EMT Final Exam

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When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Select one: A. repeating statements back to him or her. B. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification. C. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. D. using medical terminology whenever possible.

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: Select one: A. respiratory difficulty. B. adequate air exchange. C. respiratory insufficiency. D. an obstructed airway.

An attack on an abortion clinic would most likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. extremist political group. B. single-issue group. C. doomsday cult. D. violent religious group.

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) B. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) C. Albuterol (Ventolin) D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Upper airway swelling B. Diffuse urticaria C. Systemic vasodilation D. Severe hypotension

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours? Select one: A. Skeletal muscle B. Heart C. Brain D. Kidneys

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: A. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter B. Vertical-position flowmeter C. Ball-and-float flowmeter D. Pressure-compensated flowmeter

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: Select one: A.interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. B.assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. C.administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D.insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids.

In contrast to hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia: Select one: A.is a rapidly developing metabolic disturbance. B.can only be corrected in the hospital setting. C.commonly results in excess water retention. D.is rapidly reversible if oral glucose is given.

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A. pills. B. capsules. C. caplets. D. tablets.

Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: Select one: A. flexion. B. abduction. C. extension. D. adduction.

Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called: Select one: A. acute ischemia. B. atherosclerosis. C. angina pectoris. D. arteriosclerosis.

Negative-pressure breathing involves: Select one: A. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. C. increasing airway resistance during breathing. D. relaxing the respiratory muscles.

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. constricts the veins throughout the body. B. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. C. increases myocardial contraction force. D. increases blood return to the right atrium.

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. State Bureau of EMS. B. individual EMT. C. EMS training officer. D. EMS medical director.

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 5, 50 lb B. 8, 100 lb C. 7, 90 lb D. 6, 70 lb

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: Select one: A. severe pain. B. peritonitis. C. high fever. D. internal bleeding.

The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. brain and spinal cord. C. spinal cord and sensory nerves. D. motor and sensory nerves.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: A. start of one to the end of the next. B. start of one to the start of the next. C. end of one to the end of the next. D. end of one to the start of the next.

When does infection with HIV become the condition of AIDS? Select one: a. When a separate AIDS virus is also able to infect the body b. When immune system function weakens and allows opportunistic infections c. When the HIV infection becomes symptomatic d. When the HIV virus replicates in the body to a certain level

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Select one: A. pink. B. flushed. C. ashen. D. cyanotic.

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? Select one: A. Streamlining B. Bias C. Anchoring D. Overconfidence

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. do not have shatterproof lenses. C. offer little or no side protection. D. are not secured with a strap.

Prior to defibrillating a patient with an AED, it is MOST important that you: Select one: A.perform up to 5 minutes of effective CPR. B.properly position the defibrillation pads. C.ensure that no one is touching the patient. D.confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest.

What effect does epinephrine have through binding to alpha-1 adrenergic receptors? Select one: a. Bronchoconstriction b. Vasodilation c. Vasoconstriction d. Bronchodilation

What is the function of platelets? Select one: A. Defense against invading organisms B. Transport of cellular waste materials C. Initial formation of a blood clot D. Transport of oxygen and nutrients

What is the function of the left atrium? Select one: A. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava. B. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. C. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. D. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries.

Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Duplex station B. Simplex station C. Scanner D. Mobile repeater

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A.Widespread atelectasis B.Acute asthma attack C.Early pulmonary edema D.Aspiration pneumonia

GCS: You are treating a patient that has no eye opening with painful stimuli, is nonverbal, and doesn't respond with any motor response to painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor: 1 GCS: 3

Once an ambulance service knows that a patient is deceased, the organization may freely use and disclose the individual's protected health information because HIPAA no longer applies. Select one: True False

FALSE

For information about the patient to qualify as protect health information (PHI), it must in some way relate to the patient's past, present, or future healthcare. Select one: True False

TRUE

The use of PHI for "treatment" purposes means that PHI can generally be used for any purpose related to providing emergency medical services or other healthcare to a patient. Select one: True False

TRUE

In a healthy individual, the brainstem stimulates breathing on the basis of: Select one: A. increased carbon dioxide levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. C. decreased carbon dioxide levels. D. increased oxygen levels.

In contrast to hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia: Select one: A. can only be corrected in the hospital setting. B. is rapidly reversible if oral glucose is given. C. is a rapidly developing metabolic disturbance. D. commonly results in excess water retention.

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is most often related to: Select one: A. atherosclerosis. B. hypotension. C. medication use. D. kidney failure.

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract. Select one: A. phrenic B. hypoglossal C. vagus D. vestibulocochlear

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? Select one: A.Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest B.Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe C.Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere D.Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: Select one: A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. C. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities. D. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: Select one: A. acetabulum. B. ischium. C. femoral condyle. D. ilium.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg; the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 104, 40 B. 90, 50 C. 70, 28 D. 88, 30

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: Select one: A. medical director. B. field training officer. C. shift supervisor. D. EMS administrator.

The primary action of nitroglycerin is: Select one: a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Bronchoconstriction d. Bronchodilation

The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is: Select one: A. diarrhea. B. vomiting. C. high fever. D. dysuria.

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: Select one: A. depression. B. a chronic illness. C. drug abuse. D. advanced age.

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: Select one: A. state office of EMS. B. American Heart Association. C. regional trauma center. D. National Registry of EMTs.

The structure located superior to the larynx is called the: Select one: A. epiglottis. B. thyroid cartilage. C. cricoid ring. D. carina.

When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMT should administer: Select one: A. a half dose into each nostril. B. a minimum of 2.5 mg. C. a maximum of 0.5 mL. D. at least 2 mL into each nostril.

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except: Select one: A. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. completing a detailed written report. D. restocking any disposable items you used.

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. check her airway for obstructions. B. ventilate her with a bag-mask device. C. move her to the ambulance stretcher. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49-year-old male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience? Select one: A.Dry mucous membranes B.A fall in blood pressure C.Excessive lacrimation D.Pupillary constriction

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. abnormally high blood glucose level. B. disorder of glucose metabolism. C. lack of insulin production in the pancreas. D. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys.

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: Select one: A. an extra pair of chromosomes. B. a triplication of chromosome 21. C. a separation of chromosome 21. D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: Select one: A. directly into the muscle tissue. B. between the skin and the muscle. C. through the mucosa under the tongue. D. below the first layer of muscle.

The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered. Select one: A. name B. form C. class D. type

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. patient care advocacy. B. the continuum of care. C. the scope of practice. D. the standard of care.

The root word cirrh/o means: Select one: A. liver. B. yellow-orange. C. blood cell. D. kidney.

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to the ___________ section of the spinal column. Select one: A. lumbar B. thoracic C. sacral D. coccyx

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? Select one: A. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations B. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils C. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia D. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee B. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin C. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen D. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

A 30-year-old female was robbed and assaulted as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: Select one: A. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. suction her oropharynx. D. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds.

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: Select one: A. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively. B. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately. C. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately. D. has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly.

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: Select one: A. MERS-CoV. B. tuberculosis. C. meningitis. D. hepatitis.

A sign of respiratory distress seen in the neck is: Select one: A.muscular definition. B.muscular twitches. C.accessory muscle use. D.muscular atrophy.

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: Select one: A.signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours. B.medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. C.a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. D.a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage.

Autism is defined as a: Select one: A. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain. B. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain. C. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction. D. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications.

BSA: What is your biggest concern with the patient in (You are treating a 26-year-old male patient who sustained partial thickness burns to the anterior chest and the face. Your patient has audible stridor and has soot around the mouth and nose)? Select one: a. Anterior chest burns b. Large surface area burns c. Airway management d. Burns are partial thickness

For which of the following conditions is albuterol prescribed? Select one: A. Hypertension B. Allergic reactions C. Asthma D. Heart disease

Functions of the liver include: Select one: A. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. B. absorption of nutrients and toxins. C. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances. D. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: Select one: A. is allowable according to state law. B. increases the patient's chance for survival. C. will decrease the driver's reaction time. D. is often necessary if the patient is critical.

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. B. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. C. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. D. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive.

In the presence of oxygen, the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: Select one: A. perfusion. B. anaerobic metabolism. C. aerobic metabolism. D. respiration.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A.routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B.ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C.get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D.wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.

The white portion of the eye is called the: Select one: A. iris. B. retina. C. sclera. D. cornea

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: Select one: A. until he or she loses consciousness. B. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest. C. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. D. in sets of five followed by reassessment.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. B. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. C. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. D. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A.maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. B.confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C.enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. D.provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. brain stem. C. medulla. D. cerebrum.

Cross-contamination occurs when: Select one: A. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. B. two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. C. an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. D. an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated.

During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should: Select one: A. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you. B. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated. C. retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment. D. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them.

During patient care, the EMT instructs her partner to administer one tube of oral glucose to a conscious patient with low blood sugar. The partner's most appropriate response should be: Select one: A. "Got it. I'll give oral glucose." B. "We should give two tubes." C. "Are you sure you want that?" D. "I would rather you give it."

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: Select one: A. when the patient was hurled against a stationary object. B. as a direct result of the pressure wave. C. by inhaling toxic gases. D. as a result of flying debris.

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: Select one: A. 10 seconds. B. 15 seconds. C. 3 seconds. D. 8 seconds.

Which of the following findings should make the EMT especially suspicious that a woman was sexually assaulted? Select one: A. A prescription for alprazolam (Xanax) B. The odor of alcohol on her breath C. Inability to remember the event D. Signs of shock on assessment

Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Spousal abuse B. Gunshot wounds C. Cardiac arrest D. Animal bites

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Select one: A. Anxiety B. Restlessness C. Cyanosis D. Tachycardia

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? Select one: A. Head trauma B. Massive stroke C. Poisoning D. Brain tumor

Botulinum is: Select one: A. rarely associated with death. B. an acute viral infection. C. a disease of the leukocytes. D. a potent bacterial neurotoxin.

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly. B. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. C. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. D. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.

Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a GCS score of: Select one: A. 13. B. 15. C. 12. D. 14.

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: Select one: A. immerse the affected part in warm water. B. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics. C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing. D. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection.

When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is bestto wear: Select one: A. thick firefighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves. B. puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves. C. latex gloves with thick leather gloves underneath. D. firefighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity.

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: Select one: A. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. B. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over. C. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes. D. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one: A. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. B. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. C. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. D. By six months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. Select one: A. triage B. treatment C. transportation D. medical

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: Select one: A. impulsivity. B. excitability. C. automaticity. D. contractility.

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: Select one: A.excitability. B.contractility. C.automaticity. D.impulsivity.

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.1; 0.01 B. 0.01; 0.1 C. 0.3; 0.15 D. 0.03; 0.3

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Select one: A. 3 and 4 months. B. 7 and 14 months. C. 9 and 18 months. D. 6 and 8 months.

The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are: Select one: A. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx. B. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral. C. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. D. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B.

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Early pulmonary edema C. Widespread atelectasis D. Acute asthma attack

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: Select one: A. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs. B. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli. C. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues. D. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. B. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. C. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. D. pass the bus only after all the children have exited.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Select one: A. ventricles relaxing. B. atria contracting. C. ventricles contracting. D. atria relaxing.

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? Select one: A. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. B. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out. C. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head. D. Bloody cerebrospinal fluid commonly leaks from the nose.

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, except: Select one: A. vessel dilation. B. breathing. C. breath holding. D. digestion.

A patient has kidney disease that is causing him severe pain. What condition does he have and what would be administered for his pain? Select one: A. Dysuria; anti-inflammatory B. Nephropathy; analgesic C. Neuropathy; antibiotic D. Myopathy; anesthetic

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg; the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 90, 50 B. 88, 30 C. 104, 40 D. 70, 28

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: Select one: A. congruent. B. conversion. C. cavitation. D. capitation.

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center: Select one: A. knows the location of the closest hospital. B. is aware of the patient's age and gender. C. is aware of the substance that is involved. D. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug.

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: Select one: A. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. B. that the fetus is at least four weeks premature. C. that the baby's airway might be obstructed. D. an expected finding in full-term infants.

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Select one: A.lactic acid. B.pyruvic acid. C.carbon dioxide. D.adenosine triphosphate.

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Obstructive lung disease B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is: Select one: A. experiencing a right hemispheric stroke. B. unable to produce or understand speech. C. not able to swallow without choking. D. usually conscious but has slurred speech.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. has bleeding within the brain. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. is older than 60 years of age.

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding: Select one: A.event and person. B.day and event. C.person and place. D.time and place.

A positive TB skin test indicates that: Select one: A. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active. B. you have been exposed to TB. C. you have never been exposed to TB. D. you are actively infected with TB.

A positive TB skin test indicates that: Select one: A. you have never been exposed to TB. B. you have been exposed to TB. C. you are actively infected with TB. D. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: Select one: A. a severe liver laceration. B. intra-abdominal bleeding. C. rupture of a hollow organ. D. a ruptured spleen.

In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. look for approval from their peers and society. B. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. C. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. D. make decisions based on their conscience.

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of: Select one: A. cholecystitis. B. appendicitis. C. gastroenteritis. D. pancreatitis.

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: Select one: A. ovaries. B. urinary bladder. C. fallopian tubes. D. uterus.

Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except: Select one: A. transferring the patient to the ambulance. B. emergency care provided at the scene. C. checking equipment on the ambulance. D. transport of the patient to the hospital.

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. B. might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. C. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. D. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.

Pleural fluid is contained between the: Select one: A. visceral pleura and the lung. B. visceral and parietal pleurae. C. parietal pleura and the chest wall. D. parietal pleura and the heart.

Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: Select one: A. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. B. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. assessing the patient's mental status. B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. C. requesting permission from medical control. D. checking the medication's expiration date.

Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. D. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. D. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.

Shock is the result of: Select one: A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. C. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. D. temporary dysfunction of a major organ.

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. Select one: A. 5% B. 20% C. 10% D. 15%

Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, except: Select one: A. unilaterally absent breath sounds. B. collapsed jugular veins. C. profound cyanosis. D. altered mental status.

Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, except: Select one: A.dizziness. B.pale skin. C.dysphasia. D.joint pain.

Signs and symptoms that might be found in a patient who has experienced a concussion include: Select one: A. anxiety and restlessness. B. nausea and ringing in the ears. C. tachycardia and diaphoresis. D. hypotension and nosebleed.

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: Select one: A.the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. B.the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C.blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia. D.a supine position kinks the ascending aorta.

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses. D. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine.

Glucose is a: Select one: a. Simple sugar b. Form of insulin c. Complex carbohydrate d. Form of glucagon

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. erythrocytes B. leukocytes C. monocytes D. thrombocytes

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A.opioid. B.sympathomimetic. C.cholinergic. D.hypnotic.

High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: Select one: A. radiation. B. evaporation. C. conduction. D. convection.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It forces the alveoli open and increases the concentration of oxygen in the alveoli. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. C. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.

Hypoperfusion is another name for: Select one: A. shock. B. hypoxemia. C. cyanosis. D. cellular death.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. plasma. B. whole blood. C. platelets. D. red blood cells.

The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton. B. wear at least three layers of clothing. C. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. D. avoid outer clothing with zippers.

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Select one: A. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards. B. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. C. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. D. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? Select one: A. Supine B. Prone C. With hands tied behind the back D. With arms and legs bound together

The most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: Select one: A. guarding. B. point tenderness. C. obvious bruising. D. severe swelling.

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: Select one: A. severe bradycardia. B. cardiogenic shock. C. congestive heart failure. D. ventricular fibrillation.

The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. low morale and frequently missed shifts. B. substandard or inappropriate patient care. C. punitive action and the loss of a job. D. tension among coworkers and supervisors

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. epicardium. B. myocardium. C. pericardium. D. endocardium.

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: Select one: A. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth. B. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. C. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions.

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are: Select one: A. between 8 and 10 years of age. B. between 11 and 16 years of age. C. between 18 and 23 years of age. D. between 25 and 28 years of age.

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the: Select one: A. sclera. B. pupil. C. conjunctiva. D. cornea.

The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. retroperitoneal space. B. walls of the abdominal cavity. C. lungs and chest cavity. D. surface of the abdominal organs.

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: Select one: A. stroke volume. B. diastole. C. systole. D. cardiac output.

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one: A.diffusion. B.ventilation. C.respiration. D.oxygenation.

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, except: Select one: A. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. B. a brief history of the patient's current problem. C. your perception of the severity of the problem. D. a brief summary of the care you provided.

Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: Select one: A. headache and sore throat. B. acute onset of double vision. C. joint pain and unequal pupils. D. severe abdominal muscle spasms.

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves: Select one: A. back slaps. B. blind finger sweeps. C. abdominal thrusts. D. bag-mask ventilation.

Injuries to the vagina and external genitalia are serious because: Select one: A. these areas are rich with blood vessels and nerves. B. severe infection occurs in nearly all cases of external injury. C. external injury is always associated with internal injury. D. most injuries to these areas are unnoticed by the patient.

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. ataxic respirations.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. C. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. D. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Select one: A. decontaminate B. throw out C. properly store D. incinerate

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center: Select one: A. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug. B. is aware of the substance that is involved. C. is aware of the patient's age and gender. D. knows the location of the closest hospital.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: Select one: A. pulmonary ventilation. B. external respiration. C. alveolar ventilation. D. cellular metabolism.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.

The 1996 Summer Olympics bombing is an example of: Select one: A. domestic terrorism. B. an ecoterrorist attack. C. state-sponsored terrorism. D. apocalyptic violence.

The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person's risk for: Select one: A. delirium. B. head trauma. C. stroke. D. dementia.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. B. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. C. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. D. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash.

The route of administration of nitroglycerin is: Select one: a. Superlingual b. Sublingual c. Oral d. Buccal

The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: Select one: A. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion. B. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight. C. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance. D. are typically consistent among all age and weight groups.

The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that: Select one: A. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation. B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances. C. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification. D. are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT).

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. C. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. D. a surgical opening made in the heart.

The term primigravida refers to a woman who: Select one: A. has had only one live birth. B. is pregnant for the first time. C. has had more than one live baby. D. has never been pregnant.

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. costovertebral angle. B. diaphragm. C. intercostal margin. D. anterior rib cage.

The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. D. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages.

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A.medical director. B.local health district. C.EMS supervisor. D.state EMS office.

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: A. insulate and protect the fetus. B. remove viruses from the fetus. C. transfer oxygen to the fetus. D. assist in fetal development.

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically: Select one: A. 70 beats/min. B. 60 beats/min. C. 90 beats/min. D. 80 beats/min.

The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and spinal cord. B. brain and sensory nerves. C. spinal cord and sensory nerves. D. motor and sensory nerves.

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: Select one: A. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. B. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. C. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. D. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.

The diving reflex might allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: Select one: A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. B. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. C. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 1 minute B. 1 hour C. 30 minutes D. 30 seconds

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 1 minute B. 30 minutes C. 30 seconds D. 1 hour

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: Select one: A. autonomic nervous system. B. pons and medulla. C. somatic nervous system. D. parietal lobe.

The first rule of safe lifting is to: Select one: A.keep your back in a straight, vertical position. B.keep your back in a slightly curved position. C.spread your legs approximately 20″ apart. D.always lift with your palms facing down.

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. intercostal margin. B. diaphragm. C. anterior rib cage. D. costovertebral angle.

The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is: Select one: A. superior. B. inferior. C. internal. D. dorsal.

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. B. provide competent care that meets current standards. C. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. D. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice.

Type 1 diabetes: Select one: A. is typically treated with medications such as metformin. B. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body. C. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age. D. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. B. type of material used to manufacture the device. C. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. D. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself.

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: A. nervous system. B. cardiovascular system. C. respiratory system. D. renal system.

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. provide competent care that meets current standards. B. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. C. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. D. use universal precautions with every patient encounter.

To reverse the effects of a narcotic overdose you should administer: Select one: A. Narcan. B. EpiPen. C. Advil. D. Tylenol.

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include: Select one: A. crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness. B. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing. C. joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision. D. headache, low back pain, and arm numbness.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine: Select one: A. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. B. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. C. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions. D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.

When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: Select one: A. determine the patient's illness. B. begin resuscitation at once. C. notify the coroner immediately. D. contact medical control first.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. B. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. C. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.

When is a gown most appropriate to use? Select one: a. When caring for a patient who has not bathed for over a week and is covered in dirt, oil, and sweat. b. During a stationary procedure with significant amounts of body fluid (like childbirth). c. While caring for a trauma patient with significant amounts of blood present (like a motor vehicle crash). d. When respiratory secretions are likely to be produced (like airway management).

When is aspirin administration indicated for the EMT? Select one: a. Suspected left heart failure b. Suspected myocardial infarction c. Suspected cardiac arrhythmia d. Suspected right heart failure

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor B. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin C. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting D. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. Select one: A. occipital B. parietal C. temporal D. frontal

When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the: Select one: A. head tilt-chin lift maneuver. B. jaw-thrust maneuver. C. tongue-jaw lift maneuver. D. head tilt-neck lift maneuver.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Select one: A. slow. B. rapid. C. thready. D. irregular.

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. all the patients have been triaged. B. a physician arrives at the scene. C. area hospitals have been notified. D. medical control has been contacted.

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. all the patients have been triaged. B. area hospitals have been notified. C. medical control has been contacted. D. a physician arrives at the scene.

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg B. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia D. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A.Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg B.Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C.Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D.Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication? Select one: A. Simplex B. Multiplex C. Complex D. Duplex

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, except: Select one: A. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. B. important medical history not previously given. C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. B. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. C. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. D. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: Select one: A.introduce yourself to the patient. B.ask the patient what's wrong. C.assess the patient's airway status. D.obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: A. carefully assess the situation. B. rope off the entire perimeter. C. divert traffic away from the scene. D. retrieve all critical patients.

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is most accurately defined as: Select one: A. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. B. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. C. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A.hives. B.swelling. C.burning. D.a wheal.

What dose of albuterol is typically delivered by a metered dose inhaler (MDI)? Select one: a. 90 micrograms / puff b. 60 milligrams / puff c. 60 micrograms / puff d. 90 milligrams / puff

What is the most characteristic symptom of meningitis that should raise a healthcare provider's suspicions? Select one: a. Stiff neck with pain on flexion b. Altered mental status c. Headacche d. Light sensitivity

What is the most prominent symptom of Pertussis? Select one: a. Long fits of coughing b. Fever c. Shortness of breath d. Mucous secretions in the airway

What is the route of administration for aspirin? Select one: a. PO b. Buccal c. SL d. Parenteral

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? Select one: A. Epidermis B. Muscular layer C. Dermis D. Subcutaneous layer

What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A.Ensure the vehicle is stable. B.Request another ambulance. C.Check for other patients. D.Contact medical control.

What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? Select one: A. Smooth B. Striated C. Skeletal D. Cardiac

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. peritonitis might not develop for several hours. B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. C. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. D. the abdomen will become instantly distended.

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the: Select one: A.shoulder girdle. B.pelvic girdle. C.thigh muscles. D.spinal column.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: Select one: A. has gathered patient history information. B. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. C. has formed a general impression of the patient. D. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant.

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the: Select one: A. lateral portion of the thigh. B. medial portion of the thigh. C. medial part of the buttocks. D. lateral portion of the arm.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent? Select one: A. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. B. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care. C. A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care. D. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult.

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: Select one: A. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. B. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. C. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. D. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.

Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct? Select one: A. It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient. B. The leg muscles should remain relaxed during the power lift. C. It involves using your lower back instead of your legs to lift. D. It is not recommended for people with weak knees or thighs.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. B. A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems. C. The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. D. If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment.

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? Select one: A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand. B. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. C. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use. D. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren.

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct? Select one: A. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity. B. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. C. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue. D. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital? Select one: A. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format. B. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report. C. Providing the handoff report only to a physician. D. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? Select one: A. Liver laceration B. Severe vomiting C. Repeated diarrhea D. Excessive sweating

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? Select one: A. Deep respirations B. Agonal respirations C. Irregular breathing D. Shallow breathing

Which of the following would be the best reasonable alternative to glucose gel? Select one: a. Orange juice b. Black coffee c. Diet soda d. Green tea

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress: Select one: A. at least 1 inch B. at least 2 inches C. greater than 2.4 inches D. between 1 inch and 2 inches

Which of the following would be the least likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)? Select one: A. Muscle activity increases B. Mental status decreases C. Shivering stops D. Finger motion ceases

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: Select one: A. swelling to the orbital area. B. bruising behind the ear. C. fluid drainage from the nose. D. unequal pupils.

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is rapid and irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: Select one: A. bruising of the heart muscle. B. traumatic rupture of the aorta. C. a lacerated coronary artery. D. underlying cardiac disease.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: Select one: A.in a supine position with her legs spread. B.on a firm surface with her hips elevated two to four inches. C.in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. D.on her left side with the right leg elevated.

When should you take standard precautions during an EMS call? Select one: A. After it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. B. Before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. C. Before you load the patient into the ambulance. D. Immediately after completion of your primary assessment.

When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is most important for the EMT to: Select one: A. use a pillow as a splint. B. leave the toes exposed. C. observe for tissue swelling. D. apply a pneumatic splint.

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 300 mm Hg. C. 400 mm Hg. D. 200 mm Hg.

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Acute asthma attack C. Early pulmonary edema D. Widespread atelectasis

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Acute asthma attack C. Widespread atelectasis D. Early pulmonary edema

Which of the following organs would most likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Bladder B. Stomach C. Intestine D. Liver

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. C. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: A. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. B. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. C. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. D. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain.

