EMT Final - Written

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Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries?

The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

With advances in clot-busting (thrombolytic) drugs, the patient has a window of ________ hours to receive treatment.

The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following? A. Hernia B. Ulcer C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm D. Gastroenteritis

Which of the following is the cause of most strokes?

Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

During your radio report to the hospital, which of the following pieces of information should NOT be relayed? A. Baseline vital signs B. Patient's age C. Patient's name D. Patient's status

A description of a patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment is known as which of the following? A. Red flag B. Critical thinking C. Clinical decision D. Diagnosis

D kidneys fail to function as required.

Renal failure occurs when the: A. adrenal glands stop working. B. pancreas stops working. C. liver fails to function properly. D. kidneys fail to function as required.

Where should a constricting band be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite? A. 2 inches above the bite B. 2 inches below the bite C. 2 inches above and 2 inches below the bite D. None of the above

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest?

CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient

Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints?

Cartilage

Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up: A. systems. B. organelles. C. groups. D. sections.

1) Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A) An immunity developed after an exposure B) A study of the origins of infection and disease C) A medication with a harmful effect D) An organism that causes infection and disease Answer:

Which of the following types of bleeding is most serious? A. Arterial bleeding B. External bleeding C. Internal bleeding D. Massive bleeding of any type

Which of the following types of snake is NOT a pit viper? A. Water moccasin B. Rattlesnake C. Copperhead D. Coral snake

You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of illness, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient?

Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds

Which of the following is a typical cause of seizures in children 6 months to 3 years of age?

Fever

Many factors that cause dizziness and syncope are generally related to the:

brain.

Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: A. preload. B. automaticity. C. contractility. D. afterload.

Which of the following is NOT a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient?

stimulate blood cell production

D All of the above

The kidney's major function(s) include(s): A. balancing electrolytes. B. maintaining blood volume. C. excreting urea. D. All of the above

What term describes a surgical incision in the neck that is held open by a metal or plastic tube through which a patient can breathe or be placed on a ventilator? A. Tracheostomy B. Cricothyrotomy C. Tracheopharyngeal fistula D. Stoma

Which of the following is a possible indication of abuse or neglect?

a story that is inconsistent with the injuries

Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as a(n):

aura

Although elderly adults learn new information more slowly than do younger or middle-aged adults, their recall is actually better. a. True b. False

About how many years of training and experience does it take to develop an area of expertise? a. 5 b. 20 c. 15 d. 10

John knows that although he likes to listen to music while studying, it is more difficult for him to pay attention when he does so. John is showing evidence of ________ . a. short-term memory skills b. general intelligence c. elaborative memory d. metacognition

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

You are caring for an unconscious 80-year-old trauma patient. You note the patient has dentures. You first action in managing this patient should be: A. perform a jaw thrust as needed. B. remove the dentures. C. prepare to insert an oral airway. D. tilt the head to a sniffing position.

A. perform a jaw thrust as needed.

41) What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress? A) Caffeine to "get up and go" B) Regular physical exercise C) Adding workload to a busy regular schedule D) Drinking alcohol to "unwind" Answer:

An elderly patient struck her head during a ground level fall. She presents with confusion, memory loss, elevated blood pressure and decreasing pulse. Which of the following conditions is most likely? A. Head injury B. Stroke C. Low blood sugar D. Psychiatric emergency

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm? A. Scapula B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light? A. Fluttering B. Constriction C. Dilation D. No effect

You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). En route to the hospital you are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should

not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others

Management of the suicidal patient includes all of the following except: A. psychoanalysis of the patient by the EMT. B. a SAMPLE history. C. communication. D. a physical examination.

Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury? (A) Abrasion (B) Contusion (C) Avulsion (D) Evisceration

(B) Contusion

A 36-year-old man has accidentally shot a nail into his thigh while using a nail gun. Under which of the following circumstances should the EMT remove the nail from the injury site? (A) The nail is less than 2 inches in length. (B) The patient's distal pulse, motor function, and sensation are intact. (C) Bleeding from the wound is minimal. (D) None of the above

(D) None of the above

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? (A) Absorbent (B) Occlusive (C) Adherent (D) Sterile

(D) Sterile

10) How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip? A) 24 inches B) 10 inches C) 6 inches D) 15 inches Answer:

13) Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A) Keep your back in a locked-in position. B) Avoid twisting. C) Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body. D) All of the above Answer:

A body mass index (BMI) above ________ is considered obese

Which of the following statements is not true?

A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.

An outbreak of which of the following illnesses would be LEAST likely to occur naturally? A. Anthrax B. Smallpox C. Venezuelan encephalitis D. Botulism

A. Anthrax

Which of the following is an early sign of respiratory distress in an 18-month-old patient? A. Drowsiness B. Wheezing C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute D. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute

B Wheezing

Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in anaphylaxis? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Vasoconstriction This is the correct answer. C. Decreased heart rate D. All of the above

B. Vasoconstriction

Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following? A. Infants B. Young children This is the correct answer. C. Adolescents D. Adults

B. Young children

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of chest pain in the elderly? A. Pneumonia B. Asthma C. Aneurysm D. Angina

B. Asthma

You are called to assess a pregnant woman who is approximately 7 months pregnant. She states that her pregnancy has been uneventful but she is experiencing intermittent headaches. Her vital signs are pulse 118, respirations 22, blood pressure 138/88, and blood sugar 148. Which of the following is true regarding a pregnant woman? A. Her pulse rate should be lower than normal. B. Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy. C. Her blood pressure is usually higher during pregnancy. D. Her respirations usually remain the same during pregnancy.

B. Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? Select one: A. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. B. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels have been depleted, ventilation may occur. C. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly. D. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.

B. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels have been depleted, ventilation may occur.

Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask while evaluating a woman in labor? A. Do you know who the father is and what is his medical history? B. Is this your first pregnancy? C. When was the last time you were sexually active? D. None of the above

B. Is this your first pregnancy?

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive. A. Priority 3, green tag B. Priority 4, black tag C. Priority 1, red tag D. Priority 2, yellow tag

B. Priority 4, black tag

All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate. B. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume. C. delivering each breath over 1 second. D. ensuring the appropriate airway position.

B. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

Primary injuries from a blast include: A. impaled objects. B. lung injuries. C. liver lacerations. D. extremity fractures.

B. lung injuries.

10) What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? A) Respiratory droplet B) Unprotected sex C) Fecal-oral D) Bloodborne Answer:

Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone? A. Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches B. Vehicle rollover C. Auto versus pedestrian D. Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data

C. Auto versus pedestrian

To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels? A. Technician B. Operations C. Awareness D. Specialist

C. Awareness

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? Select one: A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output. C. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output. D. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output.

C. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

Seizures due to complications of pregnancy generally occur during which of the following time periods? A. In the first trimester B. Before the mother even knows she is pregnant C. Late in pregnancy D. In the second trimester

C. Late in pregnancy

Which of the following BEST describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor? A. Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal B. Expulsion of the placenta C. Thinning and dilation of the cervix D. Rupture of the amniotic sac

C. Thinning and dilation of the cervix

Secondary injuries from a blast most likely include: A. liver lacerations. B. extremity fractures. C. lung injuries. D. impaled objects.

C. lung injuries.

Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as: A. bacteria. B. toxins. C. viruses. D. biologicals.

C. viruses.

What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score? A. Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate B. GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate C. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate D. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate

C. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate

Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are: A. technique, distance, and serum. B. time, decontamination, and shielding. C. time, distance, and shielding. D. time, decontamination, and serum.

C. time, distance, and shielding.

Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and: A. white blood cells. B. plasma. C. oncotic pressure. D. hydrostatic pressure.

The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum:

Covers the bones.

It is a chilly fall morning and you are called to an RV campground for three patients who are complaining of headache, dizziness, and nausea. Your primary assessment reveals that they are cyanotic and have an altered mental status. You suspect: A. snake bite. B. bee sting. C. food poisoning. D. carbon monoxide poisoning. This is the correct answer.

D. carbon monoxide poisoning.

Which of the following is the most significant mechanism of injury for a driver in a vehicle accident? A. Rear-end collision B. Spidering of the windshield C. Encroachment greater than 12 inches of the driver's compartment D. Death of a passenger in the same vehicle

D. Death of a passenger in the same vehicle

What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma? A. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury B. Load and go versus stay and play C. Whether to await ALS care on-scene or begin BLS transport D. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision

D. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision

Which of the following groups is MOST likely to be successful in a suicide attempt? A. Young women B. Middle-aged men C. Teenagers D. Elderly men

D. Elderly men

The muscular organ in which a baby develops during pregnancy is called the: A. fetal membrane. B. placenta. C. amniotic sac. D. uterus.

D. uterus.

Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following?

Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery

Daniel has been performing landscaping on a hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels like he might faint. This disruption of fluid balance is most likely caused by: A. hyperthermia. B. hypotension. C. dehydration. D. tachycardia.

Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting?

Does the patient have a family history of seizures?

The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries?

Fractured pelvis

Where could you find the phalange bones?

Hands and feet

In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal injury? A. An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury B. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down C. A responsive patient with no history of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain D. All of the above

Which of the following is the role of glucose in the body?

It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body.

Which of the following structures connect bone ends, making joints more stable?

Ligaments

C. Sensory

Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves? A. Cranial B. Motor C. Sensory D. Skeletal

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site?

None of the above

When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "Six Ps"?

Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

Production of energy occurs in what part of the cell? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Potassium pump D. Mitochondria

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds?

Sterile

Which of the following bones is found in the chest?

Sternum

The human body is made up of ________ % water. A. 60 B. 17.5 C. 75 D. 7.5

The layer of covering that protects the nervous system is called the: A. skull. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. meninges. D. spinal column.

Under what circumstance should a reassessment NOT be performed? A. The patient has life-threatening injuries. B. The patient does not receive a secondary assessment. C. Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required. D. The patient is being transported to a hospital close to his home.

Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered to be

congenital

Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness?

either a congenital or acquired disease

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called:

hypoglycemia

A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is called:

idiopathic.

Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one?

in the upper left chest

A hormone called insulin is secreted by the:

islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley catheter, it is important to keep the collection bag

lower than the level of the patient

Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes?

mucus buildup

Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following except:

placing a bite block in the patient's mouth so he does not bite his tongue.

As an EMT, you will be called on frequently to treat diabetic emergencies. Diabetic emergencies are usually caused by:

poor management of the patient's diabetes.

You respond to a 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating the:

postictal phase.

The medical term for fainting is:

syncope.

Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population?

veterans

Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and:

What is another name for the shoulder blade? A. Patella B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Pharynx

"If it looks like a duck and quacks like a duck, it must be a ducklong dash—except when it isn't" is a way to summarize which of the following? A. Overconfidence B. Illusory correlation C. Confirmation bias D. Representativeness

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) may last up to:

24 hours.

30) Urgent moves are required when: A) an emergency move is not possible. B) rapid transport is necessary. C) performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries. D) there are no life threats and conditions are stable. Answer:

31) Which urgent move should be performed for a patient seated in a vehicle? A) Rapid immobilization B) Rapid extrication C) Rapid takedown D) Rapid takeout Answer:

32) Which of the following is another name for an ambulance cot? A) Stair chair B) Reeve's stretcher C) Scoop stretcher D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher Answer:

40) You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient? A) Supine B) Fowler position C) Semi-Fowler position D) Recovery position Answer:

5) Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A) The weight of the patient B) Your physical limitations C) Communications D) All of the above Answer:

6) When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: A) lift with your lower back. B) extend your arms to maximize your lift. C) rush your lift to minimize your lift time. D) know your lifting limits. Answer:

9) Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted? A) As far from the body as possible B) An arm's length away from the body C) To one side or the other D) As close to the body as possible Answer:

Most organs of the abdomen are enclosed within the: A. peritoneum. B. midline. C. retroperitoneal. D. extraperitoneal.

The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. right medial. B. left upper. C. right upper. D. left lower.

When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air? A. 25 B. 10 C. 2 D. 100

Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. White corpuscles

Which of the following BEST describes the compartment syndrome?

A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure.

A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is called: A. angioplasty. B. aneurysm. C. angina. D. asystole.

When interviewing the elderly patient, the EMT can increase the accuracy of the information he or she gains by: A. allowing sufficient time for the patient to answer. B. speaking louder than normal. C. having his or her partner assist with asking questions. D. asking multiple questions at the same time.

A. allowing sufficient time for the patient to answer.

According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression? A. An underlying physical illness B. Alcoholic intoxication C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Sudden onset of schizophrenia

Which of the following BEST describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Acquired disease

Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following complications should you anticipate?

All of the above

Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration?

An open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude

An unconscious trauma patient should always be assumed to have which of the following types of injury? A. Cardiac B. Spine C. Abdominal D. Skull

An EMT's assessment differs from an assessment made in the emergency department in which way? A. The emergency physician is concerned with scene safety. B. An EMT's focus is on life threats first. C. The EMT is working with more limited resources. D. Time is available in the emergency department to make a diagnosis.

Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques?

Applying direct pressure to the wound

C 400,000

Approximately how many Americans are currently on some type of dialysis? A. 200,000 B. 50,000 C. 400,000 D. 100,000

C 8%

Approximately what percentage of United States dialysis patients treat themselves at home? A. 50% B. 16% C. 8% D. 25%

Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

60) Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or sores? A) Pertussis B) Staphylococcus C) Rubella D) Meningitis Answer:

A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen. B. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. C. Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. D. Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition.

For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups? A. Inadequate salt intake B. Poor ability to regulate body temperature C. Faster metabolism D. Increased body mass

How does aspirin actually reduce the chances that a patient suffering a heart attack will die? A. It reduces the inflammation in the heart. B. It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots. C. It prevents a deadly fever from developing. D. It reduces the amount of pain in the heart.

How is activated charcoal, which is carried by some EMS systems, supplied for use in emergency situations? A. As a fine liquid spray for inhalation B. As a powder, which is mixed with water before administration C. As tablets D. As a gel or paste

Nitroglycerin is given via the ________ route. A. enteral B. sublingual C. lingual D. parenteral

Patient data includes all of the following except the: A. patient's chief complaint. B. nature of the dispatch. C. mechanism of injury. D. patient's medications.

Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following? A. Heart attack B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Seizures D. Rewarming shock

Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? A. Negligence B. Breach of confidentiality C. Slander D. Libel

The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to age and weight is called: A. pharmacology. B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics. D. measurement and documentation.

What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive system? A. Uterus B. Urethra C. Vagina D. Ovaries

When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true? A. Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound. B. The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way. C. The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing. D. The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved.

Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? A. Flowmeter B. Regulator C. Float ball D. Filter

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Gas exchange D. Bifurcation

Which of the following structures is (are) NOT located in the abdominal cavity? A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Stomach D. Spleen

Why is it important to notify medical control as soon as practical about your patient's condition? A. It provides legal protection as patient care now becomes their responsibility. B. It allows the receiving facility more time to prepare for your arrival. C. It is common courtesy. D. It minimizes the chance that you will forget to contact medical control.

Your patient is a 17-year-old male baseball player found pulseless and apneic after being struck in the chest by a baseball 6 minutes ago. He is surrounded by other players and staff but no one is providing care. You should:

Begin chest compressions.

You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should:

Begin positive pressure ventilation.

Which of the following describes an open extremity injury?

Both A and B

42) An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, should be urged to: A) discuss the experience freely with coworkers. B) begin a course of psychiatric medications. C) seek help from a trained mental health professional. D) conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially. Answer:

The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following? A) On-line medical direction B) Standards of care C) Standing orders D) Breach of duty

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? A. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs B. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta D. None of the above

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called: A. osmosis. B. internal respiration. C. pulmonary (external) respiration. D. cellular respiration.

The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? A. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen

The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is ________ psi. A. 1,000 B. 300 C. 200 D. 500

What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum? A. Manubrium B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Body

Which component of blood is responsible for forming clotting factors to stop bleeding? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma

Which of the following pieces of legislation applies to use of information on a patient care report? A. EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act) B. COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) C. HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) D. FERPA (Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act)

Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Pale, cool skin B. Tachypnea C. Hypotension D. Tachycardia

Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen? A. Never give oxygen to a chronic obstructed pulmonary disease (COPD) patient. B. Always document the need for oxygen by pulse oximetry before giving it to the patient. C. Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it. D. Only withhold oxygen to anyone who is allergic to it.

By what route does nitroglycerin spray enter the body? A. Injection B. Ingestion C. Absorption This is the correct answer. D. Inhalation

C. Absorption

Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow? A. Arterioles B. Arteries C. Veins D. Capillaries

You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations. You should FIRST: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. ventilate with a bag-valve mask. C. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

When informing someone of the death of a loved one due to a multiple-casualty incident, you should use the term: A. expired. B. sickly. C. dead. D. passed away.

C. dead.

Which of the following would be an acceptable substitute for the administration of commercially prepared oral glucose solution?

Cake icing

The pathophysiology of _________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma.

Cardiac tamponade

Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments, are called: A. pressure receptors. B. volume receptors. C. chemoreceptors. D. stretch receptors.

A Prilosec

Certain drugs are commonly referred as "blood thinners" or drugs that inhibit clotting. Which of the following would NOT be considered such a drug? A. Prilosec B. Aspirin C. Coumadin (warfarin) D. Lovenox (enoxaparin)

A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder it "pops back into place." What should your next step be?

Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.

You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1-2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions?

Commotio cordis

Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient?

Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side

Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) can include which of the following? A. History of pulmonary fibrosis B. History of obstructive sleep apnea C. Audible rhonchi D. Audible wheezing

When assessing a patient for a possible stroke, which of the following three functions should be tested by the EMT?

Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds

Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury

Contusion

21) When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? A) Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses B) Interfering with patient communication C) Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma D) Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway Answer:

22) When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n) ________ mask should be worn by the EMT. A) surgical B) B-50 C) nonrebreather D) N-95 Answer:

26) What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy? A) Absence B) Wasting C) Changing D) Enlargement Answer:

4) What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? A) To protect the EMT from becoming infected B) To minimize the amount of time the EMT's hands are spent in gloves C) To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible D) To prevent spreading infection to the next patient Answer:

47) A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and dying? A) Anger B) Rejection C) Projection D) Denial Answer:

48) You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger? A) Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. B) Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay. C) Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will not sue you in the future. D) Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance. Answer:

A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): A) on-line protocol. B) standard of care. C) direct medical order. D) standing order.

Epinephrine delivered by auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following conditions? A. Chest pain B. Chronic pulmonary diseases C. Drug overdose D. Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings

How does nitroglycerin decrease the level of chest pain that a patient experiences? A. It constricts the blood vessels, forcing more blood into the heart muscle. B. It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood flow to wash away the toxic lactic acid. C. It constricts the blood vessels, forcing the toxic lactic acid out of the heart. D. It dilates the blood vessels, allowing more blood to enter the heart muscle.

In cases of extreme hypothermia, you will find the patient unconscious, with no discernible vital signs, and skin cold to your touch with stiff joints as if they appear dead. What is the emergency care for these patients? A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B. Check distal CSM, apply warming packs to the extremities, and transport the patient. C. Call the coroner as indications are the patient is cold and deceased, which is a definitive sign of death. D. Assess the carotid pulse for 30 to 45 seconds; if there is no pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED.

Limiting time spent at a scene can be especially important if the mechanism of injury suggests that the patient could go into shock. In order to keep the time at the scene to a minimum, which of the following assessments or treatments should not be performed on the scene? A. Rapid trauma exam B. Immobilization C. ABCs with spinal precautions D. Splinting swollen extremities

Pain that the patient feels in a body part or area of the body that has nothing to do with a diseased organ is termed: A. abdominal pain. B. retroperitoneal pain. C. epigastric pain. D. referred pain.

Physiology is the study of: A. exercise and nutrition. B. body structures. C. muscles and movement. D. body systems.

Recording and documenting your patient's first set of vital signs is very important because, when combined with reassessments, it allows you to do which of the following? A. Make an accurate diagnosis of the patient's illness. B. Compare your patient's condition with other patients' conditions. C. Fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form. D. Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition.

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure. A. diastolic B. central venous C. mean arterial D. systolic

The epinephrine auto-injector is given via the ________ route. A. enteral B. oral C. digestive D. parenteral

The term lateral is best defined as: A. under the arms. B. to the back of. C. toward the middle of. D. to the side.

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the environment? A. Adipose tissue B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a medication? A. The way in which a drug causes its effects B. A reason why you should give a medication to a patient C. An unintended action of the drug D. A reason why you should a never giving a medication to a patient

Which of the following BEST describes a portable radio? A. A two-way radio at a fixed site B. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distances C. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle D. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Which of the following body systems primarily produces hormones? A. Cardiovascular B. Exocrine C. Gastrointestinal D. Endocrine

Which of the following is a concern when caring for the patient with abdominal pain? A. Patient comfort B. Shock C. Airway management D. All of the above

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the face? A. Maxillae B. Manubrium C. Zygoma D. Mandible

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Duodenum D. Esophagus

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A. Acetabulum B. Tendons C. Ligaments D. Fat

Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in shock? A. Elevating the patient's legs 8 to 10 inches B. Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures C. Applying high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed D. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety

Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? A) EMS supervisor B) EMT C) Director of quality assurance D) Medical Director

Your trauma patient is anxious, tachycardic, pale, and hypotensive. Which of these signs indicates failure of the body's compensatory mechanisms? A. Anxiousness B. Pallor C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension

At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine auto-injector? A. Abdomen B. Buttocks C. Upper arm D. Thigh This is the correct answer.

D. Thigh

Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident? A. Industrial sabotage B. Biological weapons C. Explosion D. Harassment

D. Harassment

Which of the following lung conditions is the fourth leading cause of death among the elderly? A. Tuberculosis B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumothorax D. Pneumonia

D. Pneumonia

You have been called for a young female in labor. She is lying on the floor in obvious distress from the labor pains. While you are assessing her for crowning, your partner is getting a set of vital signs. She tells you that she is getting dizzy and nauseated. Vital signs are pulse rate 120, respiratory rate 22, and blood pressure 98/62. You should be concerned that she has: A. Braxton-Hicks contractions. B. contracted food poisoning. C. placenta previa. D. supine hypotensive syndrome.

D. supine hypotensive syndrome.

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters? A. Respiration, pain, and mental status B. Respiration, sensory, and motor status C. Circulation, sensory, and motor status D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status

D. Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident? A. Upwind, uphill from the spill B. Downwind, uphill from the spill C. Downwind, downhill from the spill D. Upwind, on the same level as the spill

D. Upwind, on the same level as the spill

You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass. You should:

Defer further abdominal palpation.

Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the EMT's arrival at the scene?

Determining when the patient was last transported to the hospital for seizures

C pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure

Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of ________, which is a similar presentation to ________. A. chest pain; acute myocardial infarction B. neurological disturbances; stroke C. pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure D. shortness of breath; pneumonia

Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine?

During both inhalation and exhalation

During reassessment you notice that your patient is making gurgling sounds. Which of the following should you do immediately? A. Suction the airway. B. Increase the amount of oxygen being delivered to the patient. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. D. Place the patient in the recovery position.

You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury?

During the secondary exam

EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Elevated temperature and sometimes alcohol or drug intoxication may be present. The patient will soon cease struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is called: A. excited psychosis. B. bipolar disorder. C. psychotic delirium. D. excited or agitated delirium.

Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury?

Extensive force

Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, you should suspect which of the following as the likely cause of the patient's presentation?

Failure to intake sufficient sugar

For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination appropriate? A. A 19-year-old female with a history of epilepsy and who is found only responsive to painful stimuli by her roommate B. A 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son C. A 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing D. A 70-year-old male with dementia whose caretaker called because he "didn't seem like himself today"

B. 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain

For which of the following patients would the use of a short spine immobilization device be appropriate? A. 15-year-old male who struck a curb with his motorized scooter and flipped over the handlebars B. 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain C. Unresponsive driver who was found in the driver's seat of a pickup truck that crashed into a tree D. 77-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is in an awkward position lying on her side on the landing

C. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following? A. Verbal response, motor response, and AVPU B. Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening C. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response D. Motor response, arm movement, and speech

Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell? A. Electrolytes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. ATP

Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures?

Hands and feet

D toxins; fluids

Hemodialysis is used to help the kidneys filter ________ and remove excess ________. A. electrolytes; hormones B. urine; poisons C. blood; cholesterol D. toxins; fluids

A 3 to 4 hours

How long does a typical hemodialysis treatment last? A. 3 to 4 hours B. 1 to 2 hours C. 7 to 8 hours D. 10 to 12 hours

A. 7

How many cervical vertebrae are there? A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 12

If a hole is created in the chest wall, air could escape or be drawn in, or if bleeding develops within the chest, air and blood can accumulate in the pleural space. This would force the lung to: A. work harder with minimal problems. B. increase respirations. C. collapse. D. increase the minute volume.

Your patient is a 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is appropriate?

Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients.

In which of the following circumstances is manual stabilization of the cervical spine ALWAYS necessary? A. Penetrating trauma B. Blunt trauma C. Trauma above the level of the clavicles D. Trauma to the lower extremities

Which of the following should bring to mind the possibility of abuse or neglect of your special needs patient?

Indifference to the patient's condition

Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem? A. Loss of tone B. Increased SVR C. Permeability D. Hypertension

Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia?

Intoxication

Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include:

Irritation and peritonitis.

Which of the following is an action of insulin?

It increases the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.

Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma?

Liver

During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter?

Lower than the patient, but not on the floor

What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries?

Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide ________. A. a faster response time to the scene B. more efficient breaths C. high-quality compressions D. a 100% success rate

On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration and the bleeding is controlled. Which of the following is the BEST approach toward managing the exposed intestines?

Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.

Mr. Green is complaining of severe difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. His wife states he has had reactions to bee stings before, but not quite this severe. Which medications should you specifically ask him about? A. Antihistamines B. Epinephrine auto-injector C. Inhaler D. Nitroglycerine tablets

Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called: A. dead air space. B. tidal volume. C. vital capacity. D. bronchial air

C. 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli

Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive bag-valve-mask ventilations? A. 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented B. 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions C. 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli D. 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear

Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? A. Lactic acid B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbolic acid

A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is not one of the six Ps?

Parenthesis

Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of:

Pelvic trauma/fracture.

A the abdomen

Peritoneal dialysis allows patients to dialyze at home through: A. the abdomen. B. an AV fistula. C. a dialysis machine. D. the urethra.

Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis?

Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient?

Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound

Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia. However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia?

Reduced rate of breathing

The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which one of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia?

Reduces sugar intake by eating too much

Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of a traction splint?

Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

Shock occurs as a result of which of the following? A. Inadequate perfusion B. Adequate perfusion C. C/Q match D. V/Q match

Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include:

Skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency?

Slow heart rate

Normal consciousness is regulated by a series of neurologic circuits in the brain that comprise the reticular activating system (RAS). The RAS has simple requirements to function properly. Which one of the following items is NOT one of those requirements?

Sodium

Which of the following is an injury to the musculature of an extremity?

Strain

Which of the following is the most critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped convulsing?

Suction

Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

Tape the dressing securely on three sides.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

Which one of the following definitions is incorrect?

Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?

Tension pneumothorax

The EMTs should provide patients with viral respiratory infections: A. a prescribed inhaler. B. oxygen. C. antibiotics. D. a small-volume nebulizer.

The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: A. glucose. B. water. C. oxygen. D. protein.

A end-stage renal disease

The correct terminology used for patients whose kidneys are damaged to the point where they require dialysis to survive is: A. end-stage renal disease. B. hepatic failure. C. acute renal failure. D. terminal kidney disease.

Looking at the following list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

The hypoglycemic patient is usually complaining of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient is not.

C. Upper jaw

The maxillae form which of the following structures? A. Forehead B. Lower jaw C. Upper jaw D. Cheek bones

The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called: A. anaerobic. B. homeostatic. C. hyperoxic. D. aerobic.

B kidney

The most frequently transplanted organ is the: A. liver. B. kidney. C. pancreas. D. heart.

You're an off-duty EMT who encounters a patient sitting behind the wheel of a vehicle that ran off the road along an isolated county road. It appears the patient was unrestrained, or not wearing a seat belt, and struck the steering wheel with his chest. On assessment, you notice a paradoxical motion to the patient's chest on inspiration and expiration. When you radio for dispatch of an ambulance, which of the following pieces of information would you be sure to include?

The patient may have a flail chest.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has most likely occurred?

The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? A. Flutter segment B. Intercostal retractions C. Paradoxical movement D. Tension pneumothorax

The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to ________ cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. A. defuse B. register C. perfuse D. hyperoxygenate

The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called: A. expiration. B. tidal volume. C. inspiration. D. vital capacity.

D. Thoracic

To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached? A. Cervical B. Lumbar C. Sacral D. Thoracic

Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care?

Tourniquet

Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax?

Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury

Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered?

Traumatic asphyxia

Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus?

Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance?

Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator

Water that is found in the space between cells and blood vessels is called: A. hydrostatic. B. intravascular. C. interstitial. D. intracellular.

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a stroke?

Weakness on one side of the body

What condition is when fluid accumulates in the lungs, preventing them from breathing adequately? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary embolism D. Asthma

What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pulmonary embolism C. Asthma D. Pneumonia

What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system measure? A. Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide B. High oxygen and high carbon dioxide C. High oxygen and low carbon dioxide D. Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary embolus? A. sudden calmness B. pain and swelling in one or both legs C. sudden onset of sharp chest pain D. anxiety

When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others, you should do all of the following except: A. watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior. B. make sure only you and the patient are in the room. C. retreat if the patient becomes threatening. D. keep bystanders a safe distance away.

When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered? A. 15 per minute B. 12 per minute C. 20 per minute D. 24 per minute

Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest? A. Dysrhythmia B. Tachycardia C. Palpitations D. Pulseless electrical activity of the heart

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury? A. Projectile vomiting B. Irregular breathing pattern C. Deep laceration of the scalp D. All of the above

D. Foramen magnum

Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull? A. Temporomandibular joint B. Spinous process C. Orbits D. Foramen magnum

B Shock

Which of the following pathologies make patients at high risk for acute renal failure? A. Uncontrolled diabetes B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Polycystic kidney disease

Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first action? A. Stop CPR and check for a pulse. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. C. Apply the AED. D. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment.

________ is reassessing and recording findings of the reassessment so they can be compared to earlier findings. A. CQI B. Trending C. Averaging D. Analysis

At what age do infants begin to imitate some actions, such as opening the mouth? a. one year b. six months c. birth d. three months

Ellen processes and monitors the steps involved in achieving her goal. What is this process called? a. long-term memory b. sensory register c. executive control d. short-term memory

Which theory describes the development of problem-solving skills as a matter of knowing a variety of strategies, and becoming increasingly selective with experience about which strategy to use? a. active construct theory b. trace theory c. overlapping waves theory d. metacognitive theory

To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway, the EMT should

measure against the length of the obturator

Compare the pain a patient experiences when receiving a shock from a pacemaker against the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)

pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful

Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss?

write your questions using paper and pen

________ blood returns to the right side of the heart. A. Red B. Anemic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

When using the rule of palm to estimate the approximate body surface area burned, the patient's palm equals about what percentage of the body's surface area? (A) 1 percent (B) 2 percent (C) 5 percent (D) 3 percent

(A) 1 percent

Which of the following is a major function of the skin? (A) Excretion of wastes (B) Protection from the environment (C) Temperature regulation (D) All of the above

(D) All of the above

11) Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? A) Power grip B) Power lift C) Weight-lifter technique D) Direct carry Answer:

12) If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT's waist, he should be in a(n) ________ position. A) squatting B) kneeling C) feet-together D) overhead Answer:

25) Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair? A) Patient with difficulty breathing B) Patient who is nauseated C) Patient with a suspected spinal injury D) Patient found lying in bed Answer:

29) During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury? A) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body. B) Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders. C) Roll the patient over. D) Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips. Answer:

When the gallbladder is diseased, the pain is not only felt in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) but also in the right shoulder. This is known as: A. referred pain. B. parietal pain. C. tearing pain. D. visceral pain.

Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? A) Emergency department B) Emergency medical services system C) Surgical services department D) Emergency medical dispatch center

Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the bloodstream? A. Arterial gas embolism B. Hyperbaric arterial injury C. Arterial thrombosis D. Arterial blood gases

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Heart D. Thyroid gland

Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest?

A section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems

Traditionally an APGAR score is taken at what time intervals after birth? A. 1 and 5 minutes B. 1 and 6 minutes C. 2 and 7 minutes D. 5 and 10 minutes

A. 1 and 5 minutes

The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of the following? A. Abruptio placentae B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Preeclampsia D. Placenta previa

A. Abruptio placentae

The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following? A. Exposure B. Lethal dose C. Critical level D. Concentration

A. Exposure

Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays? A. Gamma B. Alpha C. Delta D. Beta

A. Gamma

Which patient is the highest priority? A. Patient with a penetrating chest injury B. Patient with a Revised Trauma Score of 12 C. Patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15 D. Patient with a broken femur

A. Patient with a penetrating chest injury

What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients? A. Placenta B. Uterus C. Amnion D. Cervix

A. Placenta

Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a stroke?

Aphasia

Which of the following should be placed in quotes in the patient care report? A. List of patient's medications B. Chief complaint C. Patient's expressed consent D. Mechanism of injury

You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting bigger. You should: A. decrease the flow of oxygen. B. reduce the force and volume of ventilations. C. apply pressure to the abdomen. D. suction the airway.

When an elderly patient complains of abdominal pain, the EMT should consider this symptom to be: A. cardiac-related until proven otherwise. B. an indication of a potentially serious problem. C. non-life-threatening unless accompanied by other symptoms. D. related to a gastrointestinal problem.

B. an indication of a potentially serious problem.

Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as: A. biologicals. B. bacteria. C. toxins. D. viruses.

B. bacteria.

You have been called for a 32-year-old female who is in active labor. During your assessment and interview, you note that she is 37 weeks along, this is her first child, and her contractions are 5 minutes apart. She also tells you that her pregnancy is considered "high risk." Your first concern should be: A. assembling your delivery kit. B. getting to the hospital. C. completing a thorough secondary exam. D. calling for a back-up unit.

B. getting to the hospital.

You respond to a call for a patient in active labor with her second child. Your interview with the patient shows that she is 40 weeks pregnant and has been in active labor for several hours. You determine that her vital signs are all within normal limits. After your physical exam, you determine the baby is crowning. You should next: A. delay delivery until arrival at the hospital. B. prepare to deliver the baby on-scene. C. contact medical direction for orders. D. begin transport and plan to deliver in the ambulance.

B. prepare to deliver the baby on-scene.

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: A. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

B. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following? A) An education curriculum for EMT courses B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services

The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? A. Duty to act B. Standard of care C. Scope of practice D. None of the above

Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? A) Data display 911 B) Priority dispatch 911 C) Enhanced 911 D) Advanced 911

Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? A) Standing orders B) On-line medical direction C) Protocols D) Standard operating procedures

Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions? A. Obtaining a detailed medical history B. Use of intuition C. Systematic approach to assessment D. Thorough scene size-up

Which of the following is the most significant way in which the body cools itself? A. Radiation B. Respiration C. Perspiration D. Vasoconstriction

Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach? A. Absorption of water from food products B. Production of bile C. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions D. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as: A. supine. B. anterior. C. prone. D. posterior.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in children? A. Infectious disease Your answer is not correct.B. Environmental emergencies C. Trauma This is the correct answer.D. Poisonings

C Trauma

You encounter an accident on a busy intercity street while on duty. Calling into dispatch, you make note that the occupants of both vehicles are outside, and you request additional units to proceed non-emergently. You approach an elderly male who is rubbing his back and left shoulder. During secondary assessment of past medical history, you make note of several important details: the patient is on high blood pressure medications, and has had a heart attack in the past. He is complaining of midline thoracic pain on palpation of his spine and left shoulder pain, which may have been from the seat belt, but is refusing care and transport. The patient did not lose consciousness. Based on this information, which transport decision would be most appropriate for this patient? A. Call for ALS intercept. B. Allow the patient to sign a refusal. C. Take the patient to a local community hospital. D. Take the patient to a trauma center.

