.
7. A chronically ill patient who is experiencing denial: A) commonly makes statements such as "Why me?" B) is typically withdrawn and will not speak to you. C) usually tries to make a deal to avoid the inevitable. D) often cannot believe what is happening to him or her.
D) often cannot believe what is happening to him or her.
16. Which of the following components is NOT required to prove negligence? A) duty to act B) breech of duty C) resulting injuries D) patient refusal of care
D) patient refusal of care
88. The FIRST step in caring for a patient with a head injury is to: A) assess the patient's breathing. B) perform the jaw-thrust technique. C) give 100% oxygen if it is available. D) stabilize the head in a neutral position.
D) stabilize the head in a neutral position.
35. A nonrebreathing mask works by: A) allowing the patient to breathe low-flow oxygen with the use of a reservoir. B) preventing the patient from breathing oxygen concentrations that are too high. C) blending high-flow oxygen and room air via the ports on the sides of the mask. D) storing oxygen in the reservoir bag, which the patient inhales during each breath.
D) storing oxygen in the reservoir bag, which the patient inhales during each breath.
62. A poison is MOST accurately defined as a: A) toxic chemical that is injected directly into a large vein. B) substance that requires large quantities to be fatal. C) chemical that causes severe illness only when it is ingested. D) substance that can cause death in relatively small quantities.
D) substance that can cause death in relatively small quantities.
48. The systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements represent: A) the amount of blood that the heart pumps in one contraction. B) the length of time that it takes blood to circulate through the body. C) the length of time that it takes the heart to relax after a contraction. D) the pressures found in the arteries as the heart contracts and relaxes.
D) the pressures found in the arteries as the heart contracts and relaxes
93. During a normal delivery: A) the infant is still encased in the amniotic sac. B) the infant's head turns face-up as soon as it emerges. C) the lower shoulder delivers before the upper shoulder. D) the upper shoulder delivers before the lower shoulder.
D) the upper shoulder delivers before the lower shoulder.
5. When documenting the events of an emergency call, the EMR should include the: A) patient's presumptive diagnosis. B) treatment provided by the paramedics. C) names of all personnel at the scene. D) treatment provided before EMS arrival.
D) treatment provided before EMS arrival.
38. The purpose of noting the mechanism of injury (MOI) is to: A) identify life-threatening injuries that the patient has. B) rule out the possibility of any life-threatening injuries. C) allow you to predict what injuries the patient may have. D) determine whether the patient's problem is medical or trauma.
c.) allow you to predict what injuries the patient may have.