The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: Select one: A. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment. B. unprepared to effectively manage the scene. C. underestimating the logistics of the incident. D. underutilizing personnel at the scene.

The skin and underlying tissues of the face: Select one: A. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible. B. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers. C. have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely. D. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma.

The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: Select one: A.a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B.a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. C.a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. D.a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. lateral. B. midclavicular. C. medial. D. midaxillary.

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. B. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. D. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.

To be a great EMT, strive for: Select one: A. management work. B. retraining. C. foundational knowledge. D. the chance to replace an EMR.

To be a great EMT, strive for: Select one: A. retraining. B. management work. C. foundational knowledge. D. the chance to replace an EMR.

To evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: Select one: A. interview bystanders present at the scene. B. request the fire department at all scenes. C. perform a 360° walkaround of the scene. D. use the information provided by dispatch.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex B. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor D. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: Select one: A. hypertension and swollen hands. B. watery eyes and localized itching. C. urticaria and angioedema. D. expiratory stridor and tachycardia.

A 75-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following findings should alert the EMT to the possibility of a pulmonary embolism? Select one: A. The patient's abdomen is swollen B. Frequent urinary tract infections C. The patient is prescribed an inhaler D. History of deep venous thrombosis

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: Select one: A. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest. B. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. C. in sets of five followed by reassessment. D. until he or she loses consciousness.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: Select one: A. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. D. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to _____ of his or her total body surface area. Select one: A. 4% B. 2% C. 6% D. 1%

After a baby is born, it is important to: Select one: A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. position it so that its head is higher than its body. C. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing. D. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.

By placing one hand on your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: Select one: A. is nauseated. B. needs help. C. is hurt. D. is sick.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. EMR. B. EMT. C. AEMT. D. paramedic.

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: Select one: A. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: A. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: Select one: A. peripheral nervous system. B. spinal cord. C. voluntary muscles. D. brain.

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: Select one: A. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job. B. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. C. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call. D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: Select one: A. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. B. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job. C. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call. D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. causes dehydration from excessive urination. B. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. C. can be reversed with prompt treatment. D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. C. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR? Select one: A. Agonal respiratory effort B. Pulselessness and apnea C. Severe cyanosis to the face D. Dependent blood pooling

Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, except: Select one: A. assigning all patients a triage category. B. ongoing assessment of critical patients. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. keeping bystanders at a safe distance.

Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, except: Select one: A. mastoid process bruising. B. ecchymosis around the eyes. C. noted deformity to the skull. D. superficial scalp lacerations.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. B. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

Covered entities should be employing which of the following techniques to secure electronic protected health information (PHI): Select one: a. Automatic logoffs b. Unique user IDs and passwords c. Encryption technology d. All of the above

Cross-contamination occurs when: Select one: A. two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. B. an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated. C. an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. D. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it: Select one: A. defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace. B. determines which type of communicable disease might be present in the workplace. C. determines the time of day when most exposures are likely to occur. D. defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A.mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys. B.abnormally high blood glucose level. C.lack of insulin production in the pancreas. D.disorder of glucose metabolism.

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when: Select one: A. blood glucose levels rapidly fall. B. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose. C. the pancreas produces excess insulin. D. insulin is not available in the body.

During a call, the EMT observes her partner using an assessment approach that she is unfamiliar with. The patient is stable and has no life-threatening conditions. What should the EMT do? Select one: A. Contact a supervisor after the call and suggest remediation for her partner. B. Assume care of the patient and ask her partner to drive the ambulance. C. Immediately engage her partner and correct his assessment approach. D. Discuss the assessment approach that was taken after the call is over.

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. Select one: A.100 to 120 mL B.40 to 50 mL C.90 to 100 mL D.70 to 80 mL

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: Select one: A. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. B. blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. C. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill. D. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: Select one: A. by inhaling toxic gases. B. as a direct result of the pressure wave. C. as a result of flying debris. D. when the patient was hurled against a stationary object.

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: Select one: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

Older patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of: Select one: A. progressive deterioration of abdominal organ function. B. chronic dementia, which inhibits communication. C. interactions of the numerous medications they take. D. age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? Select one: A. Long bone splinting device B. Stethoscope and penlight C. Emergency childbirth kit D. Bleeding control supplies

Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: Select one: A. have a history of Alzheimer disease. B. do not have deformities to the skull. C. have minor abrasions to the head area. D. are taking blood-thinning medications.

Patients with autism: Select one: A. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. B. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages. C. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them. D. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.

Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: Select one: A. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature. D. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core.

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. have a fever. B. are bleeding. C. vomit. D. cough.

Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after: Select one: A. extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia. B. alcohol withdrawal. C. a bout with depression. D. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence.

Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after: Select one: A.a bout with depression. B.extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia. C.alcohol withdrawal. D.exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence.

Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: Select one: A. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery. B. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis might have: Select one: A. hypertension later in life. B. babies that deliver after 42 weeks. C. secondary cervical cancer. D. low birth weight babies.

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? Select one: A. Overconfidence B. Bias C. Streamlining D. Anchoring

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. are not secured with a strap. C. do not have shatterproof lenses. D. offer little or no side protection.

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the: Select one: A. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. B. patient has reduced tidal volume. C. one-way valve is sealed. D. reservoir bag is fully inflated.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 30 seconds. B. contact medical control. C. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. D. dry the chest if it is wet.

Protected health information (PHI) must be safeguarded under HIPAA when it is in the following form(s): Select one: a. Photograpphic b. Verbal c. Written d. All of the above

Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. decomposition of the body's tissues.

Shock is the result of: Select one: A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. midaxillary. B. lateral. C. midclavicular. D. medial.

The umbilical cord: Select one: A. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery. B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. D. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. intrauterine bleeding. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. pulmonary embolism.

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Select one: A. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. B. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. C. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. D. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

Typically, medevac helicopters fly at speeds between: Select one: A. 120 and 140 mph. B. 100 and 120 mph. C. 150 and 200 mph. D. 130 and 150 mph.

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. determine if you need additional help. B. request a paramedic unit for assistance. C. gain immediate access to the patient. D. assess the scene for potential hazards.

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. gain immediate access to the patient. B. request a paramedic unit for assistance. C. determine if you need additional help. D. assess the scene for potential hazards.

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: Select one: A. quickly access the patient. B. turn all warning lights off. C. place a flare near the crash. D. turn your headlights off.

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should: Select one: A. direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds. C. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate. D. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. received a hepatitis B vaccination. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. have a weak immune system. D. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A.inanimate objects. B.direct contact. C.smoke or dust. D.animals or insects.

Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: Select one: A. their chest wall and ribs are very pliable. B. they require less tidal volume per breath. C. there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles. D. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.

What are the signs and symptoms of the opioid toxidrome? Select one: a. CNS stimulation, hypoventilation, constricted pupils b. CNS depression, hypoventilation, dilated pupils c. CNS depression, hyperventilation, constricted pupils d. CNS depression, hypoventilation, constricted pupils

What form of aspirin is appropriate to use in an emergency for an adult? Select one: a. Non-chewable non-enteric coated tablets b. Chewable enteric coated tablets c. Non-chewable enteric coated tablets d. Chewable non-enteric coated tablets

What guideline should be followed when removing medical gloves after use? Select one: a. Remove and dispose of the first glove completely before beginning to remove the second. b. Glove removal requires a second person's assistance to be done safely. c. Gloves must always be put into a bio-hazard bag after any use. d. The skin should only touch the clean inside of the glove and never the contaminated outside.

What is the appropriate adult dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis? Select one: a. 3 mg b. 0.3 g c. 3 mg d. 0.3 mg

What is the approximate percentage of oxygen being inspired by a patient receiving supplemental oxygen delivered via nasal cannula at 6 Lpm? Select one: a. 21 % b. 24 % c. 100 % d. 44 %

What is the primary action of aspirin? Select one: a. Breaks down platelets b. Breaks down clots c. Inhibits the clotting cascade d. Inhibits platelet aggregation

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane. B. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. C. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. D. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children? Select one: A. Injected poison. B. Inhaled poison. C. Plant poisoning. D. Alkaline poison.

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: Select one: A. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. B. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. C. will most likely be thrown over the steering column. D. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: Select one: A.has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B.has formed a general impression of the patient. C.ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. D.has gathered patient history information.

When administering naloxone to a patient via the intranasal route, what is the appropriate dose? Select one: a. 0.4 - 2 mg b. 0.4 - 4 mg c. 0.2 - 0.4 mg d. 2 - 4 mg

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: Select one: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of artifact on an ECG tracing? Select one: A. Irregular patient pulse B. Incorrect placement of the leads C. Abnormal cardiac electrical activity D. Excessive movement of the patient

Which of the following is the best example of gaining simple access to a patient? Select one: A. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient C. Removing the roof to access a critical patient D. Entering a vehicle through an open window

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Age B. Race C. Gender D. Immunity

Which of the following is true about oxygen administration? Select one: a. It supports anaerobic cellular metabolism b. It raises the pH of blood c. It lowers the pH of blood d. It supports aerobic cellular metabolism

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? Select one: A. Sublingual B. Rectal C. Inhalation D. Oral

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? Select one: A. Oxygen B. Metoprolol (Toprol) C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Aspirin

Which of the following medications would indicate that a patient has a history of seizures? Select one: A. Enalapril (Vasotec) B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C. Metformin (Glucophage) D. Levetiracetam (Keppra)

Which of the following occurs during true labor? Select one: A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds. C. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. D. Uterine contractions become more regular.

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Kidneys D. Spleen

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Spleen B. Liver C. Gallbladder D. Pancreas

Which of the following organs or structures does not reside within the mediastinum? Select one: A. Trachea B. Vena cavae C. Esophagus D. Lungs

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Spleen C. Ascending aorta D. Kidneys

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured? Select one: A. Appendix B. Stomach C. Gallbladder D. Liver

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? Select one: A. A 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume B. A 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations C. A 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations D. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? Select one: A. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed. B. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly. C. Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. D. Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light.

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" B. "When was the last time you ate a meal?" C. "How long have you had your chest pain?" D. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure? Select one: A. Hypertension and tachycardia B. Trouble breathing while lying down C. The presence of rales in the lungs D. Hypotension and flat jugular veins

Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? Select one: A. Acute increase in appetite B. Hyperactivity during an EMS call C. Increased interest in daily activities D. Isolation from the rest of the crew

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. C. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

Common associated conditions in patients with spina bifida include all of the following, except: Select one: A. hydrocephalus. B. extreme latex allergy. C. loss of bladder control. D. spastic limb movement.

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. mind-altering substance use. B. schizophrenia. C. intense stress. D. Alzheimer's disease.

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? Select one: A. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus B. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient C. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle D. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? Select one: A. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle B. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus C. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient D. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

Which of the following splinting devices would be most appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? Select one: A. Cardboard splint B. Sling and swathe C. Vacuum splint D. Air splint

Your EMS team is performing CPR on a 60-year-old male in cardiac arrest. You connect the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a "no shock advised" message. You should: Select one: A. re-analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. immediately assess the patient's airway. C. determine if a palpable pulse is present. D. perform CPR for 2 minutes and reassess.

GCS: You are treating a patient that doesn't open their eyes with painful stimuli, mumbling incomprehensible sounds, and their extremities are extended away from their body.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 2 Motor: 2 GCS: 5

GCS: You are treating a patient that has eye opening with painful stimuli, is mumbling incomprehensible sounds, and localizes painful stimuli.

Eyes: 2 Verbal: 2 Motor: 5 GCS: 9

GCS: You are treating a patient that opens their eyes when you pinch their shoulder, is CA+O x3 (not sure of what happened), and is also following all motor commands.

Eyes: 2 Verbal: 4 Motor: 6 GCS: 12

GCS: You are treating a patient whose eyes track you as you approach them, is not sure of today's date or time, and obeys your verbal commands with motor response.

Eyes: 4 Verbal: 4 Motor: 6 GCS: 14

GCS: You are treating a patient that tracks you with their eyes as you walk in the room, is CA+O x4 with verbal response, and is moving all extremities as you ask.

Eyes: 4 Verbal: 5 Motor: 6 GCS: 15

Because others could be listening on the open airwaves, you should absolutely refrain from using any patient identifying information over the radio. Select one: True False

FALSE

HIPAA does not regulate what EMS providers are allowed to disclose on social networking sites such as Facebook and Twitter because they are private websites. Select one: True False

FALSE

When providing an interfacility transport to a patient, EMS providers should never look at patient records or other patient information, even if it may aid in treating the patient. Select one: True False

FALSE

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the: Select one: A. elasticity of the lungs decreases. B. overall size of the airway decreases. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge. D. surface area of the alveoli increases.

CPAP is indicated for patients who: Select one: A. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. B. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. C. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. involves hands-on practice. B. occurs every 24 months. C. is delivered by computer. D. is self-paced and brief.

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. involves hands-on practice. B. occurs every 24 months. C. is self-paced and brief. D. is delivered by computer.

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. a valid living will is unavailable. B. rigor mortis is obvious. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. signs of putrefaction are present.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. paramedic. B. EMR. C. EMT. D. AEMT.

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, except: Select one: A. rupture of a central vein. B. clotting of the line. C. bleeding around the line. D. a local infection.

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: Select one: A. reposition the patient's airway B. insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. increase the rate of ventilation. D. suction the patient's oropharynx

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: Select one: A. psychogenic shock. B. vasovagal shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. neurologic shock.

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: Select one: A. the patient receives definitive care. B. the patient is admitted to the ICU. C. you depart the scene for the hospital. D. you arrive at the emergency department.

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: A. a normal pulse oximetry reading. B. skin that is cherry red and hot. C. an abnormally slow pulse rate. D. an abnormally slow respiratory rate.

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: Select one: A. perform a careful and thorough assessment. B. take note of the patient's general appearance. C. ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient. D. establish the patient's medical history early.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. hypertension. B. heavy exertion. C. severe stress. D. diabetes mellitus.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A.hypertension. B.diabetes mellitus. C.severe stress. D.heavy exertion.

The primary function of the right atrium is to: Select one: A.receive blood from the vena cava. B.pump blood to the pulmonary artery. C.receive blood from the pulmonary veins. D.pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: Select one: A. skin. B. respiratory tract. C. nervous system. D. vascular system.

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Select one: A. carbon dioxide. B. pyruvic acid. C. lactic acid. D. adenosine triphosphate.

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: Select one: A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. facilitates shedding of the epidermis.

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? Select one: A.Nexium B.Lasix C.Digoxin D.Isordil

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct? Select one: A. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. B. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age. C. Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age. D. The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly.

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but might be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. B. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. C. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. D. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles.

Signs of late heatstroke include: Select one: A. hot, moist skin. B. a weak, rapid pulse. C. nausea and vomiting. D. a change in behavior.

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. spinous foramen. B. foramen magnum. C. foramen ovale. D. vertebral foramen.

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. the standard of care. B. the continuum of care. C. the scope of practice. D. patient care advocacy.

The least harmful form of ionizing radiation is: Select one: A. beta. B. alpha. C. neutron. D. gamma.

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: Select one: A. 70 mm Hg. B. 90 mm Hg. C. 60 mm Hg. D. 80 mm Hg.

To accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: Select one: A. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. B. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic. C. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable. D. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries.

To avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. cardiac tamponade. B. pneumothorax. C. flail chest. D. myocardial contusion.

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of: Select one: A. no greater than 100 compressions per minute. B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute. C. 80 to 100 compressions per minute. D. at least 120 compressions per minute.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: Select one: A. flex at the waist instead of the hips. B. keep the weight as close to your body as possible. C. use a direct carry whenever possible. D. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the lungs. B. the skin. C. the heart. D. the brain.

Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team? Select one: A. Providing emergency care during extrication B. Providing safe entry and access to patients C. Shutting off power to downed electrical lines D. Initial triage and patient prioritization

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls B. Developing a social network outside of EMS C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug? Select one: A. Bayer B. Aspirin C. Advil D. Excedrin

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it: Select one: A. produces actions other than the desired ones. B. is used to treat a multitude of conditions. C. may cause harm or has no positive effect. D. is used to treat a specific medical condition.

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A.untoward effect. B.unpredictable effect. C.adverse effect. D.therapeutic effect.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: Select one: A. independently. B. dependently. C. interdependently. D. under standing orders.

Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, except: Select one: A. high fever. B. headaches. C. skin blisters. D. body aches.

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 48-hour B. 24-hour C. 72-hour D. 96-hour

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? Select one: A. With hands tied behind the back B. Prone C. Supine D. With arms and legs bound together

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. eupneic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. D. ataxic respirations.

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. respiratory B. cardiac C. neurologic D. endocrine

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Select one: A. incinerate B. properly store C. decontaminate D. throw out

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. B. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. C. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

The EMT certification exam is designed to: Select one: A. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. B. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training. C. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills. D. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: Select one: A. internal bleeding. B. high fever. C. peritonitis. D. severe pain.

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: Select one: A. are elderly. B. do not trust EMTs. C. are in denial. D. cannot afford it.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. C. transporting the patient without delay. D. positioning the patient on his or her side.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. positioning the patient on his or her side. C. transporting the patient without delay. D. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion.

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: Select one: A. insulin. B. thyroxine. C. epinephrine. D. aldosterone.

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 25 and 35 years. B. 21 and 30 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

The least harmful form of ionizing radiation is: Select one: A. beta. B. neutron. C. alpha. D. gamma.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. the right side of the face. B. heart rate and pupil reaction. C. the right side of the body. D. breathing and blood pressure.

Which of the following is a function of the upper airway? Select one: A. Creates sound from vocal cord vibration B. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchioles C. Warms and humidifies inhaled air D. Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls B. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind C. Developing a social network outside of EMS D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption

Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder? Select one: A. Drug addiction B. Alzheimer's disease C. Schizophrenia D. Head trauma

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? Select one: A. Rupture of the amniotic sac B. Irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes C. Crowning of the baby's head D. Expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Select one: A. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood B. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants C. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating D. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Which of the following is not a component of the Apgar score? Select one: A. Activity B. Pulse C. Body size D. Grimace

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: A. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 C. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A.50-year-old woman with moderate obesity B.39-year-old man with mild hypertension C.68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes D.12-year-old child with a fractured arm

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Select one: A. Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched B. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time C. Asking questions related to the chief complaint D. Refraining from asking open-ended questions

For which of the following conditions would the EMT most likely administer humidified oxygen? Select one: A. Blood loss B. Hypoxia C. Apnea D. Croup

Functions of the skin include all of the following, except: Select one: A. regulation of body temperature. B. sending information to the brain. C. maintenance of water balance. D. the production of key antibodies.

Gathering data about a patient begins when: Select one: A. the EMT first sets eyes on the patient. B. a full medical history has been obtained. C. an initial patient care plan has been established. D. the EMT is given dispatch information.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. record the time and dose given. B. reassess the patient's vital signs. C. notify medical control of your action. D. properly dispose of the syringe.

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. document the time the restraints were applied. B. inform medical control of the situation. C. advise the patient why restraint was needed. D. reassess the patient's airway and breathing.

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular dilation and tachycardia. B. vascular constriction and bradycardia. C. vascular dilation and bradycardia. D. vascular constriction and tachycardia.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. B. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. C. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. D. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: A. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. B. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. C. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. D. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

A proximal humeral fracture is one that is located: Select one: A. at a point closest to the body. B. at a point closest to the elbow. C. between the shoulder and elbow. D. at the upper part of the humerus.

A proximal humeral fracture is one that is located: Select one: A. at a point closest to the body. B. between the shoulder and elbow. C. at a point closest to the elbow. D. at the upper part of the humerus.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: Select one: A. urticaria. B. purpura. C. a pustule. D. a wheal.

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. B. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. C. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: Select one: A. 200 psi. B. 1,000 psi. C. 1,500 psi. D. 500 psi.

Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed to: Select one: A. prevent further injury. B. maintain extremity perfusion. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. reduce pain and swelling.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. respiratory system. B. endocrine system. C. cardiovascular system. D. immune system.

At present, the average life expectancy is ________ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at ________ years. Select one: A. 72, 110 B. 70, 102 C. 68, 100 D. 78, 120

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Select one: A. tidal volume. B. inspiratory reserve volume. C. expiratory reserve volume. D. residual volume.

The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. arms, legs, and pelvis. B. lower part of the torso and the legs. C. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. D. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

The carpal bones form the: Select one: A. ankle. B. hand. C. foot. D. wrist.

The most superior section of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. angle of Louis. B. costal arch. C. xiphoid process. D. manubrium.

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. pericardium. B. epicardium. C. endocardium. D. myocardium.

The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is: Select one: A. dysuria. B. high fever. C. vomiting. D. diarrhea.

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A.request a paramedic unit for assistance. B.determine if you need additional help. C.gain immediate access to the patient. D.assess the scene for potential hazards.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells. B. Most cells will function normally without glucose. C. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. D. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. The majority of women with PID never develop symptoms. B. PID is an infection of the lower female reproductive organs. C. PID is a life-threatening condition that is associated with shock. D. Untreated PID can lead to an ectopic pregnancy or an abscess.

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. cough. B. vomit. C. are bleeding. D. have a fever.

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Immunity B. Gender C. Age D. Race

After providing some care for a newborn for several minutes, you reassess the Apgar score. You find. no cyanosis, a heart rate of 116 bpm, crying when stimulated, strong flexion of the legs, and vigorous crying. What is the post-care Apgar score?

BSA: You are treating a 19-year-old female patient who sustained partial thickness burns to the lower legs from knees down to feet circumferentially.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. hives. B. a wheal. C. burning. D. swelling.

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug? Select one: A. Aspirin B. Bayer C. Excedrin D. Advil

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: Select one: A. surveying the area for hazards. B. gaining access to the patient(s). C. immediately beginning triage. D. requesting additional resources.

____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. Select one: A. Behavior B. Neurosis C. Psychosis D. Affect

Relative to the ankle, the knee is: Select one: A. medial. B. lateral. C. proximal. D. superior.

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: Select one: A. inspect the helmet for cracks. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. leave her bicycle helmet on. D. stabilize her entire spine.

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: A. 10. B. 12. C. 14. D. 13.

Deformity caused by a fracture would most likely be masked by: Select one: A. crepitus. B. guarding. C. ecchymosis. D. swelling.

Insulin functions in the body by: Select one: A.increasing circulating blood glucose. B.producing new glucose as needed. C.enabling glucose to enter the cells. D.metabolizing glucose to make energy.

BSA: You are assessing and treating a 45-year-old male patient who sustained partial and full thickness burns to the anterior thoracic and abdominal regions and anterior head.

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BSA: You are treating a 45-year-old male patient who sustained partial thickness and full thickness burns to the entire right arm and anterior chest and abdomen.

BSA: You are treating a 66-year-old male patient who sustained partial thickness burns to both upper and lower (including hands) arms circumferentially and anterior chest but not abdomen.

BSA: You are treating a 32-year-old female patient who sustained partial thickness burns to the entire posterior back and posterior legs bilaterally.

A newborn at 5 minutes old shows some cyanosis in the extremities, a heart rate of 134 bpm, a weak cry, good strength of movement, and weak, gasping breaths. What is the newborn's Apgar score at this time?

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the epiglottis. B. bronchioles. C. the trachea. D. alveoli.

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: Select one: A. ligaments. B. cartilage. C. bursa. D. tendons.

Which comes first in EMS decision making? Select one: A. Data gathering B. Data interpretation C. Planning D. Team communication

Which of the following is an example of a trade (brand) name of a drug? Select one: A. Tylenol B. Nitroglycerin C. Furosemide D. Ibuprofen

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Select one: A. Crackles B. Stridor C. Rales D. Rhonchi

You are treating a newborn who appears cyanotic all over, is not moving or crying, and has no pulse or breathing. What is the Apgar score at this time?

When assessing a newborn at 1 minute old, you find cyanosis of the torso, a heart rate of 50 bpm, there is no crying or respiratory effort, and the newborn is limp. What is the total Apgar score?

BSA: You are treating an 18-year-old female with full thickness burns to the entire right arm circumferentially and right leg from knee down to feet circumferentially.

You have just delivered a newborn who has some cyanosis peripherally, has a heart rate of 120, is crying vigorously, weakly resists straightening legs, and has a respiratory rate of 50. What is the total Apgar score for the newborn?

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 9 B. 6 C. 8 D. 7

BSA: You are treating an 18-year-old male patient who sustained partial thickness burns to the entire (shoulder to fingers) anterior right arm and anterior left arm.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: Select one: A. is in shock. B. has an infection. C. has an ectopic pregnancy. D. is pregnant.

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. B. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting. C. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. D. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance.

Airbags are designed to: Select one: A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. B. be used with or without a shoulder harness. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. prevent a second collision inside the car.

An example of an anti-inflammatory is: Select one: A. Aspirin. B. Nitroglycerin. C. Oxygen. D. Narcan.

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. B. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. C. place her legs together and position her on her left side. D. elevate her legs six to eight inches and cover her with a blanket.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be most alert for: Select one: A.acute respiratory depression. B.a sudden outburst of violence. C.an increase in her blood pressure. D.seizures and cardiac dysrhythmias.

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. is not a communicable disease. B. is a far more transmittable disease. C. can be prevented with a vaccination. D. typically does not cause yellow skin.

Later stage symptoms of Hepatitis include which of the following? Select one: a. Jaundice (yellowing of the skin) and right upper abdominal pain b. A characteristic rash and left upper abdominal pain c. A characteristic rash and right upper abdominal pain d. Jaundice (yellowing of the skin) and diffuse abdominal pain

Mental function often begins to decline within ___ year(s) before death. Select one: A. five B. one C. eight D. three

The frontal lobe of the brain controls: Select one: A.emotion. B.movement. C.vision. D.touch.