C. Take the patient to a local community hospital.

When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used? A. Scrubbing with a long-handled brush B. Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar C. Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower D. Using a high pressure water jet system

C. Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower

A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting post-traumatic stress disorder (PSTD) is typically called a(n): A. etiological harm. B. radiological harm. C. psychological harm. D. thermal harm.

C. psychological harm.

You have responded to a woman who has possible premature labor. She is 8 months pregnant and is experiencing labor pains. During your assessment, you note that the baby is not yet crowning. You need to determine whether delivery is imminent or not. You should next: A. check the level of the fundus. B. complete a set of vital signs. C. time her contractions. D. check for cervix dilation.

C. time her contractions.

One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with goes down as follows:

Compartment syndrome

Nitroglycerin is indicated for which of the following chief complaints? A. Headache B. Decreased level of consciousness C. Difficulty breathing D. Chest pain

To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A. Tidal volume and dead space air B. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate C. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate

Which of the following does NOT make infants and children more prone to hypothermia? A. Little body fat B. Large body surface area C. Small muscle mass D. Inefficient metabolism

Which of the following is the proper position for maintaining the airway in a child with a decreased level of consciousness? A. Using a cervical collar to keep the chin elevated B. Flexing the neck to place the chin on the chest C. Hyperextension of the neck D. Placing the head and neck in a neutral position

You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed. You should FIRST: A. expose his chest. B. feel for a pulse. C. open his airway. D. ask him if he is okay.

Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication? A. Debris B. Weather C. Noise D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis? A. High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction B. High blood pressure due to tachycardia C. Low blood pressure due to bradycardia D. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation This is the correct answer.

D. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation

If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would most likely occur? A. Relief of shortness of breath B. Bradycardia C. No reaction if administered inadvertently D. Stronger and faster heartbeat

D. Stronger and faster heartbeat

Of the older patients seen in the emergency department due to a fall, ________% will die within 1 year. A. 10 B. 50 C. 35 D. 25

D. 25

A diastolic blood pressure over ________ mmHg is considered hypertensive. A. 65 B. 80 C. 50 D. 90

D. 90

Which of the following describes a breech presentation? A. The infant presents buttocks first. B. The infant presents with both feet first. C. The infant presents face first. D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a ________ patient. A. Priority 1 B. Priority 0 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 3

D. Priority 3

During which stage of labor is the baby born? A. Primary B. Third C. First D. Second

D. Second

The elderly patient will most likely experience ________ as he or she continues to age. A. decreased chewing difficulty B. increased food absorption C. increased stomach acid secretion D. decreased intestinal tract movement

D. decreased intestinal tract movement

Standard management of a chemical burn caused by a terrorist incident includes: A. leaving any corrosive materials on the skin. B. rinsing the area with ice water. C. using a neutralizing agent. D. irrigating vigorously with cool water.

D. irrigating vigorously with cool water.

If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result?

Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults?

Failure to take prescribed medication

Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the to the:

Forearm; humerus

Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?

Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not true?

In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.

In medical terms, bruises are known as which of the following? A. Discoloration B. Contusion C. Blemish D. Abrasion

On which of the following patients should a reassessment be performed? A. All patients should be reassessed B. Patient with chest pain C. Patient with a gunshot wound D. Patient having difficulty breathing

When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital signs?

Oxygen saturation

A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is BEST managed by which of the following techniques?

Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following? A. Constriction of the vessels B. Large proteins C. Dilation of the vessels D. Contraction of the heart

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport?

Tension pneumothorax

Which of the following is true in regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)?

The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient

A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull? partner's BEST reply is which of the following?

The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10 percent of the patient's body weight and not exceed

D infection

The medications that transplant patients need to take for the rest of their lives to prevent organ rejection also often lead to high susceptibility of: A. ulcers. B. renal failure. C. congestive heart failure. D. infection.

The most vulnerable part of the cell is the: A. DNA. B. membrane. C. nucleus. D. mitochondria.

The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is called: A. hydrostatic pressure. B. osmotic pressure. C. hyperstatic pressure. D. oncotic pressure.

The term priapism means ________ and may be found in injuries of the ________. A. a persistent penile erection; spine B. abnormal pulsation; abdomen C. a painful muscle spasm; spine D. unequal pupils; brain

What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient?

To assist the patient with breathing

What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die? A. Water B. Glucose C. Proteins D. Oxygen

C Exchange

What is a cycle of filling and draining of the abdominal cavity during peritoneal dialysis called? A. Set B. Trade C. Exchange D. Rotation

What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart? A. Cardiac arrest B. Dysrhythmia C. Pulmonary edema D. Shock

What is not part of the cardiovascular system? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Hormones D. Venules

B Urinary tract infections

What is one of the most common diseases to affect the renal and urinary system? A. Kidney stones B. Urinary tract infections C. Acute renal failure D. End-stage renal disease

What is the most common digestive disorder? A. Flatus B. Irritable bowel and gastric esophageal disease C. Vomiting and diarrhea D. Diarrhea and gastric esophageal disease

When you begin interviewing your patient, he tells you that he has not felt well for several months, ever since he had his gallbladder removed. He goes on to tell you that he cannot get his wife to schedule a doctor's appointment for him and when she remembers to call, the office is always closed. Which of the following is the best way to proceed? A. Begin your assessment of his vital signs. B. Try to call his doctor to schedule an appointment. C. Ask him for a list of his medications. D. Ask him why he decided to call 911 today.

Where might you find a patient's medical alert identification jewelry? A. Ankle bracelet B. Necklace C. Bracelet D. All of the above

Which intervention is proven to be the most effective is obtaining a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a cardiac arrest patient? A. Early defibrillation B. High-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask C. Combitube D. Early CPR

Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing? A. Wheezing noises when breathing B. Breathing slower than normal C. Breathing faster than normal D. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life

B. Improper management of airway and ventilation

Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury? A. Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose B. Improper management of airway and ventilation C. Failure to keep the patient awake and talking D. Administration of 100% oxygen

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised?" A. The patient's heart has no electrical activity; he is "flat line," or in asystole. B. The patient's heart rhythm is normal. C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. D. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.

C. Dermatome

Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve? A. Transverse process B. Malar C. Dermatome D. Spinous process

Which of the following is directly related to the endocrine system? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Pancreas

Which of the following is one advantage of using heuristics? A. It provides a more accurate diagnosis. B. It slows the process of diagnosis. C. It speeds up the process of diagnosis. D. It allows you to treat the patient during diagnosis.

Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A. Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray. B. Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. C. Do not use the patient's inhaler, because you do not know how the medication has been stored. D. Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.

D Acetaminophen

Which of the following medications does NOT interfere with the blood-clotting process? A. Warfarin B. Aspirin C. Clopidogrel D. Acetaminophen

Which of the following techniques of physical examination must an EMT master? A. Observation, palpation, and auscultation B. Auscultation, observation, and percussion C. Percussion, inspection, and palpation D. Visualization, percussion, and auscultation

C. Air embolus

While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop? A. Deep vein embolus B. Air thrombosis C. Air embolus D. Deep vein thrombosis

While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ________ breaths per minute. A. 16 B. 30 C. 20 D. 24

While transporting a patient to the hospital, the EMT repeats his reassessment including vital signs every 15 minutes until he arrives at the emergency department. According to this information, which of the following BEST describes your patient's current status? A. Unstable B. Stable C. Poor D. Not enough information was given to answer this question.

You respond to a patient who is choking. The victim is suffering from the most common of airway obstructions. This would indicate that the problem is in the ________ airway. A. upper B. alveoli C. lower D. bronchial

A. Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board.

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who ran his truck off of the road and into a ditch. He was driving just fast enough to cause the air bag to deploy when he hit the ditch. He is complaining of some neck and shoulder pain. His vital signs are respirations 20, pulse 110, blood pressure 116/80, and pupils equal and reactive. How should you manage this patient? A. Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board. B. Perform a rapid extrication and spinal immobilize him on a long spine board. C. Place him on oxygen, and then slowly move him to the stretcher. D. Apply a cervical collar, and then rotate him to a long spine board.

B. Painful

Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following BEST describes his level of consciousness? A. Verbal B. Painful C. Unresponsive D. Alert

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who complains of "twisting her ankle" when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? A. Providing emotional support, if necessary B. Secondary assessment C. Detailed physical exam D. Questioning about any other complaints or areas of pain

Your patient's initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and weak, a blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. Upon reassessment, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per minute, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 20 per minute. Which of the following can you conclude from this information? A. The patient will survive. B. The patient's condition may be improving. C. The baseline vital signs were inaccurate. D. You can transport the patient to a lower level trauma center.

Annette is at the peak of her working memory capacity. What age is she most likely to be? a. 45 b. 35 c. 55 d. 25

Susan knows that before she goes to bed, she washes her face, then brushes her teeth, then puts on her pajamas and finally climbs into bed. According to memory researchers, Susan has a ________ for getting ready for bed. a. script b. story c. habit d. plan

What type of memory is most involved in remembering what you had for breakfast? a. declarative b. procedural c. fluid d. implicit

Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems?

all of the above -liver disease -respiratory problems -type 2 diabetes

Damage to which area of the brain is associated with difficulty forming new declarative memories? a. brain stem b. hippocampus c. basal ganglia d. corpus callosum

A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as a

disability

Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living?

disability

43) Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences. A) critical incident stress B) crisis intervention C) stress prevention D) chronic stress Answer:

45) While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the patient says, "I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school." What stage of death and dying describes this patient's current condition? A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Anger D) Depression Answer:

49) You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, "Everything will be okay." Making false reassurances is considered: A) naive and uncompassionate. B) caring and supportive. C) professional and discreet. D) ambiguous and uncertain. Answer:

50) Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and dying? A) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members B) Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies C) Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God D) Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened Answer:

51) Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate B) Remember, respect, respond C) Ricochet, recover, re-entry D) Realize, react, reassess Answer:

52) What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A) Personal safety B) Identification of hazardous materials C) Patient care D) Safety of bystanders Answer:

61) What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital environment? A) Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients. B) Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms. C) Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. D) Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season. Answer:

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Plasma

To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? A) Able to listen to others B) Pleasant C) Judgmental but fair D) Emotionally stable

Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? A) Transfer of care B) Breach of duty C) Definitive care D) End of tour

What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? A) Advanced EMT B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) EMT

C place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.

A patient with a medical history of sickle cell anemia is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient is breathing 26 times a minute in short, shallow respirations. However, the patient's oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is 100% on room air. The best approach regarding supplemental oxygen is to: A. place the patient on a nasal cannula. B. do nothing; no supplemental oxygen is necessary. C. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. .D. place the patient on a simple face mask.

D potassium.

A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the electrolyte: A. sodium. B. calcium. C. phosphorous. D. potassium.

What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath?

A sucking chest wound

What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Advanced EMT D) Emergency Ambulance Driver

What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. B. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. C. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. D. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. All of the statements below are true except one. Which statement is false?

An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed.

What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of reproduction? A. Reproduction system B. Lymphatic system C. Renal system D. Respiratory system

When should the EMT evaluate the need for Standard Precautions? A. An evaluation should be made throughout the call. B. An evaluation should be made before arrival on-scene. C. No evaluation is ever needed, since the precautions are the same for every call. D. An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed.

Which abdominal quadrant contains the appendix? A. Right lower B. Right upper C. Left upper D. Left lower

Which of the following BEST describes a mobile radio? A. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle B. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip C. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance D. A two-way radio at a fixed site

Which of the following BEST describes a repeater? A. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances B. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle C. A two-way radio at a fixed site D. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing? A. The minute volume is less than normal. B. The respiratory rate is faster than normal. C. The respiratory rate is slower than normal. D. The minute volume is greater than normal.

Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A. Abdominal quadrants B. Abdominal sextants C. Abdominal regions D. Abdominal planes

A disruption of the balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating: A. waste removal and urine. B. oxygenation and perfusion. C. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues. D. blood pressure and cell hydration.

D. Any of the above

A fracture of which of the following bones would be considered a skull fracture? A. Nasal bones B. Temporal bone C. Maxilla D. Any of the above

For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline and then cover it with an occlusive dressing?

A gunshot wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

A list of potential diagnoses compiled early in the patient's assessment is known as which of the following? A. Traditional diagnosis B. Differential diagnosis C. Assessment-based diagnosis D. Emergency medical diagnosis

An infection of the brain is called: A. multiple sclerosis. B. encephalitis. C. meningitis. D. rhinitis.

Which of the following traumatic chest injuries may result in massive, often fatal internal hemorrhage?

Aortic dissection

While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with:

Aortic dissection.

A teenage male has fallen onto a railing while skateboarding. He complains of right-sided chest pain and moderate dyspnea. Exposure of the chest reveals a section of his ribs that is moving opposite of the rest of the ribs. You should:

Apply a bulky dressing over the section.

Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and syncope?

Apply cold packs to the patient's head.

As an EMT, it is important that you be able to do all of the following except: A. deal with a wide variety of emotions and behaviors. B. ensure your safety and that of others at the scene. C. control your own emotions when dealing with patients who say upsetting things to you. D. provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems.

C. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse

As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result? A. Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse B. Increased blood pressure, increased pulse C. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse D. Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse

As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the nurse? A. She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving. B. She can evaluate the quality of care you provided. C. She can determine if you understand the assessment process. D. She can critique your technique of taking vital signs.

A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen. A. 16 B. 5 C. 100 D. 21

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial bleeding? A. Steady flow B. Spurting under pressure C. Dark red color D. Both B and C

Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) for purposes of data collection in conducting research? A. Patient's name B. Time of arrival at the patient's location C. Patient's insurance coverage D. Amount charged for ambulance services

Which of the following is the LEAST effective method of controlling bleeding? A. Hemostatic agent B. Elevation C. Direct pressure D. Tourniquet

Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Nasal cannula

Which of the following is the leading cause of internal bleeding? A. Penetrating trauma B. Blunt trauma C. Aortic aneurysm D. Crush injury

Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be concise? A. You want to appear professional. B. The emergency department needs to know quickly and accurately the patient's condition. C. You want to make sure the doctor approves your medical order request. D. You do not want to bore the nurse receiving your report.

What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis? A. Ischium B. Acetabulum C. Ilium D. Pubis

What medication is given when a patient suffers from a medical or traumatic condition called hypoxia? A. Oral glucose B. Aspirin C. Oxygen D. Epinephrine

What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism? A. Electrolytes and carbohydrates B. Exercise and water C. Oxygen and glucose D. Carbolic acid and air

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? A. Skeletal B. Striated C. Smooth D. Voluntary

Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

Which of the following BEST describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits? A. Late frostbite B. Immersion foot C. Early frostnip D. Deep frostnip

Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? A) Guardian B) Assistant C) Advocate D) Representative

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event B. Delayed capillary refill C. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion D. Hypotension

A segment of the body associated with a specific nerve coming from the spinal cord, along which shingles can appear, is called a: A. myelin sheath. B. motor unit. C. dermatome. D. zoster.

C. dermatome.

Which of the following is an example of a medication's trade name? A. 4 dihydroxyphenyl acetate B. Oxygen C. Nitrostat D. Epinephrine

Which of the following is often prescribed for a patient with a heart condition? A. Ventolin B. Epinephrine auto-injector C. Nitroglycerin D. Non-aspirin pain relievers such as Tylenol

Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases. B. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases. C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases. D. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.

Which of the following is the MOST effective way of controlling external bleeding? A. Running cold water over the wound B. Using an ice pack C. Using direct pressure with a dressing D. Elevating the affected part

Which of the following is the MOST sensitive indicator of hypoperfusion? A. Dilation of the pupils B. Increased heart rate C. Altered mental status D. Delayed capillary refill

Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain? A. Determining the possible need for immediate surgery B. Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport C. Determining the presence of shock D. Determining the cause of the pain

Which of the following will deliver a medium velocity impact? A. Ice pick B. Bullet from an assault rifle C. Bullet from a handgun D. Butcher knife

Which patient is experiencing visceral pain? A. 24yearold male complaining of severe left flank pain B. 19yearold female complaining of severe cramps in the lower abdominal quadrants C. 45yearold female complaining of abdominal pain "all over" D. 28yearold male with rebound tenderness

Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? A) Traffic director B) Law enforcement C) All crew members D) Triage officer

Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies

Why is it important to not give the name or Social Security number of your patient over the ambulance radio when contacting medical control? A. Someone may know the patient and tell the patient's friends. B. Someone may steal the patient's identity. C. It is illegal. D. It is unnecessary.

Why is it important to remove constricting items such as rings before thawing a frozen extremity? A. To prevent damage to the property such as rings and watches B. Because thawing leaves clots behind in the veins C. Because thawed areas often swell D. All of the above

Which of the following is a common sign and symptom in poisonings of all types? A. Headache and diaphoresis B. Dizziness and palpitations C. Nausea and vomiting This is the correct answer. D. Pain and diaphoresis

C. Nausea and vomiting

Most epinephrine auto-injectors, except the Twinject, contain how many doses of epinephrine? A. Two B. Three C. One This is the correct answer. D. None of the above

C. One

Which of the following describes any substance produced by a living organism that is poisonous to human beings? A. Acid B. Antibody C. Toxin This is the correct answer. D. Antigen

C. Toxin

Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction? A. Coarse-sounding rhonchi B. Fine, wet crackles or rales C. Wheezing This is the correct answer. D. Clear, adequate air movement

C. Wheezing

Smoke inhalation can result in all of the following except: A. airway swelling and obstruction. B. cardiac arrest. C. lung contusion. This is the correct answer. D. respiratory arrest.

C. lung contusion.

You are called to the scene of a 14-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother states she has been teased and bullied at school and she suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. Your first action is to: A. administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB). B. administer an oropharyngeal airway (OPA). C. suction the patient's airway. This is the correct answer. D. administer oxygen by bag-valve mask (BVM).

C. suction the patient's airway.

When performing chest compressions on a pregnant patient that has gone into cardiac arrest, what change do you need to make in the placement of your hands? A. 1 to 2 inches lower on the sternum B. .5 to 1 inch lower on the sternum C. 1 to 2 inches higher on the sternum D. 0.5 to 1 inch higher on the sternum

C. 1 to 2 inches higher on the sternum

The elderly population is at least ________ times as likely to use the EMS system as patients in other age groups. A. 5 B. 10 C. 2 D. 0.5

C. 2

You have delivered a newborn and wrapped the baby in a dry blanket. During your reassessment of the mother, you note continued moderate vaginal bleeding. Care for this bleeding may involve all of the following EXCEPT: A. Transport the mother has a high-priority patient. B. elevating the mother's feet. C. encourage the mother to use the bathroom if possible. D. massaging the uterus to control bleeding.

C. encourage the mother to use the bathroom if possible.

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: Select one: A. mouth-to-mask device. B. bag-mask device. C. nonrebreathing mask. D. nasal cannula.

C. nonrebreathing mask.

You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action?

Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation

12) Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B ________ available to employees free of charge. A) prophylaxis B) vaccine C) cure D) immunity Answer:

The mnemonic AVPU is used to evaluate which of the following? A. Patient's transport priority B. Patient's level of responsiveness C. EMT's general impression of the patient's condition D. Patient's chief complaintQ

The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4

The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are called: A. untoward effects. B. indications. C. contraindications. D. side effects.

The term gangrene means tissue: A. damage. B. death. C. discoloration. D. infection.

The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A. dorsal B. distal C. inferior D. medial

When pupils are dilated they are: A. elliptical or elongated in shape. B. larger than normal. C. irregularly shaped. D. smaller than normal.

Which of the following BEST describes a base station? A. A device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances B. A two-way radio at a fixed site C. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip D. A two-way radio mounted in a vehicle

Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips B. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward C. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head D. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent

You are assessing a 67-year-old male patient who is experiencing a dissecting abdominal aneurysm. Typically, such a patient will describe the pain as: A. dull. B. achy. C. tearing. D. sharp.

C. tearing.

35) What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction (PTSD)? A) Suspicion of friends, family, coworkers, or patients B) Excessive sleeping, loss of appetite, and distractibility C) Headaches, stomach ailments, and a chronic cough D) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment Answer:

36) A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. A) routine call B) abuse of alcohol C) ongoing night shift D) injury of a coworker Answer:

37) One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following? A) Control his or her emotions B) Use fine motor skills C) Adapt to stress D) Think and solve problems Answer:

A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen? A. 16-21 B. 90-100 C. 24-44 D. 80-100

A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following methods? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Blood pressure monitor D. Any of the above

A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following? A. Bradycardic B. Dyscardic C. Normocardic D. Tachycardic

The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect. A. lateral B. axillary C. inferior D. medial

When submerged in water, biological death may be delayed if the water temperature is below ________degrees°F. A. 50 B. 32 C. 98.6 D. 70

Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment? A. Ongoing assessment B. At the patient's side C. At primary assessment D. At secondary assessment

Which of the following BEST describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a chair? A. Stand next to the chair. B. Sit on the floor at the patient's feet. C. Stand behind the patient's chair. D. Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient.

Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? A) Distance education B) EMT training program C) Recertification D) Continuing education

Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion? A. Blood vessels are dilated. B. There is external bleeding. C. The heart is damaged. D. All of the above

Which of the following is a function of the skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Regulation of body temperature C. Balancing water in the body D. All of the above

Which of the following is a known cause of inaccurate oxygen saturation readings? A. Jaundiced nail beds B. Fever C. Hypotension D. Carbon monoxide inhalation

Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds B) Awareness of problems with color vision C) Ability to dominate the patient D) Control of personal habits

Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care report? A. Embarrassment B. Negative impact on patient care C. Loss of credibility D. All of the above

Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee? A. Leave stingers in place. B. Elevate the affected site above the level of the heart to reduce swelling. C. Soak the affected area in warm water. D. Remove jewelry from any affected limbs.

Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive? A. Nitrogen narcosis B. Pulmonary embolism C. "Squeeze" injuries of the ear and sinuses D. Decompression sickness

Which of the following is completed first during the primary assessment? A. Assessing mental status B. Opening the airway C. Determining transport priority D. Forming a general impression

Which of the following is often associated with water-related emergencies? A. Alcohol use B. Cardiac arrest C. Hypothermia D. All of the above

Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of early shock? A. Constriction of the peripheral blood vessels B. Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels C. Increased respirations of the patient D. The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss

Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant? A. Shaking the child B. Rubbing the sternum with your knuckles C. Pinching the earlobe D. Flicking the soles of the feet

Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will encounter? A. Excessive sweating B. High blood pressure C. Vomiting D. Hemorrhage

Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding? A. To prevent the spread of infectious diseases B. To make clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call C. To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood D. To prevent hypoperfusion

Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision? A. Electrocution B. Other emergency vehicles C. Hazardous materials D. All of the above

Which of the following medications is most likely to be administered to a chest pain patient with a blood pressure of 88/50 and no difficulty breathing? A. Albuterol B. Nitroglycerin C. Oxygen D. Aspirin

Which of the following patients is a high priority for transport? A. Pediatric patient with abrasions to both knees from a fall B. High school student with dizziness after giving blood C. Adult female with knee pain D. Adult male with difficulty breathing

Which of the following questions is inappropriate when taking the history of a female patient with abdominal pain? A. Are you having vaginal bleeding or discharge now? B. Have you had sexual intercourse since your last menstrual period? C. If you are menstruating, is the flow normal? D. What is your sexual orientation?

Which of the following questions may help the EMT assess a patient with abdominal pain? A. Do you have any allergies to foods or medicines? B. What medications are you taking? C. Do you have any medical problems, such as diabetes or heart problems? D. All of the above

Which of the following should NOT be included in a patient care report? A. Chief complaint B. Patient's subjective statements C. Pertinent negative findings D. Radio codes

Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient information? A. Medications B. Description of the surroundings C. Signs D. Symptoms

Which of the following should increase the EMT's suspicion of internal bleeding? A. Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen B. Fall from a height three or more times the patient's height C. High-speed motor vehicle collision D. All of the above

Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician. B. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic. C. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help. D. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff.

Which of the following situations will NOT require additional resources at the scene? A. A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected B. A 300-pound woman complaining of back pain C. A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine D. A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing? A. Diaphragm B. Cricoid cartilage C. Pharynx D. Epiglottis

Which of the following techniques is used when formulating the general impression? A. Detecting odors B. Listening for unusual sounds C. Looking for visual clues D. All of the above

Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A. Irritability B. Conductivity C. Contractility D. Automaticity

Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding air? A. Core temperature B. Wind chill index C. Shell temperature D. Ambient temperature

Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication? A. Disentanglement of the patient B. Extrication of the patient from the vehicle C. Stabilization of the vehicle D. Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam

D Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam

Which of the following conditions can mimic the signs of alcohol intoxication? A. Head injuries B. Diabetes C. Epilepsy D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Your patient has come in contact with a strong acid substance. Using an alkaline solution to treat the patient may result in which of the following? A. Production of heat when the acid and alkali interact B. Further damage to the patient's tissues C. Neutralization of the acid substance D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which trauma patient is the most critical? A. Patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 B. Patient with decorticate posturing C. Patient who withdraws to painful stimuli D. Patient with decerebrate posturing

D. Patient with decerebrate posturing

All of the following are signs of adequate breathing and circulation in the newborn except: A. heart rate greater than 100. B. cyanosis of only the hands and feet. C. vigorous crying. D. relaxation of the extremities.

D. relaxation of the extremities.

Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following situations? A. Pulseless bradycardia B. Asystole C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Pulseless electrical activity

Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. Although she has no previous history of seizures or any other medical condition, she was just diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure?

Eclampsia

Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do?

Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle.

During your primary assessment you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following?

Failing respiratory system

You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pulse? A. Pulse 20 and weak B. Pulse 40, weak, and irregular C. Pulse 20, weak, and regular D. Pulse 40 and weak

Which of the following is the primary cause of COPD? A. Infection B. Congenital diseases C. Air pollution D. Cigarette smoking

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen? A. Myocardial infarction B. Angina pectoris C. Cardiac arrest D. Heart failure

In the normal drive to breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated by: A. high carbon dioxide. B. low carbon dioxide. C. high oxygen. D. diffusion.

C. Spinous process

The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person's back are known as which of the following? A. Transverse processes B. Foramen magnum C. Spinous process D. Vertebrae

The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is: A. nucleus. B. sodium pump. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.

There are general rules when dealing with psychiatric emergencies. Which of the following is NOT one of those rules and would be considered inappropriate? A. Identify yourself and your role. B. Listen to the patient. You can show you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. C. Never make eye contact with the patient, as it will just increase his nervousness. D. Speak slowly and clearly, using a calm and reassuring tone.

When checking breath sounds in a trauma patient, what should the EMT assess for first? A. Amount of dead space air and residual air B. Rate and tidal volume C. Wheezing and stridor D. Presence and equality

Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? A. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. B. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. C. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. D. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

A. Constriction of blood vessels

Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system? A. Constriction of blood vessels B. Running or walking C. Solving complex math problems D. Speaking

You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing to the site and began emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next?

Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.

B Multiple treatments a day

How often do most peritoneal dialysis patients require treatment? A. Once a day B. Multiple treatments a day C. Once a week D. Three to five times a week

The seat of respiratory control is found in the: A. lungs. B. chest. C. medulla oblongata. D. nose.

D thrill

The sensation felt when palpating an arterial-venous fistula or shunt is known as a: A. frill. B. bruit. C. fluttering. D. thrill.

When someone is experiencing hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which one of the statements below is NOT one of the fight-or-flight responses?

The skin is hot and dry.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the skin's status in the case of a closed chest injury?

The skin is not penetrated.

B. Deformity

Which of the following is NOT a common field finding in spinal injuries? A. Pain B. Deformity C. Tenderness D. Impaired breathing

C. Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard.

Which of the following measures is NOT appropriate for a patient with a significant isolated head injury? A. Try to keep the patient from being agitated. B. Keep the patient from becoming overheated. C. Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard. D. Control bleeding from head wounds.

Which of the following medical conditions may be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral emergency? A. Mental illness B. Stroke C. Hypoglycemia D. All of the above

Which of the following methods should be used to have a patient rate the amount of pain he is having? A. Use the memory aid AVPU. B. Use the memory aid DCAP. C. Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1 (least) to 10 (worst). D. Ask the patient to state whether the pain is mild, moderate, severe, or unbearable.

Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral emergency? A. Severe clinical depression B. Suicidal ideology C. Hypoglycemia D. Acute alcohol intoxication

C. There is a lack of mechanism of injury.

Which of the following observations may the EMT use to rule out a spinal injury in a trauma patient? A. Patient is able to walk at the scene. B. There is a lack of numbness and paralysis of the extremities. C. There is a lack of mechanism of injury. D. Patient denies pain in his spine.

B Spleen

Which of the following organs may seriously be damaged in sickle cell anemia, and often subsequently leads to severe infections? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Lungs D. Kidneys

Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients? A. Congestive heart failure B. Pedal edema C. Crackles D. Presacral swelling

Which of the following would most likely be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? A. Very deep, rapid respirations B. Breathing through the nose, not the mouth C. Accessory respirations D. Agonal respirations

B. Cervical and lumbar

Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury? A. Thoracic and lumbar B. Cervical and lumbar C. Thoracic and sacra D. Cervical and sacra

You are transporting a 30-year-old male who has been shot in the chest. He is suffering from a sucking chest wound and has a decreased level of consciousness. How often should you perform a reassessment? A. Every 30 minutes B. Every 15 minutes C. Every 5 minutes D. Every 10 minutes

Which of the following is typical of angina pectoris? A. Does not respond to nitroglycerin B. Does not present following stress C. Often subsides with rest D. Lasts 10 to 30 seconds

D. All of the above

Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar? A. Allows hyperextension of the neck B. Prevents the patient from opening his mouth C. Allows flexion of the neck D. All of the above

Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart? A. Mild chest discomfort B. Nausea, with or without vomiting C. Severe, crushing pain in the chest D. All of the above

There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a:

partial seizure.

17) Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway? A) Long backboard B) Flexible stretcher C) Wheeled stretcher D) Basket stretcher Answer:

26) How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift? A) 300 B) 500 C) 700 D) 200 Answer:

The bone most commonly fractured with a "broken hip" is the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. ilium. D. fibula.

The lower jaw bone is also known as the: A. mandible. B. maxillae. C. orbit. D. manubrium.

Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded? A. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure B. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature, pupils, and blood pressure C. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition D. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, blood pressure, and bowel sounds

Which of the following is a commonly accepted list of medications an EMT can assist the patient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical Director? A. Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors B. Prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, prescribed nitroglycerin, and prescribed epinephrine auto-injectors C. Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors D. Any over-the-counter medication, oral glucose, and oxygen

Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A. Ischium B. 8th through 19th vertebrae C. Sternum D. Ribs

You respond to an abdominal pain call. Your partner suspects that the patient is having an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What type of pain is the patient most likely experiencing? A. Tearing B. Referred C. Visceral D. Parietal

What is epilepsy?

A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication.

Cleaning fluid, glue, and model cement are common examples of which of the following? A. Volatile chemicals This is the correct answer. B. Aromatic spirits C. Narcotics D. Hallucinogens

A. Volatile chemicals

As an adult ages, the body experiences changes that cause: A. a decreased compensatory ability. B. disease processes to take place. C. an inability to maintain homeostasis. D. an increased blood pressure.

A. a decreased compensatory ability.

Which of the following is within the EMT's scope of practice for the treatment of the diabetic patient?

Administration of oral glucose

In what position should the patient complaining of severe abdominal pain be placed if there are no signs or symptoms of shock? A. Supine with feet elevated B. One of comfort C. Semi-Fowler with knees bent D. Left lateral recumbent

What are the small bones that make up the wrist called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Metatarsals D. Metacarpals

Which of the following BEST describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff? A. Midway between the elbow and shoulder B. Covering two-thirds of the upper arm C. One inch below the armpit D. Covering the patient's elbow

Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? A. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics B. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband C. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath D. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy

You are on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing your physical examination, you contact medical control and are ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Five minutes after taking his nitroglycerin, the patient complains of being dizzy and having a headache. You lie the patient down on the stretcher and reassess his vital signs. He is now hypotensive. The patient is suffering from: A. an untoward reaction to nitroglycerin. B. the side effects of nitroglycerin. C. an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin. D. an anaphylactic reaction to nitroglycerin.

A respiratory rate of less than ________ in infants is a significant finding and indicates a critical patient, who should be immediately transported to a trauma center if secondary to trauma. A. 25 B. 20 C. 18 D. 30

B. 20

When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? A. Your level of EMS certification B. Amount of the substance involved C. Your background in chemistry D. Both A and B

B. Amount of the substance involved

Which of the following is the MOST common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to? A. Hazardous materials incidents B. Motor vehicle collisions C. Structure fires D. Outbreaks of influenza

B. Motor vehicle collisions

D sludging

Because of abnormally shaped hemoglobin, sickle cell anemia (SCA) patients may occasionally experience ________, causing a blockage of small blood vessels. A. clumping B. aggregation C. clotting D. sludging

The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? A. Legal responsibility B. Scope of practice C. Duty to act D. Standard of care

Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with: A. nitrogen. B. humidified air. C. inhaled air. D. carbon monoxide.

Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite? A. Immobilizing the bitten extremity B. Having the patient lie still C. Application of ice D. Constricting bands above and below the bite

What type of trauma triage criteria regarding transport would a finger amputation receive? A. Patient's choice of destination B. Any hospital C. Any hospital with surgical facilities D. Trauma center

C. Any hospital with surgical facilities

Which of the following fractures is most common among elderly women due to falls? A. Distal femur B. Mid-shaft femur C. Proximal femur D. Pelvis

C. Proximal femur

You are dispatched to a multiple vehicle collision on a busy interstate highway. Your crew identifies a critical patient entrapped in a small sedan with significant intrusion into the occupant area on the front and left side. One of your crew members, dressed in fully protective gear, volunteers to enter the vehicle to begin assessment and treatment. Given that access to the patient is limited, you tell him to concentrate on assessing which of the following parts of the patient's body? A. Torso, pelvis, and lower extremities B. Head, chest, and upper extremities C. Head, chest, and torso D. Head, posterior torso, and lower extremities

C. Head, chest, and torso

What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival? A. Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers B. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury C. Teamwork, timing, and transport D. Lights, sirens, and diesel

C. Teamwork, timing, and transport

Albuterol and epinephrine both have bronchodilation properties that improve the amount of oxygen that a person can inhale and absorb. However, Albuterol is administered only for asthma, whereas epinephrine is administered for both asthma and anaphylaxis. Why is epinephrine, and not Albuterol, the first choice for anaphylaxis? A. Albuterol drops the blood pressure too low. B. Albuterol slows down the heart rate too much. C. Albuterol makes the heart rate increase too much. D. Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor.

An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria except which one? A. Observable B. Verifiable C. Measurable D. Biased

An oxygen saturation of 97% is considered which of the following? A. Hypoxia B. Severe hypoxia C. Significant hypoxia D. Normal

At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus? A. Elbow B. Spinal column C. Wrist D. Ankle

At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up? A. When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance B. When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence C. After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact D. As you approach the scene in the ambulance

A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A. tracheostomy mask B. nasal cannula C. regulator D. partial rebreather mask

Bronchodilator inhalers have several common side effects, which include: A. decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate. B. vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. C. bronchodilation and decreased heart rate. D. jitteriness and increased heart rate.

Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using cold, the following guidelines and statements are true except: A. it will reduce pain. B. it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual techniques. C. it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes. D. it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound.

During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? A) The state requires the training. B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam. C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued. D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research.

