EMT Final Exam 1-12 & 14-28

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"Chondro" in the word chondritis means: A. cartilage. B. rib. C. joint. D. tendon.

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. superficial burn. B. full-thickness burn. C. partial-thickness burn. D. second-degree burn.

A or FIRST-DEGREE BURN

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. B. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. C. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. D. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes.

A. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges

A. cerebrum

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.

A. pupillary constriction.

The skin covering the _____ is quite thick. A. lips B. scalp C. ears D. eyelids

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C. require prompt extrication from an automobile. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.

B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A. distraction. B. axial loading. C. hyperextension. D. hyperflexion.

B. axial loading.

yperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. diving. B. hangings. C. compression. D. falls.

B. hangings

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

B. intracerebral hematoma.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: A. the clothes drag. B. the four-person log roll. C. the use of a scoop stretcher. D. the direct patient carry.

B. the four-person log roll.

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. does not cause pressure within the skull. B. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. D. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness.

C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. lateral immobilization has been applied. C. it causes a problem managing the airway. D. sensory and motor functions remain intact.

C. it causes a problem managing the airway.

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. motor B. central C. somatic D. sensory

D. Sensory

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: A. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. B. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels. C. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. D. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain.

D. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain.

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.

D. dura mater.

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should: A. gently rotate his head to correct the deformity. B. carefully hyperextend his neck to open his airway. C. apply an extrication collar with his head in the position found. D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.

D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.

Neck rigidity, bloody cerebrospinal fluid, and headache are associated with what kind of bleeding in the brain?

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

During an in-service focusing on care of the trauma patient, the medical director asks if anyone can correctly describe the "platinum 10 minutes." Which of the following indicates the best response? Select one: a. "If the transport to a trauma center is going to exceed 10 minutes, EMS should strongly consider the use of an aeromedical helicopter." b. "EMS should initiate transport of the critically injured trauma patient to the hospital within 10 minutes of arriving on scene." c. "EMS should spend a total of 10 minutes assessing the patient for life-threatening injuries prior to initiating transport to a trauma center." d. "EMS systems should be designed so that it takes an ambulance no longer than 10 minutes to respond to a trauma call."

You are assessing a male patient who was stabbed three times in the chest and abdomen. As you begin your primary assessment, you note him to have a decreased level of consciousness and gurgling respirations. Your next action would be to: Select one: a. check his pulse. b. suction the airway. c. obtain a SpO2 reading. d. apply a cervical collar.

A car has been hit head-on by another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. Seatbelts were in place and the airbags deployed. The patient is complaining of chest pain. Quick observation reveals a bruise to his sternum. The EMT would immediately: Select one: a. deflate the airbag to get breath sounds. b. check the windshield for starring. c. lift the airbag and check the steering wheel. d. suspect an injury related to the airbag.

A teenage female patient has been ejected from a car as it rolled down a hill. She is responsive, but with signs of early shock. She has bruising to her anterior abdomen, a laceration to her left temple, and deformity to he left wrist. At what point should the wrist injury be splinted? Select one: a. Prior to immobilizing the patient b. Just before leaving the scene c. En-route to the hospital d. Before transferring to the stretcher

An unrestrained driver of a car that has struck a tree at 45 mph has suffered a contusion (bruise) to his heart. The EMT would recognize that this injury occurred during which impact of the collision? Select one: a. Vehicle collision b. Physiologic collision c. Organ collision d. Body collision

Injury to the head and neck may indicate injury to the:

cervical spine.

A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the man's pancreas, stomach, and gall bladder were also injured, even though not in direct contact with the bullet. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that which of the following is responsible for injury to these additional organs? Select one: a. Blunt injury b. Profile impact c. Drag force d. Cavitation

As you pull up to a motor vehicle collision, you quickly scan the scene for clues as to the type and severity of injuries. Which of the following scene clues would best indicate that a patient may have a head injury? Select one: a. Frontal-type collision b. Blood on a patient's clothing c. Airbag deployment d. Starring of a windshield

Which of the following is a high-velocity wounds that carries the greatest risk for death when considering the concept of cavitation? Select one: a. Stab wound to the liver b. Shotgun wound to the lung c. Gunshot wound to the stomach d. Gunshot wound to the spleen

a congenital abnormality in which the body is unable to produce clots, which results in uncontrollable bleeding.

hemophilia

a chemical substance produced by a gland that regulates the activity of organs and tissues.

hormone

an abnormally low blood glucose level

hypoglycemia

deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body.

kussmaul respirations

The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the:

peripheral nervous system.

excessive thirst that persists for long periods, despite reasonable fluid intake; often the result of excessive urination.

polydipsia

a hereditary disease that causes normal, round red blood cells to become oblong or sickle shaped.

sickle cell disease

a tendency toward the development of blood clots as a result of an abnormality of the system of coagulation

thrombophilia

a blood clot, either in the arterial or venous system.

thrombosis

an autoimmune disorder in which the individual's immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells, and therefore the pancreas cannot produce insulin; onset in early childhood is common.

type 1 diabetes

ischemia and pain caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion on the body.

vasoocclusive crises

In supine patients with a head injury, the head should be elevated _____ to help reduce intracranial pressure.

30 degrees

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. B. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. C. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. D. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles.

What is an EMT's primary service area? A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates B. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call

What is the function of the fallopian tubes? A. To transport a mature egg to the uterus B. To connect the ovaries C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To produce progesterone and estrogen

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Allows movement of the head B. Allows flexion of the neck C. Connects the scapulae together D. Facilitates chest movement

What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? A. 5,600 mL B. 6,000 mL C. 7,400 mL D. 8,000 mL

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? A. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." B. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. C. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. D. Everyone has some form of mental illness.

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 12-20 breaths/min B. 15-30 breaths/min C. 40-60 breaths/min D. 25-50 breaths/min

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? A) History taking B) General impression C) Primary assessment D) Secondary assessment

What should you do first to control external bleeding in an extremity? A. apply direct pressure B. apply a pressure dressing C. apply a tourniquet D. elevate the extremity

What type of blast occurs when objects are propelled by the force of the blast wave and strike the victim, causing injury? A. secondary B. tertiary C. primary D. quaternary

What type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. scanner B. simplex station C. mobile repeater D. duplex station

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rotational and rollover B. Rear-end and rotational C. Frontal and rotational D. Lateral and rollover

When a female has reached menarche: Select one: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

When a light is shone into the pupil: Select one: A. it should become smaller in size. B. both pupils should dilate together. C. the opposite pupil should dilate. D. it should become larger in size.

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? A. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others B. Visual or auditory hallucinations C. Disruptions to activities of daily living D. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. B. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. C. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. B. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. C. assess his mental status by having him move his head. D. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. B. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. C. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. D. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? A. Medical history B. Index of suspicion C. Baseline vital signs D. Primary assessment

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? A. en route to the hospital B. prior to transport C. during the primary assessment D. immediately after the injuries are discovered

When the abdominal muscles become rigid in an effort to protect the abdomen from further irritation, this is referred to as: A. guarding D. tenderness C. rebound tenderness D. referred pain

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. B. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid. C. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. D. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.

When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: A. when the patient last appeared normal. B. if there is a family history of a stroke. C. if the patient has been hospitalized before. D. the patient's overall medication compliance.

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: A) constricting. B) enlarging. C) dilating. D) fluttering.

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? A. Protecting patient privacy B. Ensuring access to insurance C. Controlling insurance costs D. Preventing insurance fraud

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? A. Subcutaneous B. Epidermis C. Dermal D. Sebaceous

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? A. a seizure that begins in one extremity B. a seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly C. a seizure that is not preceded by an aura D. a generalized seizure without incontinence

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea? A. Attempted suicide by hanging Gunshot B. wound to the lateral neck C. Car crash involving lateral impact D. Patient whose head hits the windshield

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? A. oral B. inhalation C. rectal D. sublingual

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2 to 3 hours? A. skeletal muscle B. brain C. kidneys D. heart

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A. muscle B. heart C. liver D. kidneys

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured? A. liver B. stomach C. appendix D. gallbladder

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. a conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. a conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. an unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? A) "What seems to be the matter?" B) "When did the chest pain begin?" C) "Are you having trouble breathing?" D) "Do you have a history of diabetes?"

If you need to remove a foreign particle from the eye, the technique includes: A. Flushing the eye with clean water while holding the eyelids apart. B. Using a small forceps to remove the object. C. Pulling the lower lid up and over the upper lid, allowing the lashes of the upper lid to remove the object. D. Removing a foreign object lodged in the eyeball with a cotton swab.

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:Choose one answer. a. 95°F (35°C). b. 90°F (32°C). c. 88°F (31°C). d. 98°F (37°C).

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. plasma B. platelets C. whole blood D. red blood cells

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: A. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. B. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. C. wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient. D. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes.

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: A. injection B. absorption C. ingestion D. inhalation

Often the most important intervention for a sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with a staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. A. comforting reassurance B. excellent assessment skills C. bandaging skills D. emotional sympathy

One consequence of the loss of neurons among elderly persons is a(n): A. change in sleep patterns. B. steady decline in intelligence. C. inability to reproduce. D. loss of physical skills

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: A. diffusion. B. breathing. C. ventilation. D. osmosis.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: A. referred pain. B. radiating pain. C. visceral pain. D. remote pain.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A) radiating. B) referred. C) palliating. D) provoking.

Pale skin in a child indicates that the:Choose one answer. a. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. b. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. c. child is in severe decompensated shock. d. child's core body temperature is elevated.

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: A. thoracic and lumbar spine. B. lumbar and coccygeal spine. C. thoracic and sacral spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: A. cough. B. have a fever. C. vomit. D. are bleeding.

Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because: A. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. B. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes. C. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. D. many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours.

Self-concept is: A. our perception of ourselves. B. how we feel about ourselves. C. how we fit in with peers. D. how we react to certain situations.

Severe back pain may be associated with which of the following conditions? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. PID C. Appendicitis D. Mittelschmerz

Shock due to severe infection is called ________. A. septic sock B. neurogenic shock C. anaphylactic shock D. hypovolemic shock

Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: A. death of a passanger B. broken glass C. a deployed air bag D. a blown-out tire

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: A. have chronic hypertension. B. regularly take illegal drugs. C. have had a stroke in the past. D. are older than 40 years of age.

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. coughing up blood. B. an irregular pulse. C. multiple rib fractures. D. vomiting blood.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT:Select one: A. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. B. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: A. constriction of the blood vessels. B. increased cardiac contractility. C. increased heart rate. D. dilation of the blood vessels.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: A) the patient receives definitive care. B) the patient is admitted to the ICU. C) you depart the scene for the hospital. D) you arrive at the emergency department.

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

The EMT should perform a "rapid scan" to determine if the patient is __________ during the __________. Select one: A. stable or unstable; primary assessment B. breathing or not breathing; primary assessment C. complaining of vaginal bleeding; history taking D. pregnant; secondary assessment

The EMT's first priority is __________. A. personal safety B. rapid response C. treatment and transport D. empathy for all patients

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A. medical director. B. EMS supervisor. C. local health district. D. state EMS office.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: A. peritonitis. B. high fever. C. severe pain. D. internal bleeding.

The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: A. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. B. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. C. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes. D. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation.

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. injury to you or your patient. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. unnecessarily wasting time. D. confusion among team members.

The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx. A. cricoid B. thyroid C. laryngeal D. pyriform

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. A.) sacrum B.) coccyx C.) lumbar D.) thoracic

The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. A. diaphragm B. costovertebral angle C. costal arch D. mediastinum

The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: A. how rapidly he or she bleeds B. how fast his or her heart beats C. his or her baseline blood pressure D. the part of the body injured

The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. A. communication B. self-confidence C. scene leadership D. teamwork and diplomacy

The accumulation of ketones and fatty acids in blood tissue can lead to a dangerous condition in diabetic patients known as: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. insulin shock. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma. D. hypoglycemia.

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. A. 0.3; 0.15 B. 0.1; 0.01 C. 0.03; 0.3 D. 0.01; 0.1

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: A. 9 and 18 months. B. 6 and 8 months. C. 7 and 14 months. D. 3 and 4 months.

The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. A. fontanelles B. cranial valleys C. sutures D. ventricles

The bones of the forearm are called the: A. radius and ulna. B. humerus and ulna. C. radius and humerus. D. tibia and radius.

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned. B. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. B. most life-threatening condition that you discover. C. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.

The compliance monitoring component of an infection control plan should: A. ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important. B. identify who to notify after an exposure and where treatment should be provided. C. consist of a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids. D. address issues such as medical waste collection, storage, and ambulance disinfection.

The cricoid cartilage: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. B. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. C. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: A. sleeps. B. coughs. C. takes a deep breath. D. holds his or her breath.

The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: A. medial malleolus. B. lateral condyle. C. Achilles tendon. D. lateral malleolus.

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: A. capillaries. B. arteries. C. arterioles. D. venules.

The five vertebrae that form the midback are called the: A. Lumbar spine. B. Coccyx. C. Sacral spine. D. Thoracic spine.

The germinal layer of the epidermis contains pigment granules that are responsible for skin: A. color. B. texture. C. moisture. D. temperature.

The hair follicles, sweat glands and sebaceous glands are found in the: A. dermis B. germinal layer C. epidermis D. subcutaneous layer

The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: A. family history of hepatitis. B. postvaccine antibody titers. C. vaccine safety and efficacy. D. record keeping and tracking.

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: A. femoral arteries. B. peroneal arteries. C. anterior tibial arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. abdomen. D. legs.

The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: A. scapula. B. glenoid. C. acromion. D. clavicle.

The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: A. epiglottis. B. vallecula. C. cricoid ring. D. thyroid cartilage

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. A. maintain homeostasis B. regulate glucose and calcium C. regulate blood flow D. produce glandular secretions

The maximum life expectancy for humans is estimated to be _______ years. A. 120 B. 78 C. 67 D. 56

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. hyperglycemia.

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: A. myocardium. B. endocardium. C. pericardium. D. epicardium.

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. B. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions. C. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth.

The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: A. right-side cerebrum. B. left parietal lobe. C. left-side cerebrum. D. right temporal lobe.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours. D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: A. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. B. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. C. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure.

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: A. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. C. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. D. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: A. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults. B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. C. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. D. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body.

In general what is the maximum amount of acute blood loss the adult body can tolerate? A. 2 liters B. 20% of total blood volume C. 10% of total blood volume D. 12 pints

Solid abdominal organs include the: A. stomach and small intestine. B. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas. C. gallbladder and large intestine. D. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: A. tachycardia. B. a slower heart rate. C. a strong pulse. D. vasoconstriction.

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: A. directly into the muscle tissue. B. between the skin and the muscle. C. below the first layer of muscle. D. through the mucosa under the tongue.

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes:Choose one answer. a. vasovagal shock. b. psychogenic shock. c. neurologic shock. d. neurogenic shock.

The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. C. its use does not require the presence of ALS personnel. D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.

The AEMT should be MOST suspicious of a Le Fort fracture if a patient who experienced massive blunt force trauma to the face presents with: A. misalignment of the teeth. B. mobility of the facial bones. C. numbness of the chin. D. flattening of the cheekbones.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: A. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. B. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. C. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. D. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. A. DCAP B. HIPAA C. CQI D. APGAR

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: a) a hypoxic seizure. b) cerebral edema. c) a skull fracture. d) acute hypotension.

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: A. are elderly. B. are in denial. C. cannot afford it. D. do not trust EMTs.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. mandibular immobility. B. airway compromise. C. cervical spine injury. D. damage to the eyes.

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. severe stress. B. hypertension. C. heavy exertion. D. diabetes mellitus

The _____ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered. A. type B. form C. class D. name

The _______ are found in the retroperitoneal space. A. stomach and gallbladder B. kidneys, ovaries, and pancreas C. liver and pancreas D. adrenal glands and uterus

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. A. coccyx B. sacrum C. ischium D. thorax

The __________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. A. pancreas B. liver C. spleen D. stomach

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. A. sphenoid B. orbit C. mastoid D. occiput

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the: A. bronchioles. B. alveolar sacs. C. apex of the lung. D. pulmonary capillaries.

The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A. pneumotaxic drive. B. hypoxic drive. C. hypocarbic drive. D. oxyhemoglobin drive.

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: A. foramen ovale. B. foramen magnum. C. vertebral foramen. D. spinous foramen.

The central nervous system is composed of the: A. spinal cord and sensory nerves. B. brain and spinal cord. C. brain and sensory nerves. D. motor and sensory nerves.

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. A. only the patient's torso B. one arm above the head C. both arms above the head D. both arms at the patient's sides

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. B. falls and motor vehicle collisions. C. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. D. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.

Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? Select one: A. mediplex B. simplex C. multiplex D. duplex

Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: A. urethra. B. ureters. C. prostate. D. renal duct.

Urticaria is the medical term for: A. swelling. B. hives. C. a wheal. D. burning.

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: A. have a weak immune system. B. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. C. are older than 35 years of age. D. received a hepatitis B vaccination.

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. direct contact. B. animals or insects. C. inanimate objects. D. smoke or dust.

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: A. Suctioning to clear the airway B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation C. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask D. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. vomitus B. the tongue C. blood clots D. aspirated fluid

What is the function of the left atrium? A. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.

What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? A. Intraosseous B. Intramuscular C. Sublingual D. Intravenous

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. dermis B. epidermis C. muscular layer D. subcutaneous layer

What medication form does oral glucose come in: A. Suspension B. Gel C. Liquid D. Fine powder

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar- capillary membrane.

What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? A. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments. B. Follow the agency's written protocols. C. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. D. Deviate from established standards when necessary.

What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? A. acute stress reaction B. cumulative stress reaction C. posttraumatic stress reaction D. critical incident stress reaction

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B. has gathered patient history information. C. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. D. has formed a general impression of the patient.

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: A. 5 seconds. B. 10 seconds. C. 15 seconds. D. 20 seconds.

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: A. use medical terminology. B. use the patient's own words. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document his or her own perception.

When encountering a patient with depressed fontanelles, you should suspect: A. respiratory distress. B. dehydration. C. atherosclerosis. D. nephrosis.

When is forcible restraint permitted? A. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: A. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. C. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.

Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia? A. pleural effusion B. severe anxiety C. pulmonary edema D. prolonged seizures

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? A. Inadequate perfusion B. Acute anxiety C. Drug overdose D. Poisoning

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? A. hypoglycemia B. hypovolemia C. a postictal state D. intracranial bleeding

Which of the following considerations is the most important for the EMT during the scene size-up step of managing a psychiatric emergency? a. Has the patient exhibited this behavior before? b. Do you need to call for law enforcement as additional resources? c. What can family or bystanders explain about this behavior? d. Are legal issues involved?

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? A) Anxiety or severe stress B) Beta-blocker medications C) Internal bleeding from trauma D) Lack of a regular exercise routine

Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? Select one: A. multiplex base station B. hand-held portable radio C. mobile repeater station D. land-base repeater station

Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. gunshot wounds B. cardiac arrest C. spousal abuse D. animal bites

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A. liver laceration B. Cardiac Tamponade C. Simple Pneumothorax D. spinal cord injury

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? A. Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands B. Decreases heart rate and blood pressure C. Constricts the blood vessels D. Dilates passages in the lungs

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A. dilation of blood vessels in the muscles B. constriction of blood vessels in the muscles C. increases in the heart and respiratory rates D. constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A. anxiety B. cyanosis C. tachycardia D. restlessness

Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. B. Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris. D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes.

Which of the following signs is least indicative of a head injury? A. Asymmetrical pupils B. Pupillary constriction to bright light C. Both eyes moving in opposite directions D. Inability to look upward when instructed to

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? A. Irregular breathing pattern B. Seesaw respirations C. Unequal breath sounds D. Unequal chest expansion

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure? A. hypertension and tachycardia B. hypotension and flat jugular veins C. the presence of rales in the lungs D. trouble breathing while lying down

Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? A. increased interest in daily activities B. isolation from the rest of the crew C. hyperactivity during an EMS call D. acute increase in his or her appetite

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? A) Mild pain in the lower abdomen B) Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin C) Decreased ability to move an extremity D) Responsiveness and ability to follow commands

Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs? A. Depressed B. Linear C. Open D. Basilar

Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? A. "It is because of our lousy health care system that I developed this brain tumor." B. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." C. "I understand that my death is inevitable and I am ready to die when the time comes." D. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy."

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. D. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.

Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is MOST correct? A. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. D. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities

Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is MOST correct? Select one: A. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. B. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety. C. Give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. D. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions.

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Cecum D. Stomach

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? A. ventricles B. right C. atria D. left

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. underlying cardiac disease. B. bruising of the heart muscle. C. a lacerated coronary artery. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

While at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. B. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch. C. place both patients in the ambulance and transport at once. D. reattempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain.

While en route to a major MVC, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A.open abdominal injuries B.neck and facial injuries C.lower extremity fractures D.blunt trauma to the head

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? A. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production C. increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production D. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. pancreas. D. kidney.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. C. the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the second collision? A. the bike hitting the car B. The bike rider striking the pavement C. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car D. The bike rider's internal organs striking the solid structures of the body

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: A. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. B. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. C. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. D. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: A. tibia. B. femur. C. patella. D. calcaneus.

Any injury to the _____ should automatically be assumed to have caused spinal injury. A. Head B. Back C. Neck D. Chest

As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: A. the wishes of the general public. B. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. C. locally accepted protocols. D. the priorities of the medical director.

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure: A. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours. B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. C. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. D. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.

The most superior section of the sternum is called the: A. costal arch. B. angle of Louis. C. manubrium. D. xiphoid process.

The parietal peritoneum lines the: A. retroperitoneal space. B. lungs and chest cavity. C. walls of the abdominal cavity. D. surface of the abdominal organs.

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. capitation. B. conversion. C. cavitation. D. congruent.

The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A. esophageal injury. B. cervical spine fracture. C. crushing tracheal injury. D. carotid artery laceration.

Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash

Special considerations you should heed for injuries to the face, mouth, or jaw include: A. Establish manual in-line stabilization of the spine on first contact with the patient and maintain it until a rigid cervical collar is applied. B. Blood loss from facial injuries alone is not enough to cause signs and symptoms of shock. C. The tongue may lose its support structure with a facial injury and may fall back, requiring you to grasp the tongue and pull it forward. D. When the mandible is fractured, it is generally fractured in only one place.

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. alveoli. B. trachea. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles.

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: A. cardiogenic shock. B. severe bradycardia. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. congestive heart failure.

The primary function of the right atrium is to: A. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. B. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation. C. receive blood from the vena cava. D. receive blood from the pulmonary veins.

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: A. lactic acid. B. pyruvic acid. C. carbon dioxide. D. adenosine triphosphate.

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: A. digestion. B. suspension. C. adsorption. D. absorption.

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: A. hold the handle with your fingers. B. rotate your palms down. C. lift with your palms up. D. position your hands about 6² apart.

The purpose of the eustachian tube is to: A.move in response to sound waves. B. transmit impulses from the brain to the ear. C. equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes. D. house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance.

The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: A. 120 to 180 seconds. B. 90 to 120 seconds. C. 60 to 90 seconds. D. 30 seconds.

When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as: A. anger projected toward the EMT or other providers. B. fear of being completely dependent upon other people. C. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage. D. a decreased ability to exercise age-appropriate judgment.

The main legal risk in using the AED is: A. negligence on the part of the manufacturer. B. failure of the AED's internal computer chip. C. failing to deliver a shock when one is needed. D. not assessing for a pulse after a shock is delivered.

The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: A. brachial. B. carotid. C. aorta. D. femoral.

The major goal of quality improvement is to ensure that: a. quarterly audits of the EMS system are performed b. EMT's have received BLS/CPR training c. the public receives the highest standard of care d. the proper information is received in the billing department

The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes? A. "sub-" and "infra-" B. "epi-" and "sub-" C. "peri-" and "circum-" D. "infra-" and "peri-"

What is typically the most important intervention that an EMT can provide to the victim of sexual assault? Select one: A. Control of vaginal bleeding B. Calling for ALS personnel C. Comfort and reassurance D. High-flow oxygen therapy

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. dashboard B. steering wheel C. door D. windshield

a pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the body

Acidosis

After assisting your patient with his or her nitroglycerin, you should: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case he or she faints. B. reassess the blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. D. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: A) determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B) identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. C) look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. D) find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

A patient who presents with vomiting, sign of shock, and history of eating disorder and alcohol abuse is likely to be suffering from: A. diverticulitis B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome C. appendicitis D. cholecytitis

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: A. aphasia. B. dysarthria. C. dysphagia. D. paraplegia.

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma B. diabetic ketoacidosis C. hypoglycemic crisis D. hyperglycemic crisis

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it:Choose one answer. a. induces vomiting and empties the stomach. b. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. c. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. d. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs.

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. B. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. C. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate. D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: A. contact medical control. B. take standard precautions. C. quickly access the patient. D. notify law enforcement.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: A. assess for a carotid pulse. B. immediately resume CPR. C. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm. D. transport the patient at once.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: A. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. C. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. D. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A.) EMT. B.) paramedic. C.) advanced EMT (AEMT). D.) EMR.

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: A. an obstructed airway. B. adequate air exchange. C. respiratory difficulty. D. respiratory insufficiency.

An infant who is repeatedly rejected experiences what type of attachment? A. Secure attachment B. Anxious-avoidant attachment C. Trust and mistrust D. Rejection attachment

An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as___________of blood is lost A. 200 mL B, 100 mL C. 50 mL D. 150 mL

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): A. incision. B. avulsion. C. laceration. D. amputation.

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A. 200 psi. B. 500 psi. C. 1,000 psi. D. 1,500 psi.

As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? A. check for a pulse B. control the bleeding C. open the airway D. administer oxygen

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. B. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. C. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. D. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. be alert for personal hazards. C. look for drug paraphernalia. D. observe the scene for drug bottles.

Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should: A. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes. B. obtain a manual blood pressure. C. conclude that she has hypertension. D. prepare for immediate transport.

At what age can an infant normally start tracking objects with his or her eyes and recognizing familiar faces? A. 7 months B. 2 months C. 4 months D. 10 months

At what step in the ACS-COT/CDC updated field triage decision scheme would you assess mechanism of injury and evidence of high-energy impact? A. step 2 B. step 3 C. step 4 D. step 1

Blood glucose levels are measured in: A. micrograms per deciliter. B. milligrams per deciliter. C. milliliters per decigram. D. microliters per decigram.

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. assist her ventilations with a BVM. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

If a patient with vaginal bleeding presents with a rapid pulse and pale or cool skin, you should: A. attempt to locate the source of bleeding and correct it B. place the patient in a supine position with her legs elevated C. consider this to be a normal sign in a menstruating woman D. inquire about recent problems with urination

If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: A. quickly wipe down all high contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. B. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. C. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. D. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility.

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. A. patient-assisted B. peer-assisted C. EMT-administered D. paramedic-administered

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: A. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin. C. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused. D. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. acute respiratory depression. B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias. C. an increase in her blood pressure. D. a sudden outburst of violence.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. diverts blood flow to the vagina. B. becomes engorged with blood. C. thins and begins to separate. D. sheds and is expelled externally.

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? A. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis B. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles C. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement D. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks C. maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance D. allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. Pressure and pain perception B. Temperature regulation C. Metabolic coordination D. Sensory reception

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of airway obstruction? A. relaxation of the tongue B. aspirated vomitus C. shallow breathing D. foreign objects

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a possible facial fracture? A. Bleeding in the mouth B. Absent or loose teeth C. Bleeding from the forehead D. Loose and/or moveable bone fragments

Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? A. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. B. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells. C. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. D. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph.

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? A. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job B. A person who is experiencing a panic attack C. A person violently attacking family members D. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? A. Depression B. Schizophrenia C. Alzheimer dementia D. Anxiety conditions

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? A. Activities of daily living B. Behavior that is acceptable to the community C. Dressing, eating, or bathing D. All of these answers are correct.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: A. lactic acid. B. oxygen. C. nitrogen. D. heat.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): A. hematoma. B. abrasion. C. crush injury. D. contusion.

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. B. touches another person without his or her consent. C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? A) Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B) Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 C) Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D) Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? A. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. B. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. C. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. D. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries? A. Cervical spine injury B. External hemorrhage C. Airway compromise D. Damage to the eyes

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? A. early administration of high flow oxygen B. rapid administration of intravenous fluids C. decompression of the injured side of the chest D. positive pressure ventilation with bvm

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? A. Sublingual B. Subcutaneous C. Transcutaneous D. Intraosseous

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? A. subcutaneous B. intramuscular C. intraosseous (IO) D. transcutaneous

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? A. diffuse urticaria B. severe hypotension C. upper airway swelling D. systemic vasodilation

Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? A. Pancreas B. Stomach C. Kidney D. Gallbladder

Which of the following organs is part of the lymphatic system and plays a role in regulation of red blood cells and the immune system? A. bladder B. liver C. spleen D. pancreas

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. gallbladder

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A. Ascending aorta B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Gallbladder

Shock is the result of:Choose one answer. A. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. B. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. C. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. D. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a/an: A. displaced mandible. B. airway obstruction. C. basilar skull fracture. D. spinal cord injury.

Significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ___________ of his or her total blood volume: A. 10% B. 15% C. 5% D. 20%

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? A. The time of year in which the exposure occurred B. The patient's family history C. The environment in which the patient is found D. The patient's general physical appearance

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? A) Focused secondary assessment B) Assessment of oxygen saturation C) Systematic head-to-toe examination D) Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. With which of the following conditions is this finding MOST consistent? A. acute asthma attack B.widespread atelectasis C. aspiration pneumonia D. early pulmonary edema

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. lower-extremity fractures. B. blunt trauma to the head. C. neck and facial injuries. D. open abdominal trauma.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: A) atria relaxing. B) atria contracting. C) ventricles relaxing. D) ventricles contracting.

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 10; 40 B. 20; 60 C. 11; 50 D. 10; 70

Who are assessing a patient who is bleeding from the ear, which gives you a high index of suspicion that he has a skull fracture. How should you address this? A. do not do anything. Trying to stop the blood flow will force the blood back into the head B. apply direct pressure C. loosely cover the site D. pack a pressure dressing in the ear canal

Why should you be concerned about a 16-year-old patient who seems depressed? A. She could be exhibiting rebellious behavior. B. She has just finished her growth spurt and may be disappointed in the results. C. Adolescents are at a higher risk for suicide. D. She may be having unprotected sex.

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100

You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. a. the state motor vehicle department b. law enforcement personnel c. the receiving nurse or doctor d. your medical director

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: A. assess the effectiveness of the bystanders' CPR. B. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. C. have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient. D. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck. B. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. C. apply direct pressure above and below the wound. D. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point.

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: A. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. B. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. C. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. D. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

An abdominal evisceration: A. is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma. B. should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings. C. often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss. D. occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: A. obtaining baseline vital signs. B. providing immediate transport. C. gathering medical history data. D. airway, breathing, and circulation.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: A. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. B. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. C. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position D. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: A. .357 magnum. B. handgun. C. .22-caliber pistol. D. shotgun.

Hypovolemic shock occurs when:Choose one answer. a. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. b. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. c. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. d. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.

Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: A. low venous oxygen levels. B. a decrease in arterial oxygen levels. C. an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood. D. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.

If a patient misses a dialysis treatment, weakness and _____ can be the first in a series of conditions that can become progressively more serious. A. diarrhea B. chest pain C. vomiting D. pulmonary edema

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: A. inspiratory reserve is increased. B. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. minute volume is decreased.

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A. Fractured bones B. Severe burns C. Impaled objects D. Stomach rupture

Prior to defibrillating a patient with an AED, it is MOST important that you: A. properly position the defibrillation pads. B. perform up to 5 minutes of effective CPR. C. confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest. D. ensure that no one is touching the patient.

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation. B. respirations of 18 breaths/min. C. bilaterally clear breath sounds. D. a reduction in tidal volume.

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. Select one: A. hypotension B. severe bleeding C. severe abdominal pain D. slight cramping

Stealing from a parent's wallet and denying it when caught is an example of _______ reasoning. A. postconventional B. psychosocial C. conventional D. preconventional

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: A) who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. B) with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. C) who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D) with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:Select one: A. assess only the parts of the body that are injured. B. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. C. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. D. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is: A. a lack of pain despite the severity of the injury. B. extreme redness to the injury site. C. a bounding pulse distal to the injury. D. pain out of proportion to the injury.

The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." A. cerebellum B. brain stem C. diencephalon D. cerebrum

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: A. uvula. B. vallecula. C. pharynx. D. epiglottis

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A. pulmonary arteries. B. inferior venae cavae. C. superior venae cavae. D. pulmonary veins.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: A. cerebellum. B. cerebrum. C. cerebral cortex. D. brain stem.

The most common presenting sign of pelvic inflammatory disease is: A. vaginal discharge B. fever C. nausea and vomiting D. lower abdominal pain

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________. A. coronary sinus, vena cava B. aorta, inferior vena cava C. vena cava, coronary veins D. coronary arteries, aorta

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of their arrival at the hospital. B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. C. informs dispatch of their arrival at the emergency department. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. A. 70, 28 B. 88, 30 C. 90, 50 D. 104, 40

The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: A. sacrum and ischium. B. pubis and acetabulum. C. ilium, pubis, and sacrum. D. ilium, ischium, and pubis.

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: A. stroke volume. B. cardiac output. C. systole. D. diastole.

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A. on the dorsum of the foot. B. above the lateral malleolus. C. in the fossa behind the knee. D. behind the medial malleolus.

The presence of air in the soft tissues of the neck that produces a crackling sensation is called: A. the "Rice Krispy" effect B. a pnumothorax C. rales D. subcutaneous emphysema

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi). A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

The smooth muscles that cause the artery to contract are found in the: A. tunica intima. B. lumen. C. tunica adventitia. D. tunica media.

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: A) stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. B) all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. C) responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D) patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

The systemic veins function by: A. delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries B. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium C. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries D. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart

The term "hyphema" is defined as: A. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. B. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. C. compression of one or both optic nerves. D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: A. a surgical opening made in the heart. B. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. C. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. D. the removal of fluid from around the heart.

The three major parts of the brain are the: A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. B. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. C. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should:Select one: A. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. B. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. C. push the patient from an overhead position if possible. D. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: A. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. B. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. C. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. D. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. A. public forums with their medical director B. online access to patient records C. an anonymous reporting system D. a privacy officer to answer questions

Treatment of electrical burns includes: A. maintaining the airway B. monitoring the patient closely for respiratory or cardiac arrest C. splinting any suspected injuries D. all of the above

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: A) remove all bystanders. B) request another ambulance. C) move the patient to safety. D) ensure that you are safe.

When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT should: A. immediately refer them to a counselor. B. tell them that their feelings are understood. C. refrain from using words such as "died" or "dead." D. acknowledge the death of their child in private.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: A. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should: A. place the child's head in a slightly extended position. B. secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs. C. defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort. D. place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

When investigating the chief complaint of a psychiatric emergency, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? A. Are psychogenic circumstances or illnesses involved? B. Are hallucinogens or other drugs or alcohol a factor? C. Is the patient's central nervous system functioning properly? D. All of these answers are correct.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: A) count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. B) count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four. C) count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. D) count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A. apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient. B. apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a short backboard. C. grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car. D. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

When prioritizing care for the victim of a sexual assault, the EMT should focus on _________ first. Select one: A. preserving evidence B. relaying the patient's account of the event to law enforcement C. soft-tissue injuries D. life-threatening injuries

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. A. 5 to 10 inches B. 20 to 30 inches C. 10 to 15 inches D. 15 to 20 inches

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. spoken in a loud voice. B. coded and scripted. C. lengthy and complete. D. brief and easily understood.

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: A. immerse the affected part in warm water. B. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection. C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing. D. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: A. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume B. the older patients; central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock C. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause and unusually fast heart rate D. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying which increases risk for vominiting

Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? A. It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling. B. It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes. C. Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes. D. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest.

Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion? A. The headache began suddenly B. There is associated neck stiffness C. There is numbness in the extremities D. The pain is worse when bending over

Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the "three- collision" effect that occurs during a high- speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? A. Extensive damage to the automobile B. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures C.Massive external trauma with severe bleeding D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and waste away from body tissues? A. white blood cells B. platelets C. plasma D. red blood cells

Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? A. Motor B. Vertebral C. Cranial D. Sensory

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A. Informed B. Formal C. Implied D. Expressed

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Frontal and rotational B. Lateral and rollover C. Rear-end and rotational D. Rotational and rollover

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place. C. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. D. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: A. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. B. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. C. place him in a supine position and open his airway. D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

You should NOT remove an injured football player's helmet if: A. a cervical spine injury is suspected, even if the helmet fits loosely. B. the patient has a patent airway, even if he has breathing difficulty. C. he has broken teeth, but only if the helmet does not fit snugly in place. D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.