The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior. B. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications. C. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member. D. a medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning.

The term primigravida refers to a woman who: Select one: A. is pregnant for the first time. B. has had only one live birth. C. has had more than one live baby. D. has never been pregnant.

The third stage of labor begins when the: Select one: A. baby is expelled from the vagina. B. placenta is fully delivered. C. cervix is completely dilated. D. umbilical cord has been clamped.

What route(s) of administration may be used for glucose gel? Select one: a. Oral or buccal b. Buccal only c. IV d. Rectal

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. peritonitis might not develop for several hours. B. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. C. the abdomen will become instantly distended. D. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.

Which of the following does not usually contribute to or cause obesity? Select one: A. Rapid metabolism B. Low metabolic rate C. Genetic predisposition D. High caloric intake

Which of the following drugs is not a sedative-hypnotic? Select one: A.oxycodone (Percocet) B.diazepam (Valium) C.secobarbital (Seconal) D.flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? Select one: A. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage. C. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. D. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. B. Most cells will function normally without glucose. C. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? Select one: A. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. B. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. D. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Select one: A. Chest thrusts B. Finger sweeps C. Abdominal thrusts D. Back slaps

You and your partner are EMTs who have been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the firefighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: Select one: A. immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer. B. don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman. C. stay where you are until firefighters remove her from the house. D. request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure.

You respond to a private home in late autumn. An elderly couple report feeling ill for the last two hours with headache, nausea, lethargy, and weakness. The wife reports that she began feeling very short of breath about 15 minutes ago. Her lung sounds are clear and her SpO2 shows 100 %. What is the most appropriate initial action? Select one: a. Administer O2 to both the husband and wife after moving to the ambulance b. Administer O2 to the wife only on scene c. Administer O2 to the wife only after moving to the ambulance d. Administer O2 to both the husband and wife on scene

A physician who specializes in diseases of the nervous system is called a: Select one: A. radiologist. B. nephrologist. C. cardiologist. D. neurologist.

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will most likely cause: Select one: A. diffuse bruising. B. distention. C. nausea or vomiting. D. referred pain.

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. libel.

Placenta previa is defined as: Select one: A. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening. C. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. D. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should: Select one: A. ventilate her with a bag-mask device. B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. C. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. D. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches.

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: Select one: A.dehydration from GI virus. B.acute myocardial infarction. C.severe septic hypoperfusion. D.a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

A newborn has four anatomic abnormalities of the heart. What prefix is used to describe this? Select one: A. Multi- B. Tetra- C. Dipl- D. Uni-

A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth. Select one: A. 5 to 10 B. 15 to 30 C. 30 to 60 D. 3 to 5

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that: Select one: A. ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions. B. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum. C. ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided. D. the BLS care provided by the EMT is the "first steps" of ALS care.

Capillaries link the arterioles and the: Select one: A. cells. B. venules. C. aorta. D. veins.

In the recovery position, the patient is: Select one: A. lying face down. B. on his or her side. C. sitting upright. D. lying face up.

Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered: Select one: A. illegal and unethical. B. legal but unethical. C. legal and ethical. D. illegal but ethical.

What class of medication is epinephrine? Select one: a. Cholinergic b. Catecholamine c. Cholesterol d. Anticholinergic

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. C. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. D. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Select one: A. Pallor B. Wheezing C. Hypotension D. Dizziness

Which of the following is an example of a trade (brand) name of a drug? Select one: A. Furosemide B. Tylenol C. Ibuprofen D. Nitroglycerin

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A.To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation. B.With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. C.Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. D.Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body.

While assessing a 21-year-old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you note that her airbag deployed. You should: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car. B. lift the airbag and look for deformity to the steering wheel. C. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center. D. carefully assess her upper chest for seatbelt-related injuries.

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. B. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. C. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.

You are treating a 50 lb patient who is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the appropriate dose of epinephrine? Select one: a. 0.3 mg b. 0.15 mg c. 0.3 g d. 0.15 g

_____________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. Select one: A. Extrication B. Access C. Disentanglement D. Rescue

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. B. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicle. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal pulse, sensory, and motor functions, you should: Select one: A. straighten his arm and apply a board splint. B. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling. C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe. D. perform a rapid secondary assessment.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. B. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. D. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.

Anaphylaxis is best defined as: Select one: a. A failure of the immune system to distinguish between the body's own tissues and foreign substances b. A severe allergic reaction to any substance causing serious symptoms c. An inappropriate immune system reaction to a particular substance that affects multiple organ systems d. A reaction of the immune system to a dangerous foreign substance affecting several body systems

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: A. Anterior chest B. Extremities C. Posterior D. Abdomen

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Select one: A."When did the chest pain begin?" B."Do you have a history of diabetes?" C."What seems to be the matter?" D."Are you having trouble breathing?"

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rales B. Wheezing C. Stridor D. Rhonchi

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. B. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. C. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. D. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture and continue triaging.

With proper technique, you and your partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to ______ pounds. Select one: A. 190 B. 175 C. 220 D. 150

You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should: Select one: A. go upstairs with caution and attempt to talk to the patient. B. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. C. remain in a safe place and request law enforcement. D. ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife.

You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan). C. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated. D. asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His revised trauma score (RTS) is: Select one: A. 11. B. 10. C. 9. D. 8.

____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. Select one: A. Neurosis B. Psychosis C. Behavior D. Affect

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A.quickly tend to the bleeding wound. B.approach the patient with caution. C.tell the patient that you want to help. D.calmly identify yourself to the patient.

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be mostsuspicious for: Select one: A. a thoracic spine fracture. B. fracture of the tibia or fibula. C. anterior hip dislocation. D. posterior hip dislocation.

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. duplex B. scanner C. decoder D. repeater

A team of EMTs and paramedics are attempting to resuscitate a man who is in cardiac arrest while his wife and son are present. Which of the following should occur during the resuscitation attempt? Select one: A. A law enforcement officer should prepare the family for the patient's death and contact the funeral home. B. Each member of the resuscitation team should update the family at various intervals throughout the attempt. C. Communication with the family should be minimal until the final outcome of the resuscitation attempt is known. D. One EMT should update the family on the interventions that have been performed and how the patient has responded.

HIPAA permits disclosure of protected health information (PHI) about a patient to the media when: Select one: a. The patient is a celebrity or well-known public figure b. When the provider feels the disclosure would be in the best interests of the patient c. If the media person making the request represents that the information will be reported in a fair and balanced manner d. Only if the patient specifically authorizes the disclosure in writing

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: Select one: A. wheezing. B. rhonchi. C. rales. D. stridor.

How much glucose is typically supplied in one tube? Select one: a. 0.15 - 0.3 mg b. 15 - 30 mg c. 0.15 - 0.3 g d. 15 - 30 g

In cases where your patient may be the victim of a crime, you may disclose PHI to law enforcement if the following is true: Select one: a. The police officer tells you he needs the information immediately for investigative purposes b. You believe that disclosure is in the best interest of the patient c. The police officer agrees that the information will not be used against the patient d. All of the above

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A.tablets. B.caplets. C.pills. D.capsules.

Protected health information may be used and disclosed without the patient's permission for the following purposes: Select one: a. Payment (Example: to submit a bill to a patient's insurance company) b. Healthcare Operations (Example: to conduct quality assurance activities and client reviews c. Treatment (Example: to share information with the receiving hospital about the treatment you provided to the patient) d. All of the above

Regardless of the type of tourniquet used, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. B. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. C. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding might return if the tourniquet is released.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. excess stress. B. lack of exercise. C. hyperglycemia. D. family history.

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: Select one: A. hypothermia. B. slurred speech. C. hypotension. D. tachycardia.

Skeletal muscle is also called: Select one: A. smooth muscle. B. autonomic muscle. C. involuntary muscle. D. voluntary muscle.

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Hypoglycemia B. Intracranial bleeding C. A postictal state D. Hypovolemia

Which of the following statements would not be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? Select one: A. "It is okay to be angry and sad." B. "Tell me how you are feeling." C. "This must be painful for you." D. "Things will get better in time."

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. B. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry. C. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. D. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she: Select one: A. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. B. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

You are assessing a patient with respiratory distress and are unsure if the cause is congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following clinical signs would be the MOST helpful in determining whether the patient has chronic heart failure or COPD? Select one: A. Rapid breathing B. Altered mental status C. Cyanosis of the skin D. Jugular vein distention

GCS: You are treating a patient that opens their eyes with verbal stimuli, is CA+O x3 (confused about date and time), and is moving all extremities as asked.

Eyes: 3 Verbal: 4 Motor: 6 GCS: 13

If a patient is under duress, unconscious, incapacitated, or in the midst of a medical emergency, you must still make a reasonable effort to get them to sign an acknowledgment that they have received your notice of privacy practices. Select one: True False

FALSE

All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. reflective of your opinion. B. considered confidential. C. a matter of public record. D. typewritten or printed.

In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. inferior. B. ventral. C. posterior. D. anterior.

In the recovery position, the patient is: Select one: A. sitting upright. B. lying face up. C. lying face down. D. on his or her side.

Which of the following is not a facial bone? Select one: A. Maxilla B. Mandible C. Zygoma D. Mastoid

A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? Select one: A. Plantar B. Ventral C. Dorsal D. Palmar

BSA: You are treating a 26-year-old male patient who sustained partial thickness burns to the anterior chest and the face. Your patient has audible stridor and has soot around the mouth and nose.

13.5

BSA: You are treating a 47-year-old male patient with circumferential burns to bilateral upper and lower legs to the feet.

At 5 minutes old, a newborn has some cyanosis apparent in the hands, a heart rate of 110 bpm, cries weakly, is moving but only flexes its legs slightly, and is breathing at 16 breaths per minute. What is the total Apgar score?

You are treating a newborn with truncal cyanosis, heart rate of 76 bpm, crying irritably, weak leg movement, and rapid breathing. What is the current Apgar score?

A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation. As your partner is applying oxygen, you perform a rapid assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: Select one: A. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. B. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once. C. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. D. direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilateral closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: A. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. B. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. stabilize her legs with long board splints.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. B. apply pressure to the brachial artery. C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. B. position her on her left side and transport at once. C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative. D. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag.

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A.provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. B.position her on her left side and transport at once. C.have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag. D.request a paramedic to give her a sedative.

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. B. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. C. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. D. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.

A 45-yaer-old female patient has taken several times her prescribed dose of Xanax (alprazolam) and is now unresponsive. Naloxone would be: Select one: a. Ineffective against this non-opioid drug b. Effective and appropriate to use for this situation c. Ineffective against this specific opioid drug d. Effective but not in the EMT scope of practice for this situation

A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen multiple times during an assault. He is conscious but restless and his pulse is rapid. His skin is cold and moist. Your assessment reveals a large area of bruising to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. The mostappropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. preparing for immediate transport. B. applying oxygen via nasal cannula. C. a detailed assessment of his abdomen. D. performing a focused physical exam.

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. acute pancreatitis. C. esophagitis. D. esophageal varices.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A.acidosis and dehydration. B.hypoxia and overhydration. C.severe insulin shock. D.irreversible renal failure.

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen. B. place her supine with her legs elevated. C. perform a rapid secondary assessment. D. locate the area where the fire ants bit her.

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unresponsive with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: Select one: A. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing. B. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. C. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. D. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. ensure that his airway is patent. C. elevate his legs and keep him warm. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A.ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B.reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. C.give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. D.attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.

A 4-year-old, 15-kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occurred. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should: Select one: A. administer 15 g of activated charcoal. B. give the child milk to absorb the Tylenol. C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. contact medical control for guidance.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. calmly identify yourself to the patient. B. tell the patient that you want to help. C. approach the patient with caution. D. quickly tend to the bleeding wound.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: Select one: A. liver dysfunction. B. acute pancreatitis. C. gallbladder disease. D. renal insufficiency.

A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is: Select one: A. epilepsy. B. intracranial bleeding. C. a serious infection. D. a brain tumor.

A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries is the LEAST likely? Select one: A. Head injury B. Multiple rib fractures C. Cardiac contusion D. Pulmonary contusion

A 42-year-old male is found unresponsive on his couch by a neighbor. During your assessment, you find no signs of trauma, and the patient's blood glucose level is 75 mg/dL. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, his heart rate is 45 beats/min and bounding, and his respirations are 8 breaths/min and irregular. The patient is wearing a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should: Select one: A. suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital. B. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment at the scene, and transport promptly. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, apply oral glucose in between his cheek and gum, and transport. D. suspect that he has internal bleeding and is in shock, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport at once.

A 42-year-old male is found unresponsive on his couch by a neighbor. During your assessment, you find no signs of trauma, and the patient's blood glucose level is 75 mg/dL. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, his heart rate is 45 beats/min and bounding, and his respirations are 8 breaths/min and irregular. The patient is wearing a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should: Select one: A. suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, apply oral glucose in between his cheek and gum, and transport. C. suspect that he has internal bleeding and is in shock, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport at once. D. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment at the scene, and transport promptly.

A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has labored breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. You should: Select one: A. maintain his airway and assist his ventilations. B. ask his wife if he has any known allergies. C. perform a detailed secondary assessment. D. administer oxygen and position him on his side.

A 5-year-old female pulled a pot of boiling water from the stove. She has superficial and partial-thickness burns to her head, face, and anterior trunk. What percentage of her body surface area has been burned? Select one: A. 30% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36%

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: Select one: A. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline. B. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. C. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. D. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The most appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. B. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. D. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.

A 56-year-old male presents with exertional, crushing, substernal chest pressure for the last 30 minutes. He is mildly nauseated and had one episode of vomiting a coffee ground like substance yesterday. What is the appropriate dose of aspirin to give this patient? Select one: a. None. Aspirin is contra-indicated. b. None. Aspirin is not indicated. c. 81 mg d. 324 mg

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. C. perform a head-to-toe exam. D. allow him to drink plain water.

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious, alert, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the most appropriate to ask him? Select one: A. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" B. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" C. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" D. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?"

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen, if needed, and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. B. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. D. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: A.Pulmonary embolism B.Congestive heart failure C.Severe hypoglycemia D.Diabetic ketoacidosis

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: Select one: A. septic shock. B. decompensated shock. C. a local infection. D. pump failure.

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face, and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: Select one: A. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. begin assisting the patient's ventilations.

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. a heart attack. B. hypoglycemia C. hyperglycemia. D. an acute stroke.

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: Select one: A. superficial burn. B. partial-thickness burn. C. full-thickness burn. D. second-degree burn.

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A.determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler. B.contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C.place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. D.call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment.

A construction worker's arm was severed just above the elbow when a steel girder fell on it. The stump is covered with a blood-soaked towel. The patient's skin is cool, clammy, and pale. The EMT should: Select one: A. apply a tourniquet just below the shoulder. B. wrap the severed arm in a sterile dressing. C. remove the towel and inspect the wound. D. administer high-flow oxygen to the patient.

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 72 B. 12 C. six D. 24

A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in: Select one: A. barometric pressure. B. rapid descent. C. decompression. D. rapid ascent.

A woman amputated the tip of her finger. Which directional term should be used to describe her injury location? Select one: A. Distal B. Medial C. Lateral D. Superior

A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when: Select one: A. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance. B. a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected. C. a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs. D. an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: Select one: A. distal humerus fracture. B. distal forearm fracture. C. proximal elbow fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

A generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure is characterized by: Select one: A. severe twitching of all the body's muscles. B. unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes. C. a core body temperature of greater than 103°F (40°C). D. a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness.

A hematoma develops when: Select one: A. large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. B. cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged. C. small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. D. severe swelling compromises arterial circulation.

A hypnotic drug is one that: Select one: A. induces sleep. B. increases the pulse. C. increases the senses. D. prevents amnesia.

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: A. 16 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours. D. 4 hours.

A multiparous patient is one who: Select one: A. has given birth more than once. B. has double vision. C. is paralyzed in all extremities. D. has an irregular heartbeat.

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: Select one: A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. B. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose. C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. D. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause? Select one: A. Obstructive B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolemic D. Neurogenic

A patient has kidney disease that is causing him severe pain. What condition does he have and what would be administered for his pain? Select one: A. Nephropathy; analgesic B. Myopathy; anesthetic C. Neuropathy; antibiotic D. Dysuria; anti-inflammatory

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would most likely control the bleeding? Select one: A. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure. B. Position the patient with his injured side down. C. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis. D. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport.

A patient is diagnosed with nephritis. This means: Select one: A. inflammation of the kidney. B. enlargement of the liver. C. disease of the kidney. D. dysfunction of the liver.

A patient with a core body temperature of 95°F (35°C) will most likely experience: Select one: A.a slow pulse. B.loss of consciousness. C.rapid breathing. D.muscle stiffness.

A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance. B. Transport the patient in a prone position on the stretcher. C. Refuse to transport the patient because of his homicidal threat. D. Request that a police officer transport him to the hospital.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. B. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

A physician who specializes in diseases of the nervous system is called a: Select one: A.neurologist. B.nephrologist. C.cardiologist. D.radiologist.

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a: Select one: A. functional disorder B. drug and alcohol abuse C. seizure D. traumatic brain injury

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A.fluid accumulation outside the lung. B.diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C.a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. D.a unilaterally collapsed lung.

A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is most suggestive of a: Select one: A. myocardial contusion. B. pericardial tamponade. C. ruptured aorta. D. tension pneumothorax.

A sign of kidney damage after blunt trauma is: Select one: A. hematuria. B. hematochezia. C. hematemesis. D. hemoptysis.

A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. B. heals on its own without any treatment. C. is caused by penetrating chest trauma. D. often has a nontraumatic cause.

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. B. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. C. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound where the bicycle kickstand impaled his leg. The most appropriate method for treating this injury is to: Select one: A. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings. B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with sterile dressings. C. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing. D. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely.

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Select one: A. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. B. screen all prospective employees for bloodborne pathogens. C. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only. D. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: Select one: A. assess for a distal pulse. B. assign an immediate category. C. look for posturing. D. assess neurologic status.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: Select one: A. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. B. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. C. use an automatic transport ventilator. D. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter.

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested: Select one: A. aspirin. B. methanol. C. iron. D. ethanol.

After ________ minutes without oxygen, permanent brain damage is possible. Select one: A. 4 to 6 B. 7 C. 2 to 3 D. 1 to 2

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. B. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. C. transport her rapidly, because it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should: Select one: A. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws. B. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively. C. keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren. D. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that: Select one: A. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum. B. the BLS care provided by the EMT is the "first steps" of ALS care. C. ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions. D. ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided.

After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, except: Select one: A. the general geographic location of the incident. B. other agencies that are responding to the scene. C. the nature of the injury, illness, or incident. D. the number of patients involved in the incident.

After delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine fundus and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurred because: Select one: A. the production of oxytocin caused uterine contraction. B. breastfeeding causes uterine blood vessels to dilate. C. uterine massage increases blood flow to the uterus. D. a portion of the placenta was retained in the uterus.

After direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay. B. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. C. hyperventilate him with a bag valve mask and monitor his oxygen saturation. D. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen.

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. adverse effect. B. untoward effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. unpredictable effect.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Select one: A. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. B. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. C. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. D. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

Airborne substances should be diluted with: Select one: A.oxygen. B.activated charcoal. C.an alkaline antidote. D.syrup of ipecac.

Albuterol is a/an: Select one: a. Synthetic sympathomimetic b. Natural sympathomimetic c. Natural sympatholytic d. Synthetic sympatholytic

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ischemic stroke. B. spinal injury. C. anaphylaxis. D. severe infection.

All of the following should be addressed during the primary assessment except: Select one: A. capillary bleeding. B. slow, shallow breathing. C. airway obstruction. D. severe hemorrhage.

All of the following snakes are pit vipers, except for the: Select one: A. coral snake. B. cottonmouth. C. copperhead. D. rattlesnake.

An EMT might injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Select one: A. back is bent forward at the hips. B. force is exerted straight down the spine. C. hands are held close to the legs. D. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: Select one: A.be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. B.assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C.exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D.have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. C. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport. D. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: Select one: A. an aneurysm. B. an embolism. C. a thrombus. D. atherosclerosis.

An effective team leader should: Select one: A. help the team accomplish goals. B. perform all difficult interventions. C. refrain from any direct patient care. D. command his or her team.

An effective team leader should: Select one: A.help the team accomplish goals. B.command his or her team. C.perform all difficult interventions. D.refrain from any direct patient care.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. B. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. D. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

An open fracture is most accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: A. an external wound is present over the fracture site. B. a bullet or other projectile shatters the underlying bone. C. fractured bone ends protrude through the skin. D. the bone is broken but does not penetrate the skin.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. B. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. B. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. C. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. D. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards.

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. B. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 100 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 90 beats/min. D. 70 beats/min.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 10 to 18 months B. 24 to 36 months C. 6 to 8 months D. 18 to 24 months

Because an N95 mask makes a tight seal, prior to wearing one you will be required to: Select one: a. have a physician evaluate your health and have a fit test performed. b. sign a health waiver and have a fit test performed. c. have a physician evaluate your health and select a mask that is the closest to your face's size and shape. d. take a physical fitness test and tighten the mask as much as possible.

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. B. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. C. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. D. vital signs should be monitored frequently.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is most effectively controlled with: Select one: A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. C. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. D. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs.

CPR is in progress on a pulseless and apneic 29-year-old woman who is 37 weeks pregnant. When treating this patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. manually displace the patient's uterus to the left. B. deliver a compression rate of 120 to 140 per minute. C. perform compressions slightly lower on the sternum. D. avoid defibrillation because it might harm the fetus

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: Select one: A. histamines and leukotrienes. B. the bee venom itself. C. leukocytes and epinephrine. D. adrenaline and histamines.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. B. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. C. can be reversed with prompt treatment. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. absent peripheral pulses. B. rapid, shallow breathing. C. cool and clammy skin. D. restlessness or anxiety.

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. shallow chest movement. B. gasping attempts to breathe. C. use of accessory muscles. D. supraclavicular retractions.

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except: Select one: A. Fructose. B. Actidose. C. LiquiChar. D. InstaChar.

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: Select one: A.tachypnea and tingling in the extremities. B.anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. C.unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. D.altered mental status and bradycardia.

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, except: Select one: A. hot, dry skin. B. dry tongue and thirst. C. nausea. D. tachycardia.

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. gastric distention. B. a fractured sternum. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area. C. perform a rapid secondary assessment. D. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A.assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B.assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. C.perform a rapid secondary assessment. D.perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. C. assist his ventilations with a bag valve mask. D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately.

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. C. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. D. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.

EMTs arrive at the scene of a patient who was "found down." A family member states that she gave naloxone (Narcan) to the patient before the ambulance arrived. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: Select one: A. overdosed on an opioid drug. B. experienced a prolonged seizure. C. has a low blood glucose level. D. has a history of allergic reactions.

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. C. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. D. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.

Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: Select one: A. red areas of skin. B. dark purple marks. C. localized pain. D. gross distention.

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: Select one: A. an ulcer. B. ileus. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. polyphagia. B. polydipsia. C. dyspepsia. D. dysphasia.

Exposure to _________ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress. Select one: A. chlorine B. lewisite C. tabun D. soman

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except: Select one: A. increased surface area available for air exchange. B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. C. decreased residual volume. D. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except: Select one: A. increased surface area available for air exchange. B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. C. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. D. decreased residual volume.

Febrile seizures: Select one: A. are usually benign but should be evaluated. B. are also referred to as absence seizures. C. often result in permanent brain damage. D. occur when a child's fever rises slowly.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: Select one: A. intracranial bleeding. B. a fracture of the skull. C. airway compromise. D. spinal cord injury.

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. B. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. D. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries.

For which of the following patients is spinal immobilization clearly indicated? Select one: A. Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma B. Woman in a minor motor-vehicle collision who complains of severe knee pain C. Woman who fell from a standing position and has a deformed shoulder D. Man with an arrow impaled in his leg and no pulse distal to the injury

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Uterus B. Cervix C. Perineum D. Vagina

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Uterus B. Cervix C. Vagina D. Perineum

Functions of the liver include: Select one: A. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances. B. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. C. absorption of nutrients and toxins. D. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: A. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. B. in patients who are intubated. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. when the airway is completely obstructed.

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery C. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery D. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion

The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: Select one: A. left parietal lobe. B. right temporal lobe. C. right-side cerebrum. D. left-side cerebrum.

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. B. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: Select one: A. the patient history. B. distal circulation. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.

If a patient requests access to a copy of their health record in electronic format, your organization must provide access in electronic format if: Select one: a. The organization uses electronic health records b. The organization has the capability of scanning paper records into PDF format c. The organization is subject to the HIPAA Security Rule d. The organization bills electronically for services

If a patient requests that a covered entity restrict disclosure of his PHI and not submit the claim for an ambulance transport to his insurance company, the covered entity is required to abide by the request: Select one: a. Only if the patient first pays for the ambulance transport in full b. Only if the patient makes the request in writing c. Only if the charge for the ambulance service is less than $500 d. Only if the patient promises that he will pay for the service from an awaited court settlement

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. minute volume is decreased. B. overall tidal volume is increased. C. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. D. inspiratory reserve is increased.

If a pregnant patient must be placed onto a backboard, you should: Select one: A. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. B. place a folded towel behind her head to make it easier to breathe. C. elevate the head of the board six inches to prevent breathing impairment. D. raise the foot of the board 12 inches in order to maintain blood pressure.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: Select one: A. is in shock. B. has an ectopic pregnancy. C. has an infection. D. is pregnant.