The EMT, after administering any medication, must do which of the following? A. Reconsider the five rights, reassess the patient, and contact medical control. B. Document the route, dose, and time; reassess the patient; and re-administer the medication. C. Wait 5 minutes, repeat the medication if needed, and reassess the patient's vitals. D. Document the administration, reassess the patient, and report to the receiving facility.

To assess skin temperature for a possibly hypothermic patient, the EMT should place the back of his hand against which part of the patient's body? A. Cheek B. Inner wrist C. Forehead D. Abdomen

To determine blood pressure, the EMT should position the cuff over the upper arm and place the stethoscope over the brachial artery. Next, she should inflate the cuff, then slowly deflate the cuff, listening for clicks or tapping sounds while remembering the number at the first sound. What is the next step in taking a blood pressure? A. Re-inflate the cuff on the patient's arm and repeat the process to verify the reading. B. Dump all the pressure and record the number as the diastolic pressure. C. Remove the cuff from the patient's arm, place it on the opposite arm, and repeat the process to verify the reading. D. Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure.

What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint? A. Scene size-up B. Secondary assessment C. Primary assessment D. General impression

What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher B) Cardiac care responder C) EMT D) Emergency Medical Responder

While on the scene with an elderly chest pain call, you notice that your partner gets on one knee when talking to the seated patient. What is the best reason for an EMT to kneel down beside the patient? A. The EMT is kneeling to protect himself. B. The younger EMT is acknowledging that the older patient is his elder. C. The EMT can examine the patient's chest better. D. The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient.

Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? A. The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. B. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability.`

Why should EMTs study pharmacology? A. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope. B. An EMT must know the manufacturer, sources, characteristics, and effects of every medication that has been prescribed to the patient. C. An EMT must know the sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe. D. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm.

You have assisted in the delivery of a full-term infant by suctioning the mouth and nose as the head was delivered and again following complete delivery. The infant is not yet breathing. Which of the following is the correct sequence of interventions? A. Perform a series of back blows and chest thrusts interposed with mouth-to-mouth ventilation. B. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, suction the airway with a rigid tonsil tip, and begin CPR. C. Transport without further intervention. D. Rub the infant's back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.

D. Rub the infant's back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.

What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site? A. Shipping manifest B. Placard C. Bill of lading D. Safety Data Sheets

D. Safety Data Sheets

Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency? A. The placenta fails to deliver within 20 minutes of the infant's birth. B. Contractions become more intense and closer together. C. The amniotic sac ruptures. D. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.

D. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.

Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical patient, which of the following should you do next? A. Check the scene for medications. B. Obtain baseline vital signs. C. Perform a focused physical exam. D. Find out who the patient's doctor is.

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the BEST way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport?

Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.

C. Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position.

In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury? A. Maintain the patient's head and neck in the position they are found. B. Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient's head. C. Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position. D. Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction.

In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process? A. Passive B. Inspiration C. Active D. Respiration

There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is not a general rule of splinting?

In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable.

In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A. The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient. B. Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. C. Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. D. Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

A. If the helmet interferes with airway management

In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? A. If the helmet interferes with airway management B. If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet C. If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head D. If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited? A. The patient does not currently take aspirin. B. The patient has a history of asthma. C. The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg. D. The patient feels dizzy.

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults? A. Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults. B. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure. C. Ventricular fibrillation is common in children. D. Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Mr. Hughes is a 49-year-old man complaining of chest pain. To find out about the quality of his chest pain, which of the following questions is most appropriate? A. Does anything make the pain worse? B. Can you describe how the pain in your chest feels? C. On a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst, how would you rate your level of pain? D. Are you having pain anywhere besides your chest?

Mrs. Butler is a 66-year-old woman who is complaining of chest pain. Which of the following questions would be best in helping you determine if the pain is radiating? A. Does anything make the pain better or worse? B. Are you having pain anywhere besides your chest? C. Are you having pain in your arm? D. Are you experiencing any other symptoms?

B Hemostatic dressings

Once you encounter uncontrolled bleeding from an AV fistula, which of the following methods would you consider using to control bleeding in addition to direct pressure and elevation? A. Pressure points B. Hemostatic dressings C. Tourniquet D. Internal wound management

Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral emergency, which of the following is the best course of action? A. Begin intense individual counseling with the patient. B. There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems. C. Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent. D. Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior.

The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called the: A. carina space. B. pleural space. C. dead space. D. lung space.

The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset diffusion, which is defined as: A. the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries. B. the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration. C. maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing. D. the exchange of gases in the bronchi.

D is usually done at a special facility and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at home.

There are two main types of dialysis, hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. The main difference between them is hemodialysis: A. is usually done at home and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at a special facility. B. filters the urine and peritoneal dialysis filters the blood. C. filters the blood and peritoneal dialysis filters the urine. D. is usually done at a special facility and peritoneal dialysis is usually done at home.

Today patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving to: A. infancy. B. older adulthood. C. adulthood. D. toddler years.

C Acute renal failure is sudden, while chronic renal failure develops gradually

What is the difference between acute and chronic renal failure? A. Chronic renal failure is sudden, while acute renal failure develops gradually. B. Acute renal failure is life-threatening, but chronic renal failure is not. C. Acute renal failure is sudden, while chronic renal failure develops gradually. D. Chronic renal failure is life-threatening, but acute renal failure is not.

C. Manually stabilize the patient's head and neck

What is the first step in a rapid takedown of a standing patient A. Applying a properly sized cervical collar B. Positioning a long spine board behind the patient C. Manually stabilize the patient's head and neck D. Applying oxygen

What is the first step in the reassessment process? A. Secondary assessment B. Focused history and physical exam C. Primary assessment D. Vital signs

What is the name of the heart dysfunction caused by an electrical source that causes the heart to beat too fast? A. Tachycardia B. Trauma C. Bradycardia D. Heart attack

A They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.

What is the purpose of the red blood cells? A. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells. B. They are critical in response to infection and are mediators of the body's immune response. C. They are crucial in the formation of clots. D. They are responsible for the removal of oxygen from the cells.

What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Hypoxic D. Homeostatic

When dealing with a psychiatric emergency, which one of the following would generally be inappropriate behavior on your part? A. Act in a calm manner, giving the patient time to gain control of his emotions. B. Let the patient know that you are listening to what he is saying, and explain things to the patient honestly. C. Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible. D. Stay alert for sudden changes in behavior.

When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority? A. Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place B. Performing a scene size-up C. Calming the patient down D. Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior

When responding to an attempted suicide, which of the following is the EMT's primary concern? A. Personal safety B. Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal C. Managing the patient's airway D. Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression

When restraining a patient, which of the following is NOT a consideration? A. How to position the patient B. Patient's informed consent C. Number of people available to carry out the required actions D. Patient's size and strength

A. En route to the hospital

When should the EMT calculate a GCS with a patient who suffered a fall of 20 feet from his apartment building? A. En route to the hospital B. Before departing from the scene C. As he approaches the patient D. At the hospital before writing the care report

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs? A. The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation. B. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation. C. In cases of refractory or recurrent ventricular fibrillation, the use of medications may decrease the chances of defibrillating successfully. D. All of the above

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for AED? A. Taking disciplinary action for patient care errors B. Replacing continuing education C. Improving patient outcomes in the community D. Eliminating the need for medical directionQ

Which of the following BEST describes the EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care? A. Early defibrillation B. Early advanced cardiac life support C. Early CPR D. Early notification

B CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease

Which of the following abbreviations is NOT correct? A. RBC for red blood cells B. CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease C. WBC for white blood cells D. SCA for sickle cell anemia

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral emergency? A. Establish control of the situation by a show of force. B. Remain calm and reassure the patient. C. Find out if the patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment. D. Quickly perform a head-to-toe exam and transport without delay.

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a pulse? A. Ventricular dysrhythmia B. Bradycardia C. Tachycardia D. Ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following communication strategies should be used in dealing with a patient with a behavioral emergency? A. Acknowledge the patient's feelings B. Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. C. Show deep sympathy for the patient's predicament and let him know he can't control the things that are happening to him. D. Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure.

Which of the following is the BEST defense for an EMT when facing allegations of misconduct from a mentally ill patient? A. Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness B. Making sure you and your partner get your stories straight before talking to anyone C. Having a clean employment record and lack of a criminal background D. Hiring a background investigator to discredit the accuser

Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication? A. Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure B. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction C. Slows the heart rate D. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied? A. A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash B. A 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress C. A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic D. A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen? A. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration B. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 93% on room air C. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for suicide? A. 44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness B. 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced C. Married, 30-year-old man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state D. 35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Stridor C. Crowing D. Snoring

While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to diagnosis? A. The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient. B. Due to the limited time spent with the patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis. C. The EMT always forms a field diagnosis within the first few minutes of the call to formulate treatment as quickly as possible. D. The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient's presentation.

Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical control. B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Assist the patient with his inhaler. D. Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

D taking blood thinners.

You suspect a patient who has been having a difficult time controlling the bleeding following a small laceration to the foot may have a history of: A. sickle cell anemia. B. high blood pressure. C. poorly controlled diabetes. D. taking blood thinners.

Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called: A. infiltration. B. subcutaneous emphysema. C. crepitus. D. friction rub.

Bill, who is 60, has just successfully recalled an event from his past. What is likely to be true about this past event? a. It was personally significant. b. It was distinctive. c. It was from his 40s. d. It was not an overly emotional event.

In research (Miller & Weiss, 1981), 13-year-old children recalled ________ task-relevant information and ________ task-irrelevant information in comparison to seven- and ten-year-olds. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less

Which statement best describes what is known about children's eyewitness testimony? a. Leading questions are especially helpful to and improve the accuracy of young children, who need more recall cues than do older children. b. Young children are particularly likely to make recall errors when asked leading questions. c. Young children have very good recall and, if given the opportunity, will recount detailed memories without prompting. d. Young children are no more susceptible to the effects of leading question than are adolescents and adults.

In comparison to younger people, older people ________ . a. show uniform slowing of cognitive processes b. focus on speed and sacrifice accuracy c. want to be much more certain before making a decision d. are unable to adapt new strategies

Linda spontaneously uses rehearsal, but her memory does not benefit. What type of memory strategy is she using? a. mediation deficiency b. effective strategy use c. utilization deficiency d. production deficiency

Ted is an older adult. Which type of memory task is most likely to be an area of memory strength for Ted? a. timed b. artificial c. familiar d. recall

Three-month-old Lacey learns to make a mobile move by kicking her legs. If she has no intervening practice, how long will she be able to remember that kicking her leg will make the mobile move? a. less than one day b. one month c. one week d. two weeks

Research indicates that, for simple tasks, decision making tends to be intact until about age a. 65 to 70 b. 75 to 80 c. 55 to 60 d. 85 to 90

Seven-year-old George has learned to memorize short poems by reading them over and over. When he is asked to memorize a longer poem, he continues with the same strategy even though it is not effective. What type of error is this? a. encoding b. recall c. elaborative d. perseveration

What is the relatively permanent store of memory called? a. sensory register b. short-term memory c. executive control processes d. long-term memory

Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is:

determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.

Normally, respiratory drive is triggered by changing levels of: A. oxygen. B. glucose. C. carbon dioxide. D. pH.

________ are signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious. A. Red flags B. Pertinent negatives C. Differentials D. All of the above

An injury in which the epidermis remains intact, but blood vessels and cells in the dermis are injured, is called a(n): (A) Contusion. (B) Abrasion. (C) Concussion. (D) Avulsion.

(A) Contusion

According to the Rule of Nines for infants and young children, the patient's head and neck account for what percentage of the total body surface area? (A) 13.5 percent (B) 14 percent (C) 9 percent (D) 18 percent

(D) 18 percent

1) Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chests, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? A) Direct carry B) Direct ground lift C) Power lift D) Draw-sheet method Answer:

18) Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? A) Keep your back straight. B) Lean forward from the hips. C) Use your shoulder muscles. D) Place both feet flat on the ground. Answer:

2) When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A) Lock grip B) Power lift C) Power grip D) Vise grip Answer:

21) You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compressions? A) Non-urgent move B) Clothing drag C) Urgent move D) Emergency move Answer:

27) What is the likely impact of power stretchers on EMS? A) There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS. B) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs. C) Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services. D) There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers. Answer:

28) Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds (or more) are called: A) battery-powered stretchers. B) wheeled stretchers. C) hydraulic stretchers. D) bariatric stretchers. Answer:

35) You respond to a 48-year-old morbidly obese female patient. Her adult daughter called you because she has not gotten up from her oversized recliner chair in over a week. She has tried to help her out of the chair but states that each time her mother screams in agony. The foul odor presence of urine and feces is strong around the patient. Her feet do not touch the ground, and any attempt to lift the patient by her arms or scoot her down to the end of the chair results in severe pain to the patient. You are finding it nearly impossible to get a good grip on the patient. How will you get her out of the chair? A) Soft stretcher B) Long spine board C) Lie the chair back and use a scoop stretcher D) Vest-type extrication device Answer:

37) What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher? A) Internal injuries B) Hip fracture C) Pelvic injury D) Spinal injury Answer:

38) You are called to the scene of a patient who fell approximately 5 feet off a stepladder to the floor of a third-story attic of a very old building. He is complaining of severe neck and back pain, and he has an obvious fractured ankle. You cannot get your stretcher past the first-floor stairs and your long spine board is not practical with the winding spiral staircase and the small attic access. What is the best device to safely get the patient out of the attic where he can be properly immobilized? A) Scoop stretcher B) Stair chair C) Flexible stretcher D) Vest-type extrication device Answer:

A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke.

8) Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A) Use your back to lift. B) Use your legs to lift. C) Twist your torso while lifting. D) Position your feet close together. Answer:

A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? A. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. B. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee. C. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. D. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee.

All of the following are common techniques for measuring blood pressure, except: A. Rhythm method B. Auscultation C. Palpation D. Blood pressure monitor

Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming. A. active B. central C. peripheral D. endogenous

During the primary assessment of an unresponsive two-month old infant, which pulse should be palpated? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Umbilical D. Carotid

External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the following is one of those types? A. Capillary bleeding B. Liver bleeding C. Brain bleeding D. Cardiac bleeding

Failure of the liver would result in which of the following? A. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream B. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells C. Inability to secrete insulin D. None of the above

Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following substances? A. Salt B. Magnesium C. Water D. Water and potassium

How many parts does a standard medical radio report have as described in your textbook? A. 12 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10

If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail bed? A. 2 seconds or less B. 5 seconds or less C. 4 seconds or less D. 3 seconds or less

In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A) U.S. Department of Transportation B) U.S. Department of the Interior C) U.S. Department of Health Services D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security

In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process? A. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries B. Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins C. Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries D. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins

In a conscious adult patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed initially? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Carotid

In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction? A. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game B. Breathing C. Wearing wet clothing in windy weather D. Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day

In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange take place and also has the thinnest walls through which oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can pass? A. Capillaries B. Veins C. Microvenules D. Arterioles

In EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention? A. Taking steps to correct a problem B. Determining if there is a problem C. Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence D. Creating a permanent record of patient care

The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following? A. Baseline vital signs B. Normal vital signs C. Standard vital signs D. None of the above

The portion of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the patient's presentation, assessment findings, treatment, and transport information is called the: A. narrative. B. deposition. C. data set. D. text.

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse. A. dorsalis pedis B. phalanx proximalis C. tibialis posterior D. suprametatarsal

The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors? A. White or lighter B. Blue or purple C. Red D. Black

When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important? A. Patient's weight B. Type of surface onto which the patient fell C. Height of the fall D. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down

When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? A. Left and right from the patient's perspective. B. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. C. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided. D. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation.

Which of the following blood vessels cannot stop bleeding by constricting? A. Capillaries B. Vena cava C. Arterioles D. Arteries

Which of the following describes the chief complaint? A. Reason why the patient summoned EMS B. Events immediately preceding the call for EMS C. Overall impression of the patient's condition D. All of the above

Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body temperature? A. Hyperthermia B. Hyperdynamic state C. Septic shock D. Heat shock

Which of the following describes Fowler's position? A. Sitting upright with the legs straight B. Lying flat on the back C. Lying on the side D. Lying on the stomach

Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient, as compared to the adult patient? A. The normal respiratory rate is faster. B. An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction. C. The normal pulse rate is slower. D. Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.

Which of the following information does NOT need to be provided to the dispatcher? A. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital B. When you arrive at the hospital C. Which hospital you are transporting to D. When you depart from the hospital

Which of the following is NOT a cause of parietal pain? A. Muscle spasm B. Bleeding into the abdominal cavity C. Inflammation D. Infection

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of patient care report (PCR) information? A. For referral to Alcoholics Anonymous or similar social services B. To conduct research C. To provide EMS personnel with education and quality assurance D. For billing and insurance purposes

Which of the following is NOT part of the circulatory system? A. Brain B. Blood C. Blood vessels D. Heart

Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? A) Self-starter B) Strong student C) Strong communication D) Good eyesight

Which of the following is a potential side effect of nitroglycerin? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Difficulty breathing C. Sudden decrease in heart rate D. All of the above

Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator? A. Gasket B. Medical grade adhesive tape C. Grease plug D. Pop-off valve

Which of the following is another name for describing the condition of shock? A. Hypoperfusion B. Hypotension C. Internal bleeding D. Hemorrhage

Which of the following is most characteristic of parietal abdominal pain? A. Is lying on the floor very still and quiet with his knees drawn up to his chest. B. Is rolling about on the floor complaining of pain. C. Walks out to the ambulance informing you he has the worst "belly ache." D. Is sitting upright in a chair, moaning in pain, and drinking antacid.

Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be used? A. Use a material that is wide and thick. B. Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet. C. Remove the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb. D. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee.

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a patient's skin temperature? A. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead. B. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen. C. Place your cheek against the patient's forehead. D. Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen.

Which of the following is the correct manner for making a correction on a patient care report? A. Draw a single line through the error and initial it. B. Blacken out the entire error and draw an arrow to the correct information. C. Use typing correction fluid to cover up the error and write over it. D. Get a credible witness to co-sign your patient care report.

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? A. To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems B. To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms C. To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition D. To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew

Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A. Providing patient care B. Preserving evidence C. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene D. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony

Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain? A. It is generally localized to a particular area. B. It is often described as "crampy" or "colicky." C. It is usually intermittent in nature. D. It arises from solid organs.

Which of the following is true concerning scene size-up? A. The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls. B. Information from bystanders is not important on trauma calls. C. Determining the number of patients is not important on a medical call. D. Scene size-up does not play a role in determining the nature of the illness.

Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call? A. An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT. B. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for. C. The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes. D. You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it.

Which of the following is true regarding a patient who has a mental status of less than "alert"? A. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen. B. His condition does not indicate the need for oxygen. C. He is likely in a state of REM sleep. D. He has adequate circulation.

Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space? A. Kidneys B. Uterus C. Stomach D. Liver

Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? A. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency. B. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty. C. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty. D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law.

Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of pressure? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Venules D. Capillaries

Which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen administration? A. A patient with a stoma B. A patient with quadriplegia C. A patient with chronic bronchitis D. A patient with upper airway inflammation

Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a tourniquet? A. If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint. B. The tourniquet should be 2 to 4 inches wide. C. A blood pressure cuff can be used as a tourniquet. D. The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 inches above the bleeding.

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder

While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? A. Libel B. Degradation of character C. Slander D. HIPAA violation

While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? A. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. B. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize. C. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. D. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for.

Why are infants and young children more prone to hypothermia than adults? A. They have less fat than adults. B. They are unable to recognize how cold they are. C. Their immune system is not fully developed. D. They shiver more than adults.

You respond to a 65yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your physical exam reveals a nonpulsating mass in the lower left quadrant. You suspect: A. hernia. B. splenic rupture. C. appendicitis. D. aortic abdominal aneurysm.

Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? A. Implied consent B. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies C. Consent for mentally incompetent adults D. Expressed consent

A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells is called: A. erythrocythemia. B. polycythemia. C. leukemia. D. anemia.

A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have ________ respirations. A. Kussmaul's B. central neurogenic C. agonal D. Cheyne-Stokes

Which of the following describes the normal appearance of amniotic fluid? A. Clear and colorless fluid Your answer is correct. B. Thin fluid, greenish-yellow in color C. Thick fluid, greenish-black in color D. A fluid containing blood and mucus

A. Clear and colorless fluid

Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A. Emergency Response Guidebook B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) toll-free hotline C. Medical dictionary D. Medical protocols

A. Emergency Response Guidebook

The greatest danger to the pregnant woman and her fetus involved in trauma is which of the following? A. Hemorrhagic shock B. Distributive shock C. Neurogenic shock D. Supine hypotensive shock

A. Hemorrhagic shock

Which of the following is NOT a warning sign or physical symptom of stress? A. Increased salivation B. Heart palpitations C. Chest pain D. GI distress

A. Increased salivation

With START triage, when you arrive on the scene you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as: A. Priority 3 walking wounded. B. red tagged. C. Priority 4 walking wounded. D. yellow tagged.

A. Priority 3 walking wounded.

Biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes? A. Respiratory tract B. Blood C. Skin D. Gastrointestinal tract

A. Respiratory tract

You have just delivered a full-term baby girl and she is doing well. You have dried her off and wrapped her in a warm blanket. You are preparing to cut the umbilical cord. Which of the following is normally true regarding cutting the umbilical cord? A. The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord. B. You must try to cut the cord before it stops pulsating. C. The cord should be cut immediately following delivery. D. You should hold the baby above the level of the mother when cutting the cord.

A. The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord.

Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except: A. allergens. B. biological agents. C. nuclear agents. D. explosives.

A. allergens.

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing?

All of the above

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

All of the above

A blood pressure in an adult patient of 134/84 mm Hg would be considered: A. hypertension. B. prehypertension. C. hypotension. D. normotension.

A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? A. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh B. Fractures of both femurs C. Two fractures in the same femur D. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

A serious negative interaction for giving Nitrostat is a drug interaction with what medications? A. Oral glucose, Viagra, and aspirin B. Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction C. Sildenafil, vardenafil, and epinephrine D. Nitroglycerin, Ventolin, and epinephrine

An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following? A. Cavitating trauma B. Penetrating trauma C. Impaling trauma D. Puncturing trauma

At what point is the scene size-up complete? A. Upon stabilization of the c-spine B. At the end of the call C. When the number of patients has been determined D. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized

Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT are: A. retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing. B. snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing. C. snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing, and crowning. D. tachycardia, retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing.

Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding IV administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and is: A. allowed in larger cities and more advanced EMS services. B. beyond the scope of the EMT level. C. used in advanced life support only when the patient is intubated. D. only performed by air medical personnel.

Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true? A. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis. B. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable. C. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria. D. It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A. Family members request that nothing be done. B. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. D. All of the above

In EMS, what does mental status refer to? A. Any history of mental illness that the patient may have B. Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings C. Patient's general level of intelligence D. None of the above

Nitroglycerin (Nitro) is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is most commonly supplied in what two forms? A. Ointment and pills B. Pills and spray C. Aerosol and spray D. Pills and injectable

Of the three types of oxygen flowmeters, which one can only be used upright? A. Constant flow selector valve B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Hudson gauge flowmeter D. Bourdon gauge flowmeter

The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following? A) Writing protocols and standing orders B) Maintaining your equipment C) Providing quality care D) Being a member of the QI committee

The abbreviation mm Hg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? A. Millimeters of water B. Millimeters of mercury C. Atmospheric pressure D. Minimum heart rate

The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen saturation (SpO2) is called a(n): A. sphygmomanometer. B. pulse oximeter. C. capnography. D. end tidal CO2 meter.

The increase in the work of breathing is reported as: A. troubled breathing. B. labored breathing. C. noisy breathing. D. obstructed breathing.

The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics? A. Yellow B. Blue-gray C. Very pale D. Flushed

The "fight-or-flight" response is activated by the: A. endocrine system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. renal system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? A. Armpit B. Wrist C. Throat D. Upper arm

Two EMTs are on-scene of a behavioral call at a psychiatric facility. The medical personnel state that the patient had a psychotic episode and slashed his wrists. During the call, the patient claims to hear the voice of God and says that the voice is hurting his ears. The patient refuses to be transported to the emergency department, becomes combative, and bites one of the EMTs. Which of the following should NOT be documented on the EMS report? A. The fact that the patient was violent and bit the EMT B. The fact that the EMT had an exposure incident C. The fact that the patient slashed his wrists D. The fact that the patient hears voices

Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following? A. Symptom B. Sign C. Diagnosis D. Complaint

What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? A) Patient access B) Patient assessment C) Medical intervention D) Patient advocacy

What are the names given to each medication listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia? A. Official, chemical, and generic B. Trade, chemical, and generic C. Trade, brand, and generic D. Manufacturers, general, and governmental

What are the signs of hypoxia? A. Warm dry skin, with difficulty in breathing, and hypertension B. Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness C. Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brain and heart that is irreversible D. Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion

What causes the "seesaw" breathing pattern of young children? A. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult. B. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. D. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

What condition must be present before you give oral glucose? A. The patient must not have a history of diabetes. B. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes. C. The patient, if conscious, must be able to swallow; if unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue. D. The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes.

What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric patient? A. 1 minute B. less than 2 seconds C. 3 seconds D. 5 seconds

What is another name for the eye socket? A. Odontoid process B. Orbit C. Zygomatic arch D. Parietal bone

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A. Dorsal B. Anterior C. Posterior D. Caudal

What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through? A. Venous pressure B. Diastolic blood pressure C. Resting blood pressure D. Systolic blood pressure

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? A. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status C. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status D. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status

What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Arteries

What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Tachypnea C. Tachycardia D. Dyseffusion

When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic shock, which of the following is the MOST important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? A. Rehabilitation services B. Immediate surgical capabilities C. Availability of a chaplain D. Critical-care nursing

When taking blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what point? A. Until the patient says it hurts B. 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears C. Until the Velcro starts to crackle D. Until the gauge reads 200 mmHg

Which of the following BEST describes the five rights? A. Right decision, right medication, right order, right dose, right place B. Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route C. In date, right medication, right order, right dose, right time D. Right patient, right medication, in date, right dose, right route

Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? A. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel B. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest C. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body D. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

Which of the following BEST describes blunt-force trauma? A. The object is not sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used. B. An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues. C. The object penetrates soft tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone. D. A rounded object impacts the body tissues.

Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies? A. Transportation Security Administration B. Federal Communications Commission C. United States Department of Transportation D. Federal Trade Commission

Which of the following are the components of the nervous system? A. Spinal cord and motor nerves B. Brain, spinal cord, and nerves C. Brain and autonomic nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves

Which of the following can be correctly noted as a chief complaint? A. The patient was confused. B. The patient stated that she felt sick. C. The patient had a respiratory rate of 44. D. The patient was found sitting in the driver's seat of a full-size sedan.

Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen cylinder? A. Blue and yellow B. Green and white C. Orange and red D. Black and tan

Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication administration? A. The medication is injected under the skin. B. The medication is placed under the tongue. C. The medication is breathed into the lungs, such as from an inhaler. D. The medication is swallowed whole, not chewed.

Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement? A. Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work. B. Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver. C. Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party. D. You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana.

Which of the following increases a scuba diver's risk of decompression sickness? A. Breathing 100% oxygen before a dive B. Flying within several hours after a dive C. Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive D. Diving on a full stomach

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of hypoperfusion? A. Cells are not supplied with nutrients. B. Aerobic metabolism will continue in the cell. C. Cellular waste products are not removed. D. Cells are not supplied with oxygen.

Which of the following is most likely to keep a rescuer safe and dry during a water rescue through broken ice? A. Ladder B. Flat-bottomed aluminum boat C. Ring buoy D. Jet-ski

Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding? A. Obtaining a thorough gynecological history B. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock C. Preventing infection D. Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active

Which of the following is the most common situation in which an EMT may be liable? A. Failing to get the receiving physician's signature on the patient care report B. Patient refusal of treatment and transport C. Inaccurate recording of times and mileage D. Failure to document all of a patient's medications on the patient care report

Which of the following must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding? A. A younger person can tolerate more blood loss than an adult. B. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost. C. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the ground. D. All of the above

Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per minute? A. D tank B. E tank C. M tank D. G tank

Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? A. Protocols and standing orders B. Scope of practice C. Legal standards of practice D. Professional standards

Which of the following signs would you NOT expect to see in a patient suffering from severe hypothermia? A. Skin cool to touch B. Shivering C. Drowsiness D. Numbness

Which of the following spiders can cause a characteristic wound with a bite that is often painless? A. Black widow spider B. Brown recluse spider C. Sheet web spider D. Argiope spider

Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli? A. Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs. B. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs. C. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs. D. Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacks, and diffusion occurs.

Which of the following statements is NOT true when you are on-scene and treating a patient that appears to be in shock? A. Airway management is of top priority. B. It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This is more important than rapid transport. C. Prompt transportation is a very high priority. D. The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen.

Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A. Implied consent B. Expressed consent C. Unconditional consent D. Conscious consenT

Why would an EMT give aspirin to a patient? A. It is given to calm the patient by reducing the pain because stress is the real killer. B. Aspirin reduces the blood's ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in patients suffering chest pain. C. Aspirin reduces the heart's ability to beat fast and works to prevent rapid heart rate. D. Aspirin reduces the pain level in patients who are in pain.

You are about to apply a blood pressure cuff to an unconscious patient when you notice that she appears to have a tube underneath the skin of her arm. The tube feels like it has fluid going through it. You should: A. continue to take her blood pressure in the arm. B. find another site to measure her blood pressure. C. use an automatic blood pressure cuff instead. D. move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate.

You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of 140/92. Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. Her condition is called: A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. prehypertension. D. hypotension.

OxyContin is an example of which of the following types of drugs? A. Antidepressant B. Narcotic This is the correct answer. C. Barbiturate D. Appetite suppressant

B. Narcotic

What clinical finding is MOST suggestive of toxic smoke inhalation? A. Tachypnea B. Black-colored sputum This is the correct answer. C. Swollen tongue D. Altered mental status

B. Black-colored sputum

Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much? A. 250 cc B. 500 cc C. 1,000 cc D. 100 cc

B. 500 cc

The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of the following? A. Environmental issues B. Religion C. Ethics D. Politics

B. Religion

24) Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A) Homeostasis B) Distress C) Stress D) Eustress Answer:

A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 8

A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism? A. Shivering B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Convection

A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT. A. repeated B. complete C. accurate D. unbiased

After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? A) Patient advocacy B) Transfer of care C) Quality improvement D) Continuing education

At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone? A. The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions. B. The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions. C. The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions. D. There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.

A child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. A. epiglottis B. cricoid cartilage C. tongue D. trachea

Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A) Emergency preparedness plan B) Trauma system C) Resource management D) Central deployment

For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status? A. 92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side B. 24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain C. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough D. 50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain

Heat stroke is caused by which of the following mechanisms? A. Heat-induced swelling of brain tissue B. Blockage of blood flow to the brain C. Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms D. Extreme dilation of all the blood vessels

In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A. blood pressure fluctuations. B. the study of the skin. C. external landmarks of body structures. D. key elements of the central nervous system.

In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented patient care report NOT necessary? A. A patient says that someone else called EMS and he does not want any assistance. B. A fully documented patient care report is required for all of the above. C. Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation. D. A patient is treated but not transported.

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? A. Behind the knee B. On the medial side of the upper arm C. At the groin D. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia

In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook? A. Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision B. Patient with a suspected infectious disease C. Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool D. Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence

In which of the following ways does the body produce heat in response to being cold? A. Burning fewer calories B. Excreting more urine C. Shivering D. Increasing the respiratory rate

Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do next? A. Document the order in writing before carrying it out. B. Prepare the medication and then call the hospital back to re-confirm the order. C. Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly. D. Administer the medication without delay.

Most radiant heat is lost through which part of the body? A. Hands and feet B. Buttocks C. Head D. Torso

Pain that originates in an organ, such as the intestines, is called ________ pain. A. referred B. acute C. visceral D. parietal

Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following? A. Sterile saline solution B. Gasoline or kerosene C. Vinegar D. Cold water

Regarding drowning in adults, which of the following statements is true? A. Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning. B. Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. C. The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. D. The warmer the water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning.

Slight movement of the chest during respiration is usually indicative of which of the following? A. Normal breathing B. Labored breathing C. Shallow breathing D. Noisy breathing

The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: A. tidal volume. B. inhalation. C. ventilation. D. respiration.

The purpose of a constricting band after a venomous snake bite is to impede the flow of which of the following? A. Lymph B. Arterial blood C. Venom D. Both A and C

The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80 mg/dL to a high of: A. 90 to 100. B. 110 to 130. C. 120 to 140. D. 100 to 120.

Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. A 50-year-old patient passed out and cut his lip. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to urgent care instead. The patient agrees and signs a refusal form. The patient dies from sudden cardiac arrest at home the following day. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. B. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. C. The EMTs may be negligent if there is evidence of proximate cause. D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition.

Vital signs should be reassessed every ________ minutes for a stable patient. A. 5 B. 20 C. 15 D. 10

What are the three ways to take blood pressure? A. Auscultation, palpation, and osculation B. Sphygmomanometer, blood pressure monitor, and heart monitor C. Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor D. Sphygmomanometer, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation? A. Bag-valve mask B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pocket face mask D. Stoma

What is NOT one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system? A. Be nonrebreathing B. Non-jam valve C. 15/25 respiratory fitting D. Self-refilling shell

What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in? A) Rural/wilderness settings B) Ambulance services C) Hospitals D) Fire departments

What is the best way to communicate with a young pediatric patient? A. Tell the child the procedure will hurt much more than it actually will so he or she will be pleasantly surprised when the procedure is over. B. Do not tell the child that a procedure will hurt beforehand because the child will become terrified. C. Sit at the level of the child, if possible, and always be honest. D. Only talk with the parents. The child is too young to know his or her medical history.

What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm? A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Radius D. Acromion

What is the reason for giving an epinephrine auto-injector in a life-threatening allergic reaction? A. It will help dilate the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages. B. It will help raise the patient's blood pressure and slow the heart rate. C. It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages. D. It will constrict the patient's airway passages and blood vessels.

Which of the following BEST explains the reason for minimizing scene-time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant hemorrhage? A. The clock for the "golden hour" of trauma begins at the time of your arrival. B. There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock. C. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival. D. It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the patient's care.

Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA)

Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? A. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement. B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. C. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas. D. The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases.

Which of the following distinguishes decompensated shock from compensated stage of shock? A. Tachycardia B. Delayed capillary refill time C. Low blood pressure D. Altered mental status

Which of the following does NOT need to be documented regarding a patient refusal of treatment? A. That you advised the patient to call back if he changed his mind B. Patient's mental status C. Any insulting remarks the patient made to you D. That you informed the patient of the consequences of refusing care

Which of the following information on a patient care report is NOT considered run data? A. Other EMS units on the scene B. Time of arrival at the receiving facility C. Chief complaint D. Location of the call

Which of the following is NOT a cause of unequal pupils? A. Artificial eye B. Eye injury C. Fright D. Stroke

Which of the following is NOT a classification of localized cold injury? A. Frostnip B. Frostbite C. Hypothermia D. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate statement for the EMT to make on a patient care report? A. The patient had wheezes that were audible without using a stethoscope. B. The patient has a history of asthma. C. The patient was having an asthma attack. D. The patient complains of difficulty breathing.