D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should: a. transport the patient to a psychiatric facility. b. inquire about the possibility of head trauma. c. conclude that the patient's blood sugar is high. d. allow the patient to refuse transport if she wishes

You are assessing a patient involved in a motorcycle accident. He states that he saw an oncoming car and "laid the bike down" to avoid an outright collision. He was wearing a helmet. Which of the following injuries would make sense given the action of the motorcyclist? Select one: a. Bilateral broken forearms b. Burn to the inside of the leg c. "Road rash" to the entire body d. Angulation to both femurs

The EMT understands the importance of evaluating the mechanism of injury when he states: Select one: a. "The mechanism of injury is a useful tool in determining if the patient's outcome will be good or bad." b. "Evaluating the mechanism of injury is important since it determines whether emergency transport to the hospital is needed." c. "The mechanism of injury can be used to guide your assessment and treatment of the patient." d. "The mechanism of injury is useful in determining the exact injuries the patient has sustained."

an abnormally high blood glucose level.

hyperglycemia

You respond to a 38-year-old man who fell while rock climbing. He is unconscious with an open airway. The respiration and pulse rates are within normal limits. His distal pulses are intact. You check his pupils and find that they are unequal. You know this could be a sign of:

increased intracranial pressure.

a hormone produced by the islets of langerhans (endocrine gland located throughout the pancreas) that enables glucose in the blood to enter cells; used in synthetic form to treat and control diabetes mellitus.

insulin

a condition in which insulin resistance develops in response to increased blood glucose levels; can be managed by exercise and diet modification, but is often managed by medications.

type 2 diabetes

Helmets must be removed in all of the following cases, EXCEPT:

when there are no impending airway or breathing problems.

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? A. Whooping cough B. H1N1 C. MRSA D. Avian flu

_________ regulates the amount of glucose in the bloodstream A. Bicarbonate B. Amylase C. Insulin D. Bile

Infected pouches in the lining of the colon are associated with: A. Cholecystitis B. Cystitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Diverticulitis

In non trauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A. dizziness upon standing B. rapid, shallow breathing C. a rapid, thready pulse D. a decreasing blood pressure

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A. lips or oral mucosa. B. forehead and face. C. back of the neck. D. dorsum of the hand.

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. A) radial B) carotid C) brachial D) femoral

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. A. 60, 100 B. 50, 110 C. 40, 120 D. 30, 130

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? A. alveoli B. trachea C. bronchi D. capillaries

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. B. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. C. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. D. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical.

A fall from more than______times the patients hight is considered to be significant A. three B. four C. two D. five

A hemia that returns to its proper body cavity is said to be: A. reducible B. extractable C. incarcerated D. replaceable

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. lacrimal gland. B. optic chiasma. C. posterior orbit. D. corneal duct.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? A. 10 to 18 months B. 24 to 36 months C. 6 to 8 months D. 18 to 24 months

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. A. distal B. proximal C. superior D. dorsal

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: A. ventricular contraction. B. ventricular filling. C. ventricular relaxation. D. atrial contraction.

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? A. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. B. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. C. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing. D. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. Feedback

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.

You respond to a 25 year-old man who has cut his arm with a circular saw. The bleeding appears to be bright red and spurting. The patient is alert and oriented and converses with you freely. He appears to be stable at this point. What is your first step in controlling his bleeding? A. following standard precautions B. applying direct pressure C. elevating the arm D. maintaining the airway

Angina pectoris occurs when: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: A. bronchi. B. alveoli. C. pleura. D. capillaries.

As the cells on the surface of the skin are worn away, now cells form in the _____ layer. A. dermal B. germinal C. epidermal D. subcutaneous

When a patient's respirations are shallow: A) chest rise will be easily noticeable. B) tidal volume is markedly reduced. C) oxygenation occurs more efficiently. D) carbon dioxide elimination is increased.

When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should: A. dilate. B. constrict. C. remain the same size. D. dilate, and then constrict.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.

A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a rapid, thready pulse. B. widening pulse pressure. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decerebrate posturing.

A. a rapid, thready pulse.

A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. subdural hematoma. C. concussion. D. contusion.

A. epidural hematoma.

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.

The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A. immediate reassessment following the intervention. B. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. C. reassessing the patient's blood pressure after at least 10 minutes. D. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.

A. immediate reassessment following the intervention.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. D. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.

A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. vertebral body. C. vertebral arch. D. intervertebral disc.

A. spinal canal.

If you do not have the appropriate-size cervical collar, you should: A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.

A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head.

As time progresses following a significant injury: A. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. B. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. C. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. D. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding.

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: A. apply pressure to the brachial artery B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist C. administer high flow supplemental oxygen D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages

A 35-year-old mildly obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is: A. acute cystitis. B. acute cholecystitis. C. appendicitis. D. pancreatitis.

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?Select one: a. Audible breathing b. Forceful coughing c. Inspiratory stridor d. Unresponsiveness

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? A. labored breathing B. dependent edema C. pulmonary edema D. flat jugular veins

You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: A) you note gross deformity to the pelvic area. B) the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. C) the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis. D) the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out.

______ burns cause intense pain. A. First-degree B. Second-degree C. Superficial D. Third-degree

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A. somatic B. connecting C. peripheral D. autonomic

B. Connecting

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: A. weak. B. strong. C. regular. D. irregular

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

B. a decreased level of consciousness.

The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.

B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: A. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. B. hands are held close to the legs. C. back is bent forward at the hips. D. force is exerted straight down the spine.

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12' from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Lateral impact to the spine B. Direct trauma to the spinal column C. Energy transmission to the spine D. Secondary fall after the initial impact

A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation with a gang member. As your partner is applying 100% oxygen, you perform a rapid secondary assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: A. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. B. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once. C. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. D. direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

An adolescent is a person between the ages of: A. 6 and 12 years. B. 3 and 6 years. C. 12 and 18 years. D. 10 and 19 years.

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Non-intact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel

An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between: A. 8 and 15 breaths/min. B. 10 and 18 breaths/min. C. 12 and 20 breaths/min. D. 16 and 24 breaths/min.

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. B. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.

A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury was MOST likely caused by ___________ blast injuries. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: A. abdomen B. egg C. fallopian tubes D. cervix

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? A. liver B. kidney C. spleen D. pancreas

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Collapsed dashboard B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage C. Deformed steering wheel D. Caved-in passenger door

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? A. Stacked empty barrels B. A large cluster of shrubs C. A concrete barricade D. Behind a car door

a 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first A. place the patient on high-flow oxygen B. apply direct pressure to the wound C. following appropriate standard precautions D. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment

hypovolemic shock A. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced B. at least 10% of the patients blood volume is lost C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss D. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg

t is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may: A. inject illicit drugs. B. be self-destructive. C. be homicidal as well. D. have a definitive plan.

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

C. 3

A young male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident, but remembers that he was going to a birthday party. What is the correct term to use when documenting his memory loss? A. Concussion B. Cerebral contusion C. Retrograde amnesia D. Anterograde amnesia

C. Retrograde amnesia

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. Central B. Sensory C. Somatic D. Autonomic

C. Somatic

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out. D. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.

C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out.

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should: A. insert a nasal airway, assess his respirations, and give 100% oxygen. B. suction his airway and apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth. D. apply a cervical collar, suction his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations.

C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth.

"Myo" in the word myocarditis means: A. vein. B. bone. C. cartilage. D. muscle.

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. leave her bicycle helmet on. C. inspect the helmet for cracks. D. stabilize her entire spine.

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. A. 36% B. 45% C. 27% D. 18%

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A. High flow oxygen administration B. full mobilization of her spine C. intravenous fluid administration D. rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? A. lungs B. larynx C. bronchioles D. esophagus

______________ is inadequate tissue perfusion A. hypertension B. contraction C. hyperperfusion D. shock

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. cerebral contusion B. subdural hematoma C. cerebral concussion D. epidural hematoma

D. Epidural hematoma

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? A. No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities B. Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally C. Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling. D. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

D. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. C. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

A reflex arc occurs when: A. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS. B. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body. C. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. D. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

D. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. C. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

A form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in w hich certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available.

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a concussion?

Muscle tremors

The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as: a. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member. b. any reaction that interferes with activities of daily living or is deemed unacceptable by others. c. a situation in which a patient demonstrates bizarre behavior and becomes a risk to other people. d. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications.

When responding to a psychiatric emergency, it is recommended that the EMT obtain vital signs ____________. a. on each and every patient b. only when doing so will not exacerbate the patient's distress c. beginning with blood pressure d. without using pulse oximetry

A male patient has sustained gunshot wounds to the neck and abdomen. He is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. Your immediate action would be to: Select one: a. immobilize the spine. b. suction the airway. c. insert a nasal airway. d. obtain vital signs.

Emergency Medical Responders have removed an intoxicated and confused patient from a car that struck another car at a high rate of speed. The patient was unrestrained and his car did not have airbags. Assessment reveals deformity bilaterally to the hips and femurs and bruising to the knees. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize what type of injury mechanism? Select one: a. High velocity b. Down and under c. Up and over d. Lateral impact

You are hosting a discussion on injury prevention when a participant asks you if you believe that helmets for motorcyclists will truly make a difference. You would respond by saying: Select one: a. "Helmets have been shown to prevent motorcycle accidents." b. "Motorcycle helmets decrease the risk of death when involved in a collision." c. "Wearing a helmet decreases the chance of being ejected from a motorcycle." d. "A motorcycle helmet decreases the chance of permanent spinal injury."

The lower jawbone is called the: A. maxillae. B. zygoma. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: A. stomach. B. intestine. C. bowel. D. tongue.

A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: A. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first. B. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside. C. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time. D. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer.

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A. ability of the blood to effectively clot B. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen C. white blood cells' ability to fight infection D. systolic blood pressure exclusively

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. B. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. C. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. D. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: A. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. B. position her legs well above the level of her heart. C. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. D. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. protect her airway from aspiration. B. keep her supine and elevate her legs. C. rapidly transport her to the hospital. D. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: A. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries. B. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. C. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. D. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. padding between the ear and the scalp. B. covering the wound with a moist dressing. C. applying a tight pressure dressing. D. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. C. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. D. assist her breathing with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. D. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg aspirin, and assess her further. B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. C. give her 100% oxygen, attach the AED, and transport immediately. D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20′ and is lying unconscious on the ground the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing.

Burns are classified according to: A. depth and extent. B. location and pain. C. degree and location. D. extent and location.

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: A. Recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs B. Give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport C. Transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin D. Assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions

A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel B. tell the family member that it is not your fault. C. subdue the family member until the police arrive. D. ignore the family member and assess the patient.

A construction worker fell approximately 30′ and landed in a pile of steel rods. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic and has a 10″ steel rod impaled in his left leg. You should: A. control the bleeding, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), stabilize the steel rod, immobilize his spine, and transport immediately. B. remove the steel rod, control the bleeding, apply an automated external defibrillator (AED), begin CPR, and transport to a trauma center. C. stabilize the steel rod, control the bleeding, begin CPR, and rapidly transport to a trauma center. D. control the bleeding, carefully remove the steel rod, begin CPR, and transport as soon as possible.

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: A) loss of vascular tone. B) arterial constriction. C) increased blood volume. D) forceful cardiac contraction.

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it: A. may cause harm or have no positive effect. B. produces actions other than the desired ones. C. is used to treat a multitude of conditions. D. is used to treat a specific medical condition.

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that: A. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them. B. produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication. C. stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them. D. enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. B. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. D. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.

A palpable pulse is created by: A. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. D. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. bilateral. B. medial. C. proximal. D. unilateral.

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A) flushed and red. B) mottled and cool. C) pale and moist. D) cyanotic and dry.

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding:Select one: A. date and event. B. event and person. C. time and place. D. person and place.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. tolerance. B. withdrawal. C. dependence. D. addiction.

A person's response to their environment is defined as ____________. A. behavior B. activities C. crisis D. emergency

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: A) two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. B) one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C) one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. D) the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral concussion. B. cerebral contusion. C. intracerebral hematoma. D. intracranial hemorrhage.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye. B. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. C. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. D. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: A. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. B. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. C. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. D. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. B. insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids. C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. 6. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. repeat the order to medical control word for word. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. ask the physician to repeat the order. D. perform the intervention as ordered.

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): A. side effect. B. unpredictable effect. C. untoward effect. D. therapeutic effect

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: A. report the incident to the appropriate authorities. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. D. advise the child that he will need rabies shots.

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when: A. myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen. B. the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions. C. coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart. D. the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A) be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. B) assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C) exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D) have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A.) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B.) demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. C.) ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D.) reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. B. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? A. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain B. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain C. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion D. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. liver failure. B. kidney failure. C. gastric ulcers. D. CNS depression.

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: A. requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). B. begins to vomit. C. regains consciousness. D. has increased tidal volume.

An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: A. trauma to the pelvis. B .blunt abdominal trauma. C.a severe closed head injury. D.penetrating thoracic trauma.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. B. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. C. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. D. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a:Choose one answer. a. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. b. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. c. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. d. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature.

Anaphylaxis is not always life threatening, but it typically involves: A. multiple organ systems B. wheezing C. urticaria D. wheals

Any attempt to physically restrain a patient should involve ____________. A. law enforcement B. sedatives C. ALS personnel D. All of these answers are correct.

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. B. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. C. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. D. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly.

As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: A. may not be obvious or present all the time. B. usually manifest suddenly and without warning. C. cannot be identified and can cause health problems. D. are most effectively treated with medications.

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. medical director approval. B. the transport time to the hospital. C. the patient's condition. D. an order from a paramedic.

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. maintain stabilization of the head. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. prepare the immobilization equipment. D. assess the rest of the body for bleeding

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: A. prevents the aggregation of platelets. B. dissolves the coronary artery clot. C. causes direct coronary vasodilation. D. reduces the associated chest pain.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: A. immune system. B. endocrine system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.

Awareness of and concern for potentially serious obvious underlying injuries is referred to as the: A. index of suspicion B. mechasim of injury C. scene size-up D. general impression

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: A. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. B. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. oxycodone (Percocet). B. ecstasy. C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). D. crack cocaine.

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: A. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. B. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. D. most burns in children are the result of child abuse.

Capnography is used to: A) determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. B) assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin. C) trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. D) assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues.

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle. B. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. D. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: A. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed: A. perfusion B. hypoperfusion C. coagulation D. hemorrhage

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:Choose one answer. a. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. b. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. c. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. shallow chest movement. B. use of accessory muscles. C. supraclavicular retractions. D. gasping attempts to breathe

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. distrust of the EMT. B. mental disorders. C. history of chronic disease. D. fear of medical personnel.

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. drowsiness. B. tachycardia. C. headache. D. dizziness.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. combative behavior. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decreased sensory function.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.

Diarrhea is the principle symptom in: A. Gastroenteritis B. Esophagitis C. Pancreatits D. Peptic Ulcers

Distension of the abdomen is gauged by: A. visualization B. auscultaion C. palpation D. the patients complaint of pain around the umbilicus.

Double vision, a marked decrease in vision, or a loss of sensation above the eyebrow, over the cheek, or in the upper lip may be caused by a(n): A. Orbital fracture. B. Temporal bone fracture. C. Cervical spine injury. D. Detached retina.

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. B. before you load the patient into the ambulance. C. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. D. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of: A. 7. B. 9. C. 8. D. 10.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D.labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts. A.rear-end B.rollover C.frontal D.lateral

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I cannot remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. B. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block.

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. fallopian tube B. cervix C. uterus D. vagina

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. wheezing and hypotension are present. B. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. C. a paramedic is present at the scene. D. the reaction produces severe urticaria.

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who: A. drink a lot of alcohol. B. have severe diabetes. C. have a history of esophagitis. D. have weak immune systems.

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. A. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill B. and needs medication administered to control them C. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT D. because mental illness affects everyone

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: A. polyphagia. B. polydipsia. C. dysphasia. D. dyspepsia.

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the speed of the fall. B. the primary impact point. C. the surface struck.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. intracranial bleeding. B. airway compromise. C. a fracture of the skull. D. spinal cord injury.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. a blowout fracture. B. a lacerated globe. C. optic vessel compression. D. a ruptured eyeball.

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. such injuries can affect the respiratory system. B. hospital staff require frequent patient updates. C. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries. D. they lend credibility to your documentation.

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. immobilization of the injury. B. prevention of contamination. C. protection from further injury. D. control of external hemorrhage.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. water or blood within the alveoli. C. surfactant-destroying organisms. D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

Headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and seizures are all considered early signs of: A. increased intracranial pressure. B. decreased intracranial pressure. C. increased extracranial pressure. D. decreased extracranial pressure.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung tissue. C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for the lungs to expand. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during the inhalation phase.

How soon do cells in the brain and spinal cord start to die without constant perfusion? A. within 4-6 minutes B. within 15-20 C. after 2-3 hours D. within 45 minutes

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a narcotic overdose. B. a respiratory infection. C. an overdose of aspirin. D. high blood glucose levels.

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. B. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. C. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. D. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: A. properly dispose of the syringe. B. record the time and dose given. C. reassess the patient's vital signs. D. notify medical control of your action.

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: A. pandemics. B. epidemics. C. uncontrolled outbreaks. D. parasitic infection

In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is: A. infection. B. hypothermia. C. nerve damage. D. vessel damage.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.

In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation: A. requires a lower energy setting. B. delivers all shocks at 360 joules. C. begins with 300 joules and escalates. D. is only effective for ventricular tachycardia.

In lifting with the palm down, the weight is supported by the _____ rather than the palm.Select one: A. fingers B. forearm C. lower back D. wrist

In preconventional reasoning, children: A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. B. make decisions based on their conscience. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: A. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. B. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. C. their intercostal muscles are not functional. D. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. diabetes mellitus. D. elevated cholesterol.

Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first __________ following exposure.Choose one answer. a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 90 minutes d. 5 minutes

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.

Motion of the mandible occurs at the: A. temporomandibular joint B. mastoid process C. chin D. mandibular ankle

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. A. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States B. reduce expenses at the local and state levels C. facilitate a national EMS labor group D. unify EMS providers under a single medical director

Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. B. increasing the amount of work that is placed on the myocardium. C. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A.) individual EMT. B.) State Bureau of EMS. C.) EMS training officer. D.) EMS medical director.