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: Select one: A. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. B. digital pressure to a proximal artery. C. additional sterile dressings. D. a splint and elevate the extremity.

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A.wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. B.wait at least five minutes before touching another patient. C.avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. D.immediately dry your hands with a paper towel.

In addition to its primary action, aspirin is a/an: Select one: a. NSAID b. Vasodilator c. Bronchoconstrictor d. ACE-inhibitor

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. may be relatively painless. B. can be controlled in the field. C. often presents with acute pain. D. is typically not as severe.

In general, medevac helicopters should be utilized when: Select one: A. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness, and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care. B. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation. C. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient's present condition is stable. D. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes.

In infants and children, a capillary refill time that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. Select one: A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. respiratory arrest. B. a drug overdose. C. a cardiac dysrhythmia. D. severe chest trauma.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. B. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. C. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. D. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.

In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. B. make decisions based on their conscience. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

In the presence of oxygen, the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: Select one: A.aerobic metabolism. B.respiration. C.anaerobic metabolism. D.perfusion.

In the setting of a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: Select one: A. herniation of the brain stem. B. decreased cerebral blood flow. C. an underlying skull fracture. D. internal bleeding in the chest.

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? Select one: A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed B. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet C. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? Select one: A. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. B. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing. C. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. D. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends.

The two most efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: Select one: A. sweating and vasodilation. B. hyperventilation and tachycardia. C. respiration and bradycardia. D. perspiration and tachycardia.

Just after delivering a newborn, you ass that the baby has cyanosis of the whole body, a pulse of 88 bpm, grimaces some but does not cry when stimulated, does not resist straightening of its legs, and is only gasping weakly. What are the next appropriate actions to care for the newborn? Select one: a. Dry, warm, and stimulate the newborn. Begin positive pressure ventilation. b. Dry, warm, and stimulate the newborn. Suction the airway thoroughly. Administer blow-by oxygen. c. Dry, warm, and stimulate the infant. No further action is needed. d. Dry, warm, and stimulate the newborn. Begin ventilations and chest compressions.

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. epinephrine and norepinephrine. B. glucagon and noradrenaline. C. acetylcholine and insulin. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, except: Select one: A. Combitubes, or laryngeal mask airways. B. adult and pediatric bag-valve masks. C. mounted and portable suctioning units. D. various sizes of oral and nasal airways.

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: A. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity. B. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. C. distance between the two AED pads on the chest. D. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. cerebral cortex. C. cerebrum. D. brain stem.

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pink, warm, and dry. B. pink, warm, and moist. C. pale, cool, and moist. D. flushed, cool, and dry.

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: Select one: A. carbon dioxide. B. pyruvic acid. C. carbon monoxide. D. lactic acid.

Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. B. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. C. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain. D. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.

Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A.a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. B.a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. C.bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain. D.a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: Select one: A. referred pain. B. radiating pain. C. visceral pain. D. remote pain.

Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because: Select one: A.substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration. B.food will rapidly travel through the digestive system. C.digestion prevents accurate auscultation of bowel sounds. D.it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis.

Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: Select one: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. C. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.

Peritonitis usually occurs when: Select one: A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents. B. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. C. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. D. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed.

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis might have: Select one: A. low birth weight babies. B. babies that deliver after 42 weeks. C. secondary cervical cancer. D. hypertension later in life.

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. repeating the primary assessment. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. reviewing all treatment performed. D. reassessing the nature of illness.

Regarding medical terminology, the foundation of the word is called the: Select one: A. root. B. combining vowel. C. prefix. D. suffix.

Relative to the ankle, the knee is: Select one: A. proximal. B. lateral. C. medial. D. superior.

Relative to the ankle, the knee is: Select one: A.proximal. B.superior. C.lateral. D.medial.

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: Select one: A. place her in a supine position. B. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. C. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D. transport her in a sitting position.

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: Select one: A. coughing up blood. B. an irregular pulse. C. multiple rib fractures. D. vomiting blood.

Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, except: Select one: A. bulging fontanelles. B. profound tachycardia. C. dry mucous membranes. D. delayed capillary refill.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except: Select one: A. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. B. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.

Skeletal muscle is also called: Select one: A. voluntary muscle. B. involuntary muscle. C. autonomic muscle. D. smooth muscle.

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.

The goal of the primary assessment is to: Select one: A. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions. B. determine if the patient's problem is medical or traumatic. C. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. D. determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment.

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: Select one: A. low blood oxygen levels. B. high blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: A. removing sodium and water from the body. B. accommodating a large amount of blood volume. C. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. D. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.

The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: Select one: A. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash. D. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure.

The medical term for painful or difficult urination is: Select one: A. dysuria. B. anuria. C. oliguria. D. polyuria.

The medical term for painful or difficult urination is: Select one: A. dysuria. B. anuria. C. polyuria. D. oliguria.

The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: Select one: A. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. B. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. C. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection. D. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged.

The most common presenting sign of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is: Select one: A. generalized lower abdominal pain. B. vomiting. C. foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. nausea.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. coccyx. B. sacrum. C. ischium. D. ilium.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A.coccyx. B.sacrum. C.ischium. D.ilium.

The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear at least three layers of clothing. B. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton. C. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. D. avoid outer clothing with zippers.

The most frequently used date rape drug is: Select one: A.alcohol. B.Xanax. C.ketamine. D.Ecstasy.

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures. Select one: A. midline B. proximal C. midaxillary D. superior

The onset of labor begins with: Select one: A. contractions of the uterus. B. increased fetal movement. C. full dilation of the cervix. D. thinning of the uterus.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. C. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. D. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented.

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: Select one: A. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. B. in the fossa behind the knee. C. on the dorsum of the foot. D. between the trachea and the neck muscle.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Select one: A. systolic pressure. B. pulse pressure. C. apical pulse. D. diastolic pressure.

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: Select one: A. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. B. one half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. C. one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest. D. two thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. meningeal deterioration. C. a decrease in neurons. D. blood vessel dilation.

The root word cirrh/o means: Select one: A. yellow-orange. B. blood cell. C. kidney. D. liver.

The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior. B. a medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning. C. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications. D. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member.

The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is: Select one: A. inferior. B. superior. C. dorsal. D. internal

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. position the ambulance upwind. B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. park downhill from the scene. D. ask the driver to exit the vehicle.

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: Select one: A. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior. B. carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior. C. avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas. D. check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. C. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated. D. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. cardiovascular disease. B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes. C. reactive airway disease. D. bacterial infection.

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. cardiovascular disease. B. reactive airway disease. C. non-insulin-dependent diabetes. D. bacterial infection.

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A.cardiovascular disease. B.reactive airway disease. C.non-insulin-dependent diabetes. D.bacterial infection.

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Select one: A. wiggle his or her toes on command. B. feel you touching the extremity. C. identify different types of stimuli. D. note any changes in temperature.

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. Select one: A. brachial B. femoral C. carotid D. radial

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate: He develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. abandonment

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. C. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: Select one: A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. B. flexing your body at the knees. C. the use of more than two EMTs. D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

When communicating information over the radio, you should: Select one: A. use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no." B. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital. C. respond professionally by saying "please" and "thank you." D. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes.

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words. B. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical terminology. C. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses. D. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement.

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: Select one: A. use the patient's own words. B. use medical terminology. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document his or her own perception.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.

When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A.When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others B.Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior C.Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member D.Anytime that the EMT feels threatened

When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the: Select one: A. jaw-thrust maneuver. B. head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. tongue-jaw lift maneuver. D. head tilt-neck lift maneuver.

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. brief and easily understood. B. spoken in a loud voice. C. coded and scripted. D. lengthy and complete.

When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: Select one: A. take quick short breaths. B. push for 30 seconds. C. rest and breathe deeply. D. hold her breath.

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Oncotic D. Osmotic

When transferring the care of a patient to a hospital or other receiving facility, you may provide necessary information about the patient's condition: Select one: a. To any staff member at the receiving facility who is involved in the patient's care b. Only to another licensed nurse or physician c. To the first person that you see who looks like they work for the organization d. No one, since HIPAA does not permit you to share this type of information with other providers

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. they might need to call a specialist to see the patient. B. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. C. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: Select one: A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. B. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade. C. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid. D. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient.

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: Select one: A. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over. B. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. C. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible. D. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. B. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. C. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. D. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress.

When worn properly, a seat belt should lie: Select one: A. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. B. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints. C. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints.

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: Select one: A. become smaller. B. dilate. C. not react. D. become larger.

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. given the option of being treated by a female EMT. B. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist. C. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator. D. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes.

Where would you look to find out who to call in case of a work related exposure? Select one: a. Exposure Control Plan (ECP) b. State/Regional EMS Guidelines c. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) d. CDC Response Guide

Which agency oversees, regulates, and sets standards for the workplace environment? Select one: a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. International Standards Organization (ISO) c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) d. Workplace Safety Association (WSA)

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) mostaffects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Protecting patient privacy B. Preventing insurance fraud C. Ensuring access to insurance D. Controlling insurance costs

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal-onset aware seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that begins in one extremity B. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura C. A generalized seizure without incontinence D. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Select one: A. Posterior B. Anterior C. Palmar D. Medial

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Select one: A.Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge B.Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness C.Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever D.Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Select one: A. Wheezing B. Hypotension C. Dizziness D. Pallor

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Substance abuse B. Alzheimer's disease C. Depression D. Schizophrenia

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the most unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? Select one: A. Abnormal spinal curvature B. Naturally deformed bones C. Patient disorientation D. Joint flexibility

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Elevated blood glucose C. Limited physical contact D. Dimly lit environment

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Hypovolemia B. Hypoglycemia C. A postictal state D. Intracranial bleeding

Which of the following conditions would most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: A. Seizure disorder B. Paralysis C. Type 2 diabetes D. Brain tumors

Which of the following describes appropriate handling of medical sharps (e.g. needles)? Select one: a. Engage any safety features and place into a hard plastic container b. Insert the sharp end into a block of softer material to protect it c. Engage any safety features and place into a bio-hazard bag d. Replace the cap, if present, over the needle to cover it and put it into a hard plastic container

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? Select one: A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. B. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch. C. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. D. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? Select one: A.Beta blocker medications B.Anxiety or severe stress C.Lack of a regular exercise routine D.Internal bleeding from trauma

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment. B. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. C. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. D. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of collisions in a typical impact in a motor vehicular crash? Select one: A. Collision of two passenger bodies within the same vehicle B. Collision of the passenger against the interior of the car C. Collision of the internal organs against the body's solid structures D. Collision of a car against another car, a tree, or another object

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Select one: A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. The systolic blood pressure decreases. C. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. D. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.

Which of the following is a safety concern regarding immunizations? Select one: a. They may produce adverse reactions in immuno-compromised individuals b. They may cause Autism Spectrum Disorder c. They often lead to active infectious disease when administered. d. They are not subjected to routine and rigorous testing prior to human use.

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination B. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever C. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic D. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up"

Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team? Select one: A. Providing safe entry and access to patients B. Initial triage and patient prioritization C. Providing emergency care during extrication D. Shutting off power to downed electrical lines

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Local swelling and ecchymosis B. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites C. General weakness and diaphoresis D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. B. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. C. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient. D. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route.

Which of the following is an example of closed-loop communication? Select one: A. The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader. B. The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep. C. EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch. D. The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.

Which of the following is an example of exposure by direct contact? Select one: a. A patient's blood comes into contact with an uncovered abrasion on your hand b. A needle that has been used with a patient pokes through your skin c. A patient's respiratory droplets from a sneeze land on a counter top that you later touch d. A tick carries bacteria in its gut and transfers that into your body when it bites you

Which of the following is most characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? Select one: A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement B. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis C. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Increased weight B. Overall health C. Medications D. Medical conditions

Which of the following is not a factor in determining how to protect oneself against the effects of radiation? Select one: A. Body size B. Time C. Distance D. Shielding

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Long backboard B. Portable stretcher C. Scoop stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Select one: A. "Does your mother have diabetes?" B. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" C. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" D. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? Select one: A. Oral B. Inhalation C. Rectal D. Sublingual

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Select one: A. "What seems to be the matter?" B. "Are you having trouble breathing?" C. "When did the chest pain begin?" D. "Do you have a history of diabetes?"

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin C. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain D. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): Select one: A.histamine. B.leukotriene. C.antibody. D.allergen.

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. D. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia.

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT most likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min B. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: A. Weight loss and polyuria B. Weight gain and edema C. Low blood glucose level D. Total lack of appetite

Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS? Select one: A. Bleeding control using a tourniquet B. Administration of supplemental oxygen C. Obtaining a manual blood pressure D. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Stridor B. Wheezing C. Rhonchi D. Rales

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than four hours. B. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. C. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within six hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. D. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body.

Which of the following statements regarding hearing aids is correct? Select one: A. Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels. B. A whistling sound indicates correct hearing aid placement. C. Over time, hearing aids can restore normal hearing. D. In-the-canal hearing aids fit in the outer part of the ear.

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Select one: A. Patients with hemophilia might bleed spontaneously. B. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. C. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. D. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets.

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct? Select one: A. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection. B. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids. C. Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful. D. Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate.

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. B. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. C. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. D. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct? Select one: A. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. B. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide. C. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life. D. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children.

Which of the following statements regarding rebound tenderness is correct? Select one: A. It is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly. B. It should be assessed for by vigorously palpating the abdomen. C. The absence of rebound tenderness rules out intra-abdominal injury. D. Rebound tenderness is a specific sign found with a spleen injury.

Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is correct? Select one: A. Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible. B. Standing orders require you to contact medical control first before providing an intervention. C. Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio. D. Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide.

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. B. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. C. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Select one: A. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. D. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.

Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is correct? Select one: A. A person taking blood thinners will experience slower blood clotting. B. Bleeding begins to clot when the end of a damaged vessel dilates. C. Venous and capillary blood typically do not clot spontaneously. D. Direct contact with the environment prevents blood from clotting.

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? Select one: A. The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body's fluid balance. B. Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body's blood volume passes through them each minute. C. A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries. D. Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen.

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: Select one: A. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-mask device. B. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. C. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. D. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask.

While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated: Select one: A. situational awareness. B. constructive intervention. C. crew resource management. D. closed-loop communication.

While transferring patient care to another healthcare provider, you should be: Select one: A. respectful. B. aggressive. C. patient. D. assertive.

While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to: Select one: A. carefully exceed the posted speed limit. B. drive as fast as the department allows. C. proceed through red lights without stopping. D. disregard all traffic control signals.

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: Select one: A. the blood vessels become stiff. B. the blood thickens as a person ages. C. the arteries dilate significantly. D. diastolic blood pressure decreases.

You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? Select one: A. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders. B. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport. C. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. D. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation.

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: Select one: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. administer continuous positive airway pressure. D. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. B. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. ventilate the patient for five minutes and then stop if there is no response.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. B. ventilate the patient for five minutes and then stop if there is no response. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. B. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. C. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. D. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: Select one: A. a black widow spider bite. B. a brown recluse spider bite. C. envenomation from a pit viper. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: Select one: A. a black widow spider bite. B. envenomation from a pit viper. C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. D. a brown recluse spider bite.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: Select one: A. a ruptured cerebral artery. B. a complex partial seizure. C. an occluded cerebral artery. D. acute hypoglycemia.

You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system? Select one: A. Rapid eye movement B. Excessive tearing or crying C. Consistent eye contact D. An irregular pulse

You are assessing a man with suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious, alert, and actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and the pulse oximeter reads 72%. The pulse oximetry reading is most likely: Select one: A. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities. B. accurate because he has signs of respiratory failure. C. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate. D. accurate because shivering affects hemoglobin binding.

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient exhales, and before inhaling, the patient should put his or her lips around the inhaler, take a deep breath, and depress the inhale. You should: Select one: A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

You are called to treat a 51-year-old man by his wife because he is acting strangely. He is found to be alert but disoriented and slurring his speech. He has no medical history and does not take any medications. When his blood glucose level is checked, the glucometer displays the message "Lo". This indicates: Select one: a. Blood glucose level is too low to read b. Glucometer battery is too low to read c. Blood volume on the test strip is too low to read d. The drop of blood on the test strip was placed too low

You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should: Select one: A. provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once. B. recognize that you cannot begin treatment without expressed parental consent. C. administer oxygen only until you receive parental consent for further treatment. D. transport the child to the closest hospital and let the staff there provide any treatment.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. B. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. C. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. B. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. C. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex to respond to a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: Select one: A. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. B. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. C. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment. D. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex to respond to a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: Select one: A.quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. B.obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. C.treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence. D.drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: Select one: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. B. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning.

You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should: Select one: A. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care. B. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. C. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care. D. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service.

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. assist his ventilations. B. apply a pulse oximeter. C. assess his blood pressure. D. request a paramedic unit.

You are managing a newborn baby boy whose mother used heroin throughout the pregnancy. The newborn is now having an opioid related seizure. How should this be managed? Select one: a. Do not administer naloxone at all b. Administer intramuscular naloxone c. Administer half the usual dose of naloxone and titrate to stop the seizure d. Administer intranasal naloxone

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: A. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. B. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. C. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. D. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only.

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Osmotic D. Oncotic

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. B. repeat your secondary assessment. C. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. D. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.

You are treating a 31-year-old female with type 1 diabetes. She has been sick with a respiratory infection for the last several days. She has not been taking her medications. Today, she presents with progressive confusion, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her skin is flush and warm to the touch. Which of the following is most correct about this patient? Select one: a. Her BGL is most likely high. Glucose should not be given. b. Her BGL is most likely low. Glucose should not be given. c. Her BGL is most likely high. Glucose should be given. d. Her BGL is most likely low. Glucose should be given.

You are treating a 41-year-old male with a history of alcohol dependence who is alert and speaking but appears very intoxicated and confused and is found with a large empty alcoholic beverage container. His blood glucose level is 59 mg/dL. How should this blood glucose level be managed? Select one: a. Give glucose since his BGL is low. b. Do not give glucose since his BGL is high. c. Do not give glucose since his primary problem is not diabetes. d. Give glucose since he is probably diabetic.

You are treating a 50-year-old type 2 diabetic male patient. He is pale, cool, and clammy and is very confused. You have attempted to check his blood glucose level with a glucometer several times but have been unable to get a reading due to an error code. What treatment should now be provided? Select one: a. Treat for hypoglycemia b. Treat for hyperglycemia c. Provide only supportive care and transport until a blood sugar level can be obtained. d. Withhold treatment since it cannot be determined if his blood sugar level is high or low.

You are treating a 54-year-old man with tightness in his chest after doing yard work on a warm sunny day. You retrieve his Nitrostat from the kitchen windowsill and bring it over to him. Which of the following statements is most true? Select one: a. The patient should be asked if there is a fresh bottle of Nitrostat available instead. b. The patient should not be allowed to take the medication without a paramedic on scnee. c. The patient should be allowed to take the medication as prescribed without further assessment. d. The patient should be asked to show documentation of the prescription to prove that it is his.

You are treating a 66-year-old male patient for suspected ACS. His cardiologist has prescribed a daily aspirin, nitroglycerin as needed, and metoprolol. On further history taking, you learn his primary care physician has prescribed lisinopril, atorvastatin, and tedalafil. He has taken all of these medications today except for his nitroglycerin. How should you proceed? Select one: a. Do not administer the nitroglycerin because it is contra-indicated based on treatment provided by his primary care physician. b. Do not administer the nitroglycerin because the metoprolol may prevent his heart rate from compensating for the effect of the nitroglycerin. c. Administer the nitroglycerin after confirming his vital signs do not contra-indicate it. d. Administer the nitroglycerin since it is prescribed by his cardiologist.

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: Select one: A. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. B. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. C. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerins, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort. D. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg because aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure.

You are treating a patient with shortness of breath using a nasal cannula with the flow regulator adjusted to 6 Lpm and pulse oximetry shows 92 %. What is the next appropriate treatment? Select one: a. Change to a non-rebreathing mask and adjust the flow to 15 Lpm b. Adjust the flow to 8 Lpm c. Change to a non-rebreathing mask and adjust the flow to 8 Lpm d. Adjust the flow to 4 Lpm

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement, "He has a gun!". Your mostappropriate action should be to: Select one: A. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance. B. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. C. continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. D. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately.

You have been tasked by your medical director with assisting in the development of your EMS agency's institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to: Select one: A. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening EMS personnel. B. expect personnel to function beyond their scope of practice if needed. C. require personnel to transport all patients to the closest hospital. D. demand that all personnel consistently exceed the standard of care.

You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? Select one: A. Check the pulse rate at the brachial artery. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing. D. Allow the mother to hold her baby.

You receive a call for a sick person. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 75-year-old male, lying unresponsive in his bed. His respirations are slow and irregular, and his pulse is slow and weak. His daughter tells you that he fell the day before but refused to allow her to call 9-1-1. His past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism, deep vein thrombosis, heavy alcohol use, and liver cirrhosis. His medications include blood thinners and vitamins. You should be most suspicious that this patient is experiencing: Select one: A. a subdural hematoma. B. diabetic ketoacidosis. C. acute ischemic stroke. D. acute hyperglycemia.

You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: Select one: A. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling. C. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: A. ventilate her with a bag-mask device. B. contact the poison control center. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. B. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. C. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance. D. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department.

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. immediately evaluate his airway. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. assess the rate and quality of his pulse.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. B. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. C. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. D. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

You should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: Select one: A. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. B. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. C. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. D. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.

You would expect a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing to be in which of the following positions? Select one: A. Fowler B. Prone C. Recovery D. Supine

You would expect a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing to be in which of the following positions? Select one: A. Fowler B. Recovery C. Prone D. Supine

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. reticular activating system. B. limbic system. C. pons and medulla. D. cerebellum.

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad. B. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pad.

Your patient answers your questions appropriately, although her eyes remain closed the entire time. She moves each extremity on command, although her left side is weaker than the right. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 12 B. 14 C. 13 D. 15

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this? Select one: A. Heart failure B. Diabetes C. Seizures D. Hypertension

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. B. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. C. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. D. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings.

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: A. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs. B. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. C. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen. D. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil.

Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an intoxicated inmate. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has slow, shallow respirations. You should be most concerned that this patient: Select one: A. might vomit and aspirate. B. is severely hypoglycemic. C. might experience a seizure. D. might become violent.

In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding might be: Select one: A. diaphoresis and pale skin. B. weakness or dizziness. C. a low blood pressure. D. a heart rate over 120 beats/min.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Select one: A. referred. B. radiating. C. provoking. D. palliating.

A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child's mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your primary assessment of the child, you should: Select one: A. induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. B. contact the regional poison control center. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. administer 25 g of activated charcoal.

A newborn at 1 minute old has an Apgar score of 2. What is the significance of this? Select one: a. Low 1 minute Apgar scores predict the newborn will not survive and newborn care can stop b. Low 1 minute Apgar scores are common and the newborn will likely improve with appropriate care c. Low 1 minute Apgar scores are worrying and the newborn is at high risk d. Low 1 minute Apgar scores are common and no specific action is needed

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she: Select one: A.has a low blood glucose level. B.is significantly hyperglycemic. C.has overdosed on her insulin. D.has a urinary tract infection.

A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning, and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: A. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. B. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar. C. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds. D. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem.

A 20-year-old female is found unresponsive with an empty bottle of alcohol and an empty pill bottle labeled to have contained 30 Percocet tablets each with 10 mg oxycodone. To reverse this overdose, you should administer: Select one: a. Naloxone 4 - 8 mg Intranasal b. Naloxone 2 - 4 mg Intranasal c. EMTs do not have an antidote for this. d. Naloxone 2 - 4 mg Intramuscular

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A.wrap the towel with pressure bandages. B.apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C.apply pressure to the brachial artery. D.administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.

A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: Select one: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. provide rescue breathing, remove his wet clothing, immobilize his entire spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. C. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly. D. ventilate with a bag-valve mask, apply a rigid cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly.

A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: Select one: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. provide rescue breathing, remove his wet clothing, immobilize his entire spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. C. ventilate with a bag-valve mask, apply a rigid cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly. D. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.

A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious but restless and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. You should: Select one: A. splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport without delay. B. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay. C. apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. splint each of his deformed femurs with air splints, elevate his lower extremities, and transport.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. Intravenous fluid administration B. Rapid transport to a trauma center C. High-flow oxygen administration D. Full immobilization of her spine

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: Select one: A. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. B. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. C. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport. D. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.

A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his forearm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed. Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be most concerned that this patient has: Select one: A. damage to the radial nerve. B. compartment syndrome. C. internal hemorrhage. D. a severe closed fracture.

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. an antihistamine. B. epinephrine. C. a beta-antagonist. D. albuterol.

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. B. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how should you care for his wound? Select one: A. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. B. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing. C. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. D. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position.

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should: Select one: A.carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. B.place her in a left lateral recumbent position. C.position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches. D.ventilate her with a bag-mask device.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A. hypoxia and overhydration. B. acidosis and dehydration. C. irreversible renal failure. D. severe insulin shock.

A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: Select one: A. fully immobilize his spinal column. B. begin CPR and apply the AED. C. assess for entry and exit wounds. D. begin CPR and transport at once.

A 39-year-old male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should: Select one: A. ensure the patient has a patent airway. B. control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. D. apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. B. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. C. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. B. calmly identify yourself to the patient. C. tell the patient that you want to help. D. approach the patient with caution.