Which of the following is NOT an objective element of documented patient information? A. Patient's blood pressure B. Patient's age C. Patient's complaint of nausea D. Position in which the patient was found

Which of the following is NOT indicated in the management of a patient in shock? A. Delaying a detailed exam until en route to the hospital B. On-scene spinal precautions, if indicated C. High-speed ambulance transportation D. Minimizing on-scene time

Which of the following is NOT part of a medical radio report? A. Estimated time of arrival B. Patient's response to medical care provided C. Address at which the patient was located D. Unit identification

Which of the following is NOT performed during the "Airway" phase of the primary assessment? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver C. Obtaining the respiratory rate D. Suctioning

Which of the following is NOT true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients? A. Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint. B. The elderly person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. C. The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious. D. The elderly have a decreased ability to perceive pain.

Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath

Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? A) Nonjudgmental and fair B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds C) Ability to speak clearly D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations

Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? A) Protect and stabilize the patient B) Communicate with other responders on the scene C) Maintain personal health and safety D) Provide emergency care

Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes over it? A. Hydrodynamic cooling B. Condensation C. Convection D. Exposure

With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true? A. The foot is distal to the knee. B. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. C. The mouth is proximal to the nose. D. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints? A) It is good practice for the next emergency call. B) It makes the taxpayers happy. C) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS. D) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night.

Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem? A. Anaphylaxis B. Choking C. Cardiac D. Digestive

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 38, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin. A. Priority 2, yellow tag B. Priority 3, green tag C. Priority 1, red tag D. Priority 4, black tag

C. Priority 1, red tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose. A. Priority 3, green tag B. Priority 4, black tag C. Priority 1, red tag D. Priority 2, yellow tag

C. Priority 1, red tag

You are caring for a multisystem trauma patient. Which of the following EMT interventions is most important? A. Trend vital signs B. Complete a complete secondary physical exam C. Rapid transport D. Splint all suspected musculoskeletal injuries

C. Rapid transport

Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an attack? A. Radiological dispersal device B. Military nuclear device C. Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research D. Improvised nuclear weapon

C. Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? A. HEPA mask B. Chemical permeable gloves C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls D. Structural firefighting gear

C. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

Which patient is the most unstable? A. Patient who only responds to verbal stimuli B. Unresponsive patient with tachycardia C. Unresponsive patient with hypotension D. Patient responsive to painful stimuli only

C. Unresponsive patient with hypotension

Where is the decon corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated? A. Cold zone B. Cool zone C. Warm zone D. Hot zone

C. Warm zone

On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? Select one: A. a 38-year-old apneic woman with blunt chest trauma B. a 59-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C. a 21-year-old man with traumatic cardiac arrest D. an 8-year-old girl with respiratory failure

C. a 21-year-old man with traumatic cardiac arrest

When palpating the pulse of an elderly patient, you notice that there is an irregular pulsation without any kind of pattern or cycle to it. This is called: A. pulsus paradoxus. B. pulsus alternans. C. an irregularly irregular pulse. D. heart failure.

C. an irregularly irregular pulse.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: Select one: A. center of the mouth to the posterior part of the ear. B. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth. C. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. D. corner of the mouth to the superior part of the ear.

C. corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: Select one: A. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure. B. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. C. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. D. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs.

C. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.

When delivering a baby, you should do all of the following except: A. position your gloved hands at the vaginal opening. B. have someone stay at the mother's head if possible. C. place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery of the shoulders. D. suction the mouth first, then the nose.

C. place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery of the shoulders.

You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A. the location of the call. B. the timing of the event. C. the type of event. D. on-scene warning signs.

C. the type of event.

Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true? A. There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. B. Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note. C. All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere. D. Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS.

Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should:

Cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.

You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should:

Cover the wound with a sterile dressing. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called:

Crepitus.

13) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? A) The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days. B) TB is not spread through surface contamination. C) The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue. D) A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure. Answer:

16) You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? A) Hepatitis B B) Pneumonia C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis Answer:

17) The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situation(s)? A) The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease. B) The patient has a respiratory illness. C) The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. D) The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter. Answer:

27) Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response experienced in response to a stressor? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Peripheral nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system Answer:

28) Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response? A) Immunoglobulin B) Serotonin C) Epinephrine D) Cortisol Answer:

30) The "Stress Triad," or the body's response to a stressful stimulation, is known as general ________ syndrome. A) incident B) resistance C) reaction D) adaptation Answer:

33) The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction. A) delayed B) post-traumatic C) acute D) cumulative Answer:

34) Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): A) acute stress reaction. B) cumulative stress reaction. C) severe stress reaction. D) delayed stress reaction. Answer:

A major tornado has hit the neighboring town, knocking down power lines and injuring several people. What will provide the best chance to give your patient report to the receiving facility? A. Landline at the patient's house B. Portable radio at the residence C. Cell phone at the scene D. Ambulance mobile radio

A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to: A. talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT's questions. B. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles. C. tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is. D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, where should the pulse be checked? A. At the brachial artery B. At the femoral artery C. At the carotid artery D. At the radial artery

If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A. Consult with the patient's physician. B. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing. C. Withhold resuscitative measures. D. Begin resuscitative measures.

If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance can be used as a substitute? A. Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage B. Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet C. Air or vacuum splint D. Blood pressure cuff

Name the type of medical direction consisting of standing orders and protocols. A. Written B. On-line C. Verbal D. Off-line

Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a "dry bite?" A. Copperhead B. Water moccasin C. Mississauga rattlesnake D. Coral snake

Organs of the right upper quadrant include: A. small intestine, stomach, and spleen. B. pancreas, spleen, and part of the liver. C. most of the liver, spleen, and gallbladder. D. most of the liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine.

Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the following? A. Kidney stones B. Extreme diarrhea with dehydration C. Influenza D. Myocardial infarction

The QI manager calls your partner into his office after your shift. He pulls out his EMS report on a call he ran last month on a 45-year-old driver of a single-vehicle motor vehicle collision. There were several empty beer cans in the patient's vehicle and the EMT detected an odor of alcoholic beverages on the patient's breath. The QI manager, however, critiques your partner about calling the patient an alcoholic and giving opinions in the report. He tells your partner to never write opinions in the EMS report. Your partner is confused because he is sure the patient was drunk, and he was actually arrested for suspicion of driving while intoxicated. Your partner believes his assessment is supported by facts and not just his opinion. How can you help your partner understand the QI manager's concerns? A. The QI manager is afraid the patient will sue the EMS service for libel. B. Calling the patient an alcoholic is not polite, even if it is true. C. The patient is assumed to be innocent until proven guilty. He is not an alcoholic until he is convicted of drinking and driving by a court of law. D. Documenting that the patient is an alcoholic gives an incorrect opinion of the patient that is not supported by facts, and could negatively influence other medical providers.

The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the characteristic sounds produced is called: A. articulation. B. pulsation. C. palpation. D. auscultation.

The most common form of a hemostatic agent is hemostatic: A. powders. B. tourniquet. C. granules. D. dressings.

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called: A. oxygenation. B. external respiration. C. dehydration. D. internal respiration.

The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body? A. Head, neck, chest, and groin B. Chest, back, neck, and armpits C. Head, neck, chest, and back D. Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin

The two major portions of the skull are the: A. manubrium and mandible. B. frontal bone and ilium. C. atlas and axis. D. cranium and face.

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? A. Decreased production of carbon dioxide B. Decrease in pulse rate C. Decreased ability to fight infection D. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. The terms are synonymous. B. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. C. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. D. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.

What is the first medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty breathing? A. Nitroglycerin B. Aspirin C. Albuterol D. Oxygen

What is the first step in giving aerosol medications? A. Make sure the patient is suffering from asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis. B. Complete the primary assessment and take vital signs. C. Contact medical control to receive permission to give the medication. D. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.

What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? A. 21% B. 16% C. 100% D. 50%

What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression? A. Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. B. High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. C. The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen. D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A) Advanced EMT B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic

What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions? A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

When resuscitating a hypothermic patient in cardiac arrest, resuscitation attempts must continue until the patient has: A. developed rigor mortis. B. been ventilated for at least 30 minutes with an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) in place. C. been defibrillated a total of nine times. D. been rewarmed.

Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a two-story fall and landed square on his feet? A. Patient's lower back B. Patient's femur C. Patient's ankles D. All of the above

Which of the following BEST describes the function of blood? A. It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes on a daily basis. B. It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body's functions to maintain hypoperfusion. C. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients to maintain lack of perfusion. D. It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.

Which of the following describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report? A. Changes in the patient's condition can be communicated. B. Additional information that was not given in the radio report can be provided. C. Patient treatment can be based on this information. D. All of the above

Which of the following describes the midline of the body? A. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion B. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion C. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus D. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

Which of the following findings is generally NOT used to assess an adult's circulation? A. Evaluation for bleeding B. Patient's skin color, temperature, and condition C. Patient's distal pulse rate D. Patient's capillary refill time

Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? A) The Spanish B) The Egyptians C) The Mayans D) The French

Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory problem? A. Weak, thready pulse that is normal in rate B. Slow pulse C. Rapid pulse D. All of the above

Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? A. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene B. Your experience as an EMT C. What route you took when responding to the scene D. How you gained access to the scene

Which of the following is NOT a cause of abdominal pain? A. Diabetes B. Food poisoning C. Heart attack D. Stroke

Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone? A. Presence of hazardous materials B. Wind direction C. Fire D. Amount of equipment needed

Which of the following is NOT a reason for routine review of patient care reports in a quality improvement program? A. Assess conformity to patient care standards B. Review poor patient care C. Review excellent patient care D. Satisfy requirements of the shift supervisor

Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up? A. Need for additional resources B. Potential hazards to the EMS crew C. Mechanism of injury D. Chief complaint

Which of the following is NOT part of the general impression? A. Position in which the patient is found B. Patient's age and race C. Patient's facial expression D. Patient's past medical history

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper extremities? A. Carpals B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Calcaneus

Which of the following is a characteristic of venous bleeding? A. It cannot lead to life-threatening amounts of blood loss. B. It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression. C. It often requires the use of a tourniquet. D. It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.

Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by auto-injector? A. Dilation of coronary arteries B. Decrease in blood pressure C. Constriction of coronary arteries D. Constriction of blood vessels

Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest? A. 24 breaths per minute B. 10 breaths per minute C. 22 breaths per minute D. 12 breaths per minute

Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? A. Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. B. External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. C. The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. D. The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large vein? A. Air embolism B. Hypoperfusion C. Transmission of bloodborne illnesses D. All of the above

While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene? A. Moving the patient B. Using the bathroom C. Using the patient's phone D. All of the above

Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? A. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. B. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional. C. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. D. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient.

With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. the foundation of a word or term. B. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. C. the combination of any two or more whole words. D. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.

You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him? A) Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B) The physician does not trust EMTs. C) The patient's nitroglycerin might be expired. D) The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient.

You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? A. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. B. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. C. There is actually no need to clarify the word. D. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter.

You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should: A. leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people. B. have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance. C. enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care. D. wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.

You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should: A. reduce the concentration of oxygen. B. begin chest compressions. C. increase the concentration of oxygen. D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Why should the EMT use an oxygen mask with caution? A. The patient may hyperventilate. B. The oxygen will cause the patient to start vomiting again. C. The patient may go unresponsive. D. The patient cannot clear any additional emesis.

You are called to care for a child who has fallen out of a third-story window. You arrive to find the child in his mother's arms. As you approach, you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as: A. flushed. B. jaundiced. C. cyanotic. D. mottling.

You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking CialisSuperscript ®® for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? A. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. B. You should tell her. As his spouse, she is legally entitled to know his medical information. C. You should not tell her. There is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. D. You should not tell her. By law, your conversation with your patient is confidential.

You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the BEST response? A. "If you're stressed out like this, it's going to hurt a lot more." B. "Relax, this is not a painful procedure." C. "It doesn't matter, we have to do it anyway." D. "I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on."

You arrive on scene to find an unresponsive homeless man lying in the alleyway clutching a wine bottle. He is wearing a long-sleeved shirt, but does not have pants on. His skin feels cold to the touch. The week's temperatures have not been above 50 degrees F. Which of the following should be done first? A. Apply the AED B. Ensure an open airway C. Begin passive rewarming D. Check a carotid pulse

You respond to the scene of a 14-year-old patient. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next action? A. Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature. B. Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately. C. Actively rewarm the patient. D. Passively rewarm the patient.

In general, a child is considered an adolescent when he reaches the age of ________ years. A. 9 B. 4 C. 7 D. 12

D 12

Which of the following is a surgically implanted drainage device that runs from the brain to the abdomen? A. Central intravenous line B. Gastrostomy tube C. Tracheostomy tube D. Shunt

D Shunt

A 4-year-old child is generally categorized as a(n): A. toddler. B. school-age child. C. adolescent. D. preschooler.

D preschooler.

Why would an EMT give activated charcoal to a patient who overdosed on the medication Soma? A. Activated charcoal coats the intestinal tract, preventing absorption by the body. B. Activated charcoal is the antidote to Soma poisoning. C. Activated charcoal prevents the patient from vomiting. D. Activated charcoal binds to the Soma, reducing absorption by the body. This is the correct answer.

D. Activated charcoal binds to the Soma, reducing absorption by the body.

Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner? A. Transport the patient. B. Call medical control. C. Maintain the airway. D. Administer activated charcoal. This is the correct answer.

D. Administer activated charcoal.

You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect? A. Heat exhaustion B. Allergic reaction C. Asthma D. Anaphylaxis This is the correct answer.

D. Anaphylaxis

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of epinephrine? A. Pallor B. Chest pain C. Vomiting D. Bradycardia This is the correct answer.

D. Bradycardia

Which of the following is the BEST initial intervention for a patient who has inhaled a poison? A. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear the airway, followed by high-concentration oxygen. B. Transport in a position of comfort and provide oxygen for patients with a decreased level of consciousness. C. Provide plenty of fresh air and monitor pulse oximetry readings. D. Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen. This is the correct answer.

D. Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen.

An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between: Select one: A. 16 and 24 breaths/min. B. 10 and 18 breaths/min. C. 8 and 15 breaths/min. D. 12 and 20 breaths/min.

D. 12 and 20 breaths/min.

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 65% B. 75% C. 45% D. 55%

D. 55%

You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom first. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A.Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately. B. Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital. C. Allow the patient to use the bathroom as it will make transport, and also delivery, more comfortable. D. Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.

D. Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.

A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents? A. Mass casualty B. Infectious disease C. Hazardous materials D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure? A. Inhalation B. Skin C. Ingestion D. All of the above

D. All of the above

In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? A. Farm service agencies B. Manufacturing industries C. Shipping ports D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency? A. Potential for spread of the substance B. The properties and potential dangers of the substance C. Identification of the substance D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following should be done when the infant's head has been delivered? A. Suction the mouth. B. Check to see if the umbilical cord is around the neck. C. Suction the nose. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following should the EMT do to control maternal bleeding after delivery of the baby? A. Massage the uterus until it is firm and grapefruit-sized. B. Allow the infant to nurse, if possible. C. Apply direct pressure with a sanitary napkin over any perineal lacerations. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

At 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying? A. Regional poison control center B. CHEM-CALL C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D. CHEMTREC

D. CHEMTREC

You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point? A. Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties. B. Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector. C. Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients. D. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.

D. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.

Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. Hazardous Materials Technician D. First Responder Operations

D. First Responder Operations

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks? A. Low virulence B. Low potency C. Instability D. High infectivity

D. High infectivity

Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a foursided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues?

It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Sodium potassium pump D. Endoplasmic reticulum

The net result of respiratory challenges is low oxygen, also called ________, within the body. A. anoxia B. hypoglycemia C. anorexia D. hypoxia

The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known as: A. clinical thinking. B. differential thinking. C. critical thinking. D. diagnostic thinking.

The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: A. respiration. B. catabolism. C. metabolism. D. depolarization.

Many diabetics today have an insulin pump. Which of the following statements about insulin pumps is NOT true?

They are usually worn around the ankle.

D hypertension; diabetes

Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are ________ and ________. A. blood clots; COPD B. high cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms C. heart failure; stroke D. hypertension; diabetes

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient?

Vomiting after eating a meal

What does distention refer to when describing your patient's abdomen? A. Harder than normal B. Softer than normal C. Larger than normal D. Having a sunken-in appearance

B. Subdural hematoma

When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result? A. Subdural contusion B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Epidural contusion

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a patient? A. Restraining the patient face-up B. Placing a surgical mask over the patient's face to prevent spitting C. Securing all four limbs with approved restraint devices D. Hog-tying the patient

D. Work of breathing

Which of the following is NOT used to calculate a patient's GCS? A. Motor response B. Eye movement C. Verbal response D. Work of breathing

Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? A. Decreased heart rate B. Trapped air in the lungs C. Tremors D. Sleepiness

C. Dilation of blood vessels

Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock? A. Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood B. Extreme emotional response to paralysis C. Dilation of blood vessels D. Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels

Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior? A. Hypoxia B. Snakebites C. Gastroenteritis D. Allergic reaction

B. Peripheral nervous system

Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae? A. Central nervous system B. Peripheral nervous system C. Autonomic nervous system D. All of the above

You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to obtain? A. Reassessment results B. Primary assessment C. Pulse and respiratory rates D. Patient's gender

You are transporting a patient whom you are treating for chest pain. You have completed all of your assessments and are writing down some of his personal information such as his address and phone number. As the patient is speaking, you notice that he is having increasing difficulty breathing. You should: A. immediately repeat your primary assessment. B. call the hospital and report the difficulty. C. get a quick set of vital signs. D. call for ALS backup.

You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? A. Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. C. Increase the force of ventilations. D. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device.

You arrive on-scene of a 56-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. What is the first airway you should administer? A. Oropharyngeal airway B. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) C. Combitube D. Pharyngeal-Tracheal Lumen airway

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who was run over by a tractor and is now unresponsive. During the rapid assessment, you should look for clear drainage coming from the patient's ________ indicating a serious injury. A. ears B. rectum C. mouth D. eyes

Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next? A. Remove the AED and assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep re-assessing the pulse. B. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient's respiratory status. C. Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse. D. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.

Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as: A. chemical delirium. B. sensory excitement. C. excited delirium. D. intoxication reaction.

A African American

________ patients are at high risk for acquiring the inherited disorder called sickle cell anemia. A. African American B. Hispanic C. Eastern European D. Native American

While ventilating a conscious patient's tracheostomy tube with a connected bag-valve mask, the EMT should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following?

all of the above -ventilation pressure -ventilation vol -ventilation rate

As a newborn, Annie will habituate to a repeatedly presented sound. What type of memory does this demonstrate? a. recall b. recognition c. explicit d. cued recall

Bert accesses stored information to answer questions on a test. What is this process called? a. encoding b. retrieval c. input d. storage

Which age group of students is most likely to allocate more study time to difficult material, regardless of time constraints? a. college b. high school c. middle school d. grade school

Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube?

head slightly elevated

You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a

nasogastric tube

Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?

tuberculosis

Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, and circumferentially around both legs. Using the rule of nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned? (A) 18 percent (B) 9 percent (C) 36 percent (D) 4.5 percent

(A) 18 percent

A wound in which the epidermis is scraped away with minimal bleeding, such as commonly occurs when a child falls on his knees on a sidewalk, is called a(n): (A) Abrasion. (B) Contusion. (C) Avulsion. (D) Evisceration.

(A) Abrasion.

An injury caused by heavy pressure to the tissues, such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree, that results in damage to muscle cells and the accumulation of waste products in the tissue is called a(n): (A) Crush injury. (B) Evisceration. (C) Contusion. (D) Abrasion.

(A) Crush injury.

Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire? (A) The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface. (B) The burning will continue for hours, perhaps days. (C) The patient remains an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity. (D) Toxic gases were inhaled.

(A) The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface.

Which of the following patients has the greatest likelihood of being cared for in a burn center? (A) A 45-year-old man who has a full thickness burn about 3 inches long by 1/2 inch wide on his posterior arm from backing into a barbecue grill (B) A 30-year-old woman who has deep partial thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself (C) A 12-year-old male with a superficial partial thickness burn involving his forearm as a result of making a torch by lighting aerosol from a can of hairspray (D) A 16-year-old female who came into contact with a motorcycle exhaust pipe and has a full thickness burn on her leg about 2 inches in diameter

(B) A 30-year-old woman who has deep partial thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself

Which of the following is NOT a type of avulsion? (A) The skin is partially torn away from the foot. (B) A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw. (C) An ear is partially torn away from the head. (D) The skin is stripped off the hand, like removing a glove.

(B) A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw.

Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion? (A) An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object (B) A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue. (C) The epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface (D) An accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling

(B) A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue

While assessing a patient with partial thickness burns to his chest and neck, what should be your highest priority (even if there are no symptoms presently)? (A) None of the choices (B) Airway (C) Hypothermia (D) Bleeding

(B) Airway

Your patient is a 25-year-old man who picked up an iron skillet with a very hot handle. He has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand. Which of the following must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound? (A) Application of a dry, sterile dressing (B) Application of antibiotic ointment (C) Elevation of the wound above the level of the heart (D) Keeping the site clean

(B) Application of antibiotic ointment

You assess a 35-year-old female patient with a chemical burn to her right forearm and hand. As you assess the burn, you notice a white powder on the burn. What should be your next step? (A) Transport the patient immediately to the closest burn center. (B) Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water. (C) Flush the arm and hand with copious amounts of water. (D) Brush off the powder, bandage the arm, and transport the patient to the closest trauma center.

(B) Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? (A) Application of an ice pack or chemical cold pack (B) Direct pressure (C) Elevation of the injured part (D) Running cold water over the wound

(B) Direct pressure

Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin? (A) Dermis (B) Epidermis (C) Adipose tissue (D) Fascia

(B) Epidermis

A burn extending into the subcutaneous fat would be classified as which type of burn? (A) Deep partial thickness (B) Full thickness (C) Superficial partial thickness (D) Superficial

(B) Full thickness

Your patient is a 32-year-old man with a fish hook that has perforated his hand between the thumb and index finger. Which of the following is the best way to manage the situation in the prehospital setting? (A) Push the hook through the wound to avoid further damage from the barbed end. (B) Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it. (C) Apply a pressure dressing over the hook. (D) Pull the hook out from the same direction in which it entered the hand.

(B) Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it.

Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons? (A) Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn. (B) Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn. (C) Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn. (D) None of the above

(B) Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn.

Which of the following layers of the skin is the most important in insulating the body against heat loss? (A) Parietal layer (B) Subcutaneous layer (C) Epidermis (D) Subdural layer

(B) Subcutaneous layer

Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? (A) Provision of high-concentration oxygen (B) Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT (C) Cervical spine precautions (D) Application of a disinfectant solution

(B) Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

Your patient is a 40-year-old male who has been exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining of severe pain on both of his hands, the site of the contact. He is working in an illegal chemical manufacturing plant and there is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following would be the BEST way to manage this situation? (A) Have the fire department connect to a hydrant and spray down the patient from head to toe. (B) Brush away as much powder as possible and then pour a bottle of sterile saline solution over his hands. (C) Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose. (D) Brush away the powder and bandage the hands in a position of function.

(C) Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose.

While assessing a 78-year-old male patient who escaped an apartment fire with partial thickness burns to both arms, the EMT must be aware of which of the following? (A) Being involved in a crime makes the patient part of the chain of evidence, requiring a police officer to ride with you to the hospital. (B) The burn is the most serious injury to the patient. (C) Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn. (D) The patient may need to be questioned by police and fire officials about the cause of the fire.

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? (A) The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained (B) The swelling around his eyes, which may be reduced by applying a cold pack (C) Potential internal injuries (D) Getting a description of the assailants

Which type of wound has a small opening into the skin, but may be quite deep, and is often caused by instruments such as nails, ice picks, or pencils? (A) Avulsion (B) Laceration (C) Puncture (D) Incision

Which of the following is recommended when caring for an amputated part? (A) Rinse away debris with saline solution and place the part in a container of ice. (B) Wrap the part in aluminum foil to preserve body temperature. (C) Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack. (D) Always transport the amputated part with the patient.

For which of the following patients should the EMT carefully continue to monitor the patient's ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport due to the greatest risk of respiratory failure? (A) A 17-year-old male with a blistering sunburn on his face (B) A 34-year-old male who opened the radiator of his car and had hot fluid spray on his chest, resulting in redness and pain in an area about the size of the patient's hand (C) A 28-year-old male who spilled a strong industrial acid on his legs (D) A 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest

(D) A 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? (A) An open wound to the neck (B) An open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding (C) An open wound to the chest (D) All of the above

(D) All of the above

Which of the following is a consideration in determining a burn's severity? (A) Other illnesses or injuries the patient may have (B) Body surface area involved in the burn (C) The type of agent that caused the burn (D) All of the above

(D) All of the above

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound? (A) An object that remains impaled in the body (B) Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding (C) A strong possibility of contamination (D) All of the above

(D) All of the above

Which of the following is true concerning lacerations? (A) They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. (B) They may be caused by penetrating trauma. (C) They may be caused by blunt trauma. (D) All of the above

(D) All of the above

Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? (A) Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. (B) Anticipate vomiting. (C) Splint any swollen, deformed extremities. (D) All of the above are appropriate.

(D) All of the above are appropriate.

Your patient is a 35-year-old female who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself. She has an area about twice the size of the palm of her hand on her right thigh that is red and painful, but without blisters. When caring for this injury in the prehospital setting, which of the following is appropriate? (A) Apply an antibiotic ointment. (B) Apply a lotion containing a topical anesthetic and aloe vera. (C) Apply a plastic bag full of ice to the skin. (D) Apply a dry sterile dressing.

(D) Apply a dry sterile dressing.

In caring for a 27-year-old male who has a large laceration on his anterior forearm, you have noticed that your pressure dressing has become saturated with blood. Which of the following should you do next? (A) Remove the saturated dressings and apply a large trauma dressing. (B) Apply an ice pack over the original dressing. (C) Apply a tourniquet. (D) Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.

(D) Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who crashed his bicycle, landing prone and sliding along a gravel trail. He has deep abrasions to his hands, arms, chest, and knees. The patient has small pieces of gravel, twigs, and dirt embedded in the abrasions. Which of the following is the best way to manage this situation after taking cervical spine immobilization? (A) Use your fingers to pick embedded debris from the wound, bandage with moist saline dressings in place, and transport. (B) Do not attempt to remove any debris, apply pressure dressings over the embedded material if necessary, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport. (C) Use a tongue depressor to scrape large pieces of debris out of the wounds, place the patient on high-concentration oxygen, and transport. (D) Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.

(D) Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.

You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient that had his arm caught in a piece of machinery. By the time you arrive he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspension of which of the following injuries? (A) Puncture (B) Crush injury (C) Chemical burn (D) High-pressure injection

(D) High-pressure injection

Which of the following BEST describes a partial thickness burn? (A) The skin is red, but dry and painful. (B) The skin is charred or blackened and lacks sensation. (C) The skin is white and dry with no sensation of pain. (D) The skin is red and moist with blister formation.

(D) The skin is red and moist with blister formation.

During a power failure, how should the EMT verify adequate ventilations are being administered to an unresponsive patient with a tracheostomy tube using a bag-valve mask?

. All of the above -Ensure a good connection between the bag-valve mask and the tracheostomy tube. -Observe for chest rise and fall. -Observe for improving skin color.

14) Which of the following best describes an urgent move? A) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board B) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt C) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher D) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot Answer:

15) You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? A) You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting. B) They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued. C) You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope. D) You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter. Answer:

16) When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is elevated, what occurs? A) The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height. B) The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard. C) The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed. D) The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient. Answer:

19) What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? A) Lean forward from the hips. B) Keep your back straight. C) Lean forward from the waist. D) Flex your knees. Answer:

20) What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? A) Two: one in front and one in back B) Only one with the track-like chair C) Four: one for each corner of the device D) Three: two lifting and one spotting Answer:

22) You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? A) Non-urgent move B) Extremity lift C) Urgent move D) Emergency move Answer:

23) Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? A) Stair chair B) Scoop stretcher C) Basket stretcher D) Wheeled ambulance stretcher Answer:

24) What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair? A) A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. B) A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs. C) There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair. D) Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system. Answer:

The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.

3) Which of the following best describes body mechanics? A) Proper use of the body to protect patient safety B) Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects C) Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user's body D) Both B and C Answer:

Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater than

33) What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to burn? A) Non-urgent move B) Emergency move C) No attempt to move D) Urgent move Answer:

34) You and your partner arrive on the scene of a 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the stretcher, you decide to do which of the following? A) Use the patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher. B) Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient. C) Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher. D) Call for additional manpower to move the patient. Answer:

36) Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher? A) Ground transfer B) Extremity lift C) Clothing lift D) Modified direct lift Answer:

39) For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher? A) Firefighter's carry B) Direct-ground lift C) Draw-sheet method D) Extremity lift Answer:

Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)?

39.1

4) The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? A) Equipment, patient injury, and communication B) The object, patient injury, and communication C) The object, your limitations, and communication D) Environment, physical limitations, and communication Answer:

41) Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A) Portable stretcher B) Long backboard C) Basket stretcher D) Scoop stretcher Answer:

42) You respond to the scene of a two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is unresponsive, in critical condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which technique? A) Carefully move the patient using full c-spine precautions. B) Take extra care to protect the passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury. C) Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. D) Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in. Answer:

43) You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to fall? A) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her. B) Gently tie the patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing. C) Use a strap to safely secure the patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the patient's extremities. D) Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down. Answer:

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult?

80 mg/dL

3) All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: A) drinking caffeine instead of alcohol. B) following a regular walking regimen. C) spending more time relaxing with friends and family. D) eating more carbohydrates. Answer:

32) Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the "Stress Triad" as described by the physician Hans Selye? A) Bleeding gastric ulcers B) Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes C) Atrophy of the adrenal glands D) Amnesia for stressful events Answer:

55) You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to him? A) He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk. B) His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue. C) The patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him. D) He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money. Answer:

An EMT is on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing the primary and secondary assessments, the EMT contacts medical control and is ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Carefully, the EMT performs the "five rights" and checks the expiration before administering the medication. The patient states the medicine is not helping his pain. The patient also states he does not have a headache. Reassessment of the patient's vital signs shows no change in blood pressure. The EMT suspects the nitro is not working because the: A. medication was somehow rendered inert. B. medication is not nitroglycerin. C. medication is expired. D. EMT only gave one tablet instead of two.

As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed? A. Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed. B. There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries. C. Gloves, gown, eye protection, and an N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed. D. Gloves and gown only are needed.

As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action? A. Request police backup immediately and consider leaving the scene. B. Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital. C. Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police. D. Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention.

As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first? A. Size-up the scene before acting. B. Perform an initial assessment on the patient. C. With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood. D. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.

A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: A. distress. B. arrest. C. failure. D. hypoxia.

A drug's form refers to which of the following? A. Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas B. The way in which it is administered C. The mandatory paperwork that must be completed when giving any drug D. The type of container it comes in

Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action? A. Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration. B. Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 2,000 psi in the tank. C. Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway. D. Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the patient's heart rate to slow.

In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the patient's body? A. Extremities B. Intestines C. Head D. Heart and lungs

In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest, you should assess the pulse for how long? A. 30 to 45 seconds B. 5 to 10 seconds C. 20 to 30 seconds D. 15 to 20 seconds

In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? A. Is he breathing? B. Is he big sick or little sick? C. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? D. Is he alive or dead?

In the primary assessment, which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of assessing the patient's circulatory status? A. Taking a blood pressure reading B. Assessing the patient's skin color C. Checking a radial pulse D. Looking for serious bleeding

In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? A. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. B. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. C. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. D. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.

What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Lumbar and sacral C. Cervical and thoracic D. Sacral and coccygeal

What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? A) Prehospital care B) Prompt emergency response C) Safe emergency transportation D) Trained medical personnel

What is the largest bone of the lower leg? A. Tibia B. Patella C. Fibula D. Femur

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way of dealing with a patient who does not speak the same language as you do? A. Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions. B. Use a manual that provides translation. C. Contact dispatch for assistance in finding a translator. D. Use an interpreter.

Which of the following is NOT appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving hospital? A. Name of the patient's health insurance provider B. Pertinent past illnesses C. The patient's mental status D. Physical exam findings

Which of the following is NOT assessed during the "Breathing" phase of the primary assessment? A. Obtaining a pulse oximetry reading B. Determining the presence of respirations C. Counting the respiratory rate D. Determining the depth of respiration

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity? A. Carpals B. Patella C. Femur D. Pelvis

Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain? A. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it. B. It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky." C. It is only felt in hollow organs. D. It is caused by psychological stress.

Which of the following is a classification of the severity of shock? A. Compensated B. Consumption C. Non-compensated D. Uncompensated

Which of the following presentations would be considered normal during the "Breathing" phase of the primary assessment? A. Respiratory rate of 12 with adequate depth B. Respiratory rate of 28 with adequate depth C. Respiratory rate of 6 with shallow depth D. Respiratory rate of 16 with altered mental status

Which of the following questions will most likely illicit your patient's chief complaint? A. What made you call 911 this evening? B. Do you have any medical problems? C. How have you been feeling lately? D. Have you been drinking today?

Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A) Quality improvement B) System effectiveness management C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP) D) Total quality system

Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? A. Standard of care B. Professional standards C. Protocols and standing orders D. Scope of practice

Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A. HIPAA B. COBRA C. HIAPA D. EMTALA

Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury? A. Gradually warm the affected area. B. Massage the affected area. C. Rub the affected area with snow. D. Encourage the patient to use the affected part.

Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up? A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence. B. A vehicle collision where bystanders are recording video on their phones. C. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park. D. A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.

Who is the most susceptible to hypothermia? A. 21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day B. 55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing C. 80-year-old male patient on the ground who slipped and has a hip fracture D. 55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing

Why is inhalation described as an active process? A. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure. B. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure. C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure. D. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.

Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic? A. Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature. B. Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure. C. Since the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raises the core body temperature. D. None of the above

With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations. A. aorta B. liver C. ovaries D. colon

You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient.

You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should: A. consult the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. remove the bystanders from the scene. C. park downwind from the tanker truck. D. park about 50 feet from the truck.

You are attempting to assess the blood pressure of a 35-year-old male at the scene of a multiple vehicle collision. The scene is very noisy and you are unable to clearly hear the patient's heartbeat. You should: A. obtain the blood pressure by palpation. B. use an automatic blood pressure machine. C. try using the patient's other arm. D. have your partner try auscultating the blood pressure.

You are attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want the mask on his face. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Explain the importance of oxygen and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but that if he can't tolerate it you can try another method. B. Tell the patient the mask is for his benefit and you will restrain him if necessary to place it on him. C. Tell the patient he will soon become unconscious without the mask and then you will be able to place it on him. D. Document that the patient was uncooperative and refused oxygen.

You are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. After removing the regulator from the old cylinder, removing the old cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. The new cylinder has a yellow stripe around it instead of a green one but was stored with the green cylinders. You are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. You should: A. remove the cylinder and get a green cylinder. B. replace the oxygen regulator with a new one. C. attempt to force the regulator onto the cylinder. D. put the old cylinder back on the truck.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Aside from the airway, what is your greatest concern? A. The patient will go into hypovolemic shock. B. The patient will have a stroke. C. The patient will become combative. D. The patient will have a myocardial infarction.

You are called to an elementary school for an 8-year-old female patient who is experiencing respiratory distress. The school nurse states the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector for a possible anaphylactic reaction to bee stings. The patient also has an Albuterol inhaler for asthma. The patient is breathing 30 times a minute, is in the tripod position, and is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. The nurse states the patient was playing basketball in the gym when she started having difficulty breathing. The patient has wheezing in all lung fields. An ALS unit is en route but it is 10 minutes away. You are 20 minutes away from the nearest hospital. After placing the patient on oxygen, your next intervention should be to: A. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her Albuterol. B. provide supportive care until the ALS unit arrives. C. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her epinephrine. D. cancel the ALS unit and call medical control to assist with the Albuterol administration while en route to the hospital.