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia: Choose one answer. a. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness. b. do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body. c. always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels. d. are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: A. external respiration. B. cellular metabolism. C. pulmonary ventilation. D. alveolar ventilation.

The purpose of defibrillation is to: A. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. B. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. C. improve the chance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) being successful in resuscitation. D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.

The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to: A. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder. B. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder. D. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range.

The root "melan/o" means: A. black. B. red. C. gray. D. white.

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. B. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. C. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. D. facilitates shedding of the epidermis.

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A. wash your hands in between patient contacts. B. undergo an annual physical examination. C. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. D. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.

The skin and underlying tissues of the face: A. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily. B. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. C. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers. D. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.

The sperm typically fertilizes the egg in the _________. Select one: A.fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovary

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: A. foramen magnum. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen lamina. D. cauda equina.

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: A. careless handling of sharps. B. a lack of proper immunizations. C. excessive blood splashing or splattering. D. a noncompliance with standard precautions.

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A.) state office of EMS. B.) regional trauma center. C.) American Heart Association. D.) National Registry of EMTs.

The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. A. erythrocytes and leukocytes B. platelets and plasma C. transport and clotting D. hemoglobin A and S

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: A. the skin B. the heart C. the brain D. the lungs

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. center of the mouth to the posterior ear. C. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. D. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. A. occipital B. parietal C. frontal D. tempora

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: A. all the patients have been triaged. B. a physician arrives at the scene. C. area hospitals have been notified. D. the number of patients is known.

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. determine if you need additional help. C. request a paramedic unit for assistance. D. gain immediate access to the patient.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: A. put on high-visibility safety vests. B. quickly begin the triage process. C. report to the incident commander. D. assist with vehicle stabilization.

Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles. B. loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion. C. airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production. D. acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: A. cardiovascular disease. B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes. C. reactive airway disease. D. bacterial infection.

When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should: A. prevent contamination of the opposite eye. B. immediately cover the injured eye with a sterile dressing. C. avoid irrigating the eye, as this may cause further injury. D. irrigate both eyes simultaneously, even if only one eye is injured.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. B. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures. C. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. D. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. B. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. D. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: A. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. C. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. D. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: A. a seizure. B. an acute stroke. C. respiratory distress. D. a febrile convulsion.

When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: Select one: A. determine the degree of the patient's impairment. B. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. C. expect him or her to have difficulty understanding. D. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.

When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. B. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. C. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. D. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age.

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car-versus-pedestrian collision, you should first: A. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. C. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. D. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: A) repeating statements back to him or her. B) using medical terminology whenever possible. C) maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. D) interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: A) avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. B) ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. C) avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. D) firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: A. focus on his or her chief complaint. B. examine the patient from head to toe. C. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen. D. prepare the patient for transport first.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A. bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D. viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? A. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up B. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions C. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A. Ears B. Back C. Soles of the feet D. Scalp

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? A. Jugular venous distention B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium C. Unequal breath sounds D. Use of the accessory muscles

Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. the filtering of blood cells in the spleen B. an intact system of the blood vessels C. adequate blood in the vasculature D. an effectively pumping heart

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? A. Substance abuse B. Schizophrenia C. Alzheimer disease D. Depression

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men? A. cystitis B. hepatitis C. pancreatitis D. cholecystitis

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? A. Blindness B. Depression C. Alcoholism D. Hepatitis B

Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? A. EMT B. EMR C. AEMT D. Paramedic

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. B. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body. C. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. D. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? A. shallow breathing B. increased tidal volume C. respirations of 20 breaths/min D. slight decrease in respiratory rate

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Aortic rupture B. Forehead lacerations C. Flail chest D. Extremity fractures

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? A. a rapid heart rate B. syncope or dizziness C. heart rate less than 60 beats/min D. generalized weakness

Which of the following is NOT true of medical control? A.It is determined by the dispatcher b. It may be written or "standing orders." c. it may require online radio or phone consultation d. it describes the care authorized by the medical director.

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? A. Avoid touching without permission. B. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. C. Examine extremities first. D. Always work toe-to-head.

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? A. poisoning B. head trauma C. brain tumor D. massive stroke

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C. The systolic blood pressure decreases. D. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? A. circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest B. full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area (BSA) C. partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA D. superficial burn covering 50% of the BSA

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? A. Developing a social network outside of EMS B. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric disorder? A. Depression B. Hypoxia C. Low blood glucose D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? A. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. B. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route. C. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. D. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient.

Which of the following is an example of a trade name of a drug. A. Tylenol B. Ibuprofen C. Furosemide F. Nitroglycerin

Which of the following should NOT be used as an occlusive dressing? A. Gauze pads B. Vaseline gauze C. Aluminum foil D. Plastic

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? A) Seesaw breathing B) Rapid respirations C) Pursed-lip breathing D) Accessory muscle use

Which of the following signs/symptoms is considered particularly significant in gynecological emergencies? Select one: A. Syncope B. Abdominal cramping C. Painful urination D. Vaginal bleeding

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? Select one: A. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated." B. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day." C. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." D. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle."

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the treatment of bleeding from a neck injury? A. Apply firm pressure to the carotid artery to reduce the amount of bleeding. B. Apply pressure to the bleeding site using a gloved fingertip C. Apply a sterile occlusive dressing D. Use gauze to secure the dressing in place

Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? A. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted. B. Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops. C. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume. D. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast, irregular breaths.

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? Select one: A. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. B. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx.

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass. B. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. C. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of internal injury.

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? A. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously B. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets C. approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia D. hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? A. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. B. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s. C. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. D. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.

Which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? A. External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive. B. The degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. C. It is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field. D. The depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the EMT.

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? A. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. B. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma.

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. B. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape. C. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. D. Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm.

Why do finances become an issue during middle adulthood? A. Middle adults are often supporting both their children and their parents. B. Middle adults make less money than early adults. C. Their deteriorating health makes it difficult to get to work. D. Hearing loss prevents them from working.

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? A. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. B. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. C. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. D. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.

Which of the following statements regarding the "Adam's apple" is FALSE? A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. B. It is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. It is the uppermost part of the larynx. D. It is more prominent in men than in women

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? A. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. B. Defibrillation is the first link in the American Heart Association chain of survival. C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. D. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED.

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. C. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. B. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? a. the secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint b. during the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patients vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history c. the secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patients condition d. a secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment

Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? A. "Things will get better in time." B. "It is okay to be angry and sad." C. "This must be painful for you." D. "Tell me how you are feeling."

Which of the following would be the first sign of hypovolemic shock? A. anxiety b. pale skin color C. decreasing blood pressure D. nausea and vomiting

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output? A. increased heart rate and increased stroke volume B. decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate C. decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume D. decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock) A. gastrointestinal system B. skeletal muscle C. brain D. kidneys

Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? A. Cerebellum B. Brain stem C. Hypothalamus D. Cerebrum

Which type of MVC presents the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A.rotational and rollover B.rear-end and rotational C.lateral and rollover D.frontal and rotational

Which type of bleeding is characterized by a bright red color and spurting? A. arterial B. venous C. hemoptysis D. capillary

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Off-line B. Radio C. Direct D. Online

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? A. Indirect contact B. Direct contact C. Vector-borne transmission D. Airborne transmission

While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as: A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. coaching them through the grieving process. D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude.

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? A. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency. B. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. C. EMTs respond with law enforcement. D. EMTs have to restrain patients.

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: A. the blood vessels become stiff. B. the arteries dilate significantly. C. diastolic blood pressure decreases. D. the blood thickens as a person ages.

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: A. children who are younger than 6 years of age. B. patients who are significantly hypotensive. C. children who are older than 6 years of age. D. patients with decreased peripheral perfusion

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). B. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon). C. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. D. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: A. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. B. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. C. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: A. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. B. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: A. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED without delay. B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. D. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. C. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should: A. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. B. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured. C. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient. D. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.

You are caring for a 35-year-old female with pregnancy-related complications. She is clearly experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your MOST appropriate action would be to: A. demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice. B. discourage her from expressing fears until a counselor is available. C. explain to her that "everything will be all right" in order to calm her down. D. restrain her if she is extremely emotional and will not calm down.

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: A. recovery position and transport. B. ventilatory assistance and transport. C. high-flow oxygen and transport. D. oral glucose gel and transport.

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: A. suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen. B. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport. C. use a bag-mask device to assist her ventilations. D. place her on her side and prepare for rapid transport.

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 8-year-old boy cradling his swollen deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm 'snapped' when he jumped into the sand below. An adult bystander tells you that the boy kept trying to impress his friends with more and more dangerous stunts on the play structure prior to the injury. This is an indication of ________ reasoning. A. conventional B. preconventional C. unconventional D. postconventional

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease? Select one: A. A shuffling gait when walking B. Bright red blood in the urine C. A history of ectopic pregnancy D. Vaginal passage of blood clots

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A. determine if she was injured when she fainted. B. provide emotional support regarding her sister. C. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. D. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself. B. remain at least 3 feet away from the patient and apply a surgical mask on him. C. apply a sterile surgical mask on yourself and a HEPA respirator on the patient. D. apply a nasal cannula on the patient and a sterile surgical mask on yourself.

You are transporting a 54-year-old male in cardiac arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner attempt to resuscitate the patient. What is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? Select one: A. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. B. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise them of the situation. C. Call the receiving hospital with your cellular phone as you attempt resuscitation. D. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise them of your arrival.

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: A. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. C. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. D. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared.

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. turn the backboard onto its side. B. reassess his breathing adequacy. C. quickly suction his oropharynx. D. alert the hospital of the situation.

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should: A. reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations. B. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for bleeding. C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. D. ensure that you are delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds.

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight-fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: A. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. B. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations. C. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. D. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. B. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. C. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. D. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. In addition to the patient's presentation, which of the following would NOT be an additional expected sign or symptom? A. Diarrhea B. Hematuria C. Nausea D. Vomiting

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. You should transport her: A. in a position of comfort. B. supine. C. left lateral recumbent. D. in the recovery position.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A) start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. B) ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. C) perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. D) notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two treatments. After applying high-flow oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should: A. leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport. B. place him in a supine position, elevate his lower extremities, and transport at once. C. treat for shock and request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene and assist you. D. perform a detailed secondary assessment and then transport him to a dialysis center.

You should not use tweezers or forceps to remove an embedded stinger because: A. squeezing may cause the stinger to inject more venom into the wound B. the stinger may break off in the wound C. the tweezers are not sterile and may cause infection D. removing the stinger may cause bleeding

You should use a rigid _____, often called a Stokes litter, to carry a patient across uneven terrain from a remote location that is inaccessible by ambulance or other vehicle.Select one: A. basket stretcher B. scoop stretcher C. molded backboard D. flotation device

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: A. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output. B. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. C. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. D. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, his Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 8. B. 11. C. 9. D. 10.

Your patient is complaining of chest pain. He states it feels just like his last heart attack. You have applied oxygen with no relief. He does not take any medications. His BP is 88/64, pulse is 100, and respirations are 20. Your treatment should include. A. Asprin B. Nitroglycerin C. albuterol MDI D. epinephrine

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. A. compensated shock B. decompensated shock C. late shock D. irreversible shock

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Osmotic D. Oncotic

what level of trauma center provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations, but not definitive care for all patients A. Level III B. Level I C. Level IV D. Level II

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. C. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.

A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater.

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex

A. brain stem

The brain, a part of the central nervous system (CNS), is divided into the: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. cerebrum, brain stem, and spinal cord. C.cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord. D. spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebral cortex.

A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: A. herniation of the brain stem. B. internal bleeding in the chest. C. an underlying skull fracture. D. decreased cerebral blood flow.

A. herniation of the brain stem.

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: A. slow. B. weak. C. rapid. D. irregular.

A. slow.

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag. B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug. D. position her on her left side and transport at once.

A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his arm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed. Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be MOST concerned that this patient has: A. internal hemorrhage. B. compartment syndrome. C. a severe closed fracture. D. damage to the radial nerve.

A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? A. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 B. He is currently not prescribed any medications C. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure D. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: A. albuterol. B. epinephrine. C. an antihistamine. D. a beta-antagonist.

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A. alterations in his mental status. B. potential airway compromise. C. injury to the cervical spine. D. damage to internal structures.

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. B. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

A 37-year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: A. hypertension. B. asthma. C. heart disease. D. allergic reactions

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. elevate his legs and keep him warm. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. ensure that his airway is patent.

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: A) apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. B) open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C) apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. D) tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A) acute pancreatitis. B) liver dysfunction. C) gallbladder disease. D) renal insufficiency.

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: A. transport him in a supine position. B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: Select one: A. acute schizophrenia. B. delirium tremens. C. alcohol intoxication. D. acute hypovolemia.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. B. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline. C. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. D. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: A. acute myocardial infarction. B. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. C. severe septic hypoperfusion. D. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. C. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. D. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. quickly immobilizing her spinal column. B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. C. careful monitoring her vital signs. D. requesting a paramedic ambulance.

A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and has respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient? A. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and a head-to-toe exam B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment C. positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital D. oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? A. Severe hypoglycemia B. Pulmonary embolism C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Congestive heart failure

A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What are her signs and symptoms MOST indicative of? A. unstable angina B. dissecting aortic aneurysm C. AMI D. hypertensive emergency

A 67-year-old female with severe chest pain becomes unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic during transport. You should: A. defibrillate with the AED while continuing transport to the hospital. B. stop the ambulance, begin CPR, and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. perform CPR for 1 to 2 minutes and then analyze her rhythm with an AED. D. alert the receiving hospital and perform CPR for the duration of the transport.

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. a local infection. B. septic shock. C. decompensated shock. D. pump failure.

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A black eye is frequently an indication of a fractured: A. Temporal bone. B. Maxilla. C. Occipital complex. D. Mandible.

A chronic feeling of sadness or despair is defined as: A. a psychiatric emergency. B. depression. C. behavior. D. a "bender."

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:Choose one answer. A) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. B) assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities. C) oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. D) assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes: A. a Le Fort III fracture. B. a Le Fort II fracture. C. a Le Fort I fracture. D. craniofacial disjunction.

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: A. speaking privately with the patient. B. at a distance when the patient is first seen. C. when the patient is in the ambulance. D. speaking with family members or bystanders first.

A hematoma develops when: A. small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. B. large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. C. severe swelling compromises arterial circulation. D. cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged.

A laceration: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. C. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. D. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel.

A patient complains of heartburn, pain with swallowing, and feeling like an object is stuck in the throat. Which of the following is MOST likely cause? A. esophageal varices B. esophagitis C. peptic ulcer D. gastroenteritis

A patient present with lower quadrant abdominal pain, tenderness above the pubic bone, and frequent urination with urgency. What is the MOST likely underlying condition? A. Cholecystitis B. Cystitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Diverticulitis

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A. nasal cannula. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. bag-mask device. D. mouth-to-mask device.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because the: A. coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. B. lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. D. ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

A patient with vaginal bleeding _________. Select one: A. will have profound and obvious signs of shock B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss C. may want to stand, rather than sit or lie on the stretcher D. will have a weak and rapid pulse but not pale or diaphoretic skin

A positive TB skin test indicates that: A. you have never been exposed to TB. B. you have been exposed to the disease. C. you are actively infected with the disease. D. the disease is dormant and may become active.

A school-age child looking for approval from his peers and society is demonstrating what kind of reasoning? A. Preconventional reasoning B. Conventional reasoning C. Postconventional reasoning D. Trust and mistrust

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: A. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange. B. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. C. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. D. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: A. slow and deep. B. deep and rapid. C. slow and shallow. D. rapid and shallow.

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? A. liver B. kidney C. pancreas D. gallbladder

A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find: A. deployed airbags. B. steering wheel deformity. C. starring of the windshield. D. a crushed instrument panel.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, you partner should: A. obtain baseline vital signs B. assist the patient's ventilations C. perform a secondary assessment D. apply a nonrebreathing mask

A(n) ______ is usually associated with extensive tissue damage. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

A(n) ______ occurs whenever a large blood vessel is damaged and bleeds. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A. use an automatic transport ventilator. B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. C. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. Incorrect

Activated charcoal is an example of a(n): A. elixir. B. suspension. C. solution. D. gel.

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: A. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. C. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. D. induces vomiting and empties the stomach.

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: Select one: A. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. B. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. C. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. D. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands.

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:Choose one answer. A) increased afterload. B) increased preload. C) heart attack. D) poor contractility

Clingy behavior and the fear of unfamiliar people or places are normal among 10-to 18-month-old children and are commonly caused by _______ anxiety. A. bonding B. separation C. avoidant D. mistrust

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cool and clammy skin. B. absent peripheral pulses. C. restlessness or anxiety. D. rapid, shallow breathing.

Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. "Am I going to die?" B. "What hospital am I going to?" C. "What are you doing to me?" D. "Will I be permanently disabled?"

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. severe headache.

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. C. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. D. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: A.) prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care. B.) maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills. C.) enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training. D.) provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

Contraction of the right ventricle causes: A. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. B. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. C. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: A. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. B. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange. C. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. D. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli.

During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is MOST correct? A. You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. B. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. C. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. D. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. B. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. C. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. D. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. as a direct result of the pressure wave. B. during the tertiary phase.

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: A. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg. B. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. C. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. D. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs.

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A. bruising only B. pain and dissension C. significant hypotension D. widespread ecchymosis

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: A. a headache. B. respiratory distress. C. high blood pressure. D. abdominal pain.

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. A. respiratory B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. cardiac

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: A. ileus. B. an ulcer. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. B. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. C. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. D. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that yours are more acceptable.

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. esophageal tear B. laryngeal fracture C. collapsed trachea D. crushed cricoid

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. A. septic shock B. anaphylactic shock C. cardiogenic shock D. neurogenic shock b

Functions of the liver include: A. storage of bile, which is produced in the gallbladder. B. production of substances necessary for blood clotting. C. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. D. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? A. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. C. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice.

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: A. rales. B. stridor. C. rhonchi. D. wheezing.

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. A. monocytes B. erythrocytes C. leukocytes D. thrombocytes

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: A. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions B. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them C. By interfering with normal neurologic function D. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs

Signs of excited delirium include: A. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. B. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. C. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils. D. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever.