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? Select one: A. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. B. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. C. Avoid defibrillation because this will damage the patient's AICD. D. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.

A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries is the LEAST likely? Select one: A. Pulmonary contusion B. Head injury C. Cardiac contusion D. Multiple rib fractures

A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. B. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. C. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. D. placing a rolled 4 × 4-inch dressing between his lower lip and gum.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. assess the adequacy of his respirations. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.

A patient has bilateral femur fractures. This means that: Select one: A. both fractures are closer to the knee. B. both femurs are fractured. C. the femur is fractured in two places. D. both fractures are closer to the hips.

Which of the following is a correct single dose of nitroglycerin? Select one: a. 4.0 g b. 0.4 mg c. 4.0 mg d. 0.4 g

A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: A. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin. B. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours. C. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control. D. place him in a supine position and transport at once.

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. Select one: A. proximal B. distal C. superior D. dorsal

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: A. repeat the primary assessment. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. inquire about his family history. D. perform a head-to-toe assessment.

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. perform a head-to-toe exam. D. allow him to drink plain water.

A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: Select one: A. ignore the family member and assess the patient. B. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. C. tell the family member that it is not your fault. D. subdue the family member until the police arrive.

A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: Select one: A. radius and ulna. B. distal radius. C. distal ulna. D. proximal radius.

A Level 4 hazardous material: Select one: A. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided. B. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard. C. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus. D. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of the skin's surface is exposed.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. nitrogen. B. heat. C. oxygen. D. lactic acid.

A critical function of the safety officer is to: Select one: A. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety. B. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger. C. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim. D. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for ___ hour(s) or more. Select one: A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The mostappropriate treatment for her includes: Select one: A. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. C. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. D. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min.

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The mostappropriate treatment for her includes: Select one: A. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. B. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. C. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min.

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: Select one: A. distal forearm fracture. B. distal humerus fracture. C. proximal elbow fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20′ from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The most appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: Select one: A. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. B. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. C. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher. D. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device.

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress, and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally, and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. tension pneumothorax. B. pulmonary contusion. C. massive hemothorax. D. traumatic asphyxia.

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: A. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. C. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. D. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse fell from a second-story balcony. His blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his skin is cool and pale. When caring for this patient, the EMT should recall that: Select one: A. patients with alcoholism are prone to hyperglycemia. B. reduced blood clotting worsens internal bleeding. C. alcohol is a stimulant, which likely caused his fall. D. patients with alcoholism are prone to hyperthermia.

A medical transport helicopter is incoming, and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. B. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. C. use yellow caution tape to mark off the LZ perimeter. D. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ.

A pregnant trauma patient might lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: A. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. B. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. C. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. D. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate.

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Select one: A. irregular. B. regular. C. weak. D. strong.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: Select one: A. urticaria. B. a wheal. C. purpura. D. a pustule.

A sign of respiratory distress seen in the neck is: Select one: A. muscular definition. B. accessory muscle use. C. muscular atrophy. D. muscular twitches.

A sign of respiratory distress seen in the neck is: Select one: A. muscular twitches. B. accessory muscle use. C. muscular definition. D. muscular atrophy.

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. B. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. C. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. D. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting.

A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? Select one: A. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black) B. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black) C. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red) D. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: Select one: A. rapid and shallow. B. deep and rapid. C. slow and shallow. D. slow and deep.

Abruptio placenta occurs when: Select one: A. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. B. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. C. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening. D. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: Select one: A. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. C. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. D. use an automatic transport ventilator.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A.transport her rapidly, because it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. B.monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. C.contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. D.consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

After administering your patient's prescribed Nitrolingual, the patient becomes lightheaded, reports a pounding headache, and has a brief syncopal episode. What is the correct action to take? Select one: a. Administer the antidote quickly as this indicates an overdose. b. Lay the patient supine to increase cerebral blood flow. c. Sit the patient upright to decrease the intra-cranial pressure. d. Administer the next dose quickly as the effect is only temporary.

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should: Select one: A. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min. B. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds. C. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute. D. pause compressions to deliver ventilations.

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should: Select one: A.increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min. B.deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds. C.pause compressions to deliver ventilations. D.decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: Select one: A. inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior. B. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so. C. remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down. D. position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: Select one: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting. B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. D. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. cardiovascular system. B. respiratory system. C. endocrine system. D. immune system.

After being stung on the leg by a jellyfish, a man complains of severe pain to his leg, dizziness, and difficulty breathing. He has a red rash covering his trunk, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. The EMT should: Select one: A. remove the stingers from his leg by scraping them with a stiff object. B. administer oxygen and epinephrine and prepare for rapid transport. C. begin transport and immerse his leg in hot water to help reduce pain. D. apply warmth to the sting area and cover it with a dry sterile dressing.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. assess for a carotid pulse. B. immediately resume CPR. C. transport the patient at once. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

All of the following are exceptions under HIPAA where you may release protected health information to law enforcement without the patient's consent, except: Select one: a. When a state law requires that you notify police regarding the type of injury your patient received b. When law enforcement suspects that your patient may be intoxicated and asks you to render an opinion as to the patient's condition or state of intoxication c. To help police locate a suspect, fugitive, material witness or missing person d. To report a crime in an emergency, such as when there could be immediate danger to others

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, except the: Select one: A. stomach. B. spleen. C. bladder. D. ureters.

All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, except: Select one: A. smallpox. B. ricin. C. viral hemorrhagic fevers. D. pneumonic plague.

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: Select one: A. severe infection. B. ischemic stroke. C. anaphylaxis. D. spinal injury.

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, except: Select one: A. frostnip. B. frostbite. C. immersion foot. D. trench foot.

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. advanced EMT (AEMT).

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. advanced EMT (AEMT). B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. EMT.

An effective team leader should: Select one: A. command his or her team. B. help the team accomplish goals. C. perform all difficult interventions. D. refrain from any direct patient care.

An effective team leader should: Select one: A. command his or her team. B. help the team accomplish goals. C. refrain from any direct patient care. D. perform all difficult interventions.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Select one: A. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. B. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. C. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. B. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. C. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. D. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.

An injured brain begins to swell initially due to: Select one: A. intracranial pressure. B. cerebral edema. C. a coup-contrecoup injury. D. an epidural hematoma.

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? Select one: A. Recumbent B. Prone C. Supine D. Dorsal

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. B. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. C. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. D. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.

As many as 40% of patients with Down syndrome have: Select one: A. intracranial bleeding. B. a heart condition. C. unilateral paralysis. D. diabetes mellitus.

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: Select one: A. mouth-to-mouth technique. B. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve. C. one-person bag-valve mask. D. manually triggered ventilation device.

As you and your team are removing an unresponsive patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should: Select one: A. realign the deformed extremities before continuing. B. support the injured extremities and continue removal. C. splint the deformities before moving her any further. D. assess distal neurovascular functions in her extremities.

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: A. reduces the associated chest pain. B. prevents the aggregation of platelets. C. dissolves the coronary artery clot. D. causes direct coronary vasodilation.

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: A.dissolves the coronary artery clot. B.prevents the aggregation of platelets. C.reduces the associated chest pain. D.causes direct coronary vasodilation.

Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will MOST likely reveal: Select one: A. warm, dry skin. B. combativeness. C. hyperactivity. D. sunken eyes.

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. B. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 70 beats/min. B. 100 beats/min. C. 80 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: Select one: A. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. B. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D. proceed with normal extrication procedures.

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. B. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes.

Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: Select one: A. increase the pitch of your voice. B. lower the pitch of your voice. C. speak in a monotone voice. D. try basic sign language first.

Before giving activated charcoal, you should: Select one: A. have the patient drink a glass of milk. B. obtain approval from medical control. C. mix the suspension by stirring the bottle. D. mix it with an equal amount of water.

Before giving activated charcoal, you should: Select one: A. mix it with an equal amount of water. B. obtain approval from medical control. C. have the patient drink a glass of milk. D. mix the suspension by stirring the bottle.

Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen after blunt trauma is most suggestive of injury to the: Select one: A. kidney. B. liver. C. spleen. D. stomach.

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. the carotid pulse is very weak. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. rigor mortis is obvious. D. signs of putrefaction are present.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. AEMT. D. EMR.

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: Select one: A. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools. B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers. C. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed. D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: Select one: A.leukocytes and epinephrine. B.histamines and leukotrienes. C.adrenaline and histamines. D.the bee venom itself.

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: A. conjunctivitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. retinitis.

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except: Select one: A. Actidose. B. Fructose. C. InstaChar. D. LiquiChar.

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. drowsiness. C. dizziness. D. headache.

Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, except: Select one: A. chest wall ecchymosis. B. hematemesis. C. tachypnea. D. localized pain.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, except: Select one: A. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears. B. a rapid, thready pulse. C. decerebrate posturing. D. widening pulse pressure.

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. persistent dry cough. B. drying of the eyes. C. abdominal cramps. D. flushing of the skin.

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. warm, dry skin. B. cool, clammy skin. C. acetone breath odor. D. rapid, thready pulse.

During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader asks the EMT to ventilate the patient at a rate of 20 breaths/min, and the EMT replies, "Actually, sir, the correct ventilation rate is 10 breaths/min." This is an example of: Select one: A. situational awareness. B. constructive intervention. C. closed-loop communication. D. quality assurance monitoring.

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. Select one: A. 90 to 100 mL B. 70 to 80 mL C. 100 to 120 mL D. 40 to 50 mL

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. C. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. D. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.

During your assessment of a 50-year-old male who was found unresponsive in an alley, you note that he has slow, shallow respirations; bradycardia; facial cyanosis; and pinpoint pupils. As your partner begins assisting the patient's ventilations, he directs your attention to the patient's arms, which have multiple needle tracks on them. Which of the following would most likely explain the patient's presentation? Select one: A. Alcohol intoxication B. Heroin overdose C. Closed-head injury D. Delirium tremens

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. severe chest trauma. B. respiratory arrest. C. a cardiac dysrhythmia. D. a drug overdose.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. perform a rapid secondary assessment. D. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

EMRs such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because: Select one: A. they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures. B. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs. C. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. D. they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.

EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers "feel like needles." The EMTs should suspect: Select one: A. a seizure. B. a cervical spine injury. C. an intracranial hemorrhage. D. hydrocephalus.

EMTs are dispatched for a patient whose central venous catheter is malfunctioning. When they arrive and assess the patient, they find bleeding from the tubing attached to the line. The EMTs should: Select one: A. carefully remove the catheter and transport. B. apply direct pressure to the tubing and transport. C. request an ALS ambulance to clamp the tubing. D. gently manipulate the catheter to reduce the bleeding.

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: Select one: A. bruising only. B. pain and distention. C. significant hypotension. D. widespread ecchymosis.

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. B. jaundice and abdominal pain. C. loss of appetite and a cough. D. pain in the muscles and joints.

Eclampsia is most accurately defined as: Select one: A. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg. B. seizures that result from severe hypertension. C. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. D. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy.

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. B. removal from a dangerous situation or position. C. using heavy equipment to access a patient. D. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim.

Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, shallow breathing, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment. B. provide ventilation assistance with a bag valve mask. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. place her supine and elevate her lower extremities.

For which route of transmission would a surgical mask be insufficient (compared to an N95 HEPA respirator)? Select one: a. Direct contact b. Airborne c. Indirect contact d. Droplet borne

Force acting over a distance is the definition of: Select one: A. latent energy. B. work. C. kinetic energy. D. potential energy.

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, except: Select one: A. control of external hemorrhage. B. immobilization of the injury. C. prevention of contamination. D. protection from further injury.

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: A. when the airway is completely obstructed. B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. in patients who are intubated.

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery C. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, except: Select one: A. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B. removing the tube if the area around it appears infected. C. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible. D. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug.

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include: Select one: A. leaning back from your waist when lifting. B. constant communication with your partners. C. maintaining slight flexion of your back. D. slightly twisting your body when carrying.

General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include: Select one: A. maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars. B. asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind. C. parking the ambulance in a location that is upwind and downhill. D. taking standard precautions before entering any HazMat scene.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. cholinergic. B. opioid. C. hypnotic. D. sympathomimetic.

High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through: Select one: A.convection. B.evaporation. C.radiation. D.conduction.

How is most of the oxygen carried in the blood? Select one: a. Dissolved in erythrocytes b. Bound to hemoglobin in erythrocytes c. Dissolved in leukocytes d. Bound to hemoglobin in leukocytes

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: Select one: A. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. B. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. C. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting. D. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure.

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: Select one: A. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting. B. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. C. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. D. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure.

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends. B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. C. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. D. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.

If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: Select one: A. it can be qualified by the EMT in charge. B. it was not performed, according to the eyes of the law. C. it cannot be used in establishing negligence. D. it was performed haphazardly by the EMT.

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should: Select one: A.keep the patient supine and elevate his legs. B.try to find the container the substance was in. C.administer naloxone via the intranasal route. D.encourage the patient to drink milk or water.

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: Select one: A. increases the patient's chance for survival. B. will decrease the driver's reaction time. C. is allowable according to state law. D. is often necessary if the patient is critical.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. reassess the patient's vital signs. B. properly dispose of the syringe. C. notify medical control of your action. D. record the time and dose given.

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. document the time the restraints were applied. B. reassess the patient's airway and breathing. C. advise the patient why restraint was needed. D. inform medical control of the situation.

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. patient-assisted B. peer-assisted C. paramedic-administered D. EMT-administered

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be most alert for: Select one: A. an increase in her blood pressure. B. seizures and cardiac dysrhythmias. C. acute respiratory depression. D. a sudden outburst of violence.

In an independent group, you would have: Select one: A. a common set of tasks. B. your own work area. C. parallel work. D. shared transportation.

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular constriction and bradycardia. B. vascular constriction and tachycardia. C. vascular dilation and bradycardia. D. vascular dilation and tachycardia.

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash. B. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse. C. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks. D. might be confused with rheumatoid arthritis.

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a behavioral health emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. B. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others. C. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. D. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance.

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a behavioral health emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. B. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others. C. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. D. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance.

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team: Select one: A. works independently. B. works interdependently. C. is not assigned specific roles. D. does not function under protocols.

In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: Select one: A. might not present with heavy vaginal bleeding. B. might present without significant abdominal pain. C. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain. D. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma.

In contrast to simple access, complex access: Select one: A. does not involve the breaking of glass. B. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. C. is a skill commonly taught to EMTs. D. often involves simply unlocking a door.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A.is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. B.is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. C.lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. D.is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves.

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they: Select one: A. are usually fatal within 30 minutes of exposure. B. are usually absorbed quickly into the body. C. absorb slowly into the body, despite their potency. D. react with the blood, which increases their toxicity.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.

In infants and children, a capillary refill time that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1

In situations where a patient refuses treatment, the proper course of action regarding furnishing your organization's Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) to the individual is to: Select one: a. Tell the individual to contact your organization or go to your organization's website if they would like a copy of your NPP b. Furnish or at least offer your NPP to the individual and make an effort to obtain the individual's signature acknowledging that they received the NPP c. Do not worry about furnishing the NPP to the patient because you probably will not collect any PHI about the individual d. Read the NPP to the patient

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Bronchi B. Alveoli C. Trachea D. Capillaries

In what circumstance are antibiotic resistant infections often encountered? Select one: a. Communities with elderly populations taking multiple medications b. Healthcare settings where antibiotics are used c. Urban settings with high population densities d. Scientific and research laboratory settings

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration B. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground transport time is 50 minutes C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away D. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and has stable vital signs

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: A. extreme restlessness. B. drooling or congestion. C. acute respiratory distress. D. skin that is cool and dry.

It is 10:30 pm, and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: Select one: A. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights. B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C. mark the proposed landing area with road flares. D. provide the flight crew with a patient status update.

It is 10:30 pm, and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: Select one: A. provide the flight crew with a patient status update. B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights. D. mark the proposed landing area with road flares.

It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may: Select one: A. inject illicit drugs. B. be homicidal as well. C. be self-destructive. D. have a definitive plan.

It is important to understand medical terminology in order to: Select one: A. avoid being sued as a result of poor documentation. B. communicate effectively with other healthcare members. C. identify and treat immediately life-threatening conditions. D. explain a patient's medical condition to him or her accurately.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who was pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay. B. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you. C. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren. D. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained.

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. elevated cholesterol. B. hypoglycemia. C. diabetes mellitus. D. hypertension.

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: Select one: A. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. B. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. C. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. D. heart rate and stroke volume.

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: Select one: A. elevating the injured extremity. B. applying local direct pressure. C. packing the wound with gauze. D. compressing a pressure point.

Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: Select one: A. too rapid of a descent. B. too rapid of an ascent. C. cold water temperature. D. alcohol consumption.

Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. C. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. D. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: Select one: A. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium. B. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. C. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. D. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries.

Older patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of: Select one: A.progressive deterioration of abdominal organ function. B.age-related deterioration of their sensory systems. C.chronic dementia, which inhibits communication. D.interactions of the numerous medications they take.

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. perform a primary assessment. C. begin treating his or her injuries. D. allow extrication to commence.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. C. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.

The EMT certification exam is designed to: Select one: A. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training. B. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills. C. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. D. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. B. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. C. performing five back slaps and five abdominal thrusts. D. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: Select one: A. take note of the patient's general appearance. B. perform a careful and thorough assessment. C. ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient. D. establish the patient's medical history early.

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. coccyx B. sacrum C. ischium D. thorax

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. Select one: A. local public health department B. human resources department C. office of the medical director D. EMS administrator or chief

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. Select one: A. office of the medical director B. human resources department C. EMS administrator or chief D. local public health department

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. B. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. C. does not receive impulses from the brain. D. is the exclusive muscle of breathing.

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. B. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. C. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. D. does not receive impulses from the brain.

The diving reflex might allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: Select one: A. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. B. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. C. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. sinoatrial node. B. coronary sinus. C. atrioventricular node. D. bundle of His.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A.atrioventricular node. B.coronary sinus. C.sinoatrial node. D.bundle of His.

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: Select one: A. pons and medulla. B. autonomic nervous system. C. somatic nervous system. D. parietal lobe.

The energy of a moving object is called: Select one: A. latent energy. B. kinetic energy. C. converted energy. D. potential energy.

The first rule of safe lifting is to: Select one: A. keep your back in a slightly curved position. B. keep your back in a straight, vertical position. C. spread your legs approximately 20″ apart. D. always lift with your palms facing down.

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. restrain the patient. B. ensure your safety. C. obtain proper consent. D. take vital signs.

The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently calls EMS is: Select one: A.making the entire EMS system look unprofessional. B.overlooking a potentially serious medical condition. C.demeaning or humiliating the patient and his or her family. D.discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future.

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: Select one: A. 60 mm Hg. B. 90 mm Hg. C. 80 mm Hg. D. 70 mm Hg.

The lower jawbone is called the: Select one: A. maxillae. B. mandible. C. mastoid. D. zygoma.

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston device for chest compressions is: Select one: A.its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size. B.the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions. C.the minimal training required to correctly operate the device. D.the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient.

The mesentery is: Select one: A. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. B. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. C. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. D. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebral cortex. B. brain stem. C. cerebrum. D. cerebellum.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): Select one: A. hematoma. B. abrasion. C. contusion. D. crush injury.

Upon arriving at the hospital after transporting a patient from whom you experienced an exposure to blood, what special actions should you take? Select one: a. Wash the site, notify your supervisor, and take down the source patient's information to follow up later b. Wash the site thoroughly, notify your supervisor, and be evaluated by a physician at the receiving hospital c. Wash the site with waterless sanitizer, notify your supervisor and contact your primary care physician for an evaluation d. Contact your primary care physician and begin a course of antibiotics immediately

Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: Select one: A. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac. B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. D. give the mother high-flow oxygen and transport at once

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. smoke or dust. B. animals or insects. C. inanimate objects. D. direct contact.

Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: Select one: A. they require less tidal volume per breath. B. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. C. there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles. D. their chest wall and ribs are very pliable.

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: Select one: A. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C. become thick and spontaneously clot. D. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 30:2 B. 15:2 C. 5:1 D. 3:1

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A.30:2 B.15:2 C.3:1 D.5:1

What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To connect the ovaries B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To produce progesterone and estrogen

What is the most appropriate way to deliver O2 to a 3-year-old with shallow breathing? Select one: a. 6 Lpm via nasal cannula b. 15 Lpm via BVM c. 15 Lpm via non-rebreather d. 10 Lpm via blow by

What range of heart rate would result in 2 points toward an Apgar score? Select one: a. > 60 bpm b. > 100 bpm c. < 60 bpm d. < 100 bpm

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children? Select one: A. Plant poisoning. B. Alkaline poison. C. Inhaled poison. D. Injected poison.

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? Select one: A. Rear-end and rotational B. Rotational and rollover C. Lateral and rollover D. Frontal and rotational

When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should: Select one: A. approach the aircraft from the uphill side. B. approach the aircraft from the downhill side. C. move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands. D. attempt to approach the aircraft from behind.

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the: Select one: A. thigh muscles. B. shoulder girdle. C. pelvic girdle. D. spinal column.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. B. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. C. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: A. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. B. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. C. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down. D. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. D. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures. B. internal bleeding might be profuse because prolonged alcohol use might impair the blood's ability to clot. C. long-bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. D. signs and symptoms of shock might be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol.

When communicating information over the radio, you should: Select one: A. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital. B. use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no." C. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes. D. respond professionally by saying "please" and "thank you."

When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, except: Select one: A. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. B. the make and model of the vehicle. C. the possibility of vehicle instability. D. the position of the crashed vehicle.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. B. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. C. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. D. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin.

When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you should deliver each breath: Select one: A. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation. B. while watching for adequate chest rise. C. every 2 to 3 seconds (20 to 30 breaths/min). D. over a period of about 2 to 3 seconds.

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: Select one: A. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. B. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. D. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. B. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem.

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Select one: A. cardiac output pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. diastolic blood pressure.

Which immunization is required to be provided by healthcare employers free of charge to each employee? Select one: a. Haemophillus Influenza B (HiB) b. Hepatitis B (HBV) c. Tetanus d. Influenza

Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? Select one: A. An intact system of blood vessels B. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen C. Adequate blood in the vasculature D. An effectively pumping heart

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm? Select one: A. Nasal discharge of blood B. Sudden, severe headache C. Unilateral hemiparesis D. Confusion and weakness

Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? Select one: A. Acute alcohol withdrawal B. Hypotension C. Acute hypoglycemia D. Poisoning or overdose

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men? Select one: A. Pancreatitis B. Cystitis C. Hepatitis D. Cholecystitis

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A. Alcoholism B. Blindness C. Depression D. Hepatitis B

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A.Hepatitis B B.Blindness C.Alcoholism D.Depression

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. Dimly lit environment B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Limited physical contact D. Elevated blood glucose

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Chlamydia C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Ovarian cysts

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? Select one: A. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. B. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. C. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Select one: A. Unresponsiveness B. Ability to speak C. Audible breathing D. Inspiratory stridor

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Liver laceration B. Cardiac tamponade C. Simple pneumothorax D. Spinal cord injury

Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? Select one: A.History of cigarette smoking B.Family history of hypertension C.Presence of personal risk factors D.History of previous heart attack

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? Select one: A. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates B. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles C. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles D. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started? Select one: A. Pulse and respirations return. B. Care is transferred to a bystander. C. You are physically exhausted. D. A physician directs you to do so.

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? Select one: A. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash B. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR D. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? Select one: A.Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR B.Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C.The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash D.Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Overall health B. Increased weight C. Medical conditions D. Medications

Which of the following is not a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks

Which of the following is not a function of the skin? Select one: A. Sensory reception B. Metabolic coordination C. Temperature regulation D. Pressure and pain perception

Which of the following is not a right that HIPAA grants to patients with respect to their protected health information (PHI)? Select one: a. The right to access their own PHI b. The right to ask a covered entity to destroy all of their own PHI c. The right to request an amendment to PHI d. The right to request an accounting of certain disclosures of PHI

Which of the following is not considered a basic technique when controlling bleeding? Select one: A. Apply direct pressure over the wound with a dry, sterile dressing. B. Apply a cervical collar and place the patient on a long backboard. C. Apply a tourniquet to an extremity above the level of the bleeding. D. Pack the wound with a hemostatic impregnated gauze.

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Scoop stretcher B. Long backboard C. Portable stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

Which of the following joints allows no motion? Select one: A. Sacroiliac joint B. Skull sutures C. Sternoclavicular joint D. Shoulder joint

Which of the following most accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: A.The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). B.The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. C.Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. D.The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique? Select one: A. Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient's torso B. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso C. Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso D. One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Diffuse urticaria B. Upper airway swelling C. Severe hypotension D. Systemic vasodilation

Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? Select one: A. Local blood vessels begin to dilate. B. Platelets collect at the injury site. C. Red blood cells become less sticky. D. Red blood cells separate from plasma.

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A.Pancreas B.Spleen C.Kidneys D.Liver

Which of the following organs is at most risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Urinary bladder C. Fallopian tubes D. Liver or spleen

Which of the following organs is not part of the digestive system? Select one: A.Gallbladder B.Kidney C.Stomach D.Pancreas

Which of the following questions is of least pertinence when the EMT is determining whether to declare a multiple-casualty incident and activate the incident command system? Select one: A. What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B. How many paramedics can respond to the scene and provide advanced care? C. How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance? D. How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested?

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema B. Dependent edema C. Labored breathing D. Flat jugular veins

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Select one: A. Decreased ability to move an extremity B. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin C. Mild pain in the lower abdomen D. Ability to follow commands

Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? Select one: A. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool B. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space C. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance D. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? Select one: A. Use of a manually triggered ventilator B. Automated external defibrillation C. Intranasal medication administration D. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia

Which of the following statements is not appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? Select one: A. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." B. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated." C. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle." D. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day."