You are called to assist a 25-year-old female patient who is in profound respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma and severe allergies to peanuts. She has a prescribed albuterol inhaler and an epinephrine auto-injector. The patient states she was working in her garden when she accidentally stirred up a hornets' nest and was stung multiple times. The patient has wheezing in all fields, and is breathing at 28 times per minute. She states that she triggered her asthma by running across the yard to the safety of her home. As you apply oxygen, you notice that she is now speaking in two- to three-word sentences, her skin has splotches, and her tongue and neck appear to be swelling. Your next action is to call medical control and then do what? A. Request to assist the patient with her epinephrine pen for anaphylaxis. B. Do not request to give epinephrine. It was prescribed for a peanut reaction, not for asthma. C. Request to assist the patient with her Albuterol inhaler for her asthma. D. Request to assist the patient with her Albuterol for anaphylaxis.

You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are stable, and he takes medications for hypertension, high cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on oxygen, you contact medical control and request: A. to administer aspirin to the patient. B. to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient. C. no orders. D. to administer nitroglycerin to the patient.

You are on the scene of a 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD who is breathing 44 times per minute and has a diminished level of consciousness. His wife states he has an Albuterol inhaler and nitroglycerin tablets for angina. What is the most important drug you can administer to the patient? A. Oxygen by bag-valve mask B. Albuterol C. Nitroglycerin D. Oxygen by nonrebreather mask

You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash. Your patient's initial blood pressure was 88/52. You should reassess blood pressure: A. at least every 5 minutes. B. only if the patient gets worse. C. only if the pulse rate changes. D. at least every 15 minutes.

You find a teenage male lying supine in his bedroom. You hear gurgling sounds from the patient's mouth and see vomit with pill fragments on the floor. You should FIRST: A. suction the airway. B. ventilate with oxygen. C. perform chest thrusts. D. identify the pills.

You find a middle-aged unresponsive man lying prone on the ground near a ladder. You should FIRST: A. manually immobilize his head. B. move the ladder out of the way. C. pick him up with a scoop stretcher. D. roll him over to a supine position.

You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first? A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen. B. Obtain the patient's medical history. C. Listen to his lung sounds. D. Check for a radial pulse.

You have a 38-year-old patient who has fainted. Following your local protocol you use a light wave device to determine the SpO2. As the EMT, you attach the device on the patient's finger, which gives you a reading of 91. What does that reading indicate? A. Mild hypoxia B. Significant hypoxia C. Severe hypoxia D. Normal results

You have received the following order from medical control: "Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue." Which of the following is the BEST response? A. "Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient's tongue." B. "Clear. Will advise of any changes in patient's condition." C. "Copy. Administering medication now." D. "Roger, order received."

You respond to a 75yearold female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn. The pain radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of a myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerin tablets. She is most likely suffering from: A. cholecystitis. B. renal colic. C. Mittelschmerz. D. abdominal aortic aneurysm.

You respond to a 75yearold female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn and radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerine tablets. An ALS unit is en route. After performing a physical examination and applying oxygen by nasal cannula, you should: A. contact medical control regarding the administration of the patient's nitroglycerin. B. cancel the ALS unit: this is just gallstones and BLS can transport. C. transport the patient in the Trendelenburg position for shock. D. apply the AED and prepare for imminent cardiac arrest from a myocardial infarction.

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when he unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What is your first action? A. Suction the airway. B. Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. D. Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient's friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect? A. Air embolism B. Decompression sickness C. Myocardial infarction D. Near drowning

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry, but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. You suspect: A. hypovolemic shock. B. hypernatremia. C. myocardial infarction. D. heat cramps.

You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is "really sick." As you approach, you notice that the patient appears in obvious distress, diaphoretic, and holding his right wrist. Which of the following is your highest priority? A. Ensure the snake is no longer a threat. B. Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions. C. Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom. D. Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats.

You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search and rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel "frozen" on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to: A. bandage the digits. B. keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital. C. actively rewarm the digits. D. gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them.

You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heatstroke. Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the cramping? A. Sweating too much B. Cooling off too quickly C. Drinking too many sports drinks D. Heat exhaustion

You respond to the scene of a 50yearold male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You suspect: A. pancreatitis. B. cholecystitis. C. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D. myocardial infarction.

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has been ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed collision. During your primary assessment it is discovered that he is not moving, does not appear to have adequate respirations, and has suffered moderate external bleeding. Which of the following should be done first? A. Open the airway. B. Control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations. D. Check the patient's carotid pulse.

Your patient is warm, dry, pink, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the patient's oxygen saturation? A. 98% B. 95% C. 102% D. 91%

Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred? A. The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine. B. The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities. C. The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield. D. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle. B. Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground. C. Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients. D. Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting.

A Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle

Artificial ventilations for a 5-year-old child should be provided at a rate of ________ per minute. A. 12/20 Your answer is correct.B. 24/28 C. 22/26 D. 28/32

A 12/20

A 3-year-old child who burns both legs and arms has burned approximately ________% of his entire body surface area. A. 45 This is the correct answer.B. 36 Your answer is not correct.C. 72 D. 54

A 45

Which of the following is a sign of the MOST severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old pediatric patient? A. Decreased muscle tone Your answer is correct.B. Wheezing C. Respiratory rate greater than 60 D. Grunting

A Decreased muscle tone

If you are first on scene of a multiple-casualty incident, what should you do first in determining where and how should you park your apparatus? A. Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking. B. Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area. C. Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units. D. Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.

A Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.

Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication? A. Firefighting helmet .B. Any hat with a rear brim C. Nomex hood D. Watch cap

A Firefighting helmet

Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication? A. Goggles B. Plastic blanket C. Netting D. None of the above

A Goggles

You are called for a child that has had a fever for a couple of days. The parents tell you that two of the other children have been home with a stomach virus and fever. As you attempt to assess the child, he pulls away from you and grabs onto his mother. Which of the following behaviors would be considered "normal" for a 4-year-old? A. He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo. Your answer is correct.B. He flares his nostrils when he breathes. C. He doesn't make eye contact as you approach. D. He runs up to you when you enter the room.

A He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo.

Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases? A. Immobilizing and extricating the patient B. Stabilizing the vehicle C. Gaining access to the patient D. Recognizing and managing hazards

A Immobilizing and extricating the patient

A bulging fontanelle in a quietly resting child may be an indication of which of the following? A. Increased intracranial pressure Your answer is correct.B. Normal development C. Fever D. Dehydration

A Increased intracranial pressure

Which of the following is an unsafe behavior that contributes to most injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions? A. Not wearing proper protective gear .B. Antagonizing bystanders C. Using improvised tools D. Unknowingly walking into hazardous materials situations

A Not wearing proper protective gear

You are responding to a 6-year-old child with a fever and difficulty breathing. His mother reports that he was playing normally this morning but when he came in for lunch he had spiked a fever. Now, he is sitting up with his mouth open, drooling. Which of the following signs would point to epiglottitis? A. Painful swallowing Your answer is correct.B. Low grade fever C. Loud "seal bark" cough D. Some hoarseness

A Painful swallowing

What is the tendency for a frightened child to act younger than his age? A. Regression Your answer is correct.B. Retraction C. Retreat D. Repression

A Regression

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient? A. Respiratory failure Your answer is correct.B. Hypoglycemia C. Congenital heart defects D. Ventricular fibrillation

A Respiratory failure

Which of the following signs may signify impending cardiac arrest in a child? A. Respiratory rate over 60 Your answer is correct.B. Pulse rate 80 in a 5-year-old C. Pulse rate over 120 D. Blood pressure of 105 systolic in a school age child

A Respiratory rate over 60

Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene? A. Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision B. Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel C. Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene D. Both B and C

A Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision

Which of the following is a concern when dealing with an adolescent patient? A. The adolescent patient fears permanent disfigurement from injuries. Your answer is correct.B. Adolescents usually lack the sophistication to understand explanations of what you are doing and why. C. Physiologically, adolescents are very different from adults. D. The adolescent patient will generally be more truthful about what happened in front of his parents than in front of his peers.

A The adolescent patient fears permanent disfigurement from injuries.

Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision? A. Your own safety B. Treating life-threatening injuries C. Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning D. Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information

A Your own safety

Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with: A. all roof supports collapsed. B. the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground. C. the trunk lid in contact with the ground. D. the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.

A all roof supports collapsed.

Prehospital management of the abused child includes all of the following except: A. allowing parent to drive child to hospital. This is the correct answer.B. reporting your findings to the emergency department staff. C. treating all injuries. D. eliciting a complete history from child and parents.

A allowing parent to drive child to hospital.

When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the: A. negative cable from the battery. .B. negative cable from the alternator. C. positive cable from the battery. D. positive cable from the alternator.

A negative cable from the battery.

You are trying to ventilate an 18-month-old baby who has stopped breathing. You have laid him down on a flat surface to ventilate him, but you are unable to get his chest to rise. You should: A. place a folded towel under his shoulders. Your answer is correct.B. suction his mouth to clear secretions. C. flex his neck toward his chest. D. tip his head back farther to open his airway.

A place a folded towel under his shoulders.

You are at a friend's birthday party with people of all ages. There is an 11-month-old boy, just learning to stand up, who has fallen. He was holding onto the edge of a table and he toppled over. He is crying hard and his mother is trying to console him. She asks if you would mind checking him out, and you agree to take a look at him. You notice that his anterior fontanelle is bulging. This is most likely caused by: A. pressure built up because of his crying. Your answer is correct.B. fluid loss from dehydration. C. an infection causing intracranial pressure. D. the bones of the head not fusing properly.

A pressure built up because of his crying.

You are called for a 6-year-old girl who is not well. Her mother says that the child has been sick for several days but today she has had trouble keeping her daughter awake. You note that the girl's capillary refill time is 4 seconds and she has a skin rash. The MOST important part of your assessment will be to: A. recognize any respiratory distress. Your answer is correct.B. determine if she has a fever. C. get a full SAMPLE history. D. determine her level of consciousness.

A recognize any respiratory distress.

As a rule, as a child gets older the blood pressure: A. rises and the pulse rate falls. Your answer is correct.B. rises and the pulse rate rises. C. falls and the pulse rate falls. D. falls and the pulse rate rises.

A rises and the pulse rate falls.

A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries?

A possible fracture of the femur

C. closed head injury.

A young female was injured in an automobile wreck, striking her head on the windshield. She is unconscious and her breathing is irregular. She is bleeding from a scalp wound, but your assessment shows that her cranium is intact. Her vital signs are pulse 68, blood pressure 148/90, and her pupils are unequal. You should suspect a(n): A. open head injury. B. contusion. C. closed head injury. D. concussion.

After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh? A. 10 seconds This is the correct answer. B. 30 seconds C. 1 minute D. It should be removed from the injection site immediately.

A. 10 seconds

When a substance enters the body through unbroken skin, it has entered the body by which of the following routes? A. Absorption This is the correct answer. B. Injection C. Ingestion D. Consumption

A. Absorption

You are called to the residence of a 78-year-old widow who lives alone with no children. She was found by neighbors on the floor of the living room. She has fallen and fractured her left humerus. She is disoriented and responds to verbal stimuli only. She has a blood pressure of 78/40 and a pulse of 48. She has a history of high blood pressure and takes medication for it. She also takes medication for high cholesterol and a medication to slow down a fast heart rate. Emergency Medical Responders find the medication bottles in the medicine cabinet and they are empty. Your partner suspects that she accidentally overdosed on her medications. Do you agree or disagree? A. Agree. The vital signs agree with this hypothesis. This is the correct answer. B. Agree. It is obvious that the broken arm is causing the decreased heart rate. C. Disagree. The vital signs indicate that she has not taken her medication in several days. D. Disagree. The patient's vital signs are related to her broken arm.

A. Agree. The vital signs agree with this hypothesis.

You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following? A. Anaphylaxis This is the correct answer. B. Heat stroke C. Allergic reaction D. Hyperventilation syndrome

A. Anaphylaxis

Which of the following is a substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects? A. Antidote This is the correct answer. B. Deactivator C. Curative D. Antevert

A. Antidote

Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation? A. Carbon This is the correct answer. B. Cyanide C. Carbon monoxide D. Tar

A. Carbon

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin? A. Cyanosis This is the correct answer. B. Itching C. Hives D. Flushing

A. Cyanosis

Barbiturates may be referred to as which of the following? A. Downers This is the correct answer. B. Acid C. Meth D. Uppers

A. Downers

By definition, a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following? A. Entire body This is the correct answer. B. Specific organ system C. Localized areas of tissue D. Stomach and intestines

A. Entire body

The drug ecstasy is classified as what type of drug? A. Hallucinogen This is the correct answer. B. Tranquilizer C. Depressant D. Barbiturate

A. Hallucinogen

The term poison is BEST described as any substance that can do which of the following? A. Harm the body This is the correct answer. B. Deactivate nerve transmission C. Depress the body's respirations D. Increase cellular activity

A. Harm the body

Which of the following does a physician NOT take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector? A. How far the patient lives from medical attention This is the correct answer. B. Patient's medical history C. Patient's known allergies D. Severity of previous allergic reactions

A. How far the patient lives from medical attention

Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic reactions? A. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens. This is the correct answer. B. Allergens do not affect infants. C. Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth. D. None of the above

A. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.

Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine auto-injector? A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container. This is the correct answer. B. Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department. C. Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of. D. Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash.

A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male who has taken an overdose of several different medications and has consumed some household cleaning agents as well. On your arrival, the patient only responds to painful stimuli, and has a heart rate of 90 beats per minute with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. Medical control orders you to give the patient two to three glasses of milk to drink to dilute the contents of the stomach. Which of the following actions should you do? A. Question the order and explain why. This is the correct answer. B. Assist the patient in drinking as much of the two to three glasses of milk as he can. C. Assist the patient in drinking only one glass of milk to reduce the risk of aspiration. D. Ask medical control if you can substitute water for the milk since water will not damage the lungs if aspirated.

A. Question the order and explain why.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which poisons can access the body? A. Radiation This is the correct answer. B. Absorption C. Inhalation D. Injection

A. Radiation

Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis? A. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing. This is the correct answer. B. Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive. C. Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs. D. Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen.

A. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.

Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true? A. The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction. This is the correct answer. B. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s. C. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector before exposure to the substance. D. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before.

A. The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction.

Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? A. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood. This is the correct answer. B. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. C. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time. D. Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector.

A. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.

You are called to the scene of a 21-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her boyfriend suspects that she tried to commit suicide by overdosing on her depression medications. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is the MOST important question the EMT can ask regarding the medication? A. What medication did she take? This is the correct answer. B. Why is she on that particular depression medication? C. How many pills did she take? D. Were the medications new?

A. What medication did she take?

Your patient is a 7-year-old male who ate an unknown type of mushroom on a dare by his friends. You should ask all of the following questions except: A. Why did you eat the mushroom? This is the correct answer. B. When did you eat the mushroom? C. How much did you eat? D. Are there any more of the mushrooms?

A. Why did you eat the mushroom?

Your patient is a conscious 4-year-old female who has ingested a medication prescribed for her grandfather. To determine appropriate treatment, which of the following information is NOT necessary to provide to medical control? A. Grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication This is the correct answer. B. Any home remedies attempted by the patient's family C. Patient's vital signs and the time the medication was taken D. Patient's weight and the amount of medication taken

A. Grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication

Volatile chemicals are agents that are able to change easily from a ________ form to a ________ form. A. liquid; gas This is the correct answer. B. gas; liquid C. solid; liquid D. solid; vapor

A. liquid; gas

When clamping the umbilical cord, the clamp closest to the baby should be approximately ________ inch(es) from the infant's body. A. 10 B. 1 C. 3 D. 12

A. 10

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, whereas the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: A. 104, 40 B. 90, 50 C. 88, 30 D. 70, 28

A. 104, 40

What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) measurement of altered mental status, which according to CDC guidelines necessitates transport to a trauma center? A. 13 B. 12 C. 8 D. 14

A. 13

What is the height from which an adult fall would meet trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC? A. 20 feet B. 15 feet C. 10 feet D. 25 feet

A. 20 feet

By definition, a premature infant is one who is born before how many weeks of the pregnancy? A. 37 B. 40 C. 34 D. 28

A. 37

Your patient is an 80-year-old male complaining of lower back pain that radiates through to the abdomen. He describes the pain as "ripping" in nature. He is pale, diaphoretic, and anxious, and has a blood pressure of 210/100 mmHg, a pulse of 112 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Bowel obstruction C. Diverticulitis D. Gallbladder disease

A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm

You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first? A. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building. B. Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving. C. Identify all Priority 1 patients. D. Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.

A. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.

You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder. He is responsive to painful stimuli. He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall. He has a broken femur, a broken wrist, and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding profusely. Which of these injuries is the highest priority? A. Arterial bleed B. Femur fracture C. Broken wrist D. Snoring respirations

A. Arterial bleed

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials? A. Deodorizing B. Disposing C. Disinfecting D. Emulsifying

A. Deodorizing

You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient manner, all agencies should follow the: A. Incident Command System. B. Interagency Communication System. C. Interagency Command System. D. Incident Control System.

A. Incident Command System.

The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrived on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official? A. Incident Commander of the scene B. Triage sector supervisor C. Transport sector supervisor D. Commander of the entire incident

A. Incident Commander of the scene

If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty, which of the following would be the BEST choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord? A. Pair of shoelaces B. Clothespin C. Section of wire coat hanger D. White cotton thread

A. Pair of shoelaces

Which of the following is NOT relevant in determining whether or not delivery is imminent for a woman in labor? A. Phoning the patient's obstetrician for advice B. Asking how long ago the contractions began C. Determining if the patient feels as if she needs to move her bowels D. Finding out how many pregnancies the patient has had

A. Phoning the patient's obstetrician for advice

What trauma triage guidelines did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) release in order to guide the most injured patients into trauma centers? A. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury B. Lights, sirens, and diesel C. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision D. Teamwork, timing, and transport

A. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord? A. Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips. B. Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery. C. Immediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps. D. Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix.

A. Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.

Which of the following is the most serious complication of a fall injury with hip fracture in a 75-year-old patient? A. Pneumonia B. Collapsed lungs C. Bruised ribs D. Blood clots

A. Pneumonia

Which of the following may provide the EMT with an indication of physical neglect of an elderly patient? A. Poor hygiene B. Misuse of a person's personal belongings C. Evidence of sexual assault D. Injuries from a fall

A. Poor hygiene

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 10, pulse 102, ambulatory, and alert mental status with warm dry skin. A. Priority 3, green tag B. Priority 4, black tag C. Priority 1, red tag D. Priority 2, yellow tag

A. Priority 3, green tag

Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? A. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill B. Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency C. Establishing a safe zone D. Requesting special resources to respond

A. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman? A. She may lose up to 35% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock. B. The mother's body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother. C. She may lose up to 15% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock. D. The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.

A. She may lose up to 35% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

Which of the following statements regarding elder abuse is correct? A. Signs of elder abuse may be difficult to detect. B. Abused elderly patients will always have physical signs of abuse. C. Signs of elder abuse are usually obvious. D. EMTs should ask elderly patients to point out their abuser.

A. Signs of elder abuse may be difficult to detect.

You are getting ready to transport an unresponsive 25-year-old female patient. She was hit by a vehicle while crossing the street. She is 26 weeks pregnant. You are 10 minutes away from the nearest facility, 15 minutes away from a Level I Trauma Center, and 15 minutes away from a hospital that specializes in high-risk obstetrics. You should transport the patient to which hospital? A. The trauma center: the patient will need specialized trauma surgeons B. The high-risk obstetric hospital: the fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons C. The nearest facility: she is unresponsive and unstable D. The trauma center: the fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons

A. The trauma center: the patient will need specialized trauma surgeons

You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the BEST method of incident command? A. Unified command B. Singular command by EMS C. Singular command by law enforcement D. Singular command by fire service

A. Unified command

If the baby's head is delivered with the amniotic sac still intact, which of the following should be done first? A. Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby's face. B. Use the scissors in the obstetrics kit to cut the sac away from the baby's head. C. Call medical control before taking action. D. Leave the sac intact until the entire body is delivered.

A. Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby's face.

Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location and which other three parts? A. Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed B. Written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed C. Written, realistic, and rehearsed D. Well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed

A. Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed

Which of the following is appropriate when caring for a premature baby? A. Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90 degrees°F and 100 degrees°F B. Deeply suctioning the airway with a rigid tonsil-tip C. Applying high-concentration oxygen with a neonatal nonrebreather mask D. Encouraging family members to hold the infant

A. Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90 degrees°F and 100 degrees°F

You are called for a possible imminent delivery. Your patient is a 15-year-old girl who is in your estimation about 8 months pregnant. She tells you that she has been hiding her pregnancy. You are especially concerned about problems she might have during the delivery. Which of the following are findings that may indicate the need for neonatal resuscitation? A. Young mother who has not had prenatal care B. Patient whose water has already broken C. Patient with a blood pressure of 130/82 D. Mother who has had five previous births

A. Young mother who has not had prenatal care

In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: Select one: A. aerobic metabolism. B. anaerobic metabolism. C. perfusion. D. respiration.

A. aerobic metabolism.

While interviewing your patient, she tells you that her husband will be back from the store shortly and can get you a list of her medications. Her daughter tells you that the patient's husband died 15 years ago. This situation is known as: A. confabulation. B. imagination. C. hallucination. D. contemplation.

A. confabulation.

As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to: A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee. B. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident. C. ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level. D. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises.

A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.

A 37-year-old man has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. encouraging him to cough and transport to the emergency department. B. a series of back blows and chest thrusts. C. performing a series of abdominal thrusts. D. finger sweeps to remove the obstruction.

A. encouraging him to cough and transport to the emergency department.

Tertiary injuries from a blast include: A. extremity fractures. B. lung injuries. C. bowel perforations. D. impaled objects.

A. extremity fractures.

The term for a baby developing inside the mother's womb after week 8 is: A. fetus. B. infant. C. neonate. D. chorion.

A. fetus.

The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is: A. gamma. B. beta. C. alpha. D. delta.

A. gamma.

CPAP is indicated for patients who: Select one: A. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. B. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. C. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

A. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands.

You are the first on the scene of a two-car vehicle collision. Your patient is a front passenger who is unresponsive inside the vehicle. The patient is trapped and the vehicle is on fire. The fire department is still en route. You should: A. have the fire department rescue the patient. B. perform an emergency move. C. use your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. D. perform an urgent move.

A. have the fire department rescue the patient.

You respond for an imminent delivery of a baby in the breech position. As you examine the mother, you see that the umbilical cord is protruding from the opening of the cervix. You realize that the most important care you can provide for this baby is to: A. keep the baby off of the cord. B. provide oxygen to the mother. C. wrap the cord to prevent heat loss. D. gently push the cord back into the vaginal space.

A. keep the baby off of the cord.

Your pregnant patient is in active labor. She has been lying on her back throughout her labor and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. Her vital signs are pulse rate 118, respirations 22, blood pressure 96/62, and skin cool and diaphoretic. The BEST way to treat her is to: A. place a rolled blanket under her left hip to displace the uterus. B. give her some fluids to drink to help elevate her blood pressure. C. elevate her legs to increase the blood return to the heart. D. cover her up with a blanket to maintain body heat.

A. place a rolled blanket under her left hip to displace the uterus.

You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as: A. placenta previa. B. unstable placenta. C. abruptio placenta. D. placenta disruption

A. placenta previa.

An area near a hazardous materials incident that is on the same level as the incident, but upwind, is a good location for: A. safe zone. B. danger zone. C. hot zone. D. treatment zone.

A. safe zone.

As you care for an elderly patient experiencing a serious medical condition, you would expect any deterioration to take place: A. slowly and steadily. B. rapidly. C. rapidly, with a later shift to slowly. D. slowly, with a later shift to rapidly.

A. slowly and steadily.

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: Select one: A. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. B. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions. C. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated. D. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter.

A. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.

Which of the following is true concerning lacerations?

All of the above

At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device?

All of the above -Nursing home -Private residence -Specialty care center

While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device?

All of the above -Patient -Patient's home health aide or nurse -Patient's family

Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury?

All of the answer choices are appropriate.

Which of the following injuries does NOT produce distended neck veins?

All of the answer choices may cause distended neck veins.

All of the following are elements of adult high performance CPR, except: A. spending half of each compression on the downstroke and half on the upstroke. B. compressing the patient's chest about 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation. C. compression rate of at least 100 per minute. D. taking no more than 1 second to deliver each ventilation.

All of the following are general rules in dealing with a psychiatric patient except: A. make eye contact with the patient. B. listen to the patient, showing you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. C. speak slowly and clearly, and use a calm and reassuring tone. D. do not be judgmental; instead, show pity, as he needs to know that you understand him.

A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard

At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated? A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard B. After a cervical collar has been applied C. After a short immobilization device has been applied D. Only when directed to do so by medical control

Automatic defibrillation is NOT appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the following? A. Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient. B. AEDs cannot effectively determine rhythms on patients weighing less than 20 pounds. C. The energy delivered by the AED would not be effective on an infant. D. None of the above

The part of the skeleton that is made up from the skull and spinal column is called the:

Axial skeleton.

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia?

A "fruity" odor of the breath

A 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school. She's taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ________ in her blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain. A. albumin B. white blood cells C. hemoglobin D. plasma

B. whiplash injury.

A 17-year-old girl was injured when her car was struck from behind while she was stopped at a red light. She is complaining of a headache with neck and back pain. You suspect she has sustained a(n): A. extension injury. B. whiplash injury. C. distraction injury. D. compression fracture.

D. None of the above

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the head. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the skull, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? A. The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. B. The patient develops excessive intracranial pressure (ICP). C. Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. D. None of the above

D. All of the above

A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face. Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat? A. Brain injury B. Airway obstruction C. Cervical spine trauma D. All of the above

A 59-year-old male has suffered a severe laceration from a circular saw while cutting wood in his garage. Upon your arrival, you find the patient sitting on the floor in a pool of blood. He is extremely pale. Based on your knowledge of pathophysiology, you would expect his body to try to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following ways, except: A. increased respirations. B. sweaty skin. C. increased pulse. D. constricted pupils.

D. Increased blood pressure

A 65-year-old man was doing some work on his roof when he lost his footing and fell to the ground, approximately 15 feet. He is unconscious but his respirations are normal. You note an obviously angulated left leg. You are more concerned about a possible head injury. Which of the following would indicate a possible head injury? A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15 B. Constricted pupils C. Increased pulse rate D. Increased blood pressure

A ________ device works by blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure to prevent a patient's alveoli from collapsing. A. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) B. COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) C. FROPVD (Flow-Restricted, Oxygen Powered Ventilation Device) D. Nonrebreather

11) Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? A) Tuberculosis B) Hepatitis B C) Hepatitis A D) AIDS Answer:

15) Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? A) Current and former smokers B) Immunosuppressed patients C) Uranium mine workers D) Healthcare practitioners Answer:

19) You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? A) Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. B) Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection. C) Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury. D) If your hands had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. Answer:

23) The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: A) determine if a person has infected others with TB. B) detect a person's exposure to tuberculosis. C) inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections. D) prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure. Answer:

39) Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem? A) Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis B) Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients C) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment D) Increased speeding and reckless driving Answer:

44) Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs): A) are always recommended. B) are now less common than they once were. C) must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective. D) have been replaced with "defusings." Answer:

53) What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units? A) Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide B) Emergency Response Guidebook C) Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan D) Safety Data Sheets Answer:

54) You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role? A) Triage patients to be decontaminated. B) Transport decontaminated patients. C) Coordinate hazmat response. D) Transport patients to be decontaminated. Answer:

62) Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle collision? A) Nonslip footwear B) Reflective outer clothing C) Portable radio D) Flashlight Answer:

7) Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using ________ in addition to standard PPE. A) N-95 masks B) heavy-duty gloves C) face shields D) Level B hazmat suits Answer:

8) You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A) Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask. B) Mask yourself and the patient. C) Mask yourself only. D) Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that's needed. Answer:

9) Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? A) Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves. B) If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. C) In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used. D) Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. Answer:

What law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree? A. Law of kinetic energy B. Law of inertia C. Second law of motion D. Newton's law of moving energy

When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three things? A. Movement, gaze, and equality B. Size, equality, and reactivity C. Reactivity, gaze, and equality D. Color, equality, and reactivity

When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. central venous pressure.

When treating a patient with acute abdominal pain, you should do which of the following? A. Have him drink milk to coat the stomach and reduce the pain B. Have the patient lie still and assume a position of comfort C. Administer sips of water if patient complains of thirst D. Have him take antacids in an attempt to decrease the pain

When you arrive at the receiving facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the patient's condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route. Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both reports? A. Only the physician is permitted read the written patient care report. B. The patient's condition may have changed or the nurse didn't hear the radio report. C. The nurse cannot make decisions about the patient based on the radio reportport. D. Two verbal reports are always required prior to transferring care.

When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called a(n): A. untoward effect. B. side effect. C. indication. D. contraindication.

Which of the following instructions should you give to a patient whom you are about to assist with administering epinephrine? A. Insert the mouthpiece and inhale deeply as you depress the canister. B. I am going to inject medication into your thigh. C. Open your mouth and lift your tongue so I can spray this medication under your tongue. D. This is not pleasant tasting, but it is important that you drink all of it.

Which of the following is NOT appropriate to document on your patient care report? A. Patient's mental status B. Patient's attitude C. Patient's race D. All should be documented

Which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in EMS? A. Use plain English. B. Speak as quickly as possible. C. Speak with your lips 2 to 3 inches from the microphone. D. Make sure the radio is on before speaking.

Which of the following is NOT recommended when controlling epistaxis? A. Pinching the nostrils together B. Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose C. Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position D. Keeping the patient calm and quiet

Which of the following is a good indication of an occluded airway? A. The patient is crying loudly. B. The patient has snoring respirations. C. The patient is alert. D. The patient is speaking clearly.

Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process? A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner B) Writing complete patient care reports C) Critiquing performance of one's partner D) Assuring personal safety

Which of the following is acceptable when actively rewarming a hypothermic patient? A. Encouraging the patient to exercise B. Applying humidified oxygen C. Warming the patient as quickly as possible D. Giving coffee or brandy to drink

Which of the following statements is true when talking about neurogenic shock? A. Neurogenic shock is very common in the field. B. Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries. C. Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with blood, causing leaking into the nerves. D. Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size.

Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true? A. It shows you are interested in the patient. B. Eye contact is always appropriate. C. It shows you are confident. D. It shows you are attentive.

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? A. Alveoli B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Arterioles

Which of the following vessels has the thickest muscular walls that allow constriction and dilation? A. Capillaries B. Arteries C. Lymphatic vessels D. Veins

Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia? A. Tachycardia B. Irrational behavior C. Loss of muscle tone D. Rapid respirations

Which organ is the principal organ of the renal system? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra

You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the patient's head to a neutral position. "Why? This is not a pediatric patient!" your partner protests. What would you say? A. Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. B. It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. C. Using the head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion. D. Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning.

You are approaching a 16-year-old male with bright red spurting blood coming from his leg. He is screaming, and he begs you to help him. You should FIRST: A. assess his airway. B. control the bleeding. C. apply oxygen. D. ask him to calm down.

You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma, has vomited, and has slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next? A. Check for carotid and radial pulses. B. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. C. Assist respirations with a bag-valve-mask device. D. Determine the respiratory rate.

You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by: A. using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. B. remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out. C. borrowing turnout gear from the fire department. D. putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.

You are called to a residence for a 48yearold male patient. He is lying in bed, groaning in pain and curled into a fetal position. His blood pressure is 88/50, pulse 136, and respiratory rate of 32. His wife states that he complained of lower right abdominal pain for several days that got progressively worse, until about an hour ago when it became suddenly unbearable. The wife states the husband had been refusing to see a doctor, but she finally called 911. You suspect appendicitis and are concerned about the subsequent onset of: A. toxic shock. B. peritonitis. C. splenic rupture. D. renal colic.

You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon arrival, you find a 38yearold Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe rightsided flank pain. His blood pressure is 140/90, pulse 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You suspect: A. Mittelschmerz. B. renal colic. C. cholecystitis. D. myocardial infarction.

You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries

You are on a call of a minor vehicle accident. Your patient is a 22-year-old male who was the driver of a moderate T-Bone collision. The patient was not wearing a seat belt and there was spidering of the windshield. The patient complains of neck pain and has a scalp laceration. After performing the primary assessment, you take vital signs and bandage the patient's scalp. When you tell him you need to backboard him, he refuses care and ambulance transport. Because the person is alert and oriented to time, place, and person, you have the patient sign the separate patient refusal form provided by your service. How should you document this incident in your EMS report? A. You should only document what treatment you performed before the patient refused treatment. B. You should document everything including all patient care, all of your attempts to persuade the patient to go by ambulance, and who witnessed the patient refusal. C. You should document your patient care and then simply document that the patient was informed of the risks prior to his refusal. Anything extra is unnecessary and wastes time. D. No report is needed because the patient refused transport and signed the refusal.

You are on the scene of an unresponsive adult female patient. You find an empty pill bottle lying next to her bed. You look up the medication in your field guide and discover the medication is a powerful sedative. The prescription on the bottle is for the patient's husband, who is not present to answer questions about the medication. What should you do? A. Document the empty pill bottle. It is obvious that she took the pills. B. Document the empty pill bottle. It may provide important clues to the patient's condition. C. Do not document the empty pill bottle. It does not belong to the patient. D. Do not document the empty pill bottle. You cannot prove that she took the pills and could lead the doctor to make a false diagnosis.

You are on the scene of a 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once. You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal. How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the medication? A. Activated charcoal will inactivate the patient's stomach acid. B. Activated charcoal will bind to the medication, reducing absorption. C. Activated charcoal will coat the intestines, preventing absorption. D. Activated charcoal will cause the patient to vomit the medication.

You are responding to a 52yearold male patient complaining of heartburn with epigastric pain. The patient's vital signs are stable and he does not have any pain upon palpation. He has a history of reflux disease and is on several medications for heartburn and acid reflux. What is your greatest concern with this patient? A. He will develop peritonitis. B. He is suffering from a myocardial infarction. C. He will aspirate on vomit. D. His appendix will rupture.

You are responding to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this patient? A. Stand near the head of the bed and shout to make sure the patient can hear you. B. Place yourself at eye-level, identify yourself, and ask the patient what she would like to be called. C. Sit on the foot of the bed and ask the patient what's up. D. Pick up the patient's wrist and begin taking her pulse.

You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best option? A. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient. B. Use a nasal cannula instead. C. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation. D. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.

You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain's chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely? A. The bends B. Air embolism C. Caisson's disease D. Decompression sickness

You care caring for a patient that looks at you as you approach. Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end? A. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation B. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority C. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority D. None of the above

You enter a room to find a 16-year-old female sitting upright in a chair with her back straight, leaning forward, and her arms supporting her. She is having a hard time talking to you. You should suspect: A. abdominal pain. B. respiratory distress. C. allergic reaction. D. chest discomfort.

You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done first? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway. B. Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. D. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him? A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition. C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player. D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out.

You have responded to a call at a government office building. One of the office workers became very upset during a fire drill and experienced an episode of difficulty breathing. As your partner is speaking with the patient, who is not sure she wants to be transported, an individual wearing civilian clothes approaches you and states she is a security guard in the building. She asks you for the "yellow copy" of your patient care report. Which of the following should you do? A. Ask the patient if it is alright with her if you provide the individual with a copy of the patient care report. B. State that you are unable to comply with the request due to patient confidentiality. C. Get permission from medical control. D. Provide the documentation if the individual shows proper identification.

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find the 16-year-old patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. What is your first action? A. Apply high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Insert a Combitube. D. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 22-year-old female patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when she unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away and the nearest specialty resource center with a hyperbaric chamber is 30 minutes away. What is the best decision when determining transport? A. Transport the patient by air medical to the nearest facility. B. Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center. C. Transport the patient to the nearest facility. D. Remain on scene until ALS personnel arrive.