In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause damage: A. an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient. B. a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground. C. the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry. D. the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity.

In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by: A. diarrhea. B. vomiting. C. muscular contraction. D. spontaneous rupture.

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? A. A police officer requests a copy to place on file B. The patient is competent and signs a release form C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes Feedback

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye B. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back C. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest D. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? A. a 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree B. a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. a 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet D. a 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

Inadequate circulation of the blood throughout the body is called? A. hypotesion B. shock C. perfusion D. hypoxia

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: A. applying a tourniquet B. splinting the extremity C. applying chemical ice pack D. keeping the patient warm

Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. C. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. D. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. D. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A. properly store B. decontaminate C. throw out D. incinerate

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. glucagon and noradrenaline. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

Kidney function declines by _______ between the ages of 20 and 90 years. A. 10% B. 50% C. 45% D. 20%

Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size. B. weight and speed. C. mass and weight. D. speed and force.

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: A. circulating blood glucose levels fall. B. the cells function with adequate oxygen. C. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. D. the cells function without oxygen.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. C. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. D. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: A. compressing a pressure point B. applying local direct pressure C. elevating the injured extremity D. packing the wound with gauze

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. A. two B. three C. four D. five

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. A. abdominal pain B. a fever C. a low blood glucose level D. seizures

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. A. confirm the patient's diagnosis B. address the patient's symptoms C. correct the patient's underlying problem D. reduce the need for transport to the hospital

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. who have taken up to two doses. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a history of an ischemic stroke. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

Older adults frequently ___________. A. are able to increase their muscle mass B. take multiple medications C. experience a decrease in body fat as they age D. are unable to overcome medical problems

On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? A. an 8-year-old female with respiratory failure B. a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest C. a 38-year-old apneic female with blunt chest trauma D. a 59-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of: A. acute pancreatitis. B. an aortic aneurysm. C. a kidney infection. D. acute appendicitis.

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of: A. pancreatitis. B. appendicitis. C. cholecystitis. D. gastroenteritis.

Painful urination associated with burning and a yellowish discharge is associated with: A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. endometriosis D. syphilis

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A. worsen the pain. B. alleviate the pain. C. initiate the pain. D. change the pain.

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: A. medication. B. disease. C. protocol. D. assessment.

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: A. Chlamydia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Gonorrhea D. Bacterial vaginosis

Patients with a subarachnoid hemorrhage typically complain of a sudden severe: A. bout of dizziness. B. headache. C. altered mental status. D. thirst.

Peritonitis may result in shock because: A. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. B. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. C. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. D. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.

Peritonitis, with associated fluid loss, is the result of: A. abnormal shift of fluid from body tissue into the bloodstream. B. abnormal shift of fluid from bloodstream into body tissue. C. normal shift of fluid form body tissue into the bloodstream. D. normal shift of fluid bloodstream into body tissue.

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: A. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. B. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. C. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. D. increase in muscle strength and reflexes.

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: A) pink. B) ashen. C) flushed. D) cyanotic.

Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must: A. ensure the medication is in tablet form. B. obtain authorization from medical control. C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin. D. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: A. contact medical control. B. dry the chest off if it is wet. C. perform CPR for 30 seconds. D. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing the patient's mental status. B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. C. checking the medication's expiration date. D. requesting permission from medical control.

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: A. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions. B. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. C. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter. D. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated.

Putrefaction is defined as: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. congestive heart failure. C. significant hypotension. D. right ventricular failure.

Regulation of acidity and blood pressure is largely attributed to the: A. liver B. kidneys C. gallbladder D. pancreas

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: A. transport her in a sitting position. B. place her supine and elevate her legs. C. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure.

Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the ___________has been managed A. fracture B. controlling major bleeding is always the priority C. extrication D. airway

Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis typically include _________. Select one: A. blood associated with vaginal intercourse B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge C. low back pain D. rectal pain and discharge

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A.) provide punitive action to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B.) identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed C.) ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. D.) focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: A.) demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. B.) proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. C.) a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care. D.) successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course.

The descending aorta branches into the: A. deep femoral arteries. B. common iliac arteries. C. internal carotid arteries. D. external carotid arteries

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. nipple line. B. umbilicus. C. iliac crest. D. pubic symphysis.

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: A. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: A. ventilation. B. inhalation. C. exhalation. D. respiration.

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: A) average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. B) minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. C) increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction. D) difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. saddle D. gliding

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: A. bundle of His. B. sinoatrial node. C. atrioventricular node. D. Purkinje fibers.

The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: A. insulin. B. pancreatic juice. C. glucose. D. bile.

The eyes, face, and neck may be subject to a wide variety of injuries. Which of the following is true regarding these injuries? A. Because of the lack of major blood vessels, injuries to the eyes, face, and neck hemorrhage little. B. Patients with an eye, face, or neck injury may be more emotionally distraught than patients with other types of trauma. C. Because few eye, face, or neck injuries involve physical assault, scene safety is rarely a concern. D. Proper body substance isolation precautions will consist of the use of gloves only for most situations involving eye, face, or neck injuries

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): A. antibody. B. allergen. C. leukotriene. D. histamine.

The head is divided into two parts: the cranium and the: A. brain B. face C. skull D. medulla oblongata

The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. low blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. retina. B. conjunctiva. C. sclera. D. cornea.

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: A. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. B. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. C. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. D. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.

The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: A. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

The mental health care system in the United States functions on several levels. For patients with clinical depression, care is most often provided by: A. a professional counselor. B. a psychologist. C. a psychiatrist. D. admission to a psychiatric unit.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: A.) ilium. B.) coccyx. C.) sacrum. D.) ischium.

The most important consideration when dealing with electrical burns is: A. standard precautions B. scene safety C. level of responsiveness D. airway

The normal blood glucose level is between: A. 60 and 80 mg/dL. B. 80 and 120 mg/dL. C. 30 and 150 mg/dL. D. 160 and 200 mg/dL.

The onset of hypoglycemia can occur within: A. seconds. B. minutes. C. hours. D. days.

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in women who are: A. 8 and 10 years B. 11 and 16 years C. 16 and 18 years D. 17 and 20 years

The patient care report (PCR) ensures: Select one: A. legal protection. B. continuity of care. C. research data. D. quality assurance.

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A.) shift supervisor. B.) medical director. C.) EMS administrator. D.) field training officer.

The phenomenon that results from the rapid changes in tissue and fluid pressure that occur with the passage of a projectile, resulting in serious injury to internal organs distant to the actual path of a bullet, is known as what? A. fragmentation B. cavitation C. tumble D. drag

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. diffusion. B. ventilation. C. respiration. D. oxygenation.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: A. blood pressure. B. systolic pressure. C. diastolic pressure. D. pulse pressure.

The primary organ responsible for absorption of the products of digestion is the: A. pancreas. B. small intestine. C. gallbladder. D. large intestin

The principal difference between a patient who has had a stroke and a patient with hypoglycemia almost always has to do with the A. papillary response. B. mental status. C. blood pressure. D. capillary refill time.

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately: A. 60 to 100 beats/min. B. 70 to 120 beats/min. C. 90 to 140 beats/min. D. 100 to 150 beats/min.

The pulse rate of a toddler is: A. 80 to 140 beats/min B. 90 to 150 beats/min C. 90 to 180 beats/min D. 100 to 160 beats/min

The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A. repeated exposure to cigarette smoke. B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls. C. massive constriction of the bronchioles. D. acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: A. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. C. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: A. meningeal deterioration. B. shrinkage of the brain. C. blood vessel dilation. D. a decrease in neurons.

The stinger from a honeybee should be: A. left in place and covered B. scraped away from the skin. C. irrigated with copious amounts of water. D. squeezed with tweezers and removed.

The suffix "-pathy" means: A. enlargement. B. disease. C. study of. D. specialist.

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: A. the study of drugs that are produced illegally. B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. C. the study of how medications affect the brain. D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. ventilation and diffusion. B. inspiration and expiration. C. diffusion and oxygenation. D. oxygenation and ventilation.

The vocal cords are located in the: A. oropharynx. B. larynx. C. pharynx. D. nasopharynx.

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: A. is moved through the lungs in a single minute. B. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath. C. remains in the lungs following a complete exhalation. D. is forced into the lungs as a result of positive pressure.

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. A. quickly, within 30 seconds. B. quickly, within 30 minutes. C. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. D. slowly, over several hours.

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: A) apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. B) transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. C) document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. D) conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

When assessing a patient with a mandibular fracture, you would MOST likely encounter: A. pain directly over the chin. B. misalignment of the teeth. C. impaired ocular movement. D. lateral bulging of the jaw.

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: A.the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock C. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock D. irreversible shock often responds well to prompt blood transfusion

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that: A. it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults. B. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. C. the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion. D. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall. C. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. D. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. kinetic energy. B. mechanism of injury. C. index of suspicion. D. potential energy.

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. normal breath sounds. B. abnormal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. D. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

When caring for a patient with a possible head injury, it is MOST important to monitor the patient's: A. pupil size. B. level of consciousness. C. pulse regularity. D. blood pressure.

When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with A. Spinal trauma B. Airway compromise C. Associated eye injuries D. Severe external bleeding

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:Select one: A. flexing your body at the knees. B. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. C. the use of more than two EMTs. D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

When communicating information over the radio, you should: Select one: A. respond professionally by saying "please" and "thank you." B. use the words "affirmative" and "negative" instead of "yes" or "no." C. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes. D. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital.

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.

When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via a two-way radio, it is MOST important to remember that: Select one: A. all orders should be carried out immediately and without question. B. his or her instructions are based on the information you provide. C. the use of 10 codes is an effective method of communication. D. the physician may or may not be located within your service area.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: A. slow. B. rapid. C. irregular. D. thready

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? A) Abdomen B) Posterior C) Extremities D) Anterior chest

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: A. contact medical control on every EMS call. B. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. C. function above his or her scope of practice. D. consistently exceed the standard of care.

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: A) unequal pupils. B) bruising behind the ear. C) swelling to the orbital area. D) fluid drainage from the nose.

When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. withholding medical history data. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. refraining from objective statements. D. using coded medical language.

When providing bag-mask ventilations to an infant, what is most important to remember? A. Blood pressure typically increases with age. B. An infant's lungs are fragile. C. An infant grows at a rate of about 30 g per day. D. An infant has a proportionately larger tongue than an adult.

When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then: A. irrigate the eye with saline B. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze C. apply tape around the object and then secure the tape to the forehead D. place an ice pack over the eye to reduce swelling

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: A. the brain stem inhibits respirations. B. respirations increase in rate and depth. C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A. the heart contracts with less force. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart rate decreases significantly. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles. B. quadruples.

When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up. B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. C. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. D. supine position with the legs elevated 6″ to 12″.

When treating a patient with damage to the facial bones, you should also have a high index of suspicion for: A. Cranial cohesion. B. Injury to the brain. C. Aphagia. D. Thoracic separation.

When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: A) 1 second. B) 2 seconds. C) 3 seconds. D) 4 seconds.

Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? A. Voter registration card B. Driver's license C. Insurance card D. Social Security card

Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? A. Direct carry B. Draw sheet method C. Extremity lift D. Tuck and roll

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? A) Rales B) Stridor C) Crackles D) Rhonchi

Which of the following are central pulses? A. Popliteal and ulnar B. Femoral and carotid C. Brachial and radial D. Temporal and pedal

Which of the following are the key to the formation of blood clots? A. plasma B. platelets C. white blood cells D. red blood cells

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?Choose one answer. a. hypotension b. wheezing c. pallor d. dizziness

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults? A. The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's. B. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's. C. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's. D. An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's.

Which of the following is considered a type of motor vehicle collision? A. Ejection B. Rollover C. Crush D. Penetration

Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? A. A patient with an altered level of consciousness B. Medical direction approval C. An alert adult patient D. A patient with stable vital signs

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? A. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure. B. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point. C. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. D. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? A) "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B) "Does your mother have diabetes?" C) "Has this ever happened to you before?" D) "Are there medications that you cannot take?"

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? A. furosemide (Lasix) B. aspirin C. oxygen D. digoxin (Lanoxin)

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? A. acetaminophen. B. ibuprofen. C. aspirin. D. nitrostat.

Which of the following might help the EMT differentiate between "normal" depression and mental illness? a. The age of the patient b. The amount of time that the patient remains feeling "blue" c. The patient's family support system d. The patient's vital signs

Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? A. local blood vessels begin to dilate B. platelets collect at the injury site C. red blood cells separate from plasma D. red blood cells become less sticky

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. Incision B. Abrasion C. Avulsion D. Laceration

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? A. vertical-position flowmeter B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter C. ball-and-float flowmeter D. pressure-compensated flowmeter

Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? A. Females B. Pediatric patients C. Patients with asthma D. Middle adults

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? A. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes C. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension D. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? A. a 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume B. a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations C. a 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations D. a 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? A. bronchodilation and vasodilation B. vasoconstriction and bronchodilation C. bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction D. blocking of further histamine release

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? A. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. B. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. C. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. D. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow.

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. How long ago was the substance taken? B. Why was the substance ingested? C. What type of substance was taken? D. How much of the substance was taken?

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? A. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis C. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea D. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min B. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. B. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. C. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. D. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body.

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct? A. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe. B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself. C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome. D. Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? A. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. B. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. C. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation. D. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.

Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is MOST correct? Select one: A. Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide. B. Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible. C. Standing orders require you to contact medical control first. D. Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio.

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: A. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. C. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours. D. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? A. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. C. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. D. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages.

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? A. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. B. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. C. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector. D. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? A. The heart can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for 5 minutes. B. The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system. C. The heart relies on an external electrical source to function correctly. D. The heart receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries.

Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct? A. Vaccination against hepatitis B provides partial immunity for life. B. OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge. C. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the disease for 2 years. D. Vaccination with the hepatitis B vaccine confers immunity against hepatitis A.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. It is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury. B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? A. Blood vessels B. Skeletal system C. Urinary system D. Gastrointestinal tract

Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? A. "primi-" and "bi-" B. "dipl-" and "bi-" C. "bi-" and "null-" D. "primi-" and "dipl-"

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? A. Nervous B. Endocrine C. Skeletal D. Reproductive

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? A. Schizophrenia B. Psychosis C. Agitated delirium D. Suicidal

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?Choose one answer. a. severe vomiting b. liver laceration c. excessive sweating d. repeated diarrhea

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? A. shallow breathing B. deep respirations C. irregular breathing D. agonal respirations

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: A. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing. D. apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask.

You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? A. denial B. anger C. bargaining D. depression

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: A. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. B. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? A. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody. B. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. C. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her. D. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport.

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: A. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. C. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. D. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.

You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: A. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. D. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end.

You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should: A. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them B. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists C. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family. D. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.

You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is: A. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD? B. Were you shot at or under fire? C. Can you tell me about your experience? D. Were you in combat?

You are called to a home and find a 56-year-old woman supine in her bed. She appears alert, but has slurred speech. Her family tells you she has a history of TIAs and hypertension. You ask the patient, "What day is it today?" Her reply is, "Butterfly." Which area of the brain is likely affected? A. Occipital lobe B. Left hemisphere C. Cerebellum D. Right hemisphere

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After confirming the drug's name and expiration date, you should: A. administer the drug. B. contact medical control. C. ask her if she takes other medications. D. request an ALS ambulance to administer the drug.

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 8-year-old boy cradling his swollen deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm 'snapped' when he jumped into the sand below. You would expect to find a respiratory rate of between _______ and _______ breaths/min with this patient. A. 12; 20 B. 15; 20 C. 10; 15 D. 20; 30

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) immediately. D. apply a nonrebreathing mask.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: A. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. B. initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible. C. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: A. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse. B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C. assess the rate and quality of his breathing. D. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

You are interviewing a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to say? Select one: A. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." B. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." C. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" D. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem."

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75%

You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: A. against ambulance advice. B. abdominal aortic aneurysm. C. acute abdominal aneurysm . D. acute abdominal assessment.

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: A. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. B. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. C. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort. D. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: A. thrust the jaw forward. B. seal the mouth and nose. C. ventilate with less pressure. D. thoroughly suction the stoma.

You arrive at a residence approximately 20 minutes after a 7-year-old boy, who weighs 22 kg, ingested a bottle of Advil. He is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal and then transport the child at once. The appropriate maximum dose of activated charcoal for this child is: A. 22 g. B. 44 g. C. 11 g. D. 36 g.

You have been called to the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle collision involving two compact cars. The first vehicle was a roll-over, ejecting the driver. The second vehicle contained both a driver and a front-seat passenger who cannot be reached because the door is up against a building. For the passenger in the second vehicle, you may need to perform a(n) _____ on the driver in order to reach the patient.Select one: A. extremity lift B. emergency move C. short backboard D. You should do nothing different; treat each patient the same.

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: A. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: A. immediately evaluate his airway. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: A. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. B. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced.

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.Select one: A. five B. four C. six D. three

You should perform an urgent move in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:Select one: A. if a patient has an altered level of consciousness. B. if the patient is complaining of neck pain. C. in extreme weather conditions. D. if a patient has inadequate ventilation or shock.

Your EMS team is performing CPR on a 60-year-old male in cardiac arrest. You connect the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a "no shock advised" message. You should: A. reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. perform CPR for 2 minutes and reassess. C. determine if a palpable pulse is present. D. immediately assess the patient's airway.

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. check her airway for obstructions. C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. move her to the ambulance stretcher.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 8. B. 9. C. 10. D. 11.

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. A. hypovolemic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. neurogenic shock D. septic shock

________ occur(s) when there is excess pressure within the portal system and surround vessel; may lead to life-threatening bleeding. A. esophageal rupture B. esophageal varices C. esophageal ulcers D. esophageal reflux

_________ commonly produces symptoms about 30 minutes after a particular fatty meal and usually at night. A. Peptic ulcers B. Cholecystitis C. Appendicitis D. Pancreatits

___________occurs when blood volume is significantly diminished and the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to the body A. hematoma B. hypoperfusion C. hemorrhage D. hematemesis

t is especially important for EMS personnel to develop nonadversarial relationships with their coworkers because they: A. are highly prone to stress and burnout. B. depend on each other for their safety. C. must work together every third day. D. may have to bunk in the same room.

Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? A. "-ic" and "-ology" B. "-al" and "-ology" C. "-al" and "-ic" D. "-ology" and "-oma"

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? A. cephalic B. axillary C. saphenous D. subclavian

_______ can be caused by an obstructing gallstone, alcohol abuse, and other diseases A. Appendicitis B. Peptic ulcer C. Pancreatitis D. Diverticulitis

As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that: A. the scalp, unlike other parts of the body, has relatively fewer blood vessels. B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults. C. any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging. D. most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries.

B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults.

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.

B. brain and spinal cord.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral contusion. B. cerebral concussion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.

B. cerebral concussion.

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A. a skull fracture. B. cerebral edema. C. a hypoxic seizure. D. acute hypotension.

B. cerebral edema.

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to: A. basilar skull fractures. B. compressed skull fractures. C. linear skull fractures. D. nondisplaced skull fractures.

B. compressed skull fractures.

A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and "seeing stars," and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n): A. contusion. B. concussion. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracerebral hemorrhage.

B. concussion.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.

B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs. B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. C. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. D. heart rate and blood pressure increase.

B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.

During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until: A. an appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed. B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard. C. a range of motion test of the neck has been completed. D. pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact.

B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.

A 67 year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melon that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. intrathoracic hemorrhaging B. an aortic aneurysm C. gastrointestinal bleeding D. acute appendicitis

A 21-year-old male has a large laceration to his neck. When you assess him, you note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately: A. apply a pressure dressing to his neck. B. sit the patient up to slow the bleeding. C.place your gloved hand over the wound. D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? A. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. D. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-mask device to minimize hypoxia.

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A) 10. B) 12. C) 13. D) 14.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: A. acute retinitis. B. a detached retina. C. conjunctivitis. D. a corneal abrasion.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: A. severe insulin shock. B. acidosis and dehydration. C. irreversible renal failure. D. hypoxia and overhydration.

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. C. consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. D. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about.

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. use tweezers to try to remove the object. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: A) repeat the primary assessment. B) inquire about his family history. C) prepare for immediate transport. D) perform a head-to-toe assessment.

A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: A. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. B. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should:Choose one answer. A. allow him to drink plain water. B. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. C. prepare for immediate transport. D. perform a head-to-toe exam.

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him? Select one: A. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?" B. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" C. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" D. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?"

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A) falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. B) falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C) falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. D) falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. B. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: A. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. B. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. D. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? A. Hypovolemic B. Neurogenic C. Obstructive D. Cardiogenic

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? A. apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport B. apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis C. apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure D. position the patient with his injured side down

A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? A. Deep, rapid respirations B. Warm, red, and dry skin C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin D. Hypertension

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A) flushed. B) plethoric. C) diaphoretic. D) edematous.

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a unilaterally collapsed lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. fluid accumulation outside the lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash B. Impact of the head against the steering wheel C. Compression of the head against the roof D. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover

A sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. a focused exam of her forearm. B. transport to a community hospital. C. transport to a trauma center. D. a secondary assessment at the scene.

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with heavy bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound. D. carefully remove the glass from her eye.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control any obvious bleeding and then: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. apply a cervical collar. C. assess for an exit wound. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

A(n) _____ occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: A. central nervous system. B. involuntary nervous system. C. somatic nervous system. D. autonomic nervous system.

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A.right-sided heart failure. B. severe hyperventilation. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. an upper airway infection.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: A. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. B. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: A. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. B. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: A. hemiplegia. B. hematemesis. C. hemostasis. D. hemolysis.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: A. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. B. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. C. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: Select one: A. leave the error on your PCR but inform the staff of the patient's actual blood pressure. B. attempt to erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum. C. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. D. cover the error with correction fluid and simply write the patient's actual blood pressure over it.

Albuterol is a generic name for: A. Alupent. B. Atrovent. C. Proventil. D. Singulair.

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? A. Cerebellum B. Gray matter C. Brain stem D. Cerebrum

American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. A. theories ready for field trial B. trends in the EMS community C. evidence-based research D. opinions from a core group of cardiologists

An 82-year-old man experienced a minor facial injury when he tripped and fell. He is conscious and alert and complains of slight pain to his cheekbones. His medical history includes hypertension, blood clots in his legs, hypothyroidism, and type 2 diabetes. During your assessment, it is important to remember that: A. his blood glucose level should be assessed immediately. B. patients with hypothyroidism are especially prone to falls. C. he is at an increased risk for severe posterior epistaxis. D. any patient who falls should have their spine immobilized.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. B. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: A. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. B. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. C. open his airway and assess his breathing status. D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.

Assessment and care guidelines for a patient with an eye injury should include: A. Bandaging only the injured eye, as the patient will be more at ease if able to see what is going on. B. Placing drops in the eye to keep it lubricated. C. Giving the patient nothing by mouth. D. Opening the eye if it is swollen shut to properly examine the globe.

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A. 24%. B. 35%. C. 44%. D. 52%.

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: A. 90 beats/min. B. 70 beats/min. C. 100 beats/min. D. 80 beats/min.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. B. proceed with normal extrication procedures. C. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. D. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car.

At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. A. an uncomfortable depression in the skin B. a series of small, raised pustules C. a raised, well-defined area of the skin D. a large area of red, blotchy skin

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. pancreas. B. kidneys. C. gallbladder. D. stomach.

Both areas of the pons are used to: A. ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing. B. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. C. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. D. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.

Bowel inflammation, diverticulitis, and hemorrhoids are common causes of bleeding in the: A. upper GI tract B. middle GI tract C. lower GI tract D. all of the above

CPAP is indicated for patients who: A. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. B. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. C. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: A. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen. B. high levels of oxygen remain in the cells and can cause significant damage. C. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. D. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cells, but oxygen cannot.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. AEMT. B. EMT. C. paramedic. D. EMR.

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: A. blood pressure. B. heart rate only. C. stroke volume and heart rate. D. stroke volume only.

Children of which age group are considered toddlers? A. 3-6 years B. Over 6 years C. 1-3 years D. 1 month to 1 year

Chlamydia, bacterial vaginosis, and gonorrhea are all examples of _________. Select one: A. "women's conditions" B. diseases that can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes C. sexually transmitted diseases D. causes of vaginal bleeding

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: A. can be reversed with prompt treatment. B. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. C. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. B. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. C. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. D. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.

Closed soft-tissue injuries are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. pain at the site of the injury B. swelling beneath the skin C. damage of the protective layer of skin D. a history of blunt trauma

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. intense stress. B. schizophrenia. C. Alzheimer disease. D. mind-altering-substance use.

Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: A. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. B. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved

Despite numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that he has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should: Select one: A. document the patient's refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it. B. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport. C. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign. D. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature.

Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: A. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen. C. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations. D. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing.

Diastolic blood pressure tends to _______ with age. A. decrease B. compensate C. increase D. decompensate

During a psychiatric emergency, the EMT should be able to ____________. a. determine what has caused the psychological crisis b. resolve the problem at the heart of the psychological crisis c. predict whether the patient will become violent d. physically restrain the patient without assistance

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. A. 40 to 50 mL B. 90 to 100 mL C. 70 to 80 mL D. 100 to 120 mL

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: A. he has a thrombosis. B. he has thrombophilia. C. he has hemophilia A. D. his blood clots too quickly.

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. B. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. C. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. D. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.

During your initial assessment, history, and physical exam of a patient with an eye, face, or neck injury, remember to: A.Open the airway with the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver and suction the patient's airway as needed. B. Apply high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by a nonrebreather mask as soon as severe bleeding is controlled. C. Establish manual in-line stabilization of the head and neck on first contact with the patient. D. Conduct a focused trauma assessment of the injury site if the mechanism of injury is significant.

During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a "no shock advised" message. This indicates that: A. the AED has detected asystole. B. the AED detected patient motion. C. she is not in ventricular fibrillation. D. she has a pulse and does not need CPR.

EMTs arrive at the scene of a patient who was "found down." A family member states that she gave naloxone (Narcan) to the patient before the ambulance arrived. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: A. had a heart attack B. is having a stroke C. overdosed on an opioid drug D. is severely intoxicated

EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: A. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses. B. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition. C. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. D. perform and document more accurate patient assessments.

Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. metabolism. D. oxygenation.

Febrile seizures: A. often result in permanent brain damage. B. are also referred to as petit mal seizures. C. are usually benign but should be evaluated. D. occur when a child's fever progressively rises.

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year old female complains of diffuse abdomen pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: A. pancreas B liver C. spleen D. gallbladder

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: A. 50 and 60 beats/min. B. 50 and 70 beats/min. C. 60 and 100 beats/min. D. 70 and 110 beats/min

What is the function of platelets? A. Transport of oxygen and nutrients B. Defense against invading organisms C. Initial formation of a blood clot D. Transport of cellular waste materials

For injuries to the face, emergency care includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Wrapping an avulsed tooth in a sterile gauze pad soaked in saline. B. Providing oxygen by a nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. C. Establishing and maintaining the patient's airway by the use of airway adjuncts. D. Establishing and maintaining in-line spinal stabilization.

From birth to 1 month old, a person is called a(n): A. infant. B. toddler. C. neonate. D. newborn.

Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. maintenance of water balance. B. regulation of body temperature. C. the production of key antibodies. D. sending information to the brain.

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. dyspnea B. hemoptysis C. hematemesis D. hematuria

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses.

Generally, parenteral medications are more commonly used in the emergency setting as opposed to enteral medications. The characteristic that separates the two routes with respect to administration in the emergency setting is: A. Enteral medications are often liquid and can be administered using syringes and needles. B. Enteral routes offer a more predictable and measurable response. C. Parenteral routes tend to be absorbed more quickly than enteral. D. Parenteral medications tend to have fewer side effects.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: A. is less resistant to treatment. B. is a more contagious type of disease. C. has a greater ability to produce disease. D. leads to chronic infection after exposure.

How many collisions are there in a typical vehicle impact? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: A) determine his or her respiratory rate. B) begin assisting his or her breathing. C) reevaluate his or her airway status. D) auscultate his or her breath sounds.

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity you should apply: A. a splint and elevate the extremity B. additional sterile dressings C. a tourniquet proximal to the injury D. digital pressure to a proximal artery

If fertilization has not occurred in approximately 14 days postovulation: Select one: A. the ovum will begin to travel to the uterus. B. another egg will be released. C. menstruation will begin. D. All of these answers are correct.

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. Select one: A. hypotension B. GI trauma C. vomiting D. altered LOC

In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. increased oxygen levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. increased oxygen levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. C. increased carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. an ischemic stroke. B. a spinal fracture. C. an air embolism. D. nerve fiber damage.

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: A. vascular dilation and tachycardia. B. vascular constriction and bradycardia. C. vascular constriction and tachycardia. D. vascular dilation and bradycardia.

In chest wounds, the crackling sensation produced by air flowing into the surrounding tissues is called subcutaneous... A. bronchitis B. pneumothorax C. emphysema D.asphyxia

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day. D. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: A. prepares the body to handle stress. B. causes an increase in the heart rate. C. slows the heart and respiratory rates. D. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by:Select one: A. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance. B. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. C. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. D. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head.

In relation to the chest, the back is: A. anterior. B. ventral. C. posterior. D. inferior.

In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: A. perfusion. B. respiration. C. aerobic metabolism. D. anaerobic metabolism.

In what manner should you act and speak with a patient? Select one: A. loud and official B. passive C. calm and confident D. authoritative

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient?Select one: A. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car B. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall C. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain D. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? A. Prone B. With hands tied behind the back C. Lateral decubitus D. With arms and legs bound together

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. liver. D. pancreas.

Inhalation occurs when the: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a thrombus. B. an embolism. C. cerebral vasodilation. D. an acute arterial rupture.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: A. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs. B. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels. C. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. D. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man whom they pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should: A. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained. B. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren. C. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you. D. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay.

Left untreated, _____ can lead to premature birth or low birth weight in pregnant women. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. bacterial vaginosis D. vaginal bleeding

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. Feedback

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: A. heart rate and stroke volume. B. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. D. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance.

Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: Select one: A. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. B. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual. C. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. D. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate.

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: A. pills. B. caplets. C. capsules. D. tablets.

Menstrual flow will typically last approximately _________. Select one: A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 1 week D. 1 month

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: A. increases myocardial contraction force. B. increases blood return to the right atrium. C. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. D. constricts the veins throughout the body.

Pain that initially starts in the umbilical area and then later moves to the lower right quadrant is typically associated with: A. gastroenteritis B. pancreaitis C. appendicitis D. diverticulitis

Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because: A. it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis. B. food will rapidly travel through the digestive system. C. substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration. D. digestion prevents accurate auscultation of bowel sounds.

Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. blister formation protects the burn. B. he or she is generally not conscious. C. the nerve endings have been destroyed. D. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.

Patients with mental health disorders are often ____________. A. unmanageable B. violent C. misunderstood D. abusing drugs and/or alcohol

Physiologic manifestations of stress include: A. flushed skin, decreased muscle control, and vomiting. B. slow heart rate, low blood pressure, and severe headaches. C. perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils. D. increased blood pressure, decreased blood glucose levels, and chest pain.

Pregnancy, straining at stool, and chronic constipation cause increased pressure that could result in: A. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome B. Diverticulitis C. Hemorrhoids D. Gallstones

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A. have large rounded lenses. B. are not secured with a strap. C. offer little or no side protection. D. do not have shatterproof lenses.

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the: A. one-way valve is sealed. B. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. C. reservoir bag is fully inflated. D. patient has reduced tidal volume.

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A.septic shock B. neurogenic shock C. cardiogenic shock D. anaphylactic shock

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A. whether or not the patient is deteriorating. B. the patient's response to your treatment. C. the reason why the patient called EMS. D. the nature of any newly identified problems.

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: A. reviewing all treatment performed. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. repeating the primary assessment. D. reassessing the nature of illness.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: A. excess stress. B. hyperglycemia. C. family history. D. lack of exercise.

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: A. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. B. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. C. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults. D. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: A. controlled directly by the patient B. not caused by traumatic injury C. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation D. severe enough to warrant transport

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: A. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock includes: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. C. transporting the patient without delay. D. positioning the patient on his or her side.

The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is: A. fracturing the septum. B. damaging the turbinates. C. penetrating the cranium. D. causing severe bleeding.

The ______ connects the cricoid cartilage and thyroid cartilage. A. larynx B. cricoid membrane C. cricothyroid membrane D. thyroid membrane

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: A. fallopian tubes; uterus B. perineum; anus C. labia majora; labia minora D. vagina; cervix

The _____________only require(s) a minimal blood supply when at rest A. kidneys B. lungs C. muscles D. heart

The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: A. ventral pedis. B. posterior tibial. C. dorsalis pedis. D. anterior tibial.

The atlas is the: A. attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae. B. point where the ribs attach to the sternum. C. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull. D. seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable.

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: A. 90 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 60 beats/min.

The axial skeleton is composed of the: a.) arms, legs, and pelvis b.) lower part of the torso and the legs c.) skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column d.) bones that comprise the pelvic girdle

The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: A. cardiac output. B. respiration. C. perfusion. D. metabolism.

The condition in which low blood volume results in inadequate perfusion is called what? A. neurogenic shock B. compensated shock C. hypovolemic shock D. cardiogenic shock

The diaphragm is unique because it: A. does not receive impulses from the brain. B. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. C. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. D. does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: A. with multiple long bone injuries. B. who cannot be placed on a backboard. C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. D. with a possible cervical spine injury.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A. bundle of His. B. coronary sinus. C. sinoatrial (SA) node. D. atrioventricular (AV) node.

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: A. femoral condyle. B. ilium. C. acetabulum. D. ischium.

The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. A. cause an immune response B. spread disease and destruction C. use a human body as a home D. kill their human host

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A. iliac arteries. B. brachial arteries. C. carotid arteries. D. subclavian arteries.

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: A. 25 and 35 years. B. 21 and 30 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A. angle of Louis. B. jugular notch. C. xiphoid process. D. sternal notch.

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: A. mandibular fractures. B. upper airway swelling. C. cervical spine injuries. D. copious oral secretions.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: A. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. C. removing sodium, and thus water, from the body. D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: A. the right side of the face. B. heart rate and pupil reaction. C. the right side of the body. D. breathing and blood pressure.

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________. Select one: A. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical B. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance D. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ___________. A. too shallow B. too slow C. normal D. too fast

The secondary assessment of a medical patient: A. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill. B. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe. C. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short. D. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings EXCEPT: A. the mechanism of injury B. clinical signs and symptoms C. systolic blood pressure D. poor general appearance

The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the: A. venules B. vena cavae C. arterioles D capillary arteries

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. at the angle of the jaw. B. slightly above the ear. C. just anterior to the tragus. D. over the mastoid process.

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: A. midaxillary. B. midclavicular. C. medial. D. lateral.

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________. A. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status B. functional and nonfunctional C. physical and psychological D. All of these answers are correct.

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mastoid. B. mandible. C. maxillae. D. zygoma.

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: A. glucose and lactic acid. B. uric acid and nitrogen. C. carbon dioxide and water. D. ATP and glucose.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. B. use a direct carry whenever possible. C. keep the weight as close to your body as possible. D. flex at the waist instead of the hips.

Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? A. Three B. Six C. Five D. Four

Treatment for an abdominal evisceration includes: A. pushing the exposed organs back into the abdominal cavity B. covering the organs with dry dressings C. flexing the knees and legs to relieve pressure on the abdomen D. applying moist, adherent dressings

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to which section of the spinal column? A) Sacral B) Lumbar C) Thoracic D) Coccyx

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. B. the patient's response to treatment you provided. C. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. D. important medical history not previously given.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: A. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. B. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. C. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

What do middle adults tend to focus their time and energy on? A. Raising a family B. Excelling in a career C. Achieving life goals D. Creating a self-image

What is 'vital capacity'? A. The volume of blood moved by each contraction of the heart B. The maximum thickness of the meninges C. The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration D. The amount of air left in the lungs following exhalation

When afterload increases: A. the volume of venous blood that returns to the right atrium increases. B. the amount of resistance that the ventricle must beat against decreases. C. it becomes harder for the ventricle to push blood through the blood vessels. D. the blood pressure falls because of significant dilation of the blood vessels.

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. B. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. C. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. D. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: A. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: A) pallor. B) flushing. C) cyanosis. D) mottling.

When blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage inside a blood vessel, the result is: A. a hemorrhagic stroke. B. atherosclerosis. C. an ischemic stroke. D. a cerebral embolism.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must: A. consider the mechanism of injury. B. manually stabilize the patient's head. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. manually stabilize the patient's head. B. closely assess the patient's airway. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. consider the mechanism of injury.

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe. B. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. C. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. D. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries.

When considering his or her personal life, it is important for the EMT to realize that: A. he or she should not discuss stressful issues with family members. B. shift work is the least stressful type of an EMS-related work schedule. C. family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS. D. it is more difficult to effectively relax at home than it is while on duty

When flushing an eye with saline to remove a foreign object, it is important to remember to: A. flush from the outside of the eye in toward the nose B. flush from the top of the eye in toward the nose C. flush from the nose side of the eye toward the outside D. flush only along the bottom of the eye

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: A. AVPU B. OPQRST C. DCAP-BTLS D. SAMPLE

When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's _________ is in charge of all patient movements. A. lower extremities B. chest C. head D. waist

When pulling a patient, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT:Select one: A. extend your arms no more than about 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm). B. reposition your feet so that the force of pull will be balanced equally. C. when you can pull no farther, lean forward another 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm). D. pull the patient by slowly flexing your arms.

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 300 mm Hg. D. 400 mm Hg.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: A. angina usually occurs after an AMI. B. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina and AMI present identically.

When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin? A. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes B. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion C. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest D. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? A) Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall B) A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing C) Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls D) One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? A. hyperventilation and hypersalivation B. a rapidly improving level of consciousness C. confusion and fatigue D. a gradually decreasing level of consciousness

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? A. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog B. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel C. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status D. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? A) Respiratory rate B) Blood pressure C) Blood glucose level D) Capillary refill time

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A. left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? A. Hypertension B. Extreme agitation C. Slow respirations D. Tachycardia

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? A. Patient disorientation B. Naturally deformed bones C. Abnormal spinal curvature D. Joint flexibility

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Chlamydia D. Ovarian cysts

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? A. Any designated trauma center is acceptable. B. A Level IV or Level III trauma center C. A Level I or Level II trauma center D. Only a Level I trauma center

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a head injury? A. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil B. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light D. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object

Which of the following has the greatest impact on producing injury? A. distance B. gravity C. speed D. mass

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Gonorrhea D. Chlamydia

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? A. mumps B. rubella C. syphilis D. chickenpox

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? A. a 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B. a 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C. a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing D. a 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? A. a 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen B. a 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee C. a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin D. a 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? A) "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" B) "How long have you had your chest pain?" C) "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" D) "When was the last time you ate a meal?"

Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray? A. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness. B. Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it. C. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb. D. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the blood pressure prior to administering another dose.

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin B. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device D. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen

Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Administration of supplemental oxygen C. Bleeding control using a tourniquet D. Obtaining a manual blood pressure Incorrect

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? A. Rales B. Rhonchi C. Stridor D. Wheezing

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is MOST correct? Select one: A. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. B. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. C. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport. D. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? A. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move. B. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient. C. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment. D. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move.

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? A. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. B. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. C. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. D. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.

Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct? A. The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg. B. The IM route should not be used in children. C. The 1:1000 concentration should be used. D. The preferred injection site is the upper arm.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. B. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. C. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A. Most cells will function normally without glucose. B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever. B. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months after being infected. C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women. D. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms.

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? A.) When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B.) Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine. C.) Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D.) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? A. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly. B. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. C. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation. D. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? A. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. C. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. D. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. B. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common. C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. D. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? A) It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. B) It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. C) It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. D) It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. B. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. C. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. D. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct? A. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device. C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device. D. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? A. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits x-rays while the patient is on it. B. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. D. Both sides of the patient must be accessible in order for a scoop stretcher to be used.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. larynx B. pharynx C. bronchus D. oropharynx

With regard to the three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct? A. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage. B. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle. C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. D. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury.

You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with multiple large bruises to her chest and abdomen that she experienced during an assault. She is conscious but restless, and her skin is cool and pale. You should be MOST concerned with: A. performing a detailed secondary assessment to locate all of her injuries. B. assessing the bruises that overlie major organs in the chest and abdomen. C. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally. D. obtaining a complete set of vital signs to rule out the possibility of shock.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: Select one: A. noticed the change during a meal. B. is allergic to any medications. C. has a history of eye surgeries. D. regularly sees a family physician.

You are assessing a 75-year-old woman with mild shortness of breath. As you are asking her questions regarding her chief complaint and medical history, you progressively move closer and closer to her. In doing this, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. it is necessary to enter an older person's intimate space because the elderly are typically hearing impaired. B. a patient's personal space should not be violated, regardless of any barriers that may hamper communication. C. as you physically get closer to the patient, a greater and greater sense of trust must be established. D. placing yourself in the patient's personal space is relaying to her that you can be trusted.

You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: A. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay. B. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital. C. explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm. D. proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking.

You are assessing a patient who was in a front-end car crash. His GCS is 12, systolic blood pressure is 81 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. What is this pateints Revised Trauma Score? A. 12 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15

You are attending to a 24-year-old male patient who is delusional. His family tells you that his hallucinations started as a teenager and have gotten progressively worse over time. The patient is difficult to communicate with because his speech is erratic and he appears to have his own rules of logic. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: A. excited delirium. B. organic brain syndrome. C. schizophrenia. D. bipolar disorder.

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a27 telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: A. medical emergency. B. trauma emergency. C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. D. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.

You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: A. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground. B. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. C. increased patient comfort and dignity. D. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load

_______ is responsible for the breakdown of starches into sugar A. insulin B. bile C. amylase D. bicarbonate

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. verify the medication name. B. administer the drug. C. contact medical control. D. check the drug's expiration date.

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 8-year-old boy cradling his swollen deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm 'snapped' when he jumped into the sand below. You would expect this boy's pulse to be: A. between 60 and 80 beats/min. B. higher than 150 beats/min. C. most likely above 90 beats/min. D. around 70 beats/min

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. This patient's presentation is MOST consistent with: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. right-sided heart failure. C. acute pulmonary embolism. D. spontaneous pneumothorax.

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient high-flow oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: A. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. B. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. C. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. D. elevate the patient's legs 6″ to 12″, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. E. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. notify the dispatcher of your arrival. C. assess the scene for potential hazards. D. place a paramedic ambulance on standby.

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: A) apply a pulse oximeter. B) request a paramedic unit. C) provide assisted ventilation. D) assess his blood pressure

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. A. abuse of authority B. undue hardship C. patient advocacy D. scope of practice

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen. B. glucagon. C. insulin. D. dextrose.

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport. B. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. C. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. D. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. assault B. negligence C. slander D. libel

You determine that your patient is experiencing internal bleeding. What should you do first? A. immobilize the injury B. apply pressure dressings C. administer oxygen D. apply cold packs

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: A. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens. B. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. C. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine. D. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing.

______________ may be a cause of vaginal bleeding in a patient who states that she is NOT pregnant. Select one: A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Hypotension C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Menopause

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? A. It filters toxic substances B. It creates glucose stores C. It acts as reservoir for bile D. It produces substances for blood clotting.

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. Which of the following would be an appropriate question to ask regarding the pain? A. Have you experienced any belching? B. Do you feel nauseous? C. Is the pain constant or intermittent? D. Have you been urinating more or less?

You have inserted an oral airway and are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She suddenly begins regurgitating large amounts of vomit. You should: A. perform a finger sweep of her mouth. B. insert a nasal airway and then suction her mouth. C. roll her onto her side and remove the oral airway. D. remove the oral airway and suction her oropharynx.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ventilate her with a BVM. D. contact the poison control center.

You see an infant capable of reaching out to people and drooling. She is most likely: A. 2 months of age. B. 3 months of age. C. 4 months of age. D. 5 months of age.

You should always use the _______ maneuver to open the airway of a patient with a suspected neck injury. A. Cross-fingers technique B. Head-tilt/chin-lift C. Jaw-thrust D. Head-tilt/neck-lift

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. A. an increased heart rate B. peripheral vasodilation C. peripheral vasoconstriction D. hypothermia

You would use the Revised trauma Score scoring system for a patient if there is potential for what type of trauma? A. extremity B. abdominal C. Head D. chest

Your _____ is the best tool to gain the patient's confidence to seek medical help. A. professionalism B. content knowledge C. compassion D. empathy

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: A. pons and medulla. B. limbic system. C. reticular activating system. D. cerebellum.

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: A. 6. B. 7. C. 8. D. 9.

Your physical exam of a patient with an eye injury should include: A. Using the AVPU mnemonic to assess any pain. B. Applying slight pressure to the globe to check for any leakage of fluid. C. Checking for crepitation in facial injuries. D. Never palpating the eye sockets or bones of the cheek, nose, or jaw, as any increase in pressure may cause additional pain or damage.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: A. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. B. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. D. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.

______ burns involve only the epidermis. A. Full-thickness B. Second-degree C. Superficial D. Third-degree

_______ burns may involve the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone or internal organs. A. Superficial B. Partial-thickness C. Full-thickness D. Second-degree

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? A. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min B. Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min C. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min D. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min

C. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.

C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A. after the torso has been adequately secured. B. after moving the patient to a long backboard. C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. D. before manually stabilizing the patient's head.

C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions.

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A. insulin. B. thyroxine. C. epinephrine. D. aldosterone.

C. epinephrine.

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. falls. B. diving. C. hangings. D. compression.

C. hangings.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A. applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum. B. packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings. C. placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together. D. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

A 30-year-old female was assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? A. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. B. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. C. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.

A 37-year-old male has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. a series of back blows and chest thrusts. B. finger sweeps to remove the obstruction. C. performing a series of abdominal thrusts. D. encouraging him to cough and transporting.

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? A. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. B. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. C. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. D. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: A. palpate his radial pulses. B. perform a neurologic exam. C. apply ice to the hematoma. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

A 40-year-old female, unrestrained, impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when her vehicle hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Given the mechanism of injury and her present condition, it is LEAST likely that she experienced: A. a cardiac contusion. B. a pulmonary contusion. C. multiple rib fractures. D. a head injury.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: A. approach the patient with caution. B. tell the patient that you want to help. C. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. D. calmly identify yourself to the patient.

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. scanner B. duplex C. decoder D. repeater

A 43-year old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. his blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preffered treatment for this patient includes: A. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and lie supine B. placing a rolled 4^2 x 4^2 dressing between his lower lip and gum C. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops D. pinching the patients nostrils and having him lean forward

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 54-year-old golfer collapsed on the 17th green at the golf course. His friend said he wasn't feeling well after the eighth hole, but insisted on walking and finishing out the game. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic, and he provides incoherent answers to your questions. An initial blood glucose measurement indicates 65 mg/dL. The patient loses consciousness and a second blood glucose level reads 48 mg/dL. You should: A. call for, or rendezvous with, an ALS unit. B. ensure a patent airway. C. provide high-flow oxygen. D. All of these answers are correct.

A 58-year-old woman fell and landed face-first on a concrete sidewalk. She is conscious, but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy; her radial pulses are weak and rapid; and her blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg. Further assessment reveals crepitus to her left cheekbone. After administering high-flow oxygen, you should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, immobilize her entire spine, and establish IV access. B. place her in a sitting position on the stretcher, insert a saline lock, and reassess her blood pressure. C. apply a cervical collar only, establish two large-bore IV lines, and administer 2 liters of normal saline. D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? A. rupture of the diaphragm B. exacerbation of his COPD C. acute pulmonary embolism D. spontaneous pneumothorax

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. B. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. B. ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. D. placing her in an upright position.

A 70-year-old man presents with a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes COPD, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg, his pulse is 100 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min. His medications include albuterol, sentraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is the MOST likely causing his nosebleed today? A. diabetic complications B. his prescribed albuterol C. hemorrhagic stroke D. high school pressure

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? A) Rapid head-to-toe exam B) Application of a cervical collar C) Treating her for possible shock D) Gentle palpation of the pelvis

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: A. hypoglycemia. B. an acute stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. a heart attack.

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A) crepitus B) rhonchi. C) Korotkoff sounds. D) subcutaneous emphysema.

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 72

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: A. has low blood sugar. B. urinates frequently. C. is unable to swallow. D. is excessively thirsty.

A disorder in which the abnormal operation of an organ cannot be traced to an obvious change in the structure or physiology of the organ system is called ____________. A. organic brain syndrome B. altered mental status C. a psychiatric emergency D. a functional disorder

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. remains within the vehicle. C. is wearing only a lap belt. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the: A. inhalation route. B. transdermal route. C. sublingual route. D. intranasal route.

A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between: A. 70 and 140 mm Hg. B. 80 and 120 mm Hg. C. 60 and 120 mm Hg. D. 90 and 140 mm Hg.

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: A. epidermis. B. fatty layer. C. muscle fascia. D. dermal layer.

A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: A. ruptured tympanic membrane B. ruptured peritoneal cavity C. myocardial blast injury D. pulmonary blast injury

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: A) has abdominal muscle spasms. B) is experiencing severe back pain. C) has a decreased level of consciousness. D) is experiencing difficulty breathing.

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: A) conscious and alert. B) completely unresponsive. C) responsive to verbal stimuli. D) responsive to painful stimuli.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. is older than 60 years of age. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. has bleeding within the brain.

A patient with an altered mental status is: A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. C. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: A. aches and fever associated with urination B. bleeding associated with stress C. nausea and vomiting associated with intercourse D. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. at a normal rate. B. with shallow depth. C. without difficulty. D. without assistance

A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. authorized by a judge. B. witnessed by a notary. C. reported to the police. D. an informed refusal.

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. B. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. C. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: A. a pustule. B. purpura. C. urticaria. D. a wheal.

A strangulated hernia is one that: A. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound where the bicycle kickstand impaled his leg. The MOST appropriate method for treating this injury is to: A. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing. B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with sterile dressings. C. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely. D. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis. B. contact lenses. C. retinitis. D. a brain injury.

According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest paramedic ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. B. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. C. he or she was involved in a motor-vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. D. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

According to the CDC, recommended immunizations and tests include a: A. smallpox vaccine every 5 years. B. TB skin test every 6 months. C. two-shot hepatitis A vaccination series. D. tetanus-diphtheria booster every 10 years.

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: A. acetaminophen. B. aspirin. C. nitrostat. D. ibuprofen.

After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the number of patients involved in the incident. B. the time at which your unit was dispatched. C. other agencies that are responding to the scene. D. the general geographic location of the incident.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: A) place him or her in the recovery position. B) provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. C) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

Air bags are designed to: A. be used with or without a shoulder harness. B. prevent a second collision inside the car. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. typewritten or printed. B. reflective of your opinion. C. a matter of public record. D. considered confidential.

All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: A. severe infection. B. heart attack. C. anaphylaxis. D. tachycardia.

All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT: A. delivering each breath over 1 second. B. ensuring the appropriate airway position. C. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate. D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient?Select one: A. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. B. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. C. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. D. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Recumbent B. Dorsal C. Supine D. Prone

An organ or tissue may be able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: A. systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg B. heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min C. body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased D. body's temperature is considered less than 98.6(36.0 degrees C) degrees

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should:Select one: A. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. B. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. C. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: Select one: A. mobile radio. B. repeater. C. multiplex. D. base station.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. rollover collisions. B. rear-end collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. lateral collisions.

Approximately _____ of the nose is composed of bone. The remainder is composed of cartilage. A. nine tenths B. two thirds C. three quarters D. one third

As an EMT, your objective when treating patients with face and neck injuries is to: A. prevent further injury B. manage any acute airway problems C. control bleeding D. all of the above

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: A. mouth-to-mouth technique. B. one-person bag-mask device. C. manually triggered ventilation device. D. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. A. associated symptoms B. field diagnosis C. medical history D. nature of illness

At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and: A. audible stridor. B. rales and rhonchi. C. profound cyanosis. D. expiratory wheezing.

Atherosclerosis is defined as ________. A. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels B. dilation of the arteries C. constriction of the blood vessels D. the blockage of a coronary artery

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: A. the stinger can easily be removed with tweezers. B. the body's immune system deactivates the venom. C. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes. D. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. B. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. C. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. D. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): A. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. B. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: A. a rapid heart beat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria. D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury? A. Hoarseness B. Difficulty breathing C. Subcutaneous emphysema D. Wheezing

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? A. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury B. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. C. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Vaginal trauma C. Spontaneous abortion D. All of these answers are correct.

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include: A. hematemesis, bulging eyes, and jugular venous distention. B. pallor, a mediastinal shift, and tracheal deviation. C. posterior neck deformity, Battle's sign, and a dry cough. D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. history of chronic disease. B. mental disorders. C. fear of medical personnel. D. assessment by the EMT.

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. irregular heartbeat. B. sudden unexplained sweating. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. pain exacerbated by breathing.

Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A. pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing. B. syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears. C. tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness. D. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness.

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. increased blood oxygen. B. peripheral vasodilation. C. venous vasoconstriction. D. decreased blood oxygen

Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries. B. airbag-related trauma. C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.

Defibrillator pads are placed on the patient's chest with one pad to the: A. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple. B. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the right nipple. C. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right and below the left nipple. D. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the left and below the left nipple.

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: A. superior vena cava. B. coronary sinus vein. C. common iliac vein. D. inferior vena cava.

Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it: A. determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to occur. B. determines which type of communicable disease might be present in the workplace. C. defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace. D. defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

Distributive shock occurs when: A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels cause blood to pool in the vascular beds

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? Select one: A. The amount of time since of the patent's last menstrual cycle B. The possibility that the patient may be pregnant C. If the patient is sexually active D. All of these answers are correct.

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. C. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Registry of EMTs. B. individual state's EMS protocols. C. National Association of EMTs. D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

Elderly patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of: A. chronic dementia, which inhibits communication. B. interactions of the numerous medications they take. C. progressive deterioration of abdominal organ function. D. age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.

Epinephrine, whether made by the body or by a drug manufacturer, works rapidly to: A. raise the pulse rate and blood pressure B. inhibit an allergic reaction C. relieve bronchospasm D. all of the above

Facial injuries must be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. bleeding must be controlled early. B. swelling may mask hidden injuries. C. the spine may be injured as well. D. of the risk for airway problems.

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade?Choose one answer. a. widening pulse pressure b. diminished breath sounds c. a rapid, irregular pulse d. engorged jugular veins

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of: A. kinetic energy. B. potential energy. C. latent energy. D. work.