Which of the following statements regarding anaerobic metabolism is correct? Select one: A. The body functions optimally and produces maximum ATP during anaerobic metabolism. B. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited. C. Without anaerobic metabolism, perfusion to the body will suffer and cellular death will occur. D. Anaerobic metabolism can be supported in most of the body's cells for up to 10 minutes.

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. B. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. C. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. D. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.

Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct? Select one: A. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims. B. Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia. C. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm. D. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.

Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct? Select one: A.The IM route should not be used in children. B.The 1:1000 concentration should be used. C.The preferred injection site is the upper arm. D.The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg.

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? Select one: A. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis. B. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly. C. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face. D. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin.

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. C. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? Select one: A. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet. B. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. C. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. D. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s.

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? Select one: A. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. B. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. C. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. D. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord.

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? Select one: A. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function. B. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. C. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. D. Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine.

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. C. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. D. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. PID is a life-threatening condition that is associated with shock. B. Untreated PID can lead to an ectopic pregnancy or an abscess. C. PID is an infection of the lower female reproductive organs. D. The majority of women with PID never develop symptoms.

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct? Select one: A. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide. B. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. C. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life. D. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children.

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? Select one: A. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%. B. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. C. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. D. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common.

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? Select one: A.Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape. B.Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis. C.Rape causes more physical than emotional harm. D.The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred.

Which of the following statements regarding rebound tenderness is correct? Select one: A. It should be assessed for by vigorously palpating the abdomen. B. It is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly. C. Rebound tenderness is a specific sign found with a spleen injury. D. The absence of rebound tenderness rules out intra-abdominal injury.

You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F (35°C) with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should: Select one: A. give him a liquid salt solution to drink. B. move him into the cooled ambulance. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. apply chemical ice packs to his axillae.

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. B. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. C. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? Select one: A. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. C. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. D. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval.

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Select one: A. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. B. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. C. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. D. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity.

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Select one: A.Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. B.The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. C.HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. D.The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin.

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct? Select one: A. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. B. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. C. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. D. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? Select one: A. Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body's blood volume passes through them each minute. B. The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body's fluid balance. C. A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries. D. Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen.

Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct? Select one: A. The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher. B. The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling. C. If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher. D. A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury.

Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a multiple-casualty incident or disaster site is correct? Select one: A. Delayed-priority patients should be transported five at a time. B. Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time. C. Patients who are in cardiac arrest should clearly be transported first. D. Walking wounded patients should be taken to the closest hospitals.

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? Select one: A. Axillary B. Saphenous C. Cephalic D. Subclavian

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? Select one: A. Shallow breathing B. Deep respirations C. Agonal respirations D. Irregular breathing

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: A. Suction under direct laryngoscopy B. Preoxygenation with a BVM C. Placement of the endotracheal tube D. Visualization of the vocal cords

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the airbag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: Select one: A. blunt trauma to the head. B. neck and facial injuries. C. lower extremity fractures. D. open abdominal trauma.

Why should aspirin not be administered to pediatric patients? Select one: a. The side effects are more severe in children. b. It can result in a serious neurologic complication in children. c. The risk of severe allergic reaction is higher in children. d. The indication for aspirin is never seen in children.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an "ill person." When you arrive, you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should: Select one: A. speak to the patient with a moderately louder voice to facilitate his ability to understand what you are saying. B. use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source of the patient's complaint. C. give the patient oxygen, assess his vital signs, and transport him to the hospital in a position of comfort. D. refrain from performing any assessment or treatment until you can contact someone who can function as an interpreter.

You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state, "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: Select one: A. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance. B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you. C. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located. D. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility.

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: A. determine why the patient was injured. B. provide immediate patient care. C. wait for law enforcement to arrive. D. notify medical control for advice.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. ventilate the patient for five minutes and then stop if there is no response. B. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.

You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury, and her pulse is weak and thready. You should: Select one: A. begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask. B. assign her a low priority and continue triaging. C. place a red tag on her and continue triaging. D. assess the severity of her open head injury.

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. B. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available. C. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. D. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.

You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with multiple large bruises to her chest and abdomen that she experienced during an assault. She is conscious but restless, and her skin is cool and pale. You should be most concerned with: Select one: A. obtaining a complete set of vital signs to rule out the possibility of shock. B. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally. C. performing a detailed secondary assessment to locate all of her injuries. D. assessing the bruises that overlie major organs in the chest and abdomen.

You are assessing a man with suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious, alert, and actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and the pulse oximeter reads 72%. The pulse oximetry reading is most likely: Select one: A. accurate because shivering affects hemoglobin binding. B. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities. C. accurate because he has signs of respiratory failure. D. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate.

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a "bad reaction" the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen, apply a chemical cold pack directly to the injection site, and transport at once. B. apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital. C. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain approval from medical control to assist him with his epinephrine, and transport. D. assess his ABCs and vital signs in 15 minutes and allow him to drive himself to the hospital if he remains stable.

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient exhales, and before inhaling, the patient should put his or her lips around the inhaler, take a deep breath, and depress the inhale. You should: Select one: A. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. B. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. request the rescue team to extricate him. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. D. break the window and unlock the door.

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. B. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately. C. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport. D. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport.

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: Select one: A. right-sided heart failure. B. acute pulmonary embolism. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. acute pulmonary edema.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: Select one: A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. B. Lyme disease. C. an allergic reaction. D. exposure to poison ivy.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: Select one: A. exposure to poison ivy. B. Lyme disease. C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. D. an allergic reaction.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex to respond to a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: Select one: A. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. B. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. C. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment. D. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence.

You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should: Select one: A. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service. B. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care. C. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. D. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care.

You are dispatched to the residence of a person who frequently calls 911 for nonemergency care. You should: Select one: A. refuse the call, but thoroughly document the patient's circumstances. B. ask the dispatcher to send law enforcement before you respond. C. defer the call to a local private ambulance company. D. respond under the assumption that an acute emergency exists.

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: Select one: A. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. B. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. C. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. D. advise the emergency department physician that you believe the child was intentionally abused by his parents.

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: Select one: A. alert the hospital of the situation. B. turn the backboard onto its side. C. quickly suction his oropharynx. D. reassess his breathing adequacy.

You are treated a 62-year-old man with a history of angina pectoris. He is complaining of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a prescription for nitroglycerin but no prescription for aspirin. Which of the following is true about aspirin administration? Select one: a. Aspirin should be administered only if nitroglycerin is also administered. b. Aspirin should be administered c. Aspirin should be administered only if nitroglycerin is not administered. d. Aspirin should not be administered without a prescription

You are treating a 25-year-old woman with a history of asthma. She is prescribed Proventil (albuterol) and Advair (fluticasone/salmeterol) MDIs and has both with her. Which of the following is true about administering these medications? Select one: a. You should not administer either medication because the albuterol and almeterol have the same mechanism of action and could interact. b. You should administer only the Proventil. c. You should administer the Proventil and ensure ALS comes to administer the Advair. d. You should administer both since they are prescribed to help with her asthma.

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. glucagon. B. insulin. C. oxygen. D. dextrose.

You are treating a 58-year-old diabetic female who took too much insulin and developed altered metal status. After giving 3 tubes of glucose, the patient's mental status improves. The patient says she does not want to be transported to the hospital. How should you proceed? Select one: a. The patient had altered mental status. She cannot refuse transport. b. Advise the patient that her blood sugar may decrease again without further monitoring and care. c. The patient is alert and oriented. Allow her to refuse transport if she chooses. d. Advise the patient that her blood sugar may increase dangerously after 3 tubes of glucose given her history of diabetes.

You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should: Select one: A. ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife. B. remain in a safe place and request law enforcement. C. go upstairs with caution and attempt to talk to the patient. D. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately.

You are treating a 6-year-old boy who accidentally ate a peanut butter cookie he traded with another student. He has a history of allergy to peanuts. He has urticaria present on several parts of his body. He does not have respiratory distress, signs of shock, or gastrointestinal symptoms. His prescribed Epi-Pen Jr. is available. What is the best course of action? Select one: a. Administer the Epi-Pen Jr. because the urticaria is widespread. b. Do not administer the Epi-Pen Jr. because the signs and symptoms do not meet the indication for epinephrine c. Administer his Epi-Pen Jr. before the reaction worsens. d. Do not administer the Epi-Pen Jr. because the signs and symptoms do not indicate an allergic reaction.

You are treating a patient with a history of angina who is having crushing chest pain after performing physical activity. He has a prescription for nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following would be a contra-indication to use of this medication? Select one: a. HR < 100 bpm b. SBP < 100 mm Hg c. HT > 100 bpm d. SBP > 100 mm Hg

You are treating an adult patient for a suspected acute myocardial infarction. The patient takes a daily "baby" aspirin and did take their dose this morning. How should you proceed with aspirin administration? Select one: a. Do not administer additional aspirin since they have already taken their usual dose b. Administer 81 - 243 mg of additional aspirin c. Administer 160 - 325 mg of additional aspirin d. Administer 1 more "baby" aspirin than for a patient not taking a daily dose.

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that he has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should: Select one: A. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure. B. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering. C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. D. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding.

You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes topiramate (Topamax). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser. B. obtain a description of how the seizure developed. C. ask her how long the patient has been taking his medication. D. determine when he was last seen by his physician.

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: Select one: A. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen. C. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. D. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. D. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call.

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. begin rapid transport at once. B. partially remove the dressing. C. call for a paramedic ambulance. D. begin ventilatory assistance.

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the most appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance? Select one: A. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher. B. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench. C. Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench. D. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. begin chest compressions and request backup. B. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. open the airway and give two rescue breaths.

You receive a subpoena to testify in court regarding a case that occurred two years ago in which you and your partner did not attempt resuscitation of a cardiac arrest patient. Upon receiving the subpoena, you should: Select one: A. attach an official addendum to the original patient care report. B. notify the director of your EMS system and obtain legal counsel. C. call the district attorney's office and explain the details of the case. D. contact the patient's family in an attempt to resolve the matter with them.

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should suspect that this patient: Select one: A. is a frequent and heavy heroin user. B. was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol). C. has a hangover from the night before. D. is addicted to a benzodiazepine drug.

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should suspect that this patient: Select one: A.has a hangover from the night before. B.was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol). C.is addicted to a benzodiazepine drug. D.is a frequent and heavy heroin user.

You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two treatments. After applying oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should: Select one: A. place him in a supine position, elevate his lower extremities, and transport at once. B. leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport. C. perform a detailed secondary assessment and then transport him to a dialysis center. D. treat for shock and request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene and assist you.

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. is restless and is working hard to breathe. B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. C. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. D. has an increased heart rate and retractions.

You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should: Select one: A. ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave. B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed. C. use your authority under the implied consent law. D. tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which of the following types of consent describes her agreement? Select one: A. Informed B. Expressed C. Minor's D. Implied

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. reticular activating system. C. limbic system. D. pons and medulla.

Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past four years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? Select one: A. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. B. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. C. Report the incident to your EMS medical director. D. Remain quiet and simply request another partner.

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 9 B. 8 C. 7 D. 6

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this? Select one: A. Seizures B. Heart failure C. Hypertension D. Diabetes

Your patient's symptoms include high fever, cough, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, and shortness of breath. Which of the following should you suspect? Select one: A. Hepatitis B B. MERS-CoV C. Influenza D. Whooping cough

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: A. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil. B. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs. C. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. D. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen.

Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an intoxicated inmate. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has slow, shallow respirations. You should be most concerned that this patient: Select one: A. might become violent. B. might vomit and aspirate. C. is severely hypoglycemic. D. might experience a seizure.

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? Select one: A. Level C protection B. Level D protection C. Level A protection D. Level B protection

A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: Select one: A. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside. B. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer. C. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first. D. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. observe the scene for drug bottles. B. look for drug paraphernalia. C. be alert for personal hazards. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: Select one: A.select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. B.insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. C.remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. D.continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.

A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what most likely occurred? Select one: A. Collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest B. Asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta C. Ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle D. Fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away. B. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: Select one: A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should: Select one: A. carefully probe the wound to determine its depth. B. clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing. C. assume that the arrow injured an internal organ. D. transport only if signs of shock begin to develop.

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should: Select one: A. wait for the police to examine him before providing care. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes. C. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. D. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for.

A 24-year-old woman complains of an ache in her abdomen that gets worse when she walks. She has a fever and chills and tells you that it burns when she urinates. Which of the following should you suspect? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Gonorrhea C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Chlamydia

A 26-year-old female asthma patient has been using her Ventolin (albuterol) MDI repeatedly throughout the day. Which of the following is a likely side effect? Select one: a. Nausea b. Diaphoresis c. Tachycardia d. Hypotension

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. form a general impression. B. call for an ALS ambulance. C. follow standard precautions. D. ask bystanders what happened.

A 29-year-old female presents with confusion and disorientation. Her respirations are rapid and shallow, and her pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. She is markedly diaphoretic and has an oxygen saturation of 89%. You should: Select one: A. transport immediately. B. treat her for hyperglycemia. C. provide ventilatory support. D. administer oral glucose.

A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable, and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 12 minutes. You should: Select one: A. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling. B. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. C. splint the elbow in the position found and transport. D. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation.

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector, and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. B. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. C. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. D. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance

A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: Select one: A. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax. B. perform a secondary assessment. C. aggressively manage his airway. D. request a paramedic ambulance.

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: A. reduces the associated chest pain. B. causes direct coronary vasodilation. C. prevents the aggregation of platelets. D. dissolves the coronary artery clot.

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should: Select one: A.perform a rapid secondary assessment. B.place her supine with her legs elevated. C.assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen. D.locate the area where the fire ants bit her.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. elevate his legs and keep him warm. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. ensure that his airway is patent.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. elevate his legs and keep him warm. B. ensure that his airway is patent. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: Select one: A. renal insufficiency. B. gallbladder disease. C. liver dysfunction. D. acute pancreatitis.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: Select one: A. covering the wound with a moist dressing. B. applying a tight pressure dressing. C. padding between the ear and the scalp. D. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The most appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. C. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. D. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Acute pulmonary embolism B. Rupture of the diaphragm C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Exacerbation of his COPD

A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and has respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatments is MOST appropriate for this patient? Select one: A. Positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital B. Assisted ventilation with a bag-valve mask and a head-to-toe exam C. Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment D. Oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: Select one: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen. C. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. D. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A.obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. B.give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. C.administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. D.give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. You should: Select one: A. apply a traction splint to realign the deformity. B. flex the knee slightly and apply a formable splint. C. apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg. D. bind the legs together and elevate them six feet to eight feet.

A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: Select one: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function. C. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. D. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar.

A Level 4 hazardous material: Select one: A. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided. B. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus. C. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard. D. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of the skin's surface is exposed.

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. duplex B. decoder C. repeater D. scanner

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. C. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities. D. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. B. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. C. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. D. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress, and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally, and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. traumatic asphyxia. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pulmonary contusion. D. massive hemothorax.

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury, and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cherry red, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Cold extremities B. Severe pulmonary edema C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Increased body temperature

A man with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse fell from a second-story balcony. His blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his skin is cool and pale. When caring for this patient, the EMT should recall that: Select one: A. alcohol is a stimulant, which likely caused his fall. B. patients with alcoholism are prone to hyperglycemia. C. reduced blood clotting worsens internal bleeding. D. patients with alcoholism are prone to hyperthermia.

A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position. Select one: A. supine B. recovery C. Fowler D. prone

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: Select one: A. cocaine. B. ibuprofen. C. aspirin. D. acetaminophen.

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. B. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. C. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. withdrawal. B. dependence. C. tolerance. D. addiction.

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that: Select one: A. her respiratory rate is rapid. B. her unborn baby is very large. C. she has excessive vomiting. D. she has frequent urination.

A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20 feet and is lying unresponsive on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should: Select one: A. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing. B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his cervical spine. C. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. D. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line.

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: Select one: A. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. B. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body. C. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. D. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.

A woman amputated the tip of her finger. Which directional term should be used to describe her injury location? Select one: A. Lateral B. Superior C. Distal D. Medial

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Liver

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would most likely be observed in a patient with: Select one: A. retinitis. B. contact lenses. C. a brain injury. D. conjunctivitis.

Abnormalities in metabolism are most likely to be caused by dysfunction of the: Select one: A. parathyroid gland. B. pancreas. C. thyroid gland. D. adrenal gland.

After administration of epinephrine, you reassess your patient's vital signs and find the heart rate has increased significantly. Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for this effect? Select one: a. Alpha-1 b. Beta-2 c. Beta-1 d. Alpha-2

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A.hemiplegia. B.hematemesis. C.hemostasis. D.hemolysis.

After ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's next priority when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility. B. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice. C. assess the patient's response to his or her environment. D. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment.

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. perform the intervention as ordered. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. repeat the order to medical control word for word. D. ask the physician to repeat the order.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Select one: A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function. B. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. C. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. D. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide. B. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. C. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. D. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: Select one: A. anaphylaxis. B. spinal injury. C. ischemic stroke. D. severe infection.

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, except: Select one: A. trench foot. B. frostnip. C. frostbite. D. immersion foot.

An 81-year-old female cancer patient with a valid DNR order is found with several Duragesic (fentanyl) patches applied to her body. She is completely unresponsive and her vital signs include RR 12 bpm, SpO2 96 %, HR 74 bpm, BP 114/66. What is the appropriate management of this patient? Select one: a. Administer ventilation with a BVM and supplemental O2 b. Administer naloxone to reverse the overdose c. Transport the patient to the emergency department and reassess frequently d. Administer supplemental O2 with a non-rebreather mask

An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: Select one: A. 26 weeks. B. 28 weeks. C. 20 weeks. D. 24 weeks.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. B. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. C. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. D. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport.

An infant is premature if it: Select one: A.is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 pounds. B.is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 pounds. C.weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation. D.weighs less than 5.5 pounds or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Select one: A.he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. B.the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. C.the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. D.the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position.

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: A. bulging fontanelles. B. moist oral mucosa. C. absent urine output. D. excessive tearing.

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension B. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain D. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): Select one: A. laceration. B. amputation. C. avulsion. D. incision.

An organ or tissue might better resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: Select one: A. body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased. B. heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min. C. body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C). D. systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will most likely cause: Select one: A. bleeding gastric ulcers. B. central nervous system depression. C. liver damage and failure. D. acute kidney failure.

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: Select one: A. begins to vomit. B. regains consciousness. C. requires CPR. D. has increased tidal volume.

An unresponsive trauma patient has a large open abdominal wound with massive external bleeding. You should: Select one: A. ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. open the patient's airway.

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. B. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly. C. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. D. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels.

As time progresses following a significant injury: Select one: A. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. B. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. C. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. D. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A.stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. B.guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C.stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D.reposition your hands and continue to move the patient.

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. D. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: A. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95% B. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% C. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 94% D. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97%

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: A. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97% B. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% C. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 94% D. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95%

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: Select one: A. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes. B. the body's immune system deactivates the bee's venom. C. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes. D. the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers.

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Select one: A. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: A. third-degree. B. full-thickness. C. superficial. D. partial-thickness.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. on a firm surface. B. horizontal. C. prone. D. supine.

Capillary sphincters are: Select one: A. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs. B. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion. C. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries. D. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system.

Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: Select one: A. applying traction to maintain distal pulses. B. immobilizing the leg with an air splint. C. keeping the leg at the level of the heart. D. applying chemical hot packs to the leg.

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, except: Select one: A. mental disorders. B. history of chronic disease. C. distrust of EMTs. D. fear of medical personnel.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, except: Select one: A.thorough drying with a towel. B.suctioning of the upper airway. C.positive-pressure ventilations. D.some form of tactile stimulation.

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: Select one: A. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: Select one: A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include: Select one: A. speech, pupil reaction, and memory. B. arm drift, memory, and grip strength. C. arm drift, speech, and facial droop. D. facial droop, speech, and pupil size.

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is most important because: Select one: A. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. B. bystanders might destroy the evidence. C. a secondary explosive device might detonate. D. weather conditions might change quickly.

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would most likely: Select one: A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. B. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene. C. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions. D. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. he has thrombophilia. B. he has a thrombosis. C. he has hemophilia A. D. his blood clots too quickly.

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: Select one: A. the Emergency Medical Services Act. B. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. D. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying.

EMTs are dispatched for a teenage male who is "not acting right." When they arrive, they are informed that the patient was huffing. Several cans of Freon are found near the patient. Which of the following is a unique consideration for this patient? Select one: A. Oxygen will not increase the patient's oxygen saturation. B. The pulse oximeter will yield a falsely elevated reading. C. A sudden adrenaline release can cause a fatal dysrhythmia. D. Encouraging walking will help eliminate Freon from the body.

EMTs arrive at the scene of a patient who was "found down." A family member states that she gave naloxone (Narcan) to the patient before the ambulance arrived. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: Select one: A. has a low blood glucose level. B. experienced a prolonged seizure. C. overdosed on an opioid drug. D. has a history of allergic reactions.

Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: Select one: A. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. B. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis. C. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae. D. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly.

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I can't remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. B. the traumatic experience has created a mental block. C. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. D. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say.

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. loss of appetite and a cough. B. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. C. jaundice and abdominal pain. D. pain in the muscles and joints.

Eclampsia is most accurately defined as: Select one: A.a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg. B.high levels of protein in the patient's urine. C.seizures that result from severe hypertension. D.hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy.

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who: Select one: A. have a history of esophagitis. B. have weak immune systems. C. consume a lot of alcohol. D. have uncontrolled diabetes.

Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. B. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable. C. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently.

External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because: Select one: A. veins hold smaller blood volume. B. veins carry deoxygenated blood. C. veins are under a lower pressure. D. blood typically oozes from a vein.

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA) include: Select one: A. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis. B. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks. C. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit. D. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. Select one: A. 1,500 B. 2,000 C. 1,000 D. 4,000

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include: Select one: A. leaning back from your waist when lifting. B. maintaining slight flexion of your back. C. constant communication with your partners. D. slightly twisting your body when carrying

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, except: Select one: A. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. B. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. assuming that other drivers will not see you.

Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: Select one: A. have relatively smaller heads. B. have smaller body surface areas. C. exhibit poor thermoregulation. D. have less body fat.

HIPAA permits EMS caregivers to disclose protected health information (PHI) about a patient who is incapacitated to a relative, friend, or other person if that individual: Select one: a. States that they need to know about the information b. Represents that the patient would not care if the information was shared c. Is involved in the patient's care and disclosure is in the best interest of teh patient d. Is standing in close proximity to the patient when you are rendering care

Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: Select one: A. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). B. air temperature is greater than body temperature. C. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. D. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air.

Hemoptysis is defined as: Select one: A. abnormal blood clotting. B. blood in the pleural space. C. coughing up blood. D. vomiting blood.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. C. It forces the alveoli open and increases the concentration of oxygen in the alveoli. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? Select one: A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output. C. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output. D. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output.

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: Select one: A. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. B. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure. C. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. D. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. crack cocaine. B. ecstasy. C. oxycodone (Percocet). D. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine).

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. platelets. B. whole blood. C. plasma. D. red blood cells.

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. B. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. C. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: Select one: A. severe bradycardia. B. congestive heart failure. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. cardiogenic shock.

If a law enforcement officer approaches you at the scene of a motor vehicle accident and asks to speak wit your patient, who is currently stable, the best course of action is to: Select one: a. Inform the officer that it would be a violation of HIPAA to allow him to speak with the patient b. Tell the officer that you can give him whatever information he needs to know about the patient's condition c. As long as it would not impede care, you may allow the officer to speak directly to the patient without violating HIPAA d. Simply refuse to acknowledge the officer

If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: Select one: A. excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated. B. minute volume will increase. C. minute volume will decrease. D. minute volume will remain unchanged.

If a pregnant patient must be placed onto a backboard, you should: Select one: A. elevate the head of the board six inches to prevent breathing impairment. B. raise the foot of the board 12 inches in order to maintain blood pressure. C. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. D. place a folded towel behind her head to make it easier to breathe.

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A. ignore the problem to avoid conflict. B. engage the team member at once. C. discuss the problem after the call. D. contact the medical director at once.

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. B. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. C. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. D. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. notify medical control of your action. B. record the time and dose given. C. properly dispose of the syringe. D. reassess the patient's vital signs.

In a healthy individual, the brainstem stimulates breathing on the basis of: Select one: A. decreased oxygen levels. B. increased oxygen levels. C. increased carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular dilation and tachycardia. B. vascular constriction and bradycardia. C. vascular constriction and tachycardia. D. vascular dilation and bradycardia.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. diverts blood flow to the vagina. B. thins and begins to separate. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. sheds and is expelled externally.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. sheds and is expelled externally. B. diverts blood flow to the vagina. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. thins and begins to separate.

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a behavioral health emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. B. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance. C. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others. D. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month.

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child: Select one: A.becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings. B.clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted. C.shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. D.reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. B. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. C. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. D. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves.

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who: Select one: A. has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex. B. has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL. C. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes. D. is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes.

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Select one: A. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. B. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock. C. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards. D. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle.

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is most often controlled by: Select one: A. applying chemical ice pack. B. keeping the patient warm. C. splinting the extremity. D. applying a tourniquet.

Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: Select one: A. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel. B. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism. C. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other. D. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an embolism. B. an acute arterial rupture. C. cerebral vasodilation. D. a thrombus.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A.administering high-flow oxygen. B.positioning the patient on his or her side. C.transporting the patient without delay. D.giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion.

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: Select one: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. C. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who was pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A.quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained. B.suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren. C.limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you. D.recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay.

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.

Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: Select one: A. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. B. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. C. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle. D. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle.

Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: Select one: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. B. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia. C. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. D. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch.

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the mostappropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: A. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. B. activated charcoal and glucose. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. D. amyl nitrate and naloxone.

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. constricts the veins throughout the body. B. increases blood return to the right atrium. C. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. D. increases myocardial contraction force.

Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. B. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow. C. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. D. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.

Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of: Select one: A. a kidney infection. B. acute appendicitis. C. an aortic aneurysm. D. acute pancreatitis.

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. diet and exercise. B. glyburide (Micronase). C. supplemental insulin. D. tolbutamide (Orinase).

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. tolbutamide (Orinase). B. glyburide (Micronase). C. supplemental insulin. D. diet and exercise.

Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A.intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. B.abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. C.fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. D.severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.

Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles: Select one: A. bleach. B. almonds. C. cut grass. D. garlic.

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: Select one: A. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. B. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. C. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. D. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels.

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. reviewing all treatment performed. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. repeating the primary assessment. D. reassessing the nature of illness.

Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse might cause: Select one: A. ventricular tachycardia. B. profound bradycardia. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. pulseless electrical activity.

Shock is the result of: Select one: A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. D. temporary dysfunction of a major organ.

Signs of absorbed poison exposure include all of the following, except: Select one: A. burns, itching, or irritation to the skin. B. redness of skin in light-skinned people. C. severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. D. liquid or powder on a patient's skin.

Signs of absorbed poison exposure include all of the following, except: Select one: A. redness of skin in light-skinned people. B. liquid or powder on a patient's skin. C. severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. D. burns, itching, or irritation to the skin

Signs of excited delirium include: Select one: A. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. B. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. C. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. D. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. occiput B. mastoid C. orbit D. sphenoid

The best way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: Select one: A. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. B. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. C. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible. D. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to.

The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. radius and humerus. B. tibia and radius. C. radius and ulna. D. humerus and ulna.

The cervical spine is composed of ___________ vertebrae. Select one: A.five B.four C.seven D.six

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): Select one: A. extremist political group. B. single-issue terrorist group. C. violent religious group. D. group of domestic terrorists.

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A.respiration. B.metabolism. C.perfusion. D.cardiac output.

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. the standard of care. B. the scope of practice. C. the continuum of care. D. patient care advocacy.

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on: Select one: A. local protocols. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. EMS research. D. the lead EMT's decision.

The energy of a moving object is called: Select one: A. latent energy. B. converted energy. C. kinetic energy. D. potential energy.

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. without a spinal injury. B. who complains of nausea. C. with a deformed humerus. D. with forearm lacerations.

The eyeball itself is referred to as the: Select one: A. sclera. B. cornea. C. globe. D. orbit.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: Select one: A. start of infancy. B. premature phase. C. neonatal period. D. toddler period.

The following persons are responsible for ensuring that protected health information (PHI) is not shared in violation of HIPAA: Select one: a. An EMT who works or volunteers for an ambulance provider that bills for services b. An ambulance biller that performs billing services on behalf of an ambulance provider that bills for services c. A and B d. None of the above

The germinal layer of the epidermis contains pigment granules that are responsible for skin: Select one: A. texture. B. moisture. C. color. D. temperature.

The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, except: Select one: A. postvaccine antibody titers. B. record keeping and tracking. C. family history of hepatitis. D. vaccine safety and efficacy.

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 25 and 35 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: Select one: A. peroneal arteries. B. anterior tibial arteries. C. femoral arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: Select one: A. vallecula. B. uvula. C. epiglottis. D. pharynx.

The mastoid process is located approximately: Select one: A. ½ inch anterior to the external opening of the ear. B. 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible. C. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear.

The medical term for a low blood glucose level is: Select one: A. hypotension. B. hyperglycemia. C. hypoglycemia. D. hypertension.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. ischium. B. ilium. C. coccyx. D. sacrum.

The most ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is: Select one: A. pallor. B. retractions. C. bradycardia. D. nasal flaring.

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. confusion among team members. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. injury to you or your patient. D. unnecessarily wasting time.

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. unnecessarily wasting time. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. injury to you or your patient. D. confusion among team members.

The most significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. cervical spine injury. B. mandibular immobility. C. airway compromise. D. damage to the eyes.

The most significant hazard associated with splinting is: Select one: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. C. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. D. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. C. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse. D. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department.

The optic nerve endings are located within the: Select one: A. pupil. B. cornea. C. retina. D. sclera.

The outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system, which forms the lowest part of the birth canal, is called the: Select one: A. perineum. B. uterus. C. vagina. D. cervix.

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: A. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms B. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles C. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located D. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: Select one: A. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. B. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. C. report to the incident commander for instructions. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.

Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: Select one: A. give the mother high-flow oxygen and transport at once. B. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. C. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. a wheal. B. swelling. C. hives. D. burning.

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: Select one: A.the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. B.blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion. C.the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood. D.the volume of blood returning to the atria increases.

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? Select one: A. Vomitus B. Blood clots C. The tongue D. Aspirated fluid

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 30:2 B. 5:1 C. 15:2 D. 3:1

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? Select one: A. Allows flexion of the neck B. Provides respiration C. Allows movement of the head D. Connects the scapulae together

What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol? Select one: a. Beta-1 adrenergic antagonist b. Beta-2 adrenergic antagonist c. Beta-2 adrenergic agonist d. Beta-1 adrenergic agonist

When a person is exposed to a cold environment: Select one: A. the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. B. blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. C. peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin. D. sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: Select one: A. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. C. has gathered patient history information. D. has formed a general impression of the patient.

When administering oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, you notice that the reservoir bag is fully deflating with each deep breath the patient takes. What is the most appropriate action? Select one: a. Decrease the flow rate through the mask so that the reservoir can fill. b. Immediately switch to a BVM and ventilate the patient c. Increase the flow rate to fill the reservoir d. Do nothing. This is normal functioning of the reservoir bag.

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: Select one: A. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. B. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. C. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: Select one: A. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. B. assess his mental status by having him move his head. C. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. D. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: Select one: A. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens. B. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. C. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps. D. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. B. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. D. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave.

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: Select one: A. carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior. B. check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes. C. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior. D. avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: Select one: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. C. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. D. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure.

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification: Select one: A. is striving for promotion to ALS. B. needs incident command authorization. C. risks a lawsuit. D. plays a team role.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. signs and symptoms of shock might be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. B. long-bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. C. internal bleeding might be profuse because prolonged alcohol use might impair the blood's ability to clot. D. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: A. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. B. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. C. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. D. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A.have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. B.transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. C.limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D.perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a febrile convulsion. B. respiratory distress. C. a seizure. D. an acute stroke.

When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. B. they cannot walk and are totally dependent upon you. C. their limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury. D. most patients can walk but have an unsteady gait.

When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: Select one: A. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language. B. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. C. determine the degree of the patient's impairment. D. expect the patient to have difficulty understanding.

When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: Select one: A.expect the patient to have difficulty understanding. B.recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. C.determine the degree of the patient's impairment. D.possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. D. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.

When encountering patients that you known you have treated in the past, the best practice to follow regarding distributing your organization's Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) is to: Select one: a. Ask the patient whether or not she knows about her HPAA rights and only furnish a notice to the patient if she states that she does not b. Just assume that the patient has received a notice because your policy states that every patient gets the NPP the first time that you treat them c. Always furnish a copy of the NPP to patients, whenever possible, regardless of whether or not you believe that they have received a prior notice d. Only furnish the NPP to the patient if they specifically ask for it

When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: Select one: A. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. B. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. D. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. after receiving approval from the incident commander. D. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. D. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: A. Extremities B. Abdomen C. Posterior D. Anterior chest

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: Select one: A. obtain updated vital signs. B. reassess your interventions. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. confirm medical history findings.

When should you take standard precautions during an EMS call? Select one: A. Immediately after completion of your primary assessment. B. Before you load the patient into the ambulance. C. Before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. D. After it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. respirations decrease in rate and depth. B. the brain stem inhibits respirations. C. respirations increase in rate and depth. D. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation.

When titrating oxygen therapy for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what is an appropriate target? Select one: a. SpO2 < 94 b. SpO2 >/= 94 c. SpO2 >/= 90 d. SpO2 < 90

When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you should deliver each breath: Select one: A. every 2 to 3 seconds (20 to 30 breaths/min). B. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation. C. while watching for adequate chest rise. D. over a period of about 2 to 3 seconds.

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: Select one: A. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. B. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. C. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. D. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. C. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. D. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age.

Which comes first in EMS decision making? Select one: A. Data interpretation B. Team communication C. Data gathering D. Planning

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal-onset aware seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura B. A generalized seizure without incontinence C. A seizure that begins in one extremity D. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? Select one: A.Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall B.One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other C.Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls D.A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Select one: A. Medial B. Palmar C. Posterior D. Anterior

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance B. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions C. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up D. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently

Which of the following best describes how albuterol works? Select one: a. It causes constriction of the smooth muscles that pull open the lower airways. b. It causes relaxation of the smooth muscles to open the upper airways. c. It causes relaxation of the smooth muscles to open the lower airways. d. It causes constriction of smooth muscles that pull open the upper airways.

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Select one: A. Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding B. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever C. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? Select one: A. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe B. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest D. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Intracranial bleeding B. A postictal state C. Hypovolemia D. Hypoglycemia

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Select one: A. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds B. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care C. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases D. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Liver laceration B. Spinal cord injury C. Cardiac tamponade D. Simple pneumothorax

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites B. General weakness and diaphoresis C. Local swelling and ecchymosis D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask

Which of the following medications would indicate that a patient has a history of seizures? Select one: A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) B. Enalapril (Vasotec) C. Levetiracetam (Keppra) D. Metformin (Glucophage)

Which of the following most accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training B. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will C. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury D. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? Select one: A. Somatic B. Peripheral C. Connecting D. Autonomic

Which of the following patients has signs of an altered mental status? Select one: A. A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness B. A patient who overdosed and tells you he tried to kill himself C. A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions D. A diabetic who has nausea and severe lightheadedness

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? Select one: A. A 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations B. A 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume C. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations D. A 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? Select one: A. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient B. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus C. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock D. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle

Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS? Select one: A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Obtaining a manual blood pressure C. Bleeding control using a tourniquet D. Administration of supplemental oxygen

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. assault B. libel C. slander D. negligence

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? Select one: A. "I understand that my death is inevitable and I am ready to die when the time comes." B. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy." C. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." D. "It is because of our lousy health care system that I developed this brain tumor."

Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? Select one: A. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. B. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user.

Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? Select one: A. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. B. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user. C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. D. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control.

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct? Select one: A. The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly. B. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age. C. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. D. Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A.Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. B.Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C.Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. D.Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? Select one: A. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction. B. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure. C. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. D. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis.

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. B. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. C. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but might be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. D. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion.

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? Select one: A. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin. B. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face. C. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly. D. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. B. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? Select one: A. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months after being infected. B. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms. C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women. D. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever.

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. C. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. B. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. C. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. D. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active.

Which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? Select one: A. The depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the EMT. B. It is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field. C. External bleeding might be minimal, but internal injuries can be extensive. D. The degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury.

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. B. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. B. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. C. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. D. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.

Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is correct? Select one: A. Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio. B. Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide. C. Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible. D. Standing orders require you to contact medical control first before providing an intervention.

Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? Select one: A. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. B. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. C. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint. D. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Select one: A.It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs. B.It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. C.It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. D.It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway.

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. B. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. C. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: A. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. B. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours. C. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. D. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? Select one: A. The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. B. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. C. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations. D. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained.

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct? Select one: A. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it. B. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. D. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. B. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. C. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. D. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? Select one: A. The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. B. Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. C. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. D. In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident.

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct? Select one: A. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue. B. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. C. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity. D. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? Select one: A. Excessive ventilation B. Anaerobic metabolism C. Increased cardiac output D. Cardiopulmonary arrest

Which of the following would you expect to encounter in a patient with moderate radiation toxicity? Select one: A. Nausea, dizziness, and headache B. Second- and third-degree burns C. Hair loss and first-degree burns D. White blood cell death and cancer

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: A. Smell and sight B. Sight and touch C. Sight and sound D. Sound and smell

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old, mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Implied B. Informed C. Expressed D. Formal

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is rapid and irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: Select one: A. a lacerated coronary artery. B. underlying cardiac disease. C. bruising of the heart muscle. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He is unable to cough and becomes cyanotic around the lips. You should: Select one: A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. B. place him in a supine position and open his airway. C. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts. D. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Select one: A. atria relaxing. B. atria contracting. C. ventricles relaxing. D. ventricles contracting.

While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated: Select one: A. closed-loop communication. B. crew resource management. C. situational awareness. D. constructive intervention.

While transferring a patient to ALS staff, interference should be: Select one: A. optimized for care. B. kept in place. C. minimized overall. D. transformed by coordination.

While transferring patient care to another healthcare provider, you should be: Select one: A. assertive. B. patient. C. respectful. D. aggressive.

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: A. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. B. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. C. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. D. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance.

Why are airborne pathogens harder to control than droplet borne pathogens? Select one: a. Droplet borne pathogens always quickly become dry and unable to infect the body once they land on a surface. b. Airborne pathogens necessarily remain potent outside of the body for longer than droplet borne ones. c. Airborne pathogens are carried on smaller particles that may travel around simple masks. d. Droplet borne pathogens can travel further when forced by a cough or sneeze.

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Select one: A. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. B. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. D. The federal government requires the implementation of changes to existing emergency care protocols at least every five years.

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. B. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). D. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon).

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: A. notify medical control for advice. B. wait for law enforcement to arrive. C. provide immediate patient care. D. determine why the patient was injured.

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: A. wait for law enforcement to arrive. B. notify medical control for advice. C. provide immediate patient care. D. determine why the patient was injured

You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should: Select one: A. establish an incident command post until you are relieved of your duties. B. immediately move all ambulatory patients to a designated area. C. declare a multiple-casualty incident and request additional resources. D. begin rapidly triaging all patients before requesting additional help.

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. administer continuous positive airway pressure.

You and your partner have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a patient who was in cardiac arrest. An ALS unit will arrive in less than 2 minutes. The patient remains unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. Further treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min and immediate transport. B. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway and positioning him on his side. C. bag-mask ventilation at 10 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation. D. elevation of his lower extremities and covering him with warm blankets.

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. B. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. C. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him. D. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry.

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: Select one: A. a brown recluse spider bite. B. envenomation from a pit viper. C. a black widow spider bite. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

You are assessing a patient with respiratory distress and are unsure if the cause is congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following clinical signs would be the MOST helpful in determining whether the patient has chronic heart failure or COPD? Select one: A. Cyanosis of the skin B. Rapid breathing C. Jugular vein distention D. Altered mental status

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a "bad reaction" the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should: Select one: A.assess his ABCs and vital signs in 15 minutes and allow him to drive himself to the hospital if he remains stable. B.apply high-flow oxygen, apply a chemical cold pack directly to the injection site, and transport at once. C.apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital. D.apply high-flow oxygen, obtain approval from medical control to assist him with his epinephrine, and transport.

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient exhales, and before inhaling, the patient should put his or her lips around the inhaler, take a deep breath, and depress the inhale. You should: Select one: A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED. B. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse. C. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing. D. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After confirming the drug's name and expiration date, you should: Select one: A. administer the drug. B. request an ALS ambulance to administer the drug. C. contact medical control. D. ask her if she takes other medications.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease? Select one: A. Bright red blood in the urine B. A history of ectopic pregnancy C. A shuffling gait when walking D. Vaginal passage of blood clots

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: Select one: A. spontaneous pneumothorax. B. acute pulmonary edema. C. acute pulmonary embolism. D. right-sided heart failure.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if: Select one: A. the severity of the injury is known. B. there are other patients involved. C. law enforcement is at the scene. D. the patient is conscious.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: Select one: A. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning.

You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around, and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: Select one: A. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions. B. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1. C. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child. D. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives.

You are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. The patient is receiving high-flow oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. During your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. What is most likely causing this patient's deterioration? Select one: A. Blood accumulation in the pleural space B. Hidden bleeding in the thoracic cavity C. Compression of the aorta and vena cava D. A total collapse of the affected lung

You are treating a 23-year-old female with type 1 diabetes. She took too much of her insulin and now has a blood glucose level of 28 mg/dL and a GCS of 7. How should you administer glucose to this patient? Select one: a. Buccally b. Orally c. Do not administer glucose d. Rectally

You are treating a 68-year-old female with COPD using her Proventil (albuterol) MDI. She has just taken a puff of her medication. Which of the following is true about administering the next puff? Select one: a. She should not have another dose since the maximum has been reached. b. She must wait 5 minutes before an additional dose. c. She can take a second puff right away. d. She may only take a second puff if her distress is severe.

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. B. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. C. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.

You have been tasked by your medical director with assisting in the development of your EMS agency's institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to: Select one: A. expect personnel to function beyond their scope of practice if needed. B. require personnel to transport all patients to the closest hospital. C. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening EMS personnel. D. demand that all personnel consistently exceed the standard of care.

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: Select one: A. apply a pulse oximeter and assess her vital signs. B. obtain a complete list of all of her medications. C. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. B. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance.

You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type 2 diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient should include: Select one: A. performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs. B. assisting the patient with his diabetic medication. C. applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. D. administering one to two tubes of oral glucose.

You respond to a residence for a 9-year-old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. You should: Select one: A. immediately apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and then assess her pulse rate. B. open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver and assess the rate and depth of her breathing. C. open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: Select one: A. calm him down so you can assess him. B. contact medical control for instructions. C. retreat at once and call law enforcement. D. be assertive and talk the patient down.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should: Select one: A. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. B. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport. D. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should: Select one: A. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. B. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport. D. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: Select one: A. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. B. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. C. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output. D. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: Select one: A.functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells. B.blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. C.his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output. D.it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries.

Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: Select one: A. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. B. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission. C. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented. D. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed.

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pad. B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. C. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad. D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past four years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? Select one: A. Report the incident to your EMS medical director. B. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D. Remain quiet and simply request another partner.

Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past four years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? Select one: A. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. B. Remain quiet and simply request another partner. C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D. Report the incident to your EMS medical director.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. B. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. C. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. D. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport.

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? Select one: A. Level A protection B. Level B protection C. Level D protection D. Level C protection

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: Select one: A. perform a neurologic exam. B. apply ice to the hematoma. C. palpate his radial pulses. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and might lead to bone growth abnormalities. Select one: A. metaphyseal B. greenstick C. diaphyseal D. epiphyseal

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. B. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. B. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. C. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. D. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. B. position her legs well above the level of her heart. C. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. D. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.

A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what most likely occurred? Select one: A. Asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta B. Fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia C. Collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest D. Ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. C. apply pressure to the brachial artery. D. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen several times. You find him lying on his left side with his knees drawn up. He is conscious and alert and complains of increased pain and nausea when he tries to straighten his legs. His blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, you should: Select one: A. place him supine but allow him to keep his knees bent. B. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions. C. keep him on his side but gently straighten his legs. D. transport him in the position in which you found him.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: Select one: A. flushing his eye starting laterally. B. covering both eyes and transporting. C. irrigating both eyes simultaneously. D. irrigating his right eye laterally.

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: Select one: A.form a general impression. B.ask bystanders what happened. C.call for an ALS ambulance. D.follow standard precautions.

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. determine if he has cardiac problems. B. apply an AED and assess his BP. C. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. D. prepare for immediate transport.

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. injury to the cervical spine. B. damage to internal structures. C. alterations in his mental status. D. potential airway compromise.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (−1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. B. apply an automated external defibrillator and assess his cardiac rhythm. C. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. D. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

A 30-year-old man complains of severe pain to his right tibia after an injury that occurred the day before. The patient's leg is pale, and he is unable to move his foot. The EMT should suspect that: Select one: A. the nerves supplying the foot have been severed. B. a severe infection has developed in the muscle. C. the nerves behind the knee are compromised. D. pressure in the fascial compartment is elevated.

A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: A./ elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. B.transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C.applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. D.supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: A. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. B. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. C. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. D. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. B. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. C. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. D. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine. B. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. C. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. D. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. determine the exact location and cause of his pain. B. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. C. transport him in a supine position. D. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.

A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. reassess his breathing and blood pressure in 15 minutes. B. visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling. C. notify medical control of the patient's response to your treatment. D. record the time and dose of the injection and transport promptly.

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED), and he tells you that he does. You should: Select one: A. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. B. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. C. recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension. D. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. B. perform a head-to-toe exam. C. allow him to drink plain water. D. prepare for immediate transport.

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: Select one: A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. B. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. C. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication. D. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute pancreatitis. B. strangulated hernia. C. kidney stones. D. aortic aneurysm.

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious, alert, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the most appropriate to ask him? Select one: A. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" B. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?" C. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" D. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?"

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. determine if he has a valid living will. B. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. C. start CPR and transport immediately. D. begin CPR until an AED is available.

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should: Select one: A.advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable. B.conclude that the patient has Alzheimer's disease. C.carefully restrain the patient and transport at once. D.ask the daughter how her father normally behaves.

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious but confused and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What should you do? Select one: A. Transport her on her left side B. Gently palpate her pelvis C. Transport her in a seated position D. Treat her for possible shock

A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: Select one: A. ignore the family member and assess the patient. B. tell the family member that it is not your fault. C. subdue the family member until the police arrive. D. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel.

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. hypoglycemia B. an acute stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. a heart attack.

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred, and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should: Select one: A. conclude that the patient's blood sugar is high. B. transport the patient to a psychiatric facility. C. allow the patient to refuse transport if she wishes. D. inquire about the possibility of head trauma.

A COPD patient has been prescribed a Duoneb (albuterol/ipratropium) nebulizer for home use. In addition to an adrenergic agonist, which of the following does this medication contain? Select one: a. A cholinergic agonist b. An adrenergic antagonist c. A second adrenergic agonist d. An anticholinergic agent

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. C. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. B. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. C. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of: Select one: A. blanching of the skin. B. gross deformity. C. soft, smooth skin. D. mottling and blisters.

A man with chest pain tells the EMTs that he hurt his chest 2 weeks ago. The EMTs conclude that the patient likely has a fractured rib or other chest wall injury. At the hospital, the man is diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following decision traps does this scenario depict? Select one: A. Bias B. Overconfidence C. Overestimation D. Anchoring

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: Select one: A. fatty layer. B. muscle fascia. C. epidermis. D. dermal layer.

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause? Select one: A. Neurogenic B. Hypovolemic C. Cardiogenic D. Obstructive

A patient has kidney disease that is causing him severe pain. What condition does he have and what would be administered for his pain? Select one: A. Dysuria; anti-inflammatory B. Neuropathy; antibiotic C. Myopathy; anesthetic D. Nephropathy; analgesic

A patient is diagnosed with nephritis. This means: Select one: A. dysfunction of the liver. B. disease of the kidney. C. enlargement of the liver. D. inflammation of the kidney.

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: A. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. B. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. C. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. D. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: Select one: A.has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly. B.is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately. C.has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively. D.is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

A patient with a chest injury has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120 beats/min. Which of the following additional findings should make you suspect a pericardial tamponade? Select one: A. Unilaterally absent breath sounds B. Flattening of the jugular veins C. A pulse that becomes irregular D. Repeat BP of 90/68 mm Hg

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. B. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

A patient with hepatomegaly has: Select one: A. pain in a joint. B. cancer of the lymphatic system. C. disease of the kidneys. D. an enlarged liver.

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: Select one: A. without difficulty. B. with shallow depth. C. at a normal rate. D. without assistance.

A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 94°F (34°C). B. 95°F (35°C). C. 92°F (33°C). D. 90°F (32°C).

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. B. a unilaterally collapsed lung. C. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. D. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A.is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. B.can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C.spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. D.loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: Select one: A. intuitive listening. B. active listening. C. passive listening. D. reflective listening.

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: Select one: A. intuitive listening. B. passive listening. C. active listening. D. reflective listening.

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: Select one: A. slow and deep. B. rapid and shallow. C. slow and shallow. D. deep and rapid.

After administration of naloxone to correct an opioid overdose, why is it important for the patient to still be transported to the emergency department even if their symptoms are completely reversed? Select one: a. The side effects of naloxone can be serious b. The patient needs substance abuse counseling and cannot refuse transport to a rehab center c. Naloxone will last longer than the opioid causing a naloxone overdose later d. The original opioid may last longer than the naloxone causing overdose symptoms to recur

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should: Select one: A. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute. B. pause compressions to deliver ventilations. C. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min. D. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hematemesis. B. hemiplegia. C. hemolysis. D. hemostasis.

After blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be most suspicious of injury to the: Select one: A. kidneys. B. gallbladder. C. pancreas. D. spleen.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: Select one: A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life. C. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. D. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: Select one: A. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. B. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard. C. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. D. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. reflective of your opinion. B. a matter of public record. C. typewritten or printed. D. considered confidential.

All of the following are considered to be protected health information (PHI), except: Select one: A. assessment findings. B. patient history. C. treatment rendered. D. location of the call.

All of the following are considered to be protected health information (PHI), except: Select one: A. patient history. B. treatment rendered. C. assessment findings. D. location of the call.