You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory sounds? A. Tongue blocking the airway B. Fluids in the airway C. Cardiac arrest D. Complete airway obstruction

You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? A. Normal for the child's age B. Tachycardic C. Unable to determine without knowing the family history D. Bradycardic

You respond to a medical call for a 59-year-old female complaining of tightness in her chest. You place her on a high concentration of oxygen and prepare for a short 5-minute transport to the hospital. The patient tells you she is on nitroglycerin, which she has not taken. Your partner tells you that you can give aspirin per protocol. Should you delay the patient transport to give the medication and why? A. No, any delay will cause the patient more stress; she needs to be in a definitive care facility. B. Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process. C. No, any delay will cause the patient more heart damage; each delay weakens the myocardium. D. Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the heart to beat stronger and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will ease the pain.

You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? A. Res ipsa loquitur B. In loco parentis C. Informed consent D. Healthcare proxy

You respond to a 30-month-old patient who has passed out. Is the patient's blood pressure important to your treatment and why? A. Yes, blood pressure must be taken on everyone because without it we cannot impact the patient's field management. B. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the patient's field management. C. Yes, blood pressure can be taken on children because it is the only way we can understand the patient's condition. D. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 can cause damage to the tender tissues of the arm that could lead to hypertension in later life.

You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. Driver's license D. On-call Medical Director

You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following? A. Nature of illness B. Index of suspicion C. Mechanism of injury D. Law of inertia

Your elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the BEST way to address him? A. Sir B. Mr. Smith C. Smitty D. Joe

Your partner asks why EMTs should avoid use of medical terminology when communicating with most patients. What should you tell her? A. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it. B. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. C. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. D. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to: A. an urgent care center. B. a trauma center. C. the closest hospital. D. a neurosurgery center.

Your patient has attempted suicide by slitting his wrists. You notice that he has run the knife across his wrist, perpendicular to the arm, and that the wound is not deep. Which of the following statements is true regarding the likelihood for serious blood loss? A. You should expect severe blood loss. B. Blood loss is probably not life-threatening. C. There is most likely tremendous internal blood loss. D. A tourniquet will probably be necessary.

Your patient is a 17yearold with a history of asthma. She is complaining of pain in her lower abdomen. Assessment reveals that her breath sounds are clear and equal, she has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway in the patient's nose. B. Transport the patient for further evaluation. C. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to rebreathe some of her carbon dioxide. D. Assist the patient in the administration of her metereddose inhaler.

Your patient is a 35yearold female with abdominal pain. Which of the following findings CANNOT be attributed to the patient experiencing pain? A. Shallow respirations B. Decreased level of consciousness C. Increased heart rate D. Slight increase in blood pressure

Your patient is a 60yearold male who is complaining of severe epigastric abdominal pain and difficulty breathing. He is pale, sweaty, and pleads with you, "Don't let me die, I think I'm going to die." Which of the following measures is NOT part of your initial treatment of this patient? A. Giving 15 lpm of oxygen by nonrebreather mask B. Applying the defibrillator pads to his chest C. Determining whether you should assist the patient in taking nitroglycerin D. Placing the patient in a position of comfort

Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now? A. Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent. C. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm. D. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage.

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. Bleeding is significant and difficult to control. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper management of this patient? A. Use of a tourniquet B. Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water C. Using direct pressure to control the bleeding D. Administering oxygen

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of steps in the management of this patient? A. High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the extremity, and application of ice B. Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg C. Cervical spine immobilization, high-concentration oxygen, direct pressure, and pressure point compression D. High-concentration oxygen, tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity

Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed. B. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. C. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. D. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem.

Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient? A. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. B. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device. C. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. D. You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

Your patient is a 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be documented? A. Expiration date of the medication B. Patient's response to the medication C. Chemical name of the medication D. All of the above

Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should: A. administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula. B. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen. C. insert a nasal airway and ventilate. D. suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.

Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: A. Trendelenburg position. B. recovery position. C. prone position. D. Fowler position.

On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the BEST method of extinguishing the fire? A. Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base. B. Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out. .C. Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent. D. Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.

B Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.

Your protocols call for you to use the pediatric assessment triangle when assessing young children. You know that the second leg of the triangle assesses the "work of breathing" and the bottom leg of the triangle assesses "circulation to the skin." What does the first leg of the triangle stand for? A. Alteration of mental status B. Appearance Your answer is correct.C. Airway D. Assessment

B Appearance

You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first? A. Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient. B. Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances. C. Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources. D. Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle.

B Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the skin and body surface area of children as compared to adults? A. A child is not more prone than an adult to heat loss through the skin. B. Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio. This is the correct answer.C. The skin of a child is thicker. Your answer is not correct.D. Children have more subcutaneous fat.

B Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio.

Which of the following statements is true regarding SIDS? A. It usually occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years. B. Death usually occurs during sleep. Your answer is correct.C. All children are at equal risk. D. It is usually caused by external suffocation.

B Death usually occurs during sleep.

You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the air bags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work? A. Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed air bag. B. Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. C. Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. D. Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.

B Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways? A. Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers. B. Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing. C. EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic. D. All of the above

B Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing.

Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication? A. Penetrating injury from extrication tools B. Flying glass and metal fragments C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Both A and C

B Flying glass and metal fragments

You are called for a sick 2-year-old boy. When you arrive, you see the boy sitting quietly on his mother's lap. You note that he is not crying and has his head tucked against his mother's chest. However, he does lift his head and look at you when you enter. As you approach, he withdraws deeper toward his mother. What have you learned about the patient so far? A. His front fontanelle is sunken, likely from dehydration. B. He is alert and probably acting appropriately. Your answer is correct.C. He probably does not have a fever. D. His skin is warm and dry.

B He is alert and probably acting appropriately.

Which of the following is a consideration in airway management in the pediatric patient? A. Using blind finger sweeps to clear a foreign body from the airway B. Keeping the nose clear of secretions Your answer is correct.C. The need to hyperextend the head to achieve an open airway D. All of the above

B Keeping the nose clear of secretions

Because infants and small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, respiratory distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults? A. Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck B. Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort Your answer is correct.C. Bulging of the intercostal spaces D. None of the above

B Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort

When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety? A. Switch the headlights to the "high beam" position for maximum lighting. B. Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available. C. Keep only the fog lights on to keep the light out of drivers' vision. D. Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic.

B Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available.

Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication? A. Incident commander B. Patient advocate C. Rescue technician D. Safety officer

B Patient advocate

An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient? A. Rapid take-down B. Rapid extrication technique C. Scoop stretcher D. Quick extraction

B Rapid extrication technique

While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility? A. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON B. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON .C. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights ON, and traffic directional boards ON D. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF

B Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON

Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication process? A. Gaining access to the patient B. Simplification .C. Terminating the rescue D. Disentanglement

B Simplification

Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments? A. Alloy glass B. Tempered glass C. Leaded glass D. Plexiglas

B Tempered glass

Which of the following statements regarding child abuse is correct? A. Children without siblings are at higher risk for abuse. B. There is no distinction as to race or economic background. This is the correct answer.C. Children with disabilities are rarely victims of abuse. D. Economic abuse is a common form of child abuse.

B There is no distinction as to race or economic background.

You are standing in line waiting to get a prescription filled for your mother. A woman walks in with a young boy in her arms. As she places him in a nearby chair, he begins to seize. Which of the following is true regarding childhood seizures? A. They usually last from 1 to 2 minutes. B. They are often due to a rapid rise in temperature. Your answer is correct.C. They always accompany a high fever. D. Most are due to head injuries.

B They are often due to a rapid rise in temperature.

Your patient is a 3-year-old male who developed sudden stridor while playing with some of his 5-year-old cousin's toys. The patient is alert and anxious, producing stridor when he cries. His skin is pink and warm, and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. Which of the following is appropriate in the management of this child? A. Attempt a finger sweep to remove the foreign body from the child's airway. B. Transport the child in a restrained car seat with his mother by his side. Your answer is correct.C. Perform abdominal thrusts. D. Perform back blows and chest thrusts.

B Transport the child in a restrained car seat with his mother by his side.

Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew? A. Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window. B. Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open. C. Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient. D. Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch.

B Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.

You are dispatched to a 1-year-old child with respiratory distress. En route, you review how to assess and treat infants with respiratory problems. Which of the following would indicate an infant with respiratory distress? A. Abdominal movement when breathing B. Wheezing upon inspiration Your answer is correct.C. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds D. Respiratory rate of 30

B Wheezing upon inspiration

Capillary refill should be assessed in which of the following age groups? A. Younger than 1 year B. Younger than 6 years Your answer is correct.C. 2-years-old and younger D. Younger than 12 years

B Younger than 6 years

When placing cribbing: A. kneel on both knees for stabilization. B. always squat, so you can move away quickly. .C. kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly. D. kneel or squat as necessary.

B always squat, so you can move away quickly.

You are trying to assess Judy, a 16-year-old girl, who has abdominal cramps with nausea and vomiting. Her mother, Mrs. Smith, is attempting to give you her daughter's past medical history. It is important that you get the history of the present illness. Therefore, you should: A. ignore Mrs. Smith and ask Judy if she is sexually active. B. ask Mrs. Smith to go write down their physician's name and phone number. Your answer is correct.C. skip the history of current illness and suggest that Judy should visit her physician. D. ask Mrs. Smith if there is a chance Judy could be pregnant.

B ask Mrs. Smith to go write down their physician's name and phone number.

All of the following are normal parental reactions to a child suffering from a sudden life-threatening illness or injury except: A. denial. B. indifference. Your answer is correct.C. guilt. D. anger.

B indifference.

The safest way to extinguish a road flare is to: A. pick it up and rub it onto the ground. B. let it burn out. .C. douse it with a fire hose. D. pick it up and snuff it out with a gloved hand.

B let it burn out.

When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to: A. use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution. B. request appropriate personnel to cut the power source. C. use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims. D. render the scene safe before entering the danger zone.

B request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.

Which patient would MOST likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal? A. 48-year-old man who attempted suicide by drinking Drano® B. Alert 16-year-old female who overdosed on Tylenol® This is the correct answer. C. Unresponsive 28-year-old female who overdosed on sleeping pills D. 28-year-old male who is suffering from food poisoning after eating eggs contaminated with salmonella

B. Alert 16-year-old female who overdosed on Tylenol®

Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic reaction? A. Pyrogen B. Allergen This is the correct answer. C. Pathogen D. Antibody

B. Allergen

You have just arrived on the scene of an agricultural business and see three men coming out of a building, choking and holding their heads. One of the men tells you there are two workers still inside. What should you do next? A. Cover your nose and mouth with a wet towel and check on the status of the two workers inside the building. B. Call for properly trained assistance and stay a safe distance away from the scene. This is the correct answer. C. Evaluate the three men and administer high-concentration oxygen, then help them get a safe distance away from the scene. D. Get the assistance of the men who made it out of the building to prevent delay in finding the workers inside.

B. Call for properly trained assistance and stay a safe distance away from the scene.

Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis? A. Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the skin, causing dehydration of tissue. B. Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords. This is the correct answer. C. Blood vessels constrict, capillaries become leaky, and bronchoconstriction occurs. D. Bronchodilation occurs, blood vessels dilate, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

B. Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

You respond to assist law enforcement with a 35-year-old male patient who, according to them, is "high as a kite." The patient is anxious, tachycardic, and angry. What condition do you suspect? A. Marijuana overdose B. Cocaine overdose This is the correct answer. C. GHB overdose D. Alcohol overdose

B. Cocaine overdose

You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? A. Ask the patient what he or she would prefer. B. Consult medical direction. This is the correct answer. C. Administer the epinephrine, just in case. D. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector.

B. Consult medical direction.

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate action? A. Transport immediately. B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector. This is the correct answer. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA). D. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.

B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.

Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is spitting and coughing after swallowing some gasoline while siphoning from a gas tank. Which of the following should you do first? A. Insert a Combitube or another blind insertion device, if you are trained to do so. B. Contact medical control. This is the correct answer. C. Have the patient drink a glass of milk. D. Administer syrup of ipecac.

B. Contact medical control.

You respond to the county jail for a 48-year-old inmate arrested two days ago for public intoxication. Guards state the patient is a known alcoholic and "frequent flier." The guards state that for several hours the patient was "acting crazy" and seeing "bugs on the walls." The patient then began seizing and they called for an ambulance. You notice the patient is no longer seizing, diaphoretic, or confused. What condition do you suspect? A. LSD abuse B. Delirium tremens This is the correct answer. C. Alcohol poisoning D. Acute episode of paranoid schizophrenia

B. Delirium tremens

Which of the following groups is the most susceptible to the effects of a poison? A. Teenager B. Elderly This is the correct answer. C. Pre-teens D. Adults

B. Elderly

Your patient is a 3-year-old male with a stoma who has swallowed a household cleaner. Medical direction gives you an order for milk to dilute the stomach contents. Which of the following is the correct way of carrying out this order? A. Have the patient drink a glass of milk while you plug the stoma to prevent leakage. B. Have the patient drink one glass of milk. This is the correct answer. C. Administer one glass of milk through the stoma. D. Refuse the order and explain why.

B. Have the patient drink one glass of milk.

Which of the following is the MOST important means of managing a patient who has inhaled a poison, after the airway has been established? A. Hyperventilation B. High concentrations of oxygen This is the correct answer. C. Monitoring pulse oximetry D. Administering a specific antidote

B. High concentrations of oxygen

Which of the following substances may be ordered by medical control to dilute a poison? A. Milk or milk of magnesia B. Milk or water This is the correct answer. C. Milk of magnesia or magnesium citrate D. Water with syrup of ipecac

B. Milk or water

Which of the following types of drugs may induce sleep or stupor? A. Tranquilizers B. Narcotics This is the correct answer. C. Hallucinogens D. Both A and B

B. Narcotics

You are called to the scene of a 17-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, has agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is your next action? A. Perform a focused assessment. B. Perform a rapid physical examination of the patient. This is the correct answer. C. Ask the mother the name of her pain medication. D. Question the mother about the patient's suicidal tendencies.

B. Perform a rapid physical examination of the patient.

How does carbon monoxide cause toxic effects? A. Prevents red blood cells from releasing carbon dioxide B. Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen This is the correct answer. C. Causes red blood cells to clump together D. Prevents the blood from clotting

B. Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen

Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor falls and blows to the head? A. Intracerebral hematoma B. Subdural hematoma This is the correct answer. C. Skull fracture D. Concussion

B. Subdural hematoma

incorrect, Chapter Test 20.10.2 After administering epinephrine per medical control via an auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields whereas before the injection they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the patient's condition? A. The patient's condition is worsening. B. The patient's condition is improving. This is the correct answer. C. The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest. D. There is no change in the patient's condition.

B. The patient's condition is improving

Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely? A. You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard. B. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves. This is the correct answer. C. You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction. D. You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient.

B. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.

Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse include all of the following except: A. confusion. B. an acetone or ketone odor to the breath. This is the correct answer. C. nausea and vomiting. D. swaying and unsteadiness of movement.

B. an acetone or ketone odor to the breath.

You are called to a farm for a possible organophosphate poisoning of one of the workers. Your first action is to: A. decontaminate the patient. B. call for specialized hazardous materials units. This is the correct answer. C. call for an ALS unit. D. bag the patient before he dies.

B. call for specialized hazardous materials units.

The opiate triad includes all of the following except: A. pinpoint pupils. B. hypertension. This is the correct answer. C. respiratory depression. D. coma.

B. hypertension

Which patient would most likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal? A. 8-year-boy who has a headache from carbon monoxide poisoning B. 14-year-old female who overdoses on her grandfather's cardiac medication This is the correct answer. C. 45-year-old patient suffering from organophosphate poisoning D. 18-year-old patient who is passed out from drinking too much beer

B. 14-year-old female who overdoses on her grandfather's cardiac medication

You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport. A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2

B. 1

According to CDC guidelines, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of less than ________ indicates a patient should be transported to a trauma center. A. 110 B. 90 C. 100 D. 80

B. 90

What is the definition of multiple trauma? A. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies. B. A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury. C. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties. D. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.

B. A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.

Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes? A. Ingestion B. Absorption C. Injection D. Inhalation

B. Absorption

Your patient is an infant who has just been delivered 3 weeks before her due date. She is breathing adequately, has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, and has cyanosis of her face and chest. Which of the following interventions should be done first? A. Place a neonatal nonrebreather mask on the infant's face. B. Administer blow-by oxygen. C. Begin CPR with a compression rate of 120/minute. D. Perform ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

B. Administer blow-by oxygen.

What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? A. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources B. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources C. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response D. Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene

B. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources

When assisting with a delivery in the field, which of the following should be done as the head begins to emerge from the vagina? A. Advise the mother not to push or strain. B. Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand. C. Check for crowning. D. Pull on the baby.

B. Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand.

Which of the following choices is NOT a justifiable reason for delaying transport of a critical trauma patient? A. Ventilating a patient in respiratory distress B. Awaiting arrival of the patient's parents on-scene C. Suctioning the airway D. Immobilizing the patient to a long spine board

B. Awaiting arrival of the patient's parents on-scene

Which of the following is the highest priority to the EMT in delivery of an infant with meconium-stained amniotic fluid? A. Checking for fever B. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath C. Vigorously rubbing the infant's back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing D. None of the above

B. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath

Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command? A. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene. B. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people. C. Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations. D. None of the above

B. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people.

A patient gives you a story of having gone out to the movies last night, but who according to family members, has not left the house in years. This condition is called? A. Apoplexy B. Confabulation C. Lying D. Depression

B. Confabulation

Which of the following is the correct technique to check for crowning in the assessment of a woman in labor? A. Ask the woman to "push" or "bear down" as you inspect the vaginal opening. B. Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening. C. Place your hand on the woman's abdomen, just above the umbilicus, and check for the firmness of the uterus during contractions. D. None of the above

B. Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening.

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells? A. Blister agents B. Cyanide C. Nerve agents D. All of the above

B. Cyanide

While listening to an otherwise healthy elderly patient's lungs, you note decreased breath sounds. Which of the following may explain this finding? A. Decreased blood flow to the lungs B. Decreased lung capacity C. Previous abdominal injuries D. Increased chest wall flexibility

B. Decreased lung capacity

You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the BEST transport decision? A. Continue transporting to the local hospital because you've already given report and they accepted the patient. B. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic. C. Continue transporting to the local hospital since it's the closest facility. D. Call the trauma center for advice.

B. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.

What criteria based on the CDC guidelines allows a discretionary approach to trauma triage? For example, a patient not meeting ordinary trauma triage criteria may be transported to a trauma center based on what consideration? A. Review of morbidity and mortality B. EMS provider judgment C. "Golden Hour" criteria D. CDC "No-protocol Protocol"

B. EMS provider judgment

Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered MOST severe, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center? A. Open (compound) midshaft femur fracture B. Flail chest C. Midline cervical spine pain D. Scalp laceration

B. Flail chest

Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant woman? A. After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4 B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next D. From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction

B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next

Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Operations B. Hazardous Materials Technician C. Hazardous Materials Specialist D. First Responder Awareness

B. Hazardous Materials Technician

You walk up the stairs of a house to respond to a call of an elderly man. You notice that the stairs do not have any handrails. After responding to the reason why he called 911, what suggestion would you give to this patient to avoid falls in the future? A. Nothing, there is no problem. B. He should install a handrail on the front steps to avoid any falls. C. It is a good idea there are no handrails on the front steps as this negatively impacts his balance as he walks up the stairs. D. It is illegal to not have a handrail on the front steps and it must be fixed immediately.

B. He should install a handrail on the front steps to avoid any falls.

Which of the following is NOT advisable following complete birth of the infant? A. Keep the infant at the level of the mother's vagina until the cord is clamped and cut. B. Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain. C. Place the infant on his side with his head slightly lower than his body. D. Dry the infant and wrap him in a blanket.

B. Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain.

Which of the following is important to remember when communicating with an elderly patient with a hearing impairment? A. It is not worth the effort to try to get information from an elderly person with a hearing impairment. B. Make sure the patient can see you when you are speaking to him. C. You may need to shout in order for the patient to hear you. D. Speak directly into the patient's ear.

B. Make sure the patient can see you when you are speaking to him.

What is the definition of multisystem trauma? A. Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury B. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system C. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies D. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties

B. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system

Which of the following is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit? A. Surgical scissors B. Packet of suture material C. Umbilical cord clamps D. Baby blanket

B. Packet of suture material

Which of the following BEST describes the term crowning? A. Discharge of bloody mucus B. Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening C. Complete dilation of the cervix D. Delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery

B. Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient. A. Priority 1 B. Priority 0 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 3

B. Priority 0

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient. A. Priority 3 B. Priority 1 C. Priority 2 D. Priority 0

B. Priority 1

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory. A. Priority 1, red tag B. Priority 3, green tag C. Priority 4, black tag D. Priority 2, yellow tag

B. Priority 3, green tag

Which of the following is NOT a form of elder abuse or neglect? A. Financial B. Social C. Physical D. Psychological

B. Social

What is the term for when the fetus and placenta deliver before the 28th week of pregnancy? A. Eclampsia B. Spontaneous abortion C. Stillbirth D. Induced abortion

B. Spontaneous abortion

Which of the following is true concerning a stillborn baby? A. Resuscitation must always be attempted. B. The death may occur weeks before delivery. C. The parents should never be allowed to see the baby, especially if it has begun to deteriorate. D. Infants born in cardiopulmonary arrest should not be resuscitated.

B. The death may occur weeks before delivery.

You are assessing an 83-year-old female who is having hip pain. When you count her pulse you notice that the rate is irregularly irregular. What is your treatment for this patient? A.Check distal circulation, sensory, and motor sensation, apply a pelvic wrap, place on a traction splint, and transport the patient. B. The irregularity is not a reason for concern in itself. C. Contact medical control for permission to have the patient transported by helicopter from the scene. D. Alert paramedics to respond for a possible cardiac patient.

B. The irregularity is not a reason for concern in itself.

Which of the following BEST describes placenta previa? A. The umbilical cord is the presenting part. B. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix. C. The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. D. The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.

B. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? A. Triage officer B. Transportation officer C. Transporting EMT D. Incident commander

B. Transportation officer

If the baby's umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done? A. Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered. B. Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder. C. Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby. D. Transport emergently without further intervention.

B. Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder.

Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon? A. Bomb containing radioactive material B. Vesicants C. Plastic explosives D. Bacterial toxin

B. Vesicants

Which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident? A. Route of entry into the body B. Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure C. Physical state of the agent D. Volatility of the agent

B. Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the: Select one: A. apex of the lung. B. alveolar sacs. C. pulmonary capillaries. D. bronchioles.

B. alveolar sacs.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. pharynx B. bronchus C. oropharynx D. larynx

B. bronchus

Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are: A. weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda. B. crime scene considerations and targeting responders. C. targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD). D. targeting responders and a political agenda.

B. crime scene considerations and targeting responders.

You are called for a woman with severe abdominal pain. During your assessment and interview, she tells you that she is sexually active and there is a chance she could be pregnant. Her vital signs are pulse 122, respirations 22, blood pressure 96/62, and skin cool and pale. You should immediately suspect: A. appendicitis. B. ectopic pregnancy. C. placenta previa. D. internal bleeding.

B. ectopic pregnancy.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: Select one: A. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse. B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver. D. assess the rate and quality of his breathing.

B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position.

The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent exposing a large number of people would be to: A. throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train. B. steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolized the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision. C. throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus. D. put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.

B. steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolized the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: Select one: A. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator. B. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. C. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. D. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered.

B. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.

You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as: A. dual command. B. unified command. C. redundant command. D. incident command.

B. unified command.

You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority? A. 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain B. 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side C. Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest D. 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms

B. 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side

EMS operations generally include the Mobile command center and what other six areas? A. Extrication, Operations, Logistics, Triage, Finance, and Transportation B. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation C. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation D. Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation

B. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation

When preparing to move a patient that is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family?

Both A and B are correct -What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance? -How do you normally move the patient?

14) Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? A) HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate. B) The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B. C) HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate. D) Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS. Answer:

2) What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A) Harm-reduction strategy B) Exposure-control plan C) Personal protective equipment D) Infection-control plan Answer:

25) Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A) Megastress B) Hyperstress C) Distress D) Eustress Answer:

29) An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress? A) Resistance stage B) Exhaustion stage C) Alarm reaction stage D) Response stage Answer:

31) According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the "Stress Triad" is known as the ________ stage. A) resistance B) cumulative C) exhaustion D) alarm Answer:

39) A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages? A) Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B) Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. C) Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. D) Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side-by-side to the regular bandages.

40) For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. A) Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling. B) Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him. C) Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. D) Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days. Answer:

46) When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patient's son experiencing in response to his father's death? A) Denial B) Depression C) Anger D) Acceptance Answer:

5) An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A) A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration B) A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris C) A patient who is actively coughing D) A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest Answer:

56) You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what happened: "I just found her this way!" The husband is behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of action? A) Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient. B) Evacuate the patient and begin treatment. C) Leave the house and call for law enforcement. D) Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient. Answer:

58) You are dispatched to a "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to you, "Help him, he's been shot! He's bleeding real bad!" What would be the best course of action? A) Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment. B) Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER. C) Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure. D) Load and go, because you're already on-scene. Answer:

59) You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT? A) Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions. B) Request additional resources. C) Ensure scene safety. D) Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing. Answer:

6) During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? A) Bandaging a laceration B) Childbirth C) Splinting a sprained ankle D) Glucometry Answer:

Allowing a patient's body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the following? A. Natural rewarming B. Active rewarming C. Passive rewarming D. Core rewarming

An approximate normal systolic blood pressure can be calculated for infants and children by using which of the following formulas? A. 120 minus 2 times the age in years B. 80 times 2 plus the age in years C. 80 plus 2 times the age in years D. 120 plus 2 times the age in years

An artery is a blood vessel that only: A. carries deoxygenated blood. B. returns blood to the heart. C. carries blood away from the heart. D. carries oxygenated blood.

An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. B. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. D. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.

As an EMT, your BEST clue indicating the possibility of internal bleeding may be the presence of: A. bruising, swelling, or pain over vital organs. B. painful, swollen, or deformed extremities. C. mechanism of injury. D. the absence of a tender, rigid, or distended abdomen.

Shock is the circulatory system's failure to provide sufficient blood and oxygen to all the body's tissues. Which of the answers is NOT a major type of shock? A. Hemorrhagic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypervolemic D. Hypovolemic

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following except: A. safeguard patient confidentiality. B. place patient care reports in a locked box. C. report child abuse. D. All of the above are required by HIPAA.

You are assessing an 82-year-old female that has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your pulse oximeter shows her oxygen saturation to be 82% even though she appears to be breathing adequately. In order to ensure an accurate reading you should: A. try a different pulse oximeter. B. place the probe on the patient's earlobe. C. warm the patient's hands and try again. D. place the probe on the patient's toe.

You are assessing a 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hear the patient gurgling. What is your next action? A. Quickly check the pulse. B. Insert an airway adjunct. C. Suction the airway. D. Apply supplemental oxygen.

You are called to a 25 year old male complaining of right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain. His other symptoms are nausea and vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an EMT, you feel this patient might have: A. cholecystitis. B. pancreatitis. C. appendicitis. D. peritonitis.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85yearold patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting dark coffee ground emesis for about an hour. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. In what position should you transport the patient? A. Supine with knees bent B. Trendelenburg C. SemiFowler's D. Supine

You are called to a residential neighborhood at 12:30 A.M. Your patient has just finished eating a supersized meal of deep fried fish. He is now complaining of a "crampy" pain in the right upper quadrant and has had two episodes of nausea and vomiting with a green emesis. What condition do you suspect that your patient is experiencing? A. Peptic ulcer B. Intestinal obstruction C. Cholecystitis D. Appendicitis

You are called to the scene of a 16yearold female patient complaining of severe lower quadrant abdominal pain. The patient states she is sexually active. Upon palpation, you observe rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant. You suspect: A. ectopic pregnancy. B. renal colic. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most privacy? A. Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury B. Using the handheld radio C. Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone D. Using the ambulance radio but not using the patient's name

You are enjoying some time at the beach on your day off when you hear a swimmer crying for help. As you spot the swimmer about 30 feet from shore, she cries out again but appears to be getting weaker. Although there is no lifeguard on duty, there is a rowboat and a ring buoy available. Assuming you do NOT know how to swim or consider yourself a poor swimmer, which of the following should you do first? A. Row the boat out to the swimmer. B. Use the buoy to float out to the swimmer. C. Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer. D. Find someone who can swim to try to swim out and save the swimmer.

You are examining a 24yearold female patient with lower quadrant abdominal pain. What is the MOST LETHAL possibility? A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Mittelschmerz C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Cholecystitis

You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene size-up? A. Law enforcement B. One or two additional ambulances C. Hazardous material clean-up crew D. Gas company

You are transporting a city councilman to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92 per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. Which of the following should NOT be included in the radio report? A. Vital signs B. How the injury occurred C. Notification that extra security is needed for a VIP D. The appearance of the shoulder

You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road. Your patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be 190/110. The patient's blood pressure on scene was 130/80. You should: A. ignore the blood pressure reading. B. apply the automatic cuff to the other arm. C. re-measure the blood pressure manually. D. have the driver increase truck speed.

You are treating a 38yearold female patient with abdominal distress. The patient's vital signs are stable and you are getting ready to transport. What is the BEST position to transport the patient? A. Trendelenburg B. Right lateral C. On side with knees bent D. Left lateral

You are treating a 32-year-old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance. What is the BEST way to communicate with this patient? A. Speak very loudly in case he has a little hearing. B. Call for an interpreter to meet you at the hospital. C. Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak. D. Use hand gestures to act out what you are trying to say.

You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should: A. begin chest compressions. B. listen for heart sounds. C. attempt to find the carotid pulse. D. apply the pulse oximeter.

You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate this? A. Interrupt less urgent radio traffic to get your message across. B. Speak loudly to convey the urgency of the message. C. Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission. D. Use the phrase, "Attention, attention, I have priority traffic."

You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient. Within a few minutes, she complains of feeling faint and lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the BEST sequence of actions? A. Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin. B. Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the patient's blood pressure. C. Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure. D. Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin.

You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A) subordinate B) employee C) designated agent D) extension

Your patient is a 40yearold female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus; has cool, dry skin; a heart rate of 116; respirations of 24; and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting this patient? A. Sitting up at a 90degree angle B. Supine with the knees bent C. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent D. Sitting up at a 45 degree angle

Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first? A. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm. B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. D. Apply a cervical collar.

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? A. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. B. Act on implied consent. C. Call the patient's mother at work. D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient? A. Massage the feet briskly. B. Have the patient sit with his feet lower than the rest of his body. C. Gradually rewarm both feet. D. Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings.

Your patient is a 42-year-old woman who fell two feet from a ladder and is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following are you unable to determine from the information given? A. Airway status B. Chief complaint C. Transport priority D. General impression

Your patient is a 6-year-old child who has fallen down while running on a sidewalk. She has abrasions on both knees and the palms of both hands, which are oozing blood. This is an example of bleeding from which of the following types of vessels? A. Lymphatic vessels B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Veins

Your patient is a 72-year-old female who has "twisted her ankle" coming down some steps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right ankle, but she jokes about her "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do next? A. Administer high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Determine the presence of a carotid pulse. C. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle. D. Take immediate manual control of the patient's cervical spine.

Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to the hospital should state your patient is: A. flushed. B. mottled. C. jaundiced. D. cyanotic.

Your patient was diagnosed with cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation) three days ago. The patient now presents with nausea, vomiting, and pain in the right shoulder. The pain in the shoulder can be classified as: A. somatic pain. B. pancreatic pain. C. referred pain. D. visceral pain.

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal column? A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine

You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area? A. Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location. B. Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot. C. Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. .D. Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area

C Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area

Which of the following would be an appropriate statement in gaining the cooperation of a 7-year-old pediatric patient during your assessment? A. "Joey, this is a splint that will help your arm feel better. I promise it won't hurt when I put your arm in it." B. "Big girls don't cry, Emily. You're a big girl, aren't you?" C. "Katie, this is my stethoscope. I can use it to hear what your breathing sounds like. Would you like to look at it for a minute?" Your answer is correct.D. "I'm sorry Nick, but you can't see Mommy and Daddy until you let me take your blood pressure."

C "Katie, this is my stethoscope. I can use it to hear what your breathing sounds like. Would you like to look at it for a minute?"

Which of the following is NOT a component of the pediatric assessment triangle? A. Circulation B. Breathing C. Abdomen Your answer is correct.D. Appearance

C Abdomen

Your patient is a 3-year-old child who is in severe respiratory distress. She is cyanotic and responds only to painful stimuli. According to the patient's mother, the child had complained of a sore throat earlier and has had a fever since early in the morning. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Perform abdominal thrusts and finger sweeps; attempt to ventilate. B. Suction the airway. C. Begin gentle ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM) and supplemental oxygen. Your answer is correct.D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and begin bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen.

C Begin gentle ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM) and supplemental oxygen.

Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication? A. Controlling major bleeding B. Gaining access to the patient C. Ensuring your personal safety .D. Maintaining the patient's airway

C Ensuring your personal safety

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of seizures in infants and children? A. Hypoglycemia B. Poisoning C. Fever Your answer is correct.D. Hypoxia

C Fever

Which of the following is the BEST protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation? A. Nylon jacket with asbestos lining B. Thick wool coat C. Firefighting turnout coat D. Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders

C Firefighting turnout coat

Which of the following is NOT a normal response of a small child when approached by the EMT? A. Fear B. Anxiety C. Indifference Your answer is correct.D. None of the above

C Indifference

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision? A. It is stable if the ignition is turned off. B. It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels. C. It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel. D. It is stable if the transmission is in "Park" or the parking brake is on.

C It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.

Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the BEST course of action? A. Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire. B. Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading. C. Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient. .D. Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher.

C Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient.

You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A. Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second air bag has deployed. B. Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the air bag. C. Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage. D. Cut away the fabric portion of the air bag to get it out of the way.

C Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.

Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover? A. How many EMS supervisors are needed for command B. Make and model of the vehicle involved C. Mechanism of injury D. Which patient is the least injured

C Mechanism of injury

Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision? A. Nader jam B. Safety lock C. Nader pin .D. Safety pin

C Nader pin

You are assessing a child who is having problems breathing. Her mother states that she has been diagnosed with asthma and has recently started using an inhaler. Which of the following would indicate early respiratory distress? A. Respiratory rate of 12 B. Cyanosis of the nail beds and lips C. Nasal flaring Your answer is correct.D. Slow heart rate

C Nasal flaring

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious, but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance? A. Pickup truck driver B. Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed C. Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat .D. Tractor trailer driver

C Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat

Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up? A. Determining the mechanism of injury B. Determining the need for additional resources C. Providing airway management D. Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment

C Providing airway management

Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries? A. Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse. B. Splash burns indicate child abuse. C. Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse. Your answer is correct.D. Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant.

C Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse.

For the EMT who has cared for a pediatric patient in tragic circumstances, which of the following would be an appropriate way of dealing with stress accompanying the experience? A. Put the incident as your social media status and encourage others talk about it. B. Get together with others who participated in the care of the child and unwind with some alcoholic beverages. C. Talk to a compassionate coworker who has had similar experiences in the past. Your answer is correct.D. Vent your rage in a letter to the person responsible for the child's circumstances.

C Talk to a compassionate coworker who has had similar experiences in the past.

Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window? A. To avoid being cut by glass B. To avoid criticism from bystanders C. To allow for proper spinal immobilization .D. To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible

C To allow for proper spinal immobilization

Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process? A. To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians B. To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors C. To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process D. All of the above

C To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process

Which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States? A. Hazardous materials response B. Farm rescue C. Vehicle rescue .D. Water rescue

C Vehicle rescue

When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include: A. placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels. B. deflating all tires by slashing them. C. deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems. D. placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels.

C deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.

You respond to a 5-year-old child who has been injured while playing in his backyard. It appears that he has broken his arm, but you cannot tell how it occurred. You will need to gather some information regarding what exactly happened. Therefore, you should: A. tell the child that big boys don't cry. B. speak only to the mother to find out what happened. C. get down to the child's eye level to talk to him. Your answer is correct.D. tell the child that you will not hurt him.

C get down to the child's eye level to talk to him.

You have determined that your patient, a 6-year-old boy, most likely has epiglottitis. He has developed a high fever and appears very ill. You realize that this is a serious illness and you need to handle your patient carefully. You should: A. have him lie down with his head elevated. B. give him ice chips to suck on. C. not place anything in his mouth. Your answer is correct.D. check his temperature regularly.

C not place anything in his mouth.

The most common type of burn injury suffered in the home by children is: A. direct fire. B. electrical. Your answer is not correct.C. scald. This is the correct answer.D. chemical.

C scald.

Usually the first sign of respiratory distress in infants is: A. bradycardia. B. tachycardia. C. tachypnea. Your answer is correct.D. bradypnea.

C tachypnea.

The largest single hazard associated with EMS highway operations is: A. power lines. B. explosion. C. traffic flow. .D. sharp objects.

C traffic flow.

When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to: A. apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process. B. aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient. C. use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder. D. resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

C use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder

Your patient is a 3-year-old female who has taken an unknown quantity of aspirin. She is conscious and alert. Which of the following orders is likely to be given by medical control? A. Administer syrup of ipecac. B. Administer one to two glasses of milk. C. Administer activated charcoal. This is the correct answer. D. Induce vomiting by placing your finger in the child's throat.

C. Administer activated charcoal.

You are called to a residence for a 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the patient? A. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask B. Rapid transport to the nearest facility C. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control This is the correct answer. D. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask

C. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control

What is the most important treatment for a patient who has inhaled a poison? A. Administer activated charcoal. B. Administer the correct antidote. C. Administer high-concentration oxygen. This is the correct answer. D. Administer epinephrine via auto-injector.

C. Administer high-concentration oxygen.

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99%. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put "nox-a-sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from? A. Minor anaphylactic reaction B. Anaphylactic reaction from the "nox-a-sting" swabs C. Allergic reaction from the hornets' stings This is the correct answer. D. Moderate anaphylactic reaction

C. Allergic reaction from the hornets' stings

What is another name for a severe allergic reaction? A. Psychosomatic reaction B. Asthma C. Anaphylaxis This is the correct answer. D. Dermatitis

C. Anaphylaxis

You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress, but does so in short two to three word statements. What condition do you suspect? A. Asthma B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Anaphylaxis This is the correct answer. D. Angina pectoris

C. Anaphylaxis

As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the patient? A. Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves. B. Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves. C. Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient. This is the correct answer. D. Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI.

C. Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.

Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock? A. Looking for hives and swelling B. Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty This is the correct answer. D. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic

C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient? A. Elevate the patient's head. B. Transport rapidly. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. This is the correct answer. D. Search for an epinephrine auto-injector.

C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

Which of the following is one of the MOST common inhaled poisons associated with fire suppression? A. Carbon dioxide B. Methane gas C. Carbon monoxide This is the correct answer. D. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carbon monoxide

Which of the following is the toxic effect of alcohol? A. Damage to the liver B. Irreversible damage to the kidneys C. Central nervous system depression This is the correct answer. D. Central nervous system (CNS) stimulation

C. Central nervous system depression

Which of the following is LEAST often seen in carbon monoxide poisoning? A. Confusion B. Nausea C. Cherry red lips This is the correct answer. D. Headache

C. Cherry red lips

You are on the scene of a 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. You had inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. After the epinephrine administration your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should perform? A. Discontinue bagging the patient. B. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. C. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine. This is the correct answer. D. Hyperventilate the patient.

C. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.

Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action? A. Immediately administer a second auto-injector. B. Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities. C. Contact medical control. This is the correct answer. D. Continue supportive care en route to the hospital.

C. Contact medical control.

A patient who has abused "uppers" will display which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Slurred speech, constricted pupils, and frequent urination B. Constricted pupils, hypotension, and blurred vision C. Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth This is the correct answer. D. Dilated pupils, excessive salivation, and food cravings

C. Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth

Your patient is a 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, he is sweating profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is MOST likely responsible for the patient's condition? A. Ecstasy B. LSD C. Heroin This is the correct answer. D. PCP

C. Heroin

Which of the following is NOT true concerning a patient's reaction to toxic gas exposure? A. Signs and symptoms may be immediate and severe. B. The patient may present without respiratory difficulty. C. If the patient is treated immediately, there will be no long-term effects. This is the correct answer. D. Signs and symptoms may be delayed.

C. If the patient is treated immediately, there will be no long-term effects.

Which of the following is NOT an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition? A. Increased blood pressure B. Increased heart rate C. Increased dyspnea This is the correct answer. D. Both B and C

C. Increased dyspnea

Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs by which of the following routes? A. Radiation B. Absorption C. Inhalation This is the correct answer. D. Aspiration

C. Inhalation

Your patient is a 2-year-old conscious male who has swallowed a small quantity of bleach. Which of the following findings should you evaluate the patient for? A. Irregular pulse B. Respiratory depression C. Irritation in and around the mouth This is the correct answer. D. Dilated pupils

C. Irritation in and around the mouth

Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is NOT true? A. It can cause a patient to aspirate stomach contents into the lungs. B. It removes only about one-third of stomach contents. C. It has an immediate action. This is the correct answer. D. It typically causes emesis in patients with a single dose.

C. It has an immediate action.

Regarding activated charcoal, which of the following is NOT true? A. Ingestion of strong acids or alkalis is a contraindication to its use. B. It can reduce the amount of poison absorbed by the gastrointestinal system. C. It is an antidote to many poisons. This is the correct answer. D. It does not work on all poisons.

C. It is an antidote to many poisons.

Why should an EMT utilize a local poison control center in managing a poisoning patient? A. It prevents the EMT from having to do training on poisons. B. They can activate a specialty team to come and treat the patient. C. They can assist in finding out important information about the poison. This is the correct answer. D. It places any legal liability on the poison control center.

C. They can assist in finding out important information about the poison.

Which of the following MOST affects the extent of damage a poison does to the body? A. Patient's genetics, height, and medications taken B. Patient's nutritional status, genetics, and strength of the immune system C. Patient's age, weight, and general health This is the correct answer. D. Patient's race, age, and medications taken

C. Patient's age, weight, and general health

An infant's birth weight is considered low if it is less than ________ pounds. A. 4.5 B. 2.5 C. 5.5 D. 3.5

C. 5.5

ICS systems recognize that the manageable span of control is: A. 12 people. B. 18 people. C. 6 people. D. 24 people.

C. 6 people.

You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink trunk, a pulse of 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the newborn's APGAR score? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

C. 9

Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations? A. An elderly patient on anticoagulants who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain B. An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response C. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC D. An end-stage renal disease (ERSD) patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt

C. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane. B. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. D. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.

C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

A 23-year-old man experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid, shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? Select one: A. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-mask device to minimize hypoxia. C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. D. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations.

C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.

Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following? A. Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on-scene. B. Respond above and beyond the call of duty. C. Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual. D. Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.

C. Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual.

You are on the scene of a 50-year-old male who lacerated his arm on a sheet of plate glass. He is pale, diaphoretic, and mumbling incoherently. You have controlled an arterial bleed with direct pressure. His blood pressure is 70/40, pulse 120, and respiratory rate of 28. Which of the following signs is the most concerning? A. Altered mental status B. Tachycardia C. Blood pressure D. Respiratory rate

C. Blood pressure

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: A. pressure-compensated flowmeter B. ball-and-float flowmeter C. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter D. vertical-position flowmeter

C. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

Which of the following is NOT traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism? A. Scene size-up B. Assessment of the toxicological risk C. Containment and control D. Activation of the incident management system (IMS)

C. Containment and control

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? A. Treating injured patients B. Rehabilitating the hazmat team C. Decontaminating injured victims D. Staying in the cold zone

C. Decontaminating injured victims

Which of the following is the likely result of diminished thyroid function in the elderly? A. Increased toxicity of medications B. Thin, dry, wrinkled skin C. Decreased tolerance of heat and cold D. Difficulty chewing and swallowing

C. Decreased tolerance of heat and cold

By which of the following means does the fetus's blood pick up nourishment from the mother? A. Direct circulation B. Indirect circulation C. Diffusion D. Osmosis

C. Diffusion

What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards as it destroys microorganisms and their toxins? A. Dilution B. Absorption C. Disinfection D. Emulsification

C. Disinfection

Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States? A. Chemical and biological B. Violent and intimidation C. Domestic and international D. Psychological and economic

C. Domestic and international

You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this? A. Rescue sector officer B. Incident Commander C. EMS sector officer D. Dispatch

C. EMS sector officer

Which of the following has been shown to actually interfere with the normal grieving and healing process after a multiple-casualty incident? A. Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) sessions B. Mental health personnel available on the scene C. EMT engaging in psychoanalysis D. Mental health personnel available during the two months following a major incident

C. EMT engaging in psychoanalysis

Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Operations B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. First Responder Awareness D. Hazardous Materials Technician

C. First Responder Awareness

You are assessing a patient in labor. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart lasting 30 seconds with increasing pain. The patient states that she feels the urge to push. These signs indicate which stage of delivery? A. Third stage B. Fourth stage C. First and second stage D. Second stage

C. First and second stage

Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that causes the plague to humans? A. Squirrels B. Rats C. Fleas D. Bees

C. Fleas

While treating a patient of sexual assault, your treatment should follow which of the following sequences? A. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, allow the patient to shower if the patient is capable to help treat psychological needs, and transport. B. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, and treat only the secondary injuries that may become life threats to protect criminal evidence. C. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence. D. Treat immediate life threats, treat psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.

C. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.

You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. Which of the following interventions should be performed first? A. Begin chest compressions. B. Suction the vomit and secretions from the airway. C. Manually stabilize the cervical spine. D. Stabilize the pelvis to a long spine board.

C. Manually stabilize the cervical spine.

Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding? A. Preventing infection B. Obtaining a thorough gynecological history C. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock D. Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active

C. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock

Which of the following is meant by the "1 percent rule" of aging? A. About 1 percent of the population makes it to their 85th birthday. B. We lose about 1 percent of our memory capacity every year beginning at age 50. C. Our organ systems lose about 1 percent of function per year beginning at age 30. D. About 1 percent of the population older than age 65 has significant organ function decline.

C. Our organ systems lose about 1 percent of function per year beginning at age 30.

Which of the following may help in minimizing the stressful effects of the disruption in circadian rhythms seen in EMS multiple-casualty incidents work? A. Keep your bedroom light on and warm. B. Eat a heavy meal just before bedtime. C. Seek help from a trained professional. D. Sleep as much as possible on days off.

C. Seek help from a trained professional.

An elderly patient who is experiencing a myocardial infarction is more likely to complain of which of the following symptoms than a younger patient would? A. Shortness of breath with chest pain B. No chest pain or shortness of breath C. Shortness of breath without chest pain D. A rash caused by shingles

C. Shortness of breath without chest pain

Which one of the following is NOT a key decision for the EMT when faced with a multisystem or multiple trauma patient? A. Is the patient seriously injured? B. Do I need to minimize on-scene time? C. Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene? D. Should I transport to a trauma center?

C. Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene?

You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should: A. think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air. B. secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air. C. think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response. D. think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.

C. think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.

Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity?

Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of stroke?

Chest pain

Which of the following is a standardized test to evaluate a conscious patient for possible stroke?

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

The mechanism of injury in which a patient's chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a:

Compression injury.

Concerning behavioral emergencies, which of the following statements is true? A. It is relatively easy to determine if the underlying cause of a behavioral emergency is related to drug abuse. B. A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques may be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility. C. Only a licensed psychiatrist can apply crisis management techniques with a patient having a behavioral emergency. D. A diabetic problem never mimics signs of a behavioral emergency.

In addition to lacerations, blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries?

Contusion

18) What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? A) Communicable Disease Notification Act B) EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 C) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act D) Ryan White CARE Act Answer:

20) What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A) Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles B) Gloves C) Gloves and N-95 mask D) Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown Answer:

38) Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond effectively? A) Prostress B) Distress C) Unstress D) Eustress Answer:

57) You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do? A) Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment. B) Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C) Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. D) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. Answer:

How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after he has had his pulse restored with CPR and the use of an AED? A. Every 10 minutes B. Every 2 minutes C. Every 15 minutes D. Every 5 minutes

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain? A. Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems B. Respiratory and endocrine systems C. Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Vena cavae D. Pulmonary artery

When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm water, you should change the water when the temperature falls below ________ degrees°F. A. 115 to 120 B. 80 to 90 C. 85 to 95 D. 100 to 105

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? A. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. B. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. C. When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. D. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change.

When giving a radio report to the hospital, which of the following would be the first patient-specific information provided? A. The patient has taken nitroglycerin. B. The patient is having a heart attack. C. The patient is complaining of chest pain. D. The patient is a 55-year-old male.

Which of the following BEST describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"? A. Scene safety B. Diagnostic ability C. General impression D. Clinical judgment

Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the body's cellular level? A. Osmosis B. Hydrostatic pressure C. Circulation D. Perfusion

Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? A. Proximate causation existed. B. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care. C. The EMT had a duty to act. D. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

Which of the following is NOT the purpose of making airway management the highest priority of patient care when managing the patient in shock? A. It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. B. It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit. C. It allows for oxygenation of the lungs. D. It allows the bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways to be reversed.

Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies? A. Sexual assault B. Softtissue trauma to the external genitalia C. Disorders of the female reproductive organs D. All of the above

You are dispatched to a local bar for the report of an unresponsive female patient found in the bathroom. As you approach the scene, you notice a large crowd outside the front door holding beer bottles. The group has pulled the patient outside. As you approach the scene, people from the group start yelling, "Do something! She's not breathing." What concerns you the most about this scene? A. The crowd stating the patient is not breathing B. The fact that the patient has been moved from where she was found C. The possibility that the patient may be intoxicated D. The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you

You are on a stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and that he has a burning sensation in his fingers. You notice that the patient's cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the patient? A. Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game. B. Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing. C. Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures. D. Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures.

You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation? A. Yellow crime scene tape B. Flares C. Flashing lights on the ambulance D. Reflective triangles

You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. B. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness. C. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. D. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.

You are treating an elderly male patient in the back of your ambulance. En route, the patient becomes unresponsive. Upon arrival, the ED nurse asks you several questions about his condition. What should you do? A. You should not disclose the information because HIPAA laws only allow you to provide the information to the emergency department physician. B. You should disclose the information, as it is not protected by law. C. You should not disclose the information to the nurse because it is protected confidential information and the patient did not sign a release authorizing you to discuss his condition. D. You should answer her questions because you may legally share the patient's medical condition with other pertinent health care providers.

You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help. B. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service. C. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law. D. Provide emergency care under implied consent.

You arrive on the scene to find an approximately 60 year old male patient writhing on the floor. He is complaining of a tearing pain radiating to his lower back. He has absent femoral pulses and has a pulsatile mass just superior to his umbilicus. You suspect which of the following conditions? A. Ruptured appendix B. Myocardial infarction C. Acute pancreatitis D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm

You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion? A. Fractures of the lower extremities B. Chest injury C. Abdominal injuries D. Neck injury

You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental to your patient. Which of the following should you do? A. Call a different hospital for orders. B. Carry out the order but document that you disagreed with it. C. Contact your supervisor for advice. D. Politely question the physician.

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are cervical spine precautions necessary? A. The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps. B. The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water. C. The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine. D. The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water.

You respond to a 48yearold female having a syncopal episode in the bathroom. You find the patient sitting on the commode vomiting into the trash can. The vomitus appears to look like coffee grounds and has a foul smell. The patient is pale and has been weak for the past few days. She has: A. peritonitis. B. abdominal aortic aneurysm. C. hernia. D. GI bleeding.

You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT? A. Legal B. Medical C. Financial D. Ethical

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 38-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. Which is the best treatment for the patient? A. Have the patient sip water slowly to replace what he has lost. B. Cool the patient with tepid water. C. Have the patient drink at least 1 liter of water to replace what he has lost. D. Apply high-concentration oxygen and rapidly transport to the nearest medical facility.

You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute. The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is 118/72 and pulse is 110. The patient's mother states she is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine auto-injector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Which of the following is the best treatment plan? A. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. B. Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom. C. Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine auto-injector. D. Monitor the patient for shock and transport.

You suspect that a 6-year-old female patient with multiple bruises and a broken wrist was abused. The stepmother states the patient fell down the stairs. The patient is crying and sheepishly nods in agreement with the stepmother's statements. How should you document this situation in the patient report? A. Document only the actual exam findings. Do not document anything that was said. B. Document what was said as well as your opinion that the child was too afraid to tell the truth. C. Document who you suspect caused the injuries in the narrative so law enforcement has a record of the incident. D. Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and child exactly in quotations.

Your partner is assessing a 55-year-old man who was found sitting on the tailgate of his truck after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. You should FIRST: A. lay the patient down in the truck bed. B. instruct the patient to stand up. C. assist the patient to the stretcher. D. manually immobilize the cervical spine.

Your patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least every: A. 10 minutes. B. 5 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. 15 minutes.

Your patient is a 34yearold male complaining of pain "in his right side." He is pale and diaphoretic with a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/80 mmHg. The patient is very agitated and anxious. Which approach is most appropriate? A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. Try to determine the cause of his pain. C. Tell the patient that you cannot transport him unless he calms down and lies still. D. Reassure him that you will make him as comfortable as possible and get him to the hospital for additional care.

Your patient is a 44-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She has been walking around at an outdoor fair on a hot, sunny day. She is disoriented to time; has hot, dry skin; and appears to be generally weak. Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of treatment for this patient? A. Get as much ice as possible from the food vendors at the fair, place the patient in a large container of ice, and apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, have the patient sip a sports drink or electrolyte solution, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin. C. Have the patient drink an electrolyte solution or sports drink and apply cold packs to her neck, armpits, and groin. D. Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin.

Your patient is a 11-month-old male who began choking while his babysitter was feeding him some sliced peaches. The child has retractions of his intercostal muscles, is drowsy, and is grayish in color. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient? A. Blow-by oxygen at 10 to 15 liters per minute B. Abdominal thrusts C. Use of a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD) D. Back slaps and chest thrusts

D Back slaps and chest thrusts

The anterior fontanelle should be closed between the ages of ________ and ________. A. 24 months; 36 months B. 3 months; 6 months C. 6 months; 10 months D. 12 months; 18 months

D 12 months; 18 months

Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialty rescue team? A. Confined space B. Water rescue C. High angle rescue D. Advanced cardiac life support

D Advanced cardiac life support

Careful assessment and ongoing evaluation of the pediatric patient is critical for which of the following reasons? A. A sick or injured child who initially appeared stable can deteriorate very rapidly. B. Childhood injuries and illnesses as a result of abuse or neglect may be missed if the EMT is not thorough. C. Signs of significant illness and injury may be subtle and easily overlooked. D. All of the above

D All of the above

Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT? A. On sunny days B. At night C. On cloudy days D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following human factors can lead to an increased risk of injury for an EMT at the scene of a vehicle collision? A. Physical problems that impede strenuous effort B. Careless attitude toward personal safety C. Lack of proficiency in the use of rescue tools D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following is a classic characteristic of a child abuser? A. Parent who spends majority of time with child B. Parent who is experiencing financial or marital stress Your answer is not correct.C. Parent who was abused as child D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision? A. The EMT can better access the patients. B. It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible. C. It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient. D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident? A. Spectators may interfere with rescue efforts. B. It ensures respect for the patient's privacy. C. Spectators may get injured. D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following is an indication of shock in an infant or small child? A. Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds B. Absence of tears when crying C. Not producing wet diapers D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following should be considered by the EMT as a result of the proportionally larger size of a small child's head? A. Differences in positioning to maintain an open airway B. Adaptations in positioning for cervical spine immobilization C. Different injury patterns than in adults D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following should increase your suspicion of child abuse? A. Improperly healed fractures, resulting in deformity of extremities B. Indications of alcohol and/or drug abuse in the home C. Bruises on the back and/or buttocks in various stages of healing D. All of the above

D All of the above

Your patient is an infant being treated for bronchopulmonary dysplasia. He is being weaned off his respirator by a process called intermittent mandatory ventilation. When you arrive, you find the infant obviously hypoxic and sick-looking. Which of the following treatments is indicated? A. Oxygen administration B. Prompt transport to a neonatal center C. Ventilator support D. All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following is true regarding the EMT's approach to the pediatric patient? A. It is not necessary to use Standard Precautions when dealing with pediatric patients. B. Scene safety is not an important consideration in the care of pediatric patients. C. It is not possible to develop an initial impression of the pediatric patient without a detailed physical examination. D. An EMT does not have to attempt to obtain a blood pressure on patients younger than 3 years old.

D An EMT does not have to attempt to obtain a blood pressure on patients younger than 3 years old.

Which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass? A. Mobile radio B. Leaking coolant C. Battery D. Catalytic converter

D Catalytic converter

Which of the following is NOT a cause of altered mental status in the pediatric patient? A. Infection B. Traumatic brain injury C. Diabetes D. Dementia

D Dementia

If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the air bag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A. Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the air bag from the patient should it deploy. B. Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the air bag before displacing the steering wheel. C. No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy air bags. D. Disconnect the battery cables.

D Disconnect the battery cables.

Your patient has a tracheostomy and is on a ventilator. He presents in acute respiratory distress. You assess his trach tube and it appears clear, but there is something wrong with the ventilator. You do not notice any loose fittings or disconnected tubes. The airway is clear and he is sitting upright. What is your next step? A. Try to further troubleshoot the ventilator. B. Connect your oxygen tank directly to the tracheostomy tube. Your answer is not correct.C. Call the manufacturer's service hotline. D. Disconnect the patient and ventilate him with a bag-valve device.

D Disconnect the patient and ventilate him with a bag-valve device.

Which of the following is NOT likely to be a cause of respiratory distress in a 2-year-old child? A. Foreign body airway obstruction B. Epiglottitis C. A cold D. Emphysema

D Emphysema

Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication? A. Shield of a Firefighter's helmet B. Prescription eyeglasses C. Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions D. Face conforming goggles

D Face conforming goggles

You are assessing a 2-year-old child whose mother states she has had a fever for several hours. Which of the following signs is cause for concern? A. Crying B. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute C. Absence of nasal flaring with inhalation D. Grunting at the end of expiration

D Grunting at the end of expiration

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of shock in infants and children? A. Dehydration B. Infection C. Blood loss D. Heart failure

D Heart failure

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation? A. Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms B. Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves C. Double-thickness latex gloves D. Leather gloves

D Leather gloves

Pop-off valves should be functional when ventilating the pediatric patient: A. to avoid barotrauma to the lungs. B. to avoid causing a pneumothorax. Your answer is not correct.C. to avoid overinflation of the lungs. D. None of the above

D None of the above

Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication? A. Sheet B. Disposable blanket C. Placing your body over the top of the patient D. None of the above

D None of the above

Which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three phrases? A. Recognizing and managing hazards B. Sizing up the situation C. Gaining access to the patient D. Preparing for the rescue

D Preparing for the rescue

Your patient is a 2-year-old female who has suffered a seizure but does not have a previous history of seizures. The patient's father states that the child has been pulling at her ear and has had a fever. They were getting ready to leave for a doctor's appointment when the child had a brief seizure. The patient is drowsy and has hot, flushed skin. Which of the following is recommended in the prehospital management of this patient? A. Cover the child with a towel soaked in ice water. B. Sponge the child's back and arms with rubbing alcohol. C. Place ice packs in the armpits, groin, and around the head. D. Remove the child's clothing down to her underpants or diaper.

D Remove the child's clothing down to her underpants or diaper.

You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process? A. Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes B. Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass C. Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges D. Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient

D Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient

Which of the following is characteristic of preschool-age children? A. They have few fears of anything. B. They do not mind being separated from their parents. C. They are not especially embarrassed or modest about body exposure. D. They may believe their injury is a punishment for being bad.

D They may believe their injury is a punishment for being bad.

Which of the following is LEAST common in a pedestrian child versus car incident? A. Abdominal injuries Your answer is not correct.B. Head injuries C. Spinal injuries D. Upper-extremity injuries

D Upper-extremity injuries

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern? A. Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport B. Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal C. Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines D. Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene

D Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene

You have been called for a 2-year-old female who has fallen and is bleeding from a head laceration. Her mother states that she was running down the hallway when she fell, striking her head on a side table. You suspect that part of the reason she fell is that: A. her head is proportionately larger and heavier than an adult's. B. she has low blood sugar, making her unstable. C. she is still new to walking and may be unstable on her feet. D. both A and C are contributing factors.

D both A and C are contributing factors.

When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned: A. to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress. B. across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic. C. in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate. D. in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.

D in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.

You are called to a home where a family has been enjoying a Labor Day picnic and swim party. A 2-year-boy slipped to the bottom of the pool unnoticed. By the time you arrive, the child has been removed from the water and family members are administering CPR. You assess the child and note that he has a weak pulse and is trying to breathe on his own. You initiate transport and continue providing positive pressure ventilations. You are also very concerned about: A. how the parents are handling the situation. B. the safety of the other children at the party. C. the last time the child ate something. D. the child being hypothermic.

D the child being hypothermic.

Which of the following is a trade name for activated charcoal? A. Actifed B. Mesquite C. Charcoal D. Actidose This is the correct answer.

D. Actidose

You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the BEST option for the EMT? A. Do not administer the Epi-PenSuperscript ® under any circumstances. B. Transport rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital. C. Immediately administer the patient's Epi-PenSuperscript ® . D. Administer the Epi-PenSuperscript ® only on the advice of medical control. This is the correct answer.

D. Administer the Epi-PenSuperscript ® only on the advice of medical control

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in mild respiratory distress. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first? A. Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector. B. Perform rapid extrication. C. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts. D. Administer high-concentration oxygen. This is the correct answer.

D. Administer high-concentration oxygen.

When a poison attaches to the chemical structure of activated charcoal, which of the following BEST describes this mechanism of action? A. Inactivation B. Absorption C. Incorporation D. Adsorption

D. Adsorption

Carbon monoxide poisoning should be suspected when a patient has been in an enclosed area and has which of the following signs and/or symptoms? A. Flu-like symptoms B. Vomiting and altered mental status C. Headache, dizziness, and nausea D. All of the above This is the correct answer.

D. All of the above

When documenting the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, which of the following should be included? A. Time the medication was administered B. Patient's response to the medication C. Site of medication administration D. All of the above This is the correct answer.

D. All of the above

Which of the following effects may occur due to chronic abuse of alcohol? A. Abnormal blood sugar levels B. Poor nutrition C. Potential for gastrointestinal bleeding D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of withdrawal from alcohol? A. Seizures B. Sweating C. Hallucinations D. All of the above This is the correct answer.

D. All of the above

Your patient is a 50-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She is found unresponsive in bed by her son. Which of the following possibilities should you keep in mind during your assessment? A. Heart attack B. Head injury C. Low blood sugar D. All of the above This is the correct answer.

D. All of the above

A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition? A. Dyspnea B. Mild allergy C. Shock D. Anaphylaxis This is the correct answer.

D. Anaphylaxis

Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has been exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following measures should be taken by the EMT? A. Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with a solution of baking soda and water. B. Wipe the powder away with a damp cloth. C. Flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water. D. Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water. This is the correct answer.

D. Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.

Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis? A. Sulfa drugs B. Peanuts C. Wasp stings D. Cat dander This is the correct answer.

D. Cat dander

Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is an example of which of the following types of drugs? A. Volatile spirit B. Stimulant C. Cannabis D. Depressant This is the correct answer.

D. Depressant

Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction? A. Constriction B. No change C. Spasm D. Dilation This is the correct answer.

D. Dilation

You are called to the scene of a local night club for a 21-year-old female patient who is bradycardic and in respiratory arrest. The patient's airway is patent and the chest easily rises with bag-valve-mask ventilation. The patient's friends state the patient had only one or two drinks when she suddenly complained of dizziness and "seeing things." Her friends state that she then passed out, started twitching like she was seizing, and then stopped. Her friends adamantly state that she does not do drugs. What situation do you suspect? A. Cocaine overdose B. Anaphylactic reaction to the alcoholic drink C. Alcohol overdose D. GHB overdose This is the correct answer.

D. GHB overdose

You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first action? A. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask. B. Administer epinephrine with medical control consent. C. Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis. D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. This is the correct answer.

D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.

Your patient is a 7-year-old girl who was prescribed an antibiotic for an ear infection. After 4 days on the antibiotic, the patient is experiencing hives and itching on her face, throat, and neck. Which of the following should you do? A. Advise the parents that these symptoms are related to the ear infection and the antibiotic will take care of these symptoms if taken as directed. B. Immediately administer Epi-Pen Jr.Superscript ® C. Advise the parents to call the pediatrician for a different antibiotic. D. Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital. This is the correct answer.

D. Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital.

You respond to a local swim park for a 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and "passed out." Upon arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best action? A. Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy. B. Hyperventilate the patient. C. Request an ALS unit. D. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine. This is the correct answer.

D. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.

You are treating a 61-year-old who is a chronic alcohol abuser. He is complaining of "snakes slithering around his ankles," and he tells you that he had only two drinks tonight. You notice that he is sweating, trembling, and anxious. Before you can complete your assessment, he begins to have a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation? A. The patient drank mouthwash instead of beverage alcohol. B. The patient could not find an alcoholic beverage and drank antifreeze instead. C. The patient is suffering from acute alcohol poisoning. D. The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal. This is the correct answer.

D. The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal.

Which of the following would LEAST likely indicate that an emergency is due to drugs or alcohol? A. Hospital discharge order with a pain prescription B. Open sores and scars to the upper arms C. Empty liquor bottles at the scene D. Unresponsive patient with unequal pupils This is the correct answer.

D. Unresponsive patient with unequal pupils

Your patient is an 18-year-old male who fell into a neighbor's swimming pool but was pulled out by bystanders. The neighbors report that the patient wandered into their yard and that he said he had a "funny numb feeling" in his head and his chest hurt before stumbling into the pool. As you are performing CPR, you notice that the mucous membranes in his mouth and nose are swollen. Which of the following would account for the patient's behavior and current condition? A. Methamphetamine B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. GHB D. Volatile chemicals This is the correct answer.

D. Volatile chemicals

Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. Which of the following questions is LEAST pertinent to the care of this patient? A. Has anyone tried to treat you with anything? B. How much do you weigh? C. Over what period of time did you take the pills? D. Who do these sleeping pills belong to?

D. Who do these sleeping pills belong to?

A patient has a dry powder poison covering both upper extremities and chest. You should: A. flush the area with large amounts of water and then brush the remaining poison off. B. immediately wash the powder off to prevent further exposure. C. cover the patient's arms with a burn sheet to preserve the powder for the emergency room. D. brush the powder off and irrigate the contaminated area with large amounts of water. This is the correct answer.

D. brush the powder off and irrigate the contaminated area with large amounts of water.

When a chemical substance is taken for reasons other than therapeutic use, this action is called: A. addiction. B. tolerance. C. psychological dependence. D. substance abuse.

D. substance abuse.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis? A. "I can't remember what happened." B. "I am having severe muscle pains." C. "My legs are numb and I can't move them." D. "My throat feels like it is closing." This is the correct answer.

D. "My throat feels like it is closing."

Which of the following is a trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector? A. AnajectorSuperscript ® B. AllerPenSuperscript ® C. AutodrenalinSuperscript ® D. Epi-PenSuperscript ® This is the correct answer.

D. Epi-PenSuperscript ®

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct? Select one: A. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device. B. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique. C. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. D. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.

D. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.

In which of the following situations should the mother be transported immediately? A. The infant's arm is the presenting part. B. The mother experiences a severe, tearing sensation in her abdomen during labor and the outline of the fetus can be felt through the abdominal wall. C. Delivery is not imminent and there is about 500 cc of painless, bright red bleeding. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors? A. Shielding from the source B. Duration of exposure C. Distance from the source D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following conditions should be present before the umbilical cord is cut? A. The infant is breathing on his or her own. B. The cord is clamped in two places. C. The cord is no longer pulsating. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies? A. Soft-tissue trauma to the external genitalia B. Disorders of the female reproductive organs C. Sexual assault D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident? A. Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices B. Crime scene considerations C. Presence of mass casualties D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan? A. It is specific to the geographical location. B. It has been practiced in mock disasters. C. It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials incident? A. Performing medical assessment of rescue crews B. Providing for hydration of rescue crews C. Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is true of premature infants? A. They are more susceptible to infection. B. They can easily develop hypothermia. C. They are at risk for respiratory difficulty. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence? A. Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event B. Number of people present C. Function of the target D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following may result from a woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lying in a supine position? A. Fetal compromise B. Compression of the inferior vena cava C. Supine hypotensive syndrome D. All of the above

D. All of the above

You are called for a women who is about to deliver. During the labor process, your patient's water breaks. She experiences a rush of warm water and an increase in uterine contractions. The purpose of the amniotic fluid is to: A. provide lubrication during the delivery of the baby. B. help maintain a constant fetal body temperature. C. allow the fetus to float during development. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication? A. Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility. B. Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries. C. Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries. D. Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility

D. Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility

________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. A. EPA B. OSHA C. HAZMART D. CHEMTREC

D. CHEMTREC

In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A. Ground zero B. Warm zone C. Hot zone D. Cold zone

D. Cold zone

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material? A. Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container B. Checking the material safety data sheet C. Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a rural mountain highway. You have a patient who was unconscious on arrival, had a seizure, and is currently awake but combative. You suspect he may have a head injury. What is considered the BEST approach regarding transport of this patient? A. Begin transport to the trauma center on the ground, which is 1.5 hours' driving time. B. Transport to a local community hospital approximately 15 minutes away via ground. C. Dispatch the medical helicopter to meet your unit at the community hospital. D. Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.

D. Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material? A. Wearing heavy cloth gloves B. Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination C. Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water D. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards

D. Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards

Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she uses her knowledge of hazardous materials to support the activities of other responders and manage the scene. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness B. First Responder Operations C. Hazardous Materials Technician D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

Which of the following questions is MOST helpful in distinguishing between normal age-related changes and the effects of an illness when assessing an elderly patient? A. When was the last time you had a bowel movement? B. Are you taking your medications the way you are supposed to be taking them? C. How is your appetite? D. How do you feel today compared to last week?

D. How do you feel today compared to last week?

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks? A. Shielding from the agent B. Distance from event C. Duration of exposure D. Immunization

D. Immunization

What is the BEST option an EMT has when encountering poor BVM compliance when attempting to ventilate a patient? A. Address ventilation en route to the hospital or ALS intercept. B. Begin chest compressions. C. Place the patient on supplemental oxygen. D. Involve two people in the procedure.

D. Involve two people in the procedure.

Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials incident? A. It is protected from weather elements. B. It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews. C. It allows for rapid re-entry to the emergency operation. D. It is located in the warm zone.