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: A. 3 weeks. B. 2 weeks. C. 1 week. D. 1 month.

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: A. while handling needles or other sharps. B. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. C. whenever you touch nonintact skin. D. when performing endotracheal intubation.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. hypnotic. B. sympathomimetic. C. cholinergic. D. opioid.

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output. C. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output. D. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? A. Orally B. Injected C. Inhaled D. Sublingually

Hypoglycemia can mimic conditions such as: A. cystic fibrosis. B. myocardial infarction. C. high fever. D. stroke.

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: A.) wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class. B.) send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. C.) recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure. D.) contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should_______________. A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. all of these answers are correct

If one of more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries of complain of pain C. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: A. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department. B. not approach the vomitus. C. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

If ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream will increase. This condition is called: A. acidosis. B. hypoxia. C. hypoxemia. D. hypercarbia.

Impaled objects that penetrate all the way through the cheek need to be removed. Steps for removal include: A. Not placing dressing material inside the mouth, as it may become an airway obstruction. B. Using one large piece of gauze to dress both the inside and outside of the wound, and securing it to the outside of the mouth. C. Pulling or pushing the object out of the cheek in the opposite direction in which it entered. D. Suctioning the mouth and throat frequently throughout transport.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. a spinal fracture. B. nerve fiber damage. C. an ischemic stroke. D. an air embolism.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: A. hypovolemia B. tachycardia C. diaphoresis D. hypothermia

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. D. All of these answers are correct.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: A. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. B. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. C. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. D. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. B. a collapsible undercarriage. C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: A. is a far more transmittable disease. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. can be prevented with a vaccination. D. is not a communicable disease.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: A. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. B. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. C. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. D. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

In older patients, the first indicator of non traumatic internal bleeding may be : A. a heart rate over 120 beats/min B. diaphoresis and pale skin C. a low blood pressure D. weakness or dizziness

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A) A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B) A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C) A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. D) A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs B. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away C. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

In which type of vehicle crash are you most likely to find a patient with whiplash injuries? A. rotational B. rollover C. frontal D. rear-end

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a brief summary of the care you provided. B. a brief history of the patient's current problem. C. your perception of the severity of the problem. D. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: A. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum. B. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding. C. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. D. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small. B. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown. C. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. D. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. ataxic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: A) in a supine position. B) in a prone position. C) in a recumbent position. D) sitting up at a 45° angle.

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. injection B. absorption C. inhalation D. ingestion

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. angina pectoris. B. arteriosclerosis. C. acute ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.

Negative-pressure breathing involves: A. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. B. increasing airway resistance during breathing. C. relaxing the respiratory muscles. D. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. A) 18, 28 B) 20, 30 C) 30, 40 D) 40, 60

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: A. flushed, cool, and dry B. pale, cool, and moist C. pink, warm, and moist D. pink, warm, and dry

Online medical control requires __________. A. the presence of an advanced-level provider B. a physician's presence on the scene of the call C. written protocols approved by medical control D. phone or radio contact with the medical director

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), rales, and dependent edema are clinical indicators of: A. emphysema. B. severe pneumonia. C. bronchitis or asthma. D. congestive heart failure.

Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: A. relieved. B. superior. C. hopeful. D. shamed.

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. fallopian tubes. D. urinary bladder.

Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. A. the opinions of physicians B. an EMS agency's fiscal resources C. the experiences of EMTs D. EMS research

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. C. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: A. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. B. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen. C. transport at once and reanalyze his rhythm en route. D. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly.

The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: A. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. B. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. C. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to. D. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible.

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A. tension among coworkers and supervisors. B. punitive action and the loss of a job. C. low morale and frequently missed shifts. D. substandard or inappropriate patient care.

The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. A. dorsum B. septum C. base D. apex

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. excitability. B. contractility. C. impulsivity. D. automaticity.

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. A. patient advocacy B. patient empathy C. integrity D. time management

The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. A. time management B. diplomacy C. self-confidence D. self-motivation

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: A. tidal volume. B. inspiratory reserve volume. C. expiratory reserve volume. D. residual volume.

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. A. contraindication B. indication C. side effect D. dose

The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. A. 3 L B. 5 L C. 4 L D. 6 L

The body systems represented in the neck include: A. Central nervous B. Musculoskeletal C. Respiratory D. All of the above

The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: A. carpals. B. metatarsals C. metacarpals. D. phalanges.

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: A. sacral symphysis. B. iliac crest. C. sacroiliac joint. D. greater trochanter.

The carpal bones form the: A. hand. B. ankle. C. foot. D. wrist.

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: A. medication use. B. hypotension. C. kidney failure. D. atherosclerosis.

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. regional trauma guidelines. B. local protocols. C. the lead EMT's decision. D. EMS research.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. A. 1 hour B. 30 seconds C. 30 minutes D. 1 minute

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: A. parietal lobe. B. pons and medulla. C. somatic nervous system. D. autonomic nervous system.

The energy contained in a moving object is called: A. potential energy. B. latent energy. C. converted energy. D. kinetic energy.

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:Select one: A. without a spinal injury. B. with forearm lacerations. C. who complains of nausea. D. with a deformed humerus.

The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as: A. anger. B. denial. C. depression. D. acceptance.

The globe of the eye is also called the: A.lens. B. orbit. C. retina. D. eyeball.

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: A) ask the patient what's wrong. B) obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C) assess the patient's airway status. D) introduce yourself to the patient.

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: A. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. B. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. C. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion. D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.

What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? A. arteries, veins, capillaries B. plasma, red blood cells, platelets C. heart, brain, lungs D. heart, blood vessels, blood

What is (are) the primary female reproductive organ(s) called? Select one: A. Uterine tubes B. Uterus C. Vagina D. Ovaries

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? A. Tongue-jaw lift B. Head tilt-neck lift C. Head tilt-chin lift D. Jaw-thrust maneuver

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? A. clotting B. coagulation C. vasoconstriction D. all of these answers are correct

When an organ of the abdomen is enlarged, rough palpation may cause ________ of the organ. A. distension B. nausea C. swelling D. rupture

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. open wounds or eviscerations. B. gross bleeding and tenderness. C. rigidity and obvious bleeding. D. subcutaneous emphysema.

When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: A. stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound. B. the majority of the internal trauma will be near the path of the knife. C. most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury. D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests.

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: A. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase since this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: A. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. B. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. C. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. D. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem. B. her gynecologic history. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: A) pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. B) carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. C) as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. D) any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. B. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing. C. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: Select one: A. the emergency care given. B. any known allergies. C. past medical history. D. chief complaint.

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: A. become larger. B. dilate. C. not react. D. become smaller.

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. B. all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

Whether you are using a commercial device of a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: A. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first B. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding C. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released

Which condition is likely when signs of hypotension; tachycardia; and cool, clammy skin are found? A. intracranial bleeding B. internal bleeding C. CNS depression D. shock

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? A. superior vena cava B. pulmonary arteries C. inferior vena cava D. pulmonary veins

Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. extra ventricular beats D. ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? A. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation B. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? A. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe B. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere C. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? Select one: A. Ketamine B. GHB C. MDMA D. Rohypnol

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Intrusion into the vehicle B. Dismounted seats C. Steering wheel deformity D. Deployment of the air bag

Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? A. the patient has not eaten in 24 hours B. the patient has a history of hypertension C. the patient had a stroke 5 years prior D. the patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto)

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? A. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. B. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. C. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? A. Parathyroid B. Adrenal C. Thyroid D. Pituitary

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Elevation of the lower extremities B. Early administration of oxygen C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? A. Multilumen airways B. Automatic transport ventilators C. Needle decompression D. Automated external defibrillator

Which of the following is NOT a common disease that produces signs of an acute abdomen? A. Diverticulitis B. Cholecystitis C. Acute appendicitis D. Glomerulonephritis

Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? A. Medical conditions B. Overall health C. Medications D. Increased weight

Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system? A. Epididymis B. Prostate gland C. Seminal vesicles D. Fallopian tubes

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? A. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA B. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA C. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? A. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever B. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic C. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? A. the passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood B. symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs C. sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants D. burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating

Which of the following is most appropriate for a 41-year old male patient who was involved in a rollover MVA and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal: A.a level IV or level III trauma center B.any designated trauma center is acceptable C.only a level I trauma center D.a level I or level II trauma center

Which of the following is of LEAST pertinence when obtaining medical history information from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? A. history of cigarette smoking B. history of previous heart attack C. presence of personal risk factors D. family history of hypertension

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A. Wheeled stretcher B. Scoop stretcher C. Portable stretcher D. Long backboard

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? A. 20 breaths/min being delivered to the adult B. decreased compliance when squeezing the bag C. an adult's heart rate that is consistently increasing D. adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining if a person will become ill from certain germs? A. age B. race C. gender D. immunity

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. A 5'-0" patient who fell 13' B. A 5'-9" patient who fell 14' C. A 4'-8" patient who fell 13' D. A 4'-6" patient who fell 13'

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? A. sling and swathe B. vacum splint C. cardboard splint D. air splint

Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? a. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. b. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.

Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is MOST correct? Select one: A. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user. B. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. C. It is an exclusive frequency that is used by EMTs to communicate with each other in the field. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict. C. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? A. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. B. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. C. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. B. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. C. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? A. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. B. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. C. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. D. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct? A. Because the scalp is highly vascular, you should always apply a tight pressure dressing to control bleeding B. Patients who take antihypertensive medications bleed more severely from scalp lacerations C. Although deep scalp lacerations bleed profusely, they are rarely associated with skull fractures D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct? A.Multiple bacteria have been identified as being the cause of SARS. B. SARS is most commonly transmitted by direct contact with blood. C. The onset of SARS is typically marked by acute, severe pneumonia. D. SARS is a viral infection that often begins with flulike symptoms.

Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct? A. Severe burns involving the airway have a 100% mortality rate. B. The majority of severe burns involve full-thickness burns only. C. Patients with severe burns are especially prone to hyperthermia. D. Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. C. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?Select one: A. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. D. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age

Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? A. The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels. B. The medulla's primary role is to increase the body's level of oxygen, not to decrease its level of carbon dioxide. C. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid. D. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: A. tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on his or her job. B. warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. C. notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. D. tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.

Why do colds develop so easily in toddlers and preschoolers? A. They experience a loss of passive immunity. B. They do not have well-developed lung musculature. C. They are spending a lot of time around playmates and classmates. D. All of the above

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? A.. They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income. B. Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work. C. The majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home with them. D. The are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.

Why is breathing more labor intensive for the elderly? A. The size of the airway increases and the surface area of the alveoli decreases. B. The natural elasticity of the lungs decreases. C. The overall strength of the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm decreases. D. All of the above

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: A. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP). B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. C. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

Work, family, and stress best describe the life stage known as: A. middle adulthood. B. adolescence. C. late adulthood. D. early adulthood.

You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote location you are in, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? Select one: A. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. B. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport. C. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation. D. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.

You and your partner are dispatched to a residence for an "ill person." When you arrive, you find that the patient, a 44-year-old man, does not speak English. There are no relatives or bystanders present who can act as an interpreter. You should: Select one: A. speak to the patient with a moderately louder voice to facilitate his ability to understand what you are saying. B. refrain from performing any assessment or treatment until you can contact someone who can function as an interpreter. C. give the patient oxygen, assess his vital signs, and transport him to the hospital in a position of comfort. D. use short, simple questions and point to specific parts of your body to try to determine the source of the patient's complaint.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a house fire where fire fighters have rescued a 50-year-old male from his burning house. The patient has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his face and chest. His nasal hairs are singed and he is coughing up sooty sputum. You should be MOST concerned with: A. treating him for hypothermia. B. preventing the risk of infection. C. estimating the extent of his burns. D. the potential for airway swelling.

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action?Select one: A. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. B. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients. C. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. D. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. After applying a tourniquet, you write_________and________on a piece of adhesive tape and apply it to the patients forehead A. the patients's name; tourniquet location B. your last name; unit number C. the date and time; estimated amount of blood loss D. the letters "TK"; the exact time applied

You are assessing a patient who opens her eyes when you speak to her, who can respond to you but seems confused as to time and place, and localizes pain. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale score? A. 15 B. 7 C. 10 D. 12

You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her: A. in the Fowler position. B. in a position of comfort. C. supine with her legs elevated. D. on her left side.

You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: A. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order. B. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. C. transport with minimal care. D. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: Select one: A. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. B. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. C. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. D. document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.

You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: A. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. B. start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if she experiences cardiopulmonary arrest. C. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. D. make her comfortable and provide emotional support.

You are transporting a 49-year-old male with "tearing" abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient's condition has deteriorated significantly. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. immediately perform a rapid physical examination. C. continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital. D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.

You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: A. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. B. the organ involved is enlarged. C. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. D. the problem is with the patient's liver.

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? A. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. B. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. C. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed. D. Give her oxygen, transport her to the hospital, and monitor her condition en route.

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: A. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway. B. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. C. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.

You have been called to a park where a local church is holding a potluck dinner. As you exit your ambulance, a woman approaches you holding her 7-year-old son who is wheezing and having difficulty breathing. She informs you that he inadvertently ate a brownie with nuts, and he is allergic to nuts. The child's mother has an EpiPen that contains the appropriate dose of epinephrine for a child. What dose would that be? A. 0.8 mg B. 0.5 mg C. 0.4 mg D. 0.15 mg

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. The patient tells you that she has right flank pain that radiates into her groin. What is MOST likely cause of her condition? A. cholecystitis B. Ileus C. appendicitis D. kidney stone

You may injure your back if you lift:Select one: A. with your back curved. B. with your back straight, but bent significantly forward at the hips. C. with the shoulder girdle anterior to the pelvis. D. All of these answers are correct.

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? A. His shouting of obscenities B. His clenched fists C. The broken window D. His large body size

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: A) open the airway and give two rescue breaths. B) begin chest compressions and request backup. C) immediately transport the child to the hospital. D) assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

You respond to a 68 year old man who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is unresponsive, and as you approach you notice he is not breathing. He was unrestrained and has massive facial injuries. When you check his airway, it is obstructed. Which of the following is NOT likely to cause an upper airway obstruction in a patient with facial trauma? A. Heavy bleeding B. Loosened teeth or dentures C. Soft-tissue swelling D. Inflamed tonsils

You respond to a 71 year old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. You know you can check a pulse on either side of the neck. You know that the jugular veins and several nerves run through the neck next to the trachea. What structure are you trying to locate to take a pulse? A. Hypothalamus B. Subclavian arteries C. Cricoid cartilage D. Carotid arteries

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: A. has an increased heart rate and retractions. B. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. C. is restless and is working hard to breathe. D. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: Select one: A. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed. B. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission. C. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. D. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? A. Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. B. Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard. C. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. D. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

a 49-year-old-male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen if needed, you should: A. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control. B. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin. C. place him in a supine position and transport at once. D. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours.

Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? A. Supine with the legs elevated B. Increasing the patient's body temperature C. Maintaining SpO2 at 90% D. 30-degree elevation of the head

D. 30-degree elevation of the head

A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: A. a diving accident. B. blunt neck trauma. C. hyperextension of the neck. D. hanging-type mechanisms.

D. hanging-type mechanisms.

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: a. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior. b. avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas. c. check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes. d. carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior.

A patient is involved in an altercation and was struck in the ribs with a baseball bat. Your assessment reveals intact skin with significant bruising to the right lateral chest. When palpating this area, you note instability and crepitus to the rib cage. The patient is also complaining of difficulty breathing. The EMT would recognize: Select one: a. chest injury caused by blunt trauma. b. pulmonary injury caused by penetrating trauma. c. thoracic injury secondary to penetrating trauma. d. chest wall injury cause by acceleration forces.

A young female wears her lap belt low, over her upper thighs, because the belt is uncomfortable when worn properly. If involved in a head-on "up and over" type collision, to what injury is she most prone, given the position of her lap belt? Select one: a. Dislocated hips b. Internal abdominal injury c. Bilateral arm fractures d. Tibia-fibula fractures

An 8-year-old boy fell forward off of a swing onto outstretched arms. He did not hit his head or lose consciousness and is complaining of left forearm pain. There is deformity to the left wrist, but no other injuries or life threats. His vital signs are pulse 132, respirations 20, blood pressure 108/62, and SpO2 100%. The proper care of this patient would be: Select one: a. splint the forearm and apply a cold pack before transporting non-emergently. b. immediately load and transport, splinting the injury en-route. c. call ALS so that the patient can be given intravenous pain medications before splinting the forearm. d. apply high-flow oxygen, anatomically splint the forearm when the patient is immobilized to a long backboard.

As part of your service to the community, you are certified as a car seat specialist and provide monthly classes on the safe transport of infants and children. Several cars have pulled into your station and asked you to look at their car seats. Which of the following car seat positions would indicate that the parent is safely transporting his or her infant (less than one year old)? Select one: a. Facing backward in the back seat in an upright position b. Facing backward in an upright position in the front seat c. Facing forward in the back seat in a reclined position d. Facing backward in the back seat in a reclined position

Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true? Select one: a. Multi-system trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries. b. Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome. c. A "spider web" or "star" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head. d. Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths.

Assessment of a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident reveals him to have crepitus to the left humerus, instability to the left lateral chest wall and flank, and pain on palpation to left hip region. He also complains of pain to the right side of the neck. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize the patient was: Select one: a. an unrestrained driver involved in a head-on collision. b. the passenger in a car hit from behind. c. an unrestrained occupant in a car struck from the side. d. the driver of a car hit on the driver's side.

What piece of information would you provide to a group of older drivers with musculoskeletal problems to decrease their chance of suffering a "whiplash" type injury? Select one: a. Position the car seats in a full upright position. b. Properly wear seatbelts with a headrest in the down position. c. Consider purchasing a car with side door airbags. d. Ensure that the head rest is properly positioned.

a life-threatening condition resulting from high blood glucose that typically occurs in older adults, and which causes altered mental status, dehydration, and organ damage.

hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:

immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.

excessive eating; in diabetes, the inability to use glucose properly can cause a sense of hunger

polyphagia

the passage of an unusually large volume of urine in a given period; in diabetes, this can result from the wasting of glucose in the urine.

polyuria

a state of unconsciousness resulting from several problems, including ketoacidosis, dehydration becasue of excessive urination, and hyperglycemia.

symptomatic hyperglycemia

severe hypoglycemmia resulting in changes in mental status.

symptomatic hypoglycemia

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes:

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