All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, except for the: Select one: A. anus. B. nose. C. mouth. D. lips.

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the most appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? Select one: A. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. B. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. C. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. D. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Select one: A.the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. B.the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. C.transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. D.authorization from medical control has been obtained.

An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. Select one: A. 50 mL B. 200 mL C. 150 mL D. 100 mL

An obese person is ________ over ideal weight. Select one: A. 50% or more B. 15% or more C. 10% or more D. 30% or more

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. an order from a paramedic. B. the transport time to the hospital. C. the patient's condition. D. medical director approval.

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Select one: A. prepare the immobilization equipment. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. D. maintain stabilization of the head.

At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A.place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once. B.ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. C.make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. D.use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: A. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95% B. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97% C. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% D. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 94%

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the: Select one: A. surface area of the alveoli increases. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge. C. overall size of the airway decreases. D. elasticity of the lungs decreases.

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Select one: A. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: Select one: A. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. B. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. D. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.

During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, irregular breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should: Select one: A. perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck. B. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs. D. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. B. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume. C. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. D. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: Select one: A. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode. B. she should contact the EMR about the incident. C. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. D. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I can't remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A.an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. B.the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C.the traumatic experience has created a mental block. D.the patient was given a drug prior to the incident.

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: Select one: A. ileus. B. appendicitis. C. cholecystitis. D. an ulcer.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. dyspepsia. B. polydipsia. C. dysphasia. D. polyphagia.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is most consistent with: Select one: A. a lacerated globe. B. optic vessel compression. C. a ruptured eyeball. D. a blow-out fracture.

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: Select one: A. be dated within the previous 24 months. B. be signed by the local justice of the peace. C. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. D. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

For a patient with signs and symptoms of a respiratory infection, an important question to ask to determine potential exposure may include: Select one: a. How high is your fever? b. Have you had the hepatitis vaccine before? c. Do you have any other pulmonary conditions? d. Have you ever had Tuberculosis or a positive Tuberculosis Skin Test, or PPD?

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. B. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses. C. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. D. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.

Glipizide, a non-insulin-type medication, is another name for: Select one: A. Glucophage. B. Micronase. C. Diabinese. D. Glucotrol.

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes: Select one: A. rigid protocols. B. competition. C. discipline. D. collaboration.

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes: Select one: A.rigid protocols. B.discipline. C.competition. D.collaboration.

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: A. need less-explicit verbal direction. B. are unable to accomplish their tasks. C. often work better under pressure. D. can create delays in patient care.

Hemoglobin is: Select one: A. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection. B. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body. C. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs. D. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.

Hemoglobin is: Select one: A. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body. B. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection. C. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs. D. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.

How does epinephrine correct the effect of anaphylaxis on the lower airways? Select one: a. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchoconstriction b. Beta-2 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchoconstriction c. Beta-1 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchodilation d. Beta-2 adrenergic receptors lead to bronchodilation

How does nitroglycerin affect a myocardial infarction? Select one: a. Increased O2 consumption by the affected myocardium b. Decreased O2 delivery to the affected myocardium c. Increased O2 delivery to the affected myocardium d. Decreased O2 consumption by the affected myocardium

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: Select one: A.a decreased heart rate. B.severe muscular rigidity. C.cardiac arrhythmias. D.blood-clotting abnormalities.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. platelets. B. red blood cells. C. whole blood. D. plasma.

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A.determine which device the American Heart Association recommends. B.purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. C.avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. D.recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.

If a field provider receives a request for PHI from an attorney, the best course of action for the provider to follow is: Select one: a. Check to see whether the attorney is licensed to practice law in your state b. Release the information if the attorney sends the request in writing c. Call the attorney to ask her whether or not the patient authorized the release and release the information if teh attorney confirms this to you over the phone d. Direct the request to your HIPAA Compliance Officer

If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should: Select one: A.flick the soles of its feet. B.re-suction the mouth only. C.begin chest compressions. D.provide ventilations for 30 seconds.

If a patient with a chest injury only inhales small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. B. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A.engage the team member at once. B.ignore the problem to avoid conflict. C.contact the medical director at once. D.discuss the problem after the call.

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: Select one: A. a splint and elevate the extremity. B. digital pressure to a proximal artery. C. additional sterile dressings. D. a tourniquet proximal to the injury.

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Select one: A. quickly jerk the steering wheel. B. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. D. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.

If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: Select one: A. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility. B. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. C. quickly wipe down all high-contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. D. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.

If you notice someone at your organization using or disclosing PHI in a way that you think may violate HIPAA you should: Select one: a. Document the incident and only report it if you see it happen again b. Tell another coworker about the incident c. Warn the individual that you will report them the next time you see it happen d. Report the incident immediately to the HIPAA Compliance Officer or a supervisor

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. B. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. C. wait at least five minutes before touching another patient. D. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. wait at least five minutes before touching another patient. B. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. C. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. D. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. determine if additional units are needed. C. carefully assess the mechanism of injury. D. observe the scene for safety hazards.

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease? Select one: A. Drug allergies B. Sexual practices C. HIV status D. Recent travel

In an interdependent group, when one person fails: Select one: A. management will be changed. B. pay is withheld. C. that person is fired. D. everyone fails.

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash. B. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks. C. might be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. D. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: Select one: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes. D. have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.

In contrast to an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD), an external defibrillator vest: Select one: A. will only deliver a shock if ventricular fibrillation occurs. B. does not warn when a shock is about to be delivered. C. does not require the EMT to stand clear when it shocks. D. delivers high-energy shocks, similar to an AED.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. can be controlled in the field. B. is typically not as severe. C. often presents with acute pain. D. may be relatively painless.

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. can be prevented with a vaccination. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is a far more transmittable disease. D. is not a communicable disease.

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they: Select one: A. are usually fatal within 30 minutes of exposure. B. react with the blood, which increases their toxicity. C. absorb slowly into the body, despite their potency. D. are usually absorbed quickly into the body.

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pink, warm, and moist. B. pale, cool, and moist. C. flushed, cool, and dry. D. pink, warm, and dry.

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): Select one: A. antibody. B. histamine. C. leukotriene. D. allergen.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. B. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. C. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. D. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A.remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. B.decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. C.decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. D.increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. B. is mentally competent and able to refuse. C. possesses a valid driver's license. D. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. severe chest trauma. B. a cardiac dysrhythmia. C. a drug overdose. D. respiratory arrest.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. B. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. C. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by: Select one: A. muscular contraction. B. spontaneous rupture. C. diarrhea. D. vomiting.

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? Select one: A. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye B. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen C. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest D. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Select one: A. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. B. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. C. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock. D. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the most difficult to control? Select one: A. Antecubital vein laceration and a blood pressure of 138/92 mm Hg B. Carotid artery laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg C. Jugular vein laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg D. Femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: Select one: A. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. B. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain. C. their intercostal muscles are not functional. D. their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, except: Select one: A.a brief history of the patient's current problem. B.a brief summary of the care you provided. C.your perception of the severity of the problem. D.a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves: Select one: A. blind finger sweeps. B. abdominal thrusts. C. bag-mask ventilation. D. back slaps.

Injury to the labia would most likely occur following: Select one: A.strenuous exercise. B.a motor-vehicle crash. C.a significant fall. D.sexual abuse.

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A.norepinephrine and acetylcholine. B.acetylcholine and insulin. C.glucagon and noradrenaline. D.epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who was pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren. B. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay. C. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained. D. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: A. signs of shock. B. respiratory distress. C. pulmonary edema. D. flulike symptoms.

Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first ____ minutes following exposure. Select one: A. 90 B. 5 C. 60 D. 30

Most terrorist attacks are: Select one: A. nuclear attacks. B. impulsive. C. unplanned. D. covert.

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the: Select one: A.cerebral cortex. B.cerebrum. C.brain stem. D.cerebellum.

Naloxone (Narcan) would reverse the effects of: Select one: A. temazepam (Restoril). B. diazepam (Valium). C. phenobarbital (Luminal). D. hydromorphone (Dilaudid).

Naloxone is a/an: Select one: a. Opioid b. Opioid agonist c. Anti-opioid d. Opioid antagonist

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Select one: A. 18, 28 B. 30, 40 C. 20, 30 D. 40, 60

Situational awareness is most accurately defined as: Select one: A. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. B. performing an initial scan of the scene to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew. C. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. D. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Select one: A. a strong pulse. B. vasoconstriction. C. tachycardia. D. a slower heart rate.

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: Select one: A.through the mucosa under the tongue. B.below the first layer of muscle. C.directly into the muscle tissue. D.between the skin and the muscle.

Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are most commonly associated with: Select one: A. hyperthermia. B. child abuse. C. swimming pools. D. alcohol.

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: Select one: A. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. B. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. C. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

The "minimum necessary" rule means that you should only disclose the minimum amount of protected health information (PHI) necessary to accomplish the task and nothing more. This rule applies to the following types of disclosures" Select one: a. Disclosures for treatment purposes b. Disclosures for payment purposes c. Disclosure for operations purposes d. Both B and C

The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: Select one: A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. B. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy. C. its use does not require the presence of advanced life support personnel. D. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.

The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. B. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. C. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. D. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. C. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

The EMT is assessing a man who fell and struck his head. The patient is a known alcoholic and has the odor of alcohol on his breath. The EMT assumes that the man is drunk and does not assess for signs and symptoms of a head injury. This is an example of: Select one: A. anchoring. B. overconfidence. C. overestimation. D. bias.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. performing five back slaps and five abdominal thrusts. B. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. C. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. D. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. B. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. C. performing five back slaps and five abdominal thrusts. D. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. severe stress. B. heavy exertion. C. diabetes mellitus. D. hypertension.

The ________ nerves supply the diaphragm. Select one: A. vagus B. costal C. intercostal D. phrenic

The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are: Select one: A. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. B. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx. C. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A. metabolism. B. cardiac output. C. respiration. D. perfusion.

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. does not receive impulses from the brain. B. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. C. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. D. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle.

The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: Select one: A. a secondary assessment at the scene. B. a focused exam of her forearm. C. transport to a community hospital. D. transport to a trauma center.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 30 seconds B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 1 minute

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. with forearm lacerations. B. without a spinal injury. C. who complains of nausea. D. with a deformed humerus.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. C. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. D. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. breathing and blood pressure. B. heart rate and pupil reaction. C. the right side of the face. D. the right side of the body.

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. inferior venae cavae. B. superior venae cavae. C. pulmonary arteries. D. pulmonary veins.

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston device for chest compressions is: Select one: A. the minimal training required to correctly operate the device. B. the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient. C. its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size. D. the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: Select one: A. code of ethics. B. EMT oath. C. scope of practice. D. standard of care.

The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: Select one: A. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection. B. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. C. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. D. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

The most appropriate location to park your ambulance at a HazMat incident is: Select one: A. downhill at least 100′ from the incident. B. uphill at least 25′ from the incident site. C. downwind at least 200′ from the scene. D. upwind at least 100′ from the incident.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. ischium. B. ilium. C. sacrum. D. coccyx.

The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. calling the hazardous materials team. B. evacuating the bystanders. C. identifying the hazardous material. D. ensuring your personal safety.

The most reliable sign of a head injury is: Select one: A. decreased sensation in the extremities. B. an abnormally low blood pressure. C. a pulse that is rapid and thready. D. a decreased level of consciousness.

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. B. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. C. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. C. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

The only indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: Select one: A. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg; the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 70, 28 B. 88, 30 C. 90, 50 D. 104, 40

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: Select one: A. two thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches. B. one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest. C. one half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. D. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches.

The purpose of the pin-indexing system for compressed gas cylinders is to: Select one: A. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. B. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range. C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder. D. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.

The rate of autism in the US population is about 1 in: Select one: A. 27. B. 100. C. 5. D. 40.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, except: Select one: A. the mechanism of injury. B. poor general appearance. C. clinical signs and symptoms. D. systolic blood pressure.

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: Select one: A.foramen lamina. B.cauda equina. C.vertebral foramen. D.foramen magnum.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. over the mastoid process. B. at the angle of the jaw. C. slightly above the ear. D. just anterior to the tragus.

The term "hyphema" is defined as: Select one: A. compression of one or both optic nerves. B. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. C. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: Select one: A. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. C. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. D. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

The three major parts of the brain are the: Select one: A. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. B. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord. C. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Select one: A. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. B. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age. D. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: Select one: A. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety. C. spend as little time with the patient as possible. D. be direct and clearly state your intentions.

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: Select one: A. rate of the patient's pulse. B. patient's mental status. C. presence of a medical identification tag. D. rate and depth of breathing.

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: Select one: A. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.

When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: Select one: A. explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. C. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.

When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: Select one: A. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. B. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. C. explain procedures while in the process of performing them. D. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Select one: A. pallor. B. mottling. C. flushing. D. cyanosis.

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification: Select one: A. needs incident command authorization. B. plays a team role. C. is striving for promotion to ALS. D. risks a lawsuit.

When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should: Select one: A. ask the patient if he or she knows what led to his or her obesity problem. B. leave him or her in a supine position, as this often facilitates breathing. C. call for ALS backup because obese patients are at high risk for heart attack. D. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: A.excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. B.lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. C.most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. D.sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. B. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. C. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. D. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: Select one: A. ask questions related to her gynecologic history. B. determine the underlying cause of her problem. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.

When is oxygen administration contraindicated? Select one: a. Nasal mucous membranes are bleeding b. History of COPD c. History of allergy d. There are no contraindications for emergency use

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: Select one: A.secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. B.assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. C.collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. D.place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 200 mm Hg. B. 100 mm Hg. C. 400 mm Hg. D. 300 mm Hg.

When the body loses sweat, it also loses: Select one: A. erythrocytes. B. plasma. C. nutrients. D. electrolytes.

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. B. respirations decrease in rate and depth. C. the brain stem inhibits respirations. D. respirations increase in rate and depth.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. C. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. D. they might need to call a specialist to see the patient.

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: Select one: A. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor. B. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task. C. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions. D. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

GCS: You are treating a patient that has no eye opening with painful stimuli, no verbal response, and has decorticate posturing with your painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor: 3 GCS: 5

When worn properly, a seat belt should lie: Select one: A. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. B. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. C. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints. D. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.

Where and how should epinephrine be administered for anaphylaxis? Select one: a. SC into the middle of the antero-lateral thigh b. SC into the middle of the lateral thigh c. IM into the rectus femoris muscle d. IM into the vastus lateralis muscle

Where would you look for the most up to date information regarding emerging diseases and recommendations for proper precautions to take? Select one: a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Emerging Infectious Diseases Network (EIDN) c. Healthcare Precautions Alert System (HPAS) d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

Which immunization requires an update every year due to the high mutation rate of the pathogen? Select one: a. Tuberculosis b. Hepatitis B (HBV) c. Meningitis d. Influenza

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Extremity carry B. Log roll C. Direct carry D. Draw sheet method

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance B. A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance C. Destruction of the immune system by an external substance D. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

Which of the following arteries does not carry highly oxygenated blood? Select one: A. Aorta B. Femoral C. Renal D. Pulmonary

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? Select one: A. Palpable pain to the epigastrium B. Use of the accessory muscles C. Unequal breath sounds D. Jugular venous distention

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? Select one: A. Unequal breath sounds B. Use of the accessory muscles C. Palpable pain to the epigastrium D. Jugular venous distention

Which of the following breathing patterns is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Slow, shallow occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea B. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? Select one: A. Nonflammable gases B. Flammable liquids C. Air-reactive solids D. Water-reactive solids

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Select one: A. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness C. Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding D. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Select one: A. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course B. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care C. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds D. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? Select one: A. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. C. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

Which of the following findings should make the EMT especially suspicious that a woman was sexually assaulted? Select one: A. The odor of alcohol on her breath B. A prescription for alprazolam (Xanax) C. Signs of shock on assessment D. Inability to remember the event

Which of the following findings would be least suggestive of a head injury? Select one: A. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction B. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil C. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object D. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A.Rubella B.Chickenpox C.Mumps D.Syphilis

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? Select one: A. Forehead lacerations B. Flail chest C. Extremity fractures D. Aortic rupture

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug? Select one: A. Excedrin B. Bayer C. Advil D. Aspirin

Which of the following is an example of closed-loop communication? Select one: A. The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. B. EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch. C. The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep. D. The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Overall health B. Medications C. Medical conditions D. Increased weight

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of artifact on an ECG tracing? Select one: A. Irregular patient pulse B. Abnormal cardiac electrical activity C. Incorrect placement of the leads D. Excessive movement of the patient

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? Select one: A. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment. B. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. C. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

Which of the following statements regarding anaerobic metabolism is correct? Select one: A. Without anaerobic metabolism, perfusion to the body will suffer and cellular death will occur. B. Anaerobic metabolism can be supported in most of the body's cells for up to 10 minutes. C. The body functions optimally and produces maximum ATP during anaerobic metabolism. D. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? Select one: A.Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure. B.Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. C.The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction. D.Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.

Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct? Select one: A. Approximately 25% of patients with cerebral palsy possess some varying degrees of developmental delay. B. Most cases of cerebral palsy develop within the first 10 years of life and are typically caused by meningitis. C. A key clinical feature of cerebral palsy is paralysis of the respiratory muscles, which confines the patient to a ventilator. D. Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy.

Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? Select one: A. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions. B. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. C. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. D. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. B. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. C. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? Select one: A. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin. B. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis. C. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face. D. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. C. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. D. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Select one: A. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. B. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct? Select one: A. Most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur between the first and second cervical vertebrae. B. The majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis. C. Because of a child's proportionately large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults. D. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Select one: A. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs. B. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. C. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. D. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? Select one: A. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival. B. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED. C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. D. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. B. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. C. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs. D. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct? Select one: A. MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease. B. MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema. C. Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication. D. An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct? Select one: A. Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication. B. MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease. C. MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema. D. An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.

GCS: You are treating a patient that doesn't respond by eye opening to painful stimuli, is nonverbal, and localizes painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor: 5 GCS: 7

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? Select one: A.It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. B.The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. C.Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. D.Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations.

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? Select one: A. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury. B. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250′ from the scene. C. A trench less than 15' deep usually does not require shoring. D. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.

Which of the following steps is not proper procedure when performing an emergency move? Select one: A. Using a long-axis body drag during the move B. Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object C. Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

Which of the following structures does not contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Blood vessels B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Urinary system D. Skeletal system

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? Select one: A. Informed B. Actual C. Expressed D. Implied

Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? Select one: A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Autonomic D. Skeletal

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? Select one: A. Collapsed dashboard B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage C. Caved-in passenger door D. Deformed steering wheel

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: A.Placement of the endotracheal tube B.Visualization of the vocal cords C.Suction under direct laryngoscopy D.Preoxygenation with a BVM

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Liver B. Cecum C. Stomach D. Spleen

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred? Select one: A. Data gathering B. Planning C. Team communication D. Outcome evaluation

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: A. Radio B. Online C. Direct D. Off-line

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: Select one: A.decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. B.remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. C.increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. D.remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-mask device.

While transferring a patient to ALS staff, interference should be: Select one: A. optimized for care. B. kept in place. C. transformed by coordination. D. minimized overall.

With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen. Select one: A. 14% B. 34% C. 24% D. 44%

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: Select one: A. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: Select one: A.determine why the patient was injured. B.notify medical control for advice. C.wait for law enforcement to arrive. D.provide immediate patient care.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: A. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. B. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. C. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. D. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building.

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: Select one: A.immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after five minutes of treatment. B.focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. C.recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries. D.assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the automated external defibrillator as soon as possible.

You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should: Select one: A. tell her that he is being resuscitated by other EMTs. B. avoid answering her questions and focus on her injuries. C. immediately tell her of his death so that she might grieve. D. let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. ventilatory assistance and transport. B. high-flow oxygen and transport. C. oral glucose gel and transport. D. recovery position and transport.

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. C. provide emotional support regarding her sister. D. determine if she was injured when she fainted.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. notify the dispatcher of your arrival. C. place a paramedic ambulance on standby. D. assess the scene for potential hazards.

You are performing bag-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen are you delivering? Select one: A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. Nearly 100%

You are preparing to administer epinephrine to an adult using a needle and syringe. The vial you are using contains 1 mL of 1 mg/mL solution. What should you do before withdrawing solution from the vial? Select one: a. Inject 0.3 mL of water into the vial b. Withdraw the solution without delay c. Withdraw 0.3 mL of air from the vial d. Inject 0.3 mL of air into the vial

You are treating a 19-year-old male patient who is found unresponsive with slow shallow breathing. His friend says that he has been using a combination of heroin and cocaine, known as a "speedball", in large amounts. What effect would you expect naloxone to have on this patient? Select one: a. Naloxone will decrease the effect of one drug and bring it into balance with the other. b. Naloxone will not affect either drug. c. Naloxone will reverse the effects of the overdose. d. Naloxone will only reverse one of the drugs and leave the other unbalanced.

You are treating a 6-year-old with severe respiratory distress and a history of reactive airway disease. He has accessory muscle use and retractions and pulse oximetry shows 80 %. His mother presents you with a Xopenex (levalbuterol) MDI and a spacer. How should you administer the medication? Select one: a. Do not administer the medication. The distress is too severe for adequate absorption. b. Do not administer the medication. It is not in the EMT scope of practice. c. Administer the medication without using the spacer. d. Administer the medication using the spacer.

You are treating a 60-year-old female patient with a history of heart failure. She presents with severe dyspnea, tripoding, crackles heard on auscultation of all lung fields. Her vital signs are RR 28 bpm, Sp)2 87 % on non-rebreather mask, HR 110 bpm, BP 158/96. She has prescriptions for hydrochlorothiazide and nitroglycerin. Which may you administer? Select one: a. Neither b. Both c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Nitroglycerin

You are using a D tank (cylinder constant of 0.16) with a safe residual pressure of 500 psi. You begin treating your patient with a tank pressure of 2000 psi and the flow rate set to 15 Lpm. How long can you expect this oxygen supply to last? Select one: a. 12 min b. 24 min c. 36 min d. 16 min

You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes topiramate (Topamax). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to: Select one: A.ask her how long the patient has been taking his medication. B.determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser. C.determine when he was last seen by his physician. D.obtain a description of how the seizure developed.

You arrive on scene to find a 23-year-old male unresponsive with agonal breathing. There is a needle and syringe next to him and his girlfriend tells you he has been using heroin. Your most appropriate next action would be to: Select one: a. Administer naloxone to correct the opioid overdose b. Confirm the exact substance and amount used prior to administering naloxone c. Provide ventilation with a BVM and supplemental O2 d. Assess for a pulse and request ALS

You arrive on scene to find a 75-year-old male with difficulty breathing. He has a barrel shaped chest and a 50 pack-year history of smoking. His lung sounds are very diminished without audible adventitious sounds. He is using a small volume nebulizer at home that was prescribed by his doctor for emergencies like this. What class of medication is most likely being delivered? Select one: a. Bronchoconstrictor b. Pulmonary vasoconstrictor c. Pulmonary vasodilator d. Bronchodilator

GCS: You are treating a patient that doesn't open their eyes with voice or painful stimuli, is nonverbal, and also has no motor response to painful stimuli.

Eyes: 1 Verbal: 1 Motor:1 GCS: 3

You have administered an appropriate initial dose of aspirin to your patient. After five minutes, the patient reports that they continue to have symptoms with no relief. What does this indicate? Select one: a. The medication may have lost its potency due to storage condtions. b. The field impression was probably incorrect and aspirin was not indicated. c. An additional dose may be required to improves the patient's condition. d. Nothing. The medication is not expected to relieve symptoms.

You have administered nitroglycerin to your patient twice already. What should you do next regarding nitroglycerin administration? Select one: a. Nothing. The maximum dose has already been reached. b. Administer another dose if it is not contra-indicated. There is no maximum dose. c. Administer another dose after rechecking that SBP > 100 Hg. The maximum is 4 doses. d. Administer another dose after rechecking that SBP > 100 mm Hg. The maximum is 3 doses.

You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? Select one: A. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. Allow the mother to hold her baby. C. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing. D. Check the pulse rate at the brachial artery.

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. begin rapid transport at once. B. call for a paramedic ambulance. C. begin ventilatory assistance. D. partially remove the dressing.

You receive a call to a residence for an apneic 2-month-old male. When you arrive at the scene, the infant's mother tells you that her son was born prematurely and that his apnea monitor has alarmed four times in the past 30 minutes. Your assessment of the infant reveals that he is conscious and active. His skin is pink and dry, and he is breathing at an adequate rate and with adequate tidal depth. His oxygen saturation reads 98% on room air. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen and observe for a drop in oxygen saturation. B. advise the mother to observe her son and call 9-1-1 again if necessary. C. request an ALS ambulance to transport the infant to the hospital. D. transport the infant to the hospital and bring the apnea monitor with you.

You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient. C. requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan). D. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated.

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance. B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. C. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. D. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin. B. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. C. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. D. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.

You respond to the residence of a 55-year-old woman with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approximately 30 minutes ago. The patient is conscious and alert, but has diffuse urticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. As your partner applies oxygen to the patient, you should: Select one: A. ascertain if she has a family history of allergies. B. ask her when her last allergic reaction occurred. C. obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs. D. ask her if she has prescribed epinephrine.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: Select one: A. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. B. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. C. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells. D. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output.

Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: Select one: A. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission. B. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. C. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed. D. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: A. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. B. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen. C. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil. D. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.

Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: Select one: A. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle. B. set up a staging area where firefighters can be treated if necessary. C. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.

EMT Final Exam

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