D. It is located in the warm zone.

You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3, 4, 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient? A. The nearest community facility B. Level I Trauma Center C. Nowhere, since the patient is an adult and refusing; as such, you cannot take him D. Level II Trauma Center

D. Level II Trauma Center

An elderly patient you are transporting to the hospital complains of feeling faint and abdominal pain. The patient states a recent history of "tarry stool". Which of the following conditions is most likely? A. Constipation B. Myocardial infarction C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm D. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding

D. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding

Supine hypotensive syndrome is easily prevented by transporting the pregnant female into which of the following positions? A. On her hands and knees with her hips elevated B. Tilted slightly onto the right side C. Supine, with the head lower than the hips D. Lying on her left side

D. Lying on her left side

Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence, you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings would provide you with immediate information about the patient's condition? A. Baseline vital signs B. Temperature in the house C. Medication list D. Mental status

D. Mental status

Which of the following methods of decontamination is NOT usually a prehospital activity during a terrorism incident? A. Isolation B. Dilution C. Absorption D. Neutralization

D. Neutralization

Which of the following statements is believed to be true regarding domestic elder abuse? A. The elders are usually in good health. B. There is seldom a family history of elder abuse. C. The abusers are usually well-adjusted. D. None of the above.

D. None of the above.

Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? A. DOT and FCC B. NHTSA and NRC C. NAEMT and NHTSA D. OSHA and EPA

D. OSHA and EPA

Concerning aging, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Some elderly people have a low threshold for pain. B. The systolic blood pressure tends to increase with age. C. Many elderly patients have a high threshold for pain. D. Older people are less likely to use EMS compared to younger people.

D. Older people are less likely to use EMS compared to younger people.

Which of the following BEST defines domestic terrorism? A. Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States B. Interpersonal violence between family members C. Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country D. Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence

D. Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence

Your patient is a 26-year-old female with a history of ectopic pregnancies. She has called 911 for extreme abdominal pain and she is concerned that she has another ectopic pregnancy. Her vital signs are pulse 118, respirations 20, and blood pressure 100/76. Which of the following is true regarding ectopic pregnancies? A. The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus. B. It may cause painless bright red bleeding. C. It usually occurs during the second trimester. D. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.

D. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.

Which of the following is true concerning prehospital delivery of twins? A. The umbilical cord of the first infant must not be cut until the second infant is born. B. This is a true emergency and cannot be managed outside the hospital setting without additional help. Your answer is not correct. C. There are always two placentas. D. The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and need attention in keeping them warm.

D. The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and need attention in keeping them warm.

Who is the person that is in charge of tracking the patient's final destination? A. Staging officer B. Incident Commander C. Treatment officer D. Transportation officer

D. Transportation officer

While treating a pregnant trauma patient, which of the following is the BEST way to keep the fetus alive? A. Transport the patient to the closest pediatric center. B. Do an emergency cesarean section of the fetus. C. Do not put the patient on a spine board to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome. D. Treat the patient as any other trauma patient.

D. Treat the patient as any other trauma patient.

When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following? A. Keeping a log of all patients transported B. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance C. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient D. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

D. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A. To prevent hypotension, an EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation. B. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. C. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. D. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.

D. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.

While assessing the mental status of an elderly patient who has been retired for several years, you notice he has difficulty answering your questions. He seems depressed. Based on this information, you should: A. consider the need for advanced provider care. B. suspect a life-threatening neurological event. C. consider his mental status as being decreased. D. acknowledge the patients fears and try to put them in perspective.

D. acknowledge the patients fears and try to put them in perspective.

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: Select one: A. mandibular fractures. B. copious oral secretions. C. upper airway swelling. D. cervical spine injuries.

D. cervical spine injuries.

The use of a made-up experience to replace lost memories with imaginary ones is called: A. hysteria. B. denial. C. confusion. D. confabulation.

D. confabulation.

Your pregnant patient is in active labor. You note that her contractions are getting closer together and much stronger as the baby moves deeper into the birth canal. The muscle contraction mechanism that moves the baby toward birth is the same mechanism that moves: A. fluid into and out of the cell. B. air down the bronchial tubes to the alveoli. C. sweat to the surface of the skin. D. food from the esophagus to the stomach.

D. food from the esophagus to the stomach.

Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called: A. indicators. B. warnings. C. panels. D. placards.

D. placards.

When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called: A. single incident command. B. NIMS. C. ICS. D. unified command.

D. unified command.

A respiratory rate of less than ________ and greater than ________ in cases of trauma are criteria for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines. A. 8; 32 B. 12; 20 C. 5; 45 D. 10; 29

D. 10; 29

An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing. A. 16.5% B. 10.5% C. 25.5% D. 19.5%

D. 19.5%

You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A. the timing of the event. B. the type of event. C. the location of the call. D. on-scene warning signs.

D. on-scene warning signs.

Expert clinicians may use different approaches of thinking through problems, but which of the following will they have in common? A. Organization of data in their head B. Knowledge that one strategy works for everyone C. Dislike of ambiguity D. Strong foundation of knowledge

Which one of the following statements is incorrect concerning a knee injury?

Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.

Which of the following is NOT a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT?

Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation?

High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.

D Three

How many times a week do the majority of American hemodialysis patients receive treatment? A. One B. Seven C. Five D. Three

B A lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation

How would you define anemia? A. The loss of the kidneys' ability to filter the blood and remove toxins and excess fluid from the body B. A lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation C. The process by which toxins and excess fluid are removed from the body by a medical system independent of the kidneys D. An inherited disease in which a genetic defect in the hemoglobin results in abnormal structure of the red blood cells

If a patient complains of abdominal pain localized to a specific area of the abdomen, which of the following techniques should be used to assess the abdomen? A. Palpate the painful area last. B. Do not palpate the painful area. C. Palpate the painful area first. D. Palpate the area at the beginning and end of the exam.

In the assessment of a responsive medical patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important information? A. Detailed physical exam B. Patient's medical history C. Focused physical exam D. Baseline vital signs

Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms?

Indirect force

It is important that, as an EMS provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional asphyxia? A. Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser. B. Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him. C. Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus. D. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic wrap?

It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia?

Its onset is more gradual.

Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350 mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute volume? A. 378 mL B. 9,800 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 342 mL

Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin?

Manually maintain pressure.

Which statement below is NOT true about seizures?

Many seizures are followed by an aura.

Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you do?

Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

A aspirin

One of the most effective and widely available drugs to prevent the aggregation of platelets is: A. aspirin. B. hemoglobin. C. plasma. D. anemia.

For the reticular activating system (RAS) to work correctly, what three substances are needed?

Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

C Peritonitis

Patients who dialyze at home are at high risk for what type of infection? A. Fistula infection B. Cellulitis C. Peritonitis D. Decubitus ulcers

C Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion

Patients with a history of chronic sickle cell anemia (SCA) may present with which of the following signs and symptoms? A. Bluish discoloration of the skin and shortness of breath B. Flushed appearance and shortness of breath C. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion D. Pale appearance and bradypnea on exertion

Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, heart rate of 112 beats per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient?

Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

You find a middle-aged male is sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should:

Place your gloved hand over the wound.

A supportive care.

Prehospital management of all the urinary system problems of the kidney transplant patient by the EMT can be characterized by: A. supportive care. B. varied pharmacological interventions. C. intensive lab testing. D. very invasive techniques.

Your patient is an unresponsive 30-year-old male wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do next?

Protect the patient's airway, administer oxygen, and consider assessing the patient's blood glucose per local protocol.

Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of intervention for this patient?

Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following?

Stroke

Which of the items below is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

Test for equal grip strength.

The ambulance is called for an assaulted patient. While transporting the patient to the hospital, the EMT notes the patient's jugular veins are flat (nondistended). Which of these is most likely the cause of this finding? A. Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac B. Closed head injury C. Blood loss D. High blood pressure

The possibility of a pneumothorax

The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: A. physiology. B. anatomy. C. psychology. D. pathophysiology.

The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to occur? A. Breathe slower and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become pale B. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale C. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become warm D. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and slower, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale

You are stabilizing a patient who has just been stabbed in the chest to the right of the mediastinum. After placing the patient on supplemental oxygen, his shortness of breath resolves. You also cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. The patient is asymptomatic at the time you're making the decision to transport. Which of the following BEST encapsulates the correct strategy for transport?

Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury.

What is FiO2? A. The concentration of gases in our expired air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygen B. The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygen C. The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minute D. The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula

What is a patent airway? A. A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure the airway B. A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway necessary for life C. An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway D. The condition of the patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention

What is a surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a plastic bag in place to collect digestive waste? A. Colostomy B. Gastric bypass C. Thoracotomy D. Fistula

B. Malar

What is another name for the zygomatic bone? A. Maxillae B. Malar C. Temporal D. Mandible

B A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

What is continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis? A. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is lowered below the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and raised above the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out B. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out C. A type of dialysis that is performed while walking D. A mechanical process for peritoneal dialysis in which a machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity of dialysis solution

D. 14

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts? A. 12 B. 13 C. 15 D. 14

What is the best description of the chest's mechanical functions? A. With the chest being an airtight space, the act of breathing occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm and intercostal relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs. B. The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air. C. The diaphragm contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also contract, which moves the air into the lungs. D. The chest is a closed space, and the pleural space surrounds the lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals expand, the chest and lungs move outward and downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.

What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask? A. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. B. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%. C. Look for chest rise and fall. D. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%.

What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs? A. Nose, hyperpharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli B. Nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C. Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli D. Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli

What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath? A. Dissolved mucus in the airways B. Decreased heart rate C. Increased contraction of the diaphragm D. Relaxation of the bronchioles

What is the sound or feel of broken bones rubbing against each other called? A. Decapitation B. Crepitation C. Emesis D. Osteomyelitis

What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes? A. Tracheostomy B. Cricothyrotomy C. Laryngectomy D. Stoma

What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? A. ATP B. Ions C. Electrolytes D. Cations

When a patient describes how he feels, he is telling you which of the following? A. His symptoms B. His diagnosis C. His signs D. His syndrome

C. vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure.

When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of: A. the negative pressure in the chest. B. damage to the trachea. C. vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure. D. the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck.

When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following? A. Catharsis B. Post-traumatic stress disorder C. Neurosis D. Stress reaction

When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around him, this would be considered which of the following? A. Psychotic episode B. Mental illness C. Behavioral emergency D. Psychosomatic reaction

When a person has an exaggerated response to a body invader, the person is said to have: A. hyposensitivity. B. antibody reaction. C. histamine dump. D. hypersensitivity.

When assessing a patient who has been stabbed, which of the following information should the EMT gain first? A. Size and type of the knife B. Make and model of the knife C. The reason the patient was stabbed D. Owner of the knife

When assessing a 14-year-old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming from his left forearm. This observation is known as which of the following? A. Symptom B. Clue C. Indication D. Sign

When assessing a patient's pertinent past history, you should ask which of the following questions? A. Are you currently taking any medications? B. Have you been having any medical problems? C. Could you describe what happened? D. Have you ever had a reaction to a medication?

When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body. A. hyperemia B. hyperglycemia C. hypercapnia D. hyperthermia

When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack? A. While breathing in B. While breathing out C. While holding his breath D. In between breaths

When the lung collapses without injury or any other cause, it is called which of the following? A. Spontaneous pulmonary embolism B. COPD C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Spontaneous pertussis

When the body's water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial space, it is called: A. hydrostatic. B. dehydration. C. edema. D. hypovolemia.

A. Head

When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last? A. Head B. Arms C. Torso D. Legs

When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock? A. EMT operating the defibrillator B. EMT doing chest compressions C. EMT supervising bystanders D. EMT managing the airway

When using the memory aid OPQRST, which of the following questions would help you find out about P? A. Do you have any past medical history? B. Are you having any pain? C. Does anything make the pain better or worse? D. What is your primary complaint?

When using the memory aid SAMPLE, which of the following would you do to determine L? A. Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?" B. Ask, "When was the last time you took your medicine?" C. Look at the patient's pupils. D. Listen to the patient's lung sounds.

For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members?

When was the last time you had something to eat?

When you hear wheezes while auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause? A. The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed. B. There is mucus in the air passages. C. There is an upper airway obstruction. D. There is fluid in the lungs.

A. EMT at the head of the patient

When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move? A. EMT at the head of the patient B. EMT with the most seniority C. EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient D. EMT with the highest level of training

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless VT? A. Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check B. Shock, shock, shock, shock C. Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again D. Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock

Which of the following describes skepticism about one thing causing another? A. Representativeness B. Confirmation bias C. Availability D. Illusory correlation

D. Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position

Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization? A. Stabilized in position found B. Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance C. The "sniffing" position D. Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position

Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become violent? A. Tense body posture or clenched fists B. Loud voice and rapid pacing C. Profane language D. Crying

Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? A. Diaphragm relaxes B. Intercostal muscles contract C. Chest cavity increases in size D. Diaphragm lowers

Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide? A. Recent emotional trauma B. Sudden improvement in depression C. Alcohol and drug abuse D. All of the above

Which of the following findings would be helpful in differentiating between a closed head injury and a behavioral emergency? A. Combativeness B. Irrational behavior C. Confusion D. Unequal pupils

Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack? A. Albuterol B. Ventolin C. Beclomethasone D. Proventil

C. Concussion

Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury? A. Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments B. Cerebral laceration C. Concussion D. Gunshot wound to the head

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a rapid trauma assessment? A. To assess the extent of injuries B. To provide a basis for care during transport C. To detect injuries that may become life threatening D. To focus care on specific injuries

Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac care? A. CPR B. Administration of epinephrine C. Airway management D. Early defibrillation

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure (CHF)? A. Wet sounding breath sounds B. Increased heart rate C. Low blood pressure D. Productive cough

Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems? A. The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. B. They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate. C. Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler. D. They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.

A. Decreasing blood flow to the brain

Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury? A. Decreasing blood flow to the brain B. Decreasing the patient's blood pressure C. Increasing blood flow to the brain D. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient? A. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth. B. The breath is delivered easily. C. Pulse rate slows down. D. Pulse rate increases.

Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A. Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs. B. Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you." C. Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior. D. Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him.

Which of the following is an indicator that a patient's nervous system has been impaired? A. General weakness B. Changes in pupil dilation C. Hearing disturbances D. All of the above

Which of the following is another term for trauma? A. Illness B. Medical problem C. Injury D. Suffering

Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed patient? A. Establish eye and verbal contact. B. Avoid arguing with the patient. C. Make it clear that you are in control of the situation, not the patient. D. Both A and B

B. Laceration with a skull fracture

Which of the following is classified as an open head injury? A. Contusion without a skull fracture B. Laceration with a skull fracture C. Laceration without a skull fracture D. Both A and B

B. Sensation of the right leg

Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain? A. Movement of both lower extremities B. Sensation of the right leg C. Sensation in the left arm D. Movement of the left arm

Which of the following is false regarding the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained? A. You will be able to compare each set of vital signs with the previous ones to detect trends in the patient's condition. B. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record. C. You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility. D. It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies? A. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body. B. It slows down the heart. C. It constricts the coronary arteries. D. It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract.

C. Torso, legs, head

Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board? A. Head, torso, legs B. Legs, torso, head C. Torso, legs, head D. Head, legs, torso

Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the heart? A. Congestive heart failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Cardiac dysrhythmia D. Cardiac compromise

Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering? A. One spray B. The number of sprays directed by medical control C. Two sprays D. As needed until respiratory status improves

Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs? A. Dyspnea B. Pedal edema C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D. Pulmonary edema

Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries of the heart? A. Coronary artery disease B. Coronary thrombosis C. Arteriosclerosis D. Aneurysm

Which of the following is the EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest pain? A. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack. B. Provide automatic external defibrillation. C. Make an interpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm. D. Determine the cause of the patient's chest pain.

Which of the following is true concerning expiration? A. The diaphragm moves upward. B. The ribs move upward and outward. C. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. D. The chest cavity increases in size.

C. Hyperextension of the neck

Which of the following may result from the application of a cervical collar that is too large for the patient? A. Excessive lateral movement of the mandible B. Rotation of the head and neck C. Hyperextension of the neck D. Hyperflexion of the neck

Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate breathing? A. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm B. Patient with agonal respirations C. Patient with cyanosis D. Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator? A. Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the patient's knees B. The EMT performing bag-valve-mask ventilations C. The provider who is ventilating the patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so the provider does not directly touch the patient D. None of the above

D. Rigid cervical collars

Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries? A. 2double prime′′ times ×4double prime′′ wood cribbing B. Soft cervical collars C. Five-pound sand bags D. Rigid cervical collars

Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 8 breaths/min B. 16 breaths/min C. 20 breaths/min D. 12 breaths/min

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child? A. 16 breaths/min B. 32 breaths/min C. 28 breaths/min D. 40 breaths/min

Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation? A. Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact B. Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact C. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia D. Performing CPR while the AED is being attached

Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A. Your actions B. Description of the patient's behavior C. Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill D. Your observations of the patient's surroundings at the scene

Which of the following should always be done next for a behavioral patient once you have established scene safety? A. Conduct a primary assessment B. Restrain the patient C. Obtain baseline vital signs D. Assess the patient's blood glucose

Which of the following should the EMT keep in mind when evaluating a patient for a possible behavioral emergency? A. The EMT must determine the cause of the behavior before making a transport decision B. The behavior should be evaluated outside of the situation at hand C. The behavior should be evaluated based on the situation at hand D. Uncommon emotional reactions should always be considered a behavioral emergency

A. Low blood pressure

Which of the following signs is LEAST likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury? A. Low blood pressure B. Irrational behavior C. Irregular breathing pattern D. Vomiting

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? A. Nasal flaring B. Grunting respirations C. See-sawing of the chest and abdomen D. All of the above

Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her wishes? A. The patient's personal physician gives you permission. B. The patient is a threat to himself or others. C. A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient. D. The patient's insurance company agrees to pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

Which of the following situations is most likely to result in hidden or unsuspected injury? A. Collisions that occur at night B. Deformity of the interior compartment of the vehicle C. A vehicle without air bags D. Seat belt use by the vehicle occupants

B. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.

Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true? A. It is a bruising of the brain tissue. B. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury. C. It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness. D. All of the above

Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true? A. The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization. B. A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. C. Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. D. It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true? A. This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. B. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement. C. It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. D. It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.

Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT true? A. Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles. B. Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion. C. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole. D. Heart attacks present differently among women and men.

Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true? A. They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die. B. They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide. C. They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious. D. They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is truly depressed.

Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control? A. Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control. B. Medical reasons, infections, trauma, toxins, and drugs, along with neurologic disorders, can interrupt this control. C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control. D. A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is true? A. It is generally relieved by over-the-counter medications. B. It results in death of a smaller portion of myocardium than does a heart attack. C. It can be brought on by exertion or stress. D. It generally lasts 30 to 60 minutes.

Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is NOT true? A. Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others. B. It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. C. Differences in culture may initially appear to be abnormal behaviors to the EMT. D. Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true? A. It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect. B. If a patient's pulse rate changes following nitroglycerin administration, it indicates an allergic reaction. C. An increase in blood pressure should be expected. D. The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

Which of the following traumatic conditions may account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral emergency? A. 10% BSA partial thickness burn B. Internal hemorrhage C. Fractured lumbar vertebra D. Fractured tibia

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A. In any given year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder. B. It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency. C. Just over 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues. D. Almost 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression.

A Removal of carbon monoxide from the cells

Which one of the listed items below is NOT a function of the blood? A. Removal of carbon monoxide from the cells B. Delivery of oxygen to the cells C. Control of bleeding by clotting D. Removal and delivery of other waste products to organs that provide filtration and removal, such as the kidneys and liver

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? A. The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. B. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed. C. The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. D. The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.

While assessing the past medical history of a 68-year-old male patient involved in a fall from a 4-foot stepladder, you use the acronym SAMPLE. What does the A refer to? A. Allergies B. Acuity C. Assessment D. Amputations

While performing a detailed physical exam on a patient involved in a fall from 30 feet, the patient (who had previously been responding to your questions) stops responding. What should you do next? A. Call medical control for orders. B. Continue the detailed physical assessment. C. Start CPR. D. Repeat the primary assessment.

Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric emergency? A. It will alert you to past issues as well as medication. B. It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it. C. It will help you to determine if the police are needed. D. It will help you to determine if you need to restrain the patient.

C Damage to the fistula may occur.

Why might you consider contacting medical direction before applying a tourniquet in the case of uncontrollable bleeding from an AV fistula? A. The patient may be in danger of losing the limb. B. Hemodialysis anticoagulants may make bleeding more severe. C. Damage to the fistula may occur. D. Medical direction should be contacted before any use of tourniquets by the EMT

You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his concerns? A. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation. B. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias. C. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring. D. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.

You and your EMT partner respond to a local shipping warehouse for a worker who was hit by a falling crate. Upon arrival, you find the man lying on the concrete floor of the facility, alert and oriented but unable to move or even feel his legs below the waist. Based on the mechanism of injury and the symptoms, which of the patient's body systems would you suspect has been impaired? A. Endocrine system B. Cardiopulmonary system C. Nervous system D. Immune system

You and your partner respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is a known diabetic patient. The patient is pacing and cursing as you approach. You should: A. request assistance from law enforcement personnel. B. immediately restrain the patient. C. approach the patient and firmly order him to sit with his hands in his lap. D. obtain a blood glucose level right away.

You are alone in the back of the ambulance, where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the reassessment? A. Stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment. B. Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment. C. Stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment. D. Have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment.

You are assessing a patient that has been involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask him? A. Have you been in a crash before? B. How much fuel is in your car? C. Why were you in such a hurry? D. How fast was the vehicle going?

You are assessing a 21-year-old female who was assaulted by an unknown person. She is complaining of abdominal pain. As you perform a rapid assessment of her abdomen, you should check for all of the following except: A. distention. B. bowel sounds. C. contusions. D. firmness.

You are assessing a 76-year-old male patient that has been involved in a fall from a standing position. You have completed the scene size-up and primary assessment. What should you do next? A. Secondary assessment B. Reassessment C. Focused history assessment D. Ongoing assessment

B Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED.

You are attending to an end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patient who has missed dialysis. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A. You should delay transport if necessary to wait for ALS. B. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED. C. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless respond very well to the use of an AED. D. Calling for ALS would not be very helpful since they cannot really do anything that an EMT cannot do in these situations.

D. nontraumatic brain injury.

You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn't come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don't see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n): A. open head injury. B. closed head injury. C. insecticide poisoning. D. nontraumatic brain injury.

You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. What should you do next? A. Take a manual blood pressure. B. Call immediately for ALS response. C. Continue with vital sign assessment. D. Begin transport immediately.

You are called for a patient who reports a headache for several days. He tells you that he has started a new blood pressure medication and is finishing an antibiotic for a skin infection. During your history taking, you should: A. get your patient to repeat his chief complaint. B. write down the pertinent facts. C. suggest that he take some aspirin. D. suspect an allergic reaction.

You are called for a patient who was discovered unconscious in his bed this morning. You immediately complete a primary assessment and determine that he is breathing and has a good pulse. What should you do next? A. Begin transport immediately. B. Try to locate all of his medications. C. Complete a rapid physical exam. D. Ask the family what happened.

D. Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5

You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate? A. Open head injury B. Damage to his thoracic spine C. Closed head injury D. Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5

You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your reassessment, you notice that the patient's respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You should: A. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute. B. assist the patient's breathing with a bag-valve mask. C. call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler. D. increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute.

You are called for a 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital signs, you should: A. write down the patient's vital signs. B. move the patient to the ambulance for transport. C. assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication. D. begin your reassessment.

You are called to a kindergarten class where a boy has fallen while climbing on playground equipment. The teacher saw him fall and hit his stomach on a step. He is sobbing and holding his abdomen. As you assess him, you find his skin cool and clammy, his pulse is 132, respiratory is 28. Why is the boy acting this way? A. He possibly has wet his pants and does not want anyone to know. B. He is embarrassed and is afraid that the other students will make fun of him. C. He is really upset and wants his mother. D. He possibly has internal injuries and is in shock.

You are called to the scene of an attempted suicide. You arrive to find a 25-year-old man sitting on the sofa who apparently cut his wrists. Family members have bandaged them, and there does not appear to be any bleeding risk at this time. The scene is secure. Which action would you NOT take in treating this patient? A. Contact the receiving hospital and report on current mental status and other essential information. B. Make sure you take charge of the situation. Let the patient know that what he has done is wrong. Tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not. Do not worry about gaining the patient's confidence. Take charge. The patient must know that you are the boss. C. As soon as possible, perform a history and physical exam and provide emergency care on the wrist, if necessary. D. Perform a detailed physical exam only if it is safe and you suspect the patient may have an injury.

You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 100.6°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you suspect? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. COPD D. Silent myocardial infarction

You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his stomach, is having respiratory distress, and is wheezing. After you administer oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to assist with administration of his Epi-Pen®. You will monitor the success of your interventions during the: A. secondary assessment. B. primary assessment. C. reassessment. D. focused exam.

You are caring for a woman who sustained a head injury as a result of a domestic dispute. You suspect she has a closed head injury since she cannot remember what happened and one of her pupils is slightly larger than the other. You have been monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes and you see that her blood pressure is rising and her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is called: A. modified secondary assessment. B. trending. C. crisis management. D. intervention check.

You are caring for a 25-year-old male patient that has been shot once in the head. The patient is in extremis (near the point of death) with a noticeable breathing pattern that alternates between no breathing and fast breathing. Your understanding of pathophysiology leads you to believe the breathing pattern may be due to damage to the section of his brain responsible for respiratory control, also known as the: A. medulla oblongata. B. thalamus. C. frontal lobe. D. cerebellum.

You are dispatched for a patient with chest pain. Your patient tells you that she has had shortness of breath and chest pain for about 20 minutes. Which of the following will give you the best information regarding your patient's chest pain symptoms? A. Do you have a history of chest pain? B. Describe how the pain feels. C. Have you taken your medications correctly? D. Is the pain in your chest a sharp pain?

You are dispatched to a local fast-food restaurant for a "nature unknown" call. You arrive on-scene and find a 47-year-old male in front of the counter repeatedly singing "Happy Birthday" to himself. Police are on-scene and the scene is safe. Which of the following would be considered appropriate care? A. Quickly approach the patient and take charge. Tell him he has to come with you to be evaluated. B. Have the police take charge, restrain the patient, and have him brought into your ambulance. C. Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can. D. Have your partner join you in approaching the patient and explain to him that he has to stop singing or you will have him arrested.

A Place the patient in a supine position.

You are dispatched to a private residence for a sick person. When you arrive you are told by the patient that due to the snow storm yesterday he missed his scheduled appointment at the dialysis center and is not feeling well. Your assessment does not reveal anything remarkable outside of the fact that he has missed his dialysis. Which of the steps below would NOT be part of your care? A. Place the patient in a supine position. B. Assess the ABCs. C. When you obtain vital signs, obtain a blood pressure on an arm that does not have a fistula. D. Administer oxygen at 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask.

D The patient's dialysis fluid appears cloudy when it is drained from the peritoneal cavity rather than its normal clear appearance.

You are dispatched to a private residence for a sick person. You arrive and find a 47-year-old male patient who recently completed his peritoneal dialysis and complains of severe abdominal pain that is worsened by movement. One of the more serious complications of this type of dialysis is a bacterial infection within the peritoneal cavity. What would be the tell-tale sign that this is what is happening in this case? A. The patient's dialysis fluid appears clear when it is drained from the peritoneal cavity rather than its normal cloudy appearance. B. The patient has swollen ankles. C. The patient has trouble urinating. D. The patient's dialysis fluid appears cloudy when it is drained from the peritoneal cavity rather than its normal clear appearance.

D treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain.

You are dispatched to a private residence for a 52-year-old African American male sitting in his living room complaining of chest pain. During your assessment, he discloses that he has the sickle cell trait. Because of this you should: A. be prepared to treat for shock if he also has a high fever. B. monitor for signs of inadequate respiration. C. administer high-concentration oxygen. D. treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain.

You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information and, when questioned by you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important in dealing with this situation, which step is the MOST important? A. Vital signs and SAMPLE history B. Primary assessment C. Secondary assessment D. Scene size-up

You are dispatched to a suicide attempt. You arrive to find a 16-year-old, who is extremely agitated and pacing up and down in the living room of his house. Apparently, he had threatened to go out, get a gun, and shoot himself. The parents called it in as an attempted suicide. The scene is safe and there are apparently no weapons accessible to the patient. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate in caring for this patient? A. Do not take any action that may be considered threatening by the patient. To do so may bring about hostile behavior directed against you or others. B. Do not isolate yourself from your partner or other sources of help. C. Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route. D. Always be on the watch for weapons.

C begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient's dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure.

You are dispatched to an unconscious hemodialysis patient. On arrival to the dialysis clinic, the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You secure the ABCs, begin ventilation, and initiate chest compressions. However, the patient's cardiac arrest rhythm is continuously unresponsive to defibrillations with your AED. The best approach is to: A. continue defibrillating as the monitor recommends. The myocardium becomes increasingly responsive to successive defibrillations. B. run a "no-electricity" code in which compressions and ventilation are continued. No additional defibrillations are necessary. C. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient's dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure. D. call online medical control to terminate the code. The probability of survival is too low to continue resuscitation efforts.

C. Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response

You are en route to the trauma center with a patient who was injured when he was thrown from a horse. You suspect multiple trauma injuries including a closed head injury. You will monitor his mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) per your protocols. Which of the following will you check? A. Speech patterns, motor patterns, and mental status B. Motor response, verbal response, and attentiveness C. Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response D. Verbal responses, motor skills, and mental status

You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective? A. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute. B. Patient's pulse returns to normal. C. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. D. Patient's skin color remains the same.

A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is:

You are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.

You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and goes unresponsive often due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness. However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the patient's sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field impression? A. Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment. B. You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice. C. Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong. D. Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took.

You are on the scene of a patient who is the victim of an assault. The scene is safe. You find a 22-year-old male patient responsive to painful stimuli only. His blood pressure is 180/80, pulse is 60, respirations are 12, and his oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. How would you classify this patient? A. Unstable. The patient is hypertensive. B. Stable. The patient's pulse, respirations, and oxygen saturation are within normal limits. C. Unstable. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli only. D. Stable. The patient does not have hypotension.

You are on the scene of a person down. You arrive at a college dormitory and find a 21-year-old patient lying supine on the floor, unresponsive. The patient is "guppy" breathing at 5 times a minute, has a strong radial pulse at 110 beats per minute, and has vomited on himself. Friends state they went out to dinner and a party. They returned to change clothes for another party and he never came out of his room. Your partner suctions the patient, inserts an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilates the patient with a bag-valve mask with high-concentration oxygen. You listen to lung sounds and there are coarse rhonchi bilaterally. What condition do you suspect? A. Severe meningitis B. Aspiration C. Overdose D. Status asthmaticus

You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a 30-year-old man pacing about his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the following? A. Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him. B. Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned. C. Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority. D. Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay.

You are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma. After placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. How can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate? A. Keep your EMT textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis. B. Think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings. C. Ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct. D. Constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct.

You are on the scene of a 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states the child rapidly developed a sore throat and is found in the tripod position. He is crying and drooling profusely. What condition do you suspect? A. Epiglottitis B. Strep throat C. Croup D. Child abuse

You are on the scene of a 5-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a "seal bark"-sounding cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared. The patient has stable vital signs. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. After performing your primary assessment, what is your best treatment option? A. Provide oxygen by BVM. B. Calm the child as much as possible and provide oxygen by blow-by. C. Use a tongue depressor to examine the patient's mouth to determine whether the patient has strep throat or croup. D. Provide high-concentration oxygen and have the parent hold it to the patient's face.

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention? A. Continue CPR. B. Check for a pulse. C. Place in the recovery position. D. Insert a Combitube.

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention? A. Continue CPR. B. Replace the malfunctioning AED. C. Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position. D. Insert a Combitube.

You are on the scene of a 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states it feels "just like the last time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is 5 minutes away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best destination? A. The nearest facility B. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization C. The hospital the patient requests D. The trauma center

You are on the scene where a 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor blade, and tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should NOT be done? A. Keep bystanders away from the patient. B. Use Body Substance Isolation (BSI). C. Call law enforcement for assistance. D. Take the razor blade away from her by force.

You are performing a rapid trauma assessment on an unresponsive 30-year-old male. As you evaluate his head, which of the following should you check for? A. Unequal facial muscles B. Whether the patient can follow your finger with his eyes C. Crepitation D. Function of the cranial nerves

You are responding to an unresponsive 65-year-old male patient. The patient has snoring respirations, a scalp laceration, and an obvious fracture of the left ankle. What is the best initial course of action? A. Bandage the scalp wound. B. Splint the ankle to avoid lacerating any nerves or arteries. C. Perform a complete primary and secondary assessment to make sure you know exactly what is wrong before treating the patient. D. Place an oral airway in the patient.

You are responding to a 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. The patient is on home oxygen by nasal cannula at 1 lpm. The patient has diminished lung sounds bilaterally with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. What condition do you suspect? A. Congestive heart failure B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Asthma D. Bronchitis

You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next? A. Perform bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads. B. Contact medical direction before taking any action. C. Perform one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive. D. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

You are transporting a victim of domestic violence, a 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the scene, she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During transport the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do next? A. Secondary assessment B. Vital signs and SAMPLE history C. Detailed physical exam D. Primary assessment

You are transporting a 20-year-old soccer player who injured his ankle during a match. His injury appears to be isolated and he has no significant past medical history. How frequently should you perform a reassessment on this patient? A. 5 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 30 minutes

You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of action? A. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary. B. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance. C. Initiate CPR and continue transporting. D. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.

You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient? A. His pain will be reduced with aspirin. B. His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs. C. His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin. D. His pain will go away with oxygen.

You are treating a patient with signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI). What is the most important drug you should administer? A. Oxygen B. Albuterol C. Aspirin D. Epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-Pen®®)

D. Battle's signs

You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice bruising behind both ears, which is known as which of the following? A. Warrior's signs B. Fatigue signs C. Soldier's signs D. Battle's signs

You are treating a 15-year-old boy who apparently broke his right arm when he fell while skateboarding with his friends. You have completed your primary and secondary assessment including splinting his arm, but you found no other injuries or problems. Which of the following is the most important step to do during the reassessment? A. Check distal circulation on his right arm. B. Place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Recheck his pupils. D. Visualize his chest for bruising.

B. Neurogenic shock

You are treating a 35-year-old male patient that has been involved in a motorcycle incident. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 60/40, a pulse of 66 beats per minute, and respirations of 18 breaths per minute. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Neurogenic shock C. Increased intracranial pressure D. Septic shock

B. Increased intracranial pressure

You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute. You notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? A. Increased arterial pressure B. Increased intracranial pressure C. Minor closed head injury D. Coup-contrecoup injury

You are treating a 57-year-old male for chest pain. You have gathered all pertinent history of present illness, completed two sets of vital signs, talked with medical direction, and assisted the patient with two doses of his nitroglycerin. Determination of whether or not the nitroglycerin was effective is assessed during the: A. primary assessment. B. reassessment. C. secondary assessment. D. primary and secondary assessment.

You are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention? A. Insert an oral airway. B. Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag-valve mask. C. Apply the AED. D. Package the patient for rapid transport.

D chronic anemia.

You encounter a patient who has been having diffuse abdominal pain for one week. The patient has a pulse rate of 86, a blood pressure of 140/90, and a respiratory rate of 20. However, the patient appears pale, and complains of generalized weakness and shortness of breath during everyday activities. You suspect the patient is experiencing: A. sickle cell anemia. B. acute anemia. C. anxiety disorder. D. chronic anemia.

You have a long transport of a patient who may have sustained a spinal injury. The patient has been stable throughout your transport. During one of your reassessments, your patient tells you that he is losing the feeling in his feet and toes and his fingers are tingling. At this point you should: A. call medical direction for orders. B. spinal immobilize him. C. reassess him every 5 minutes. D. remove him from the long spine board.

You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the patient's unresponsiveness? A. Check the patient's blood sugar to rule out hypoglycemia. B. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident. C. Look for a Glasgow Coma Scale score that is less than 8. D. Examine the patient for signs of trauma.

You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the following? A. Call the ALS unit and wait to take further action. B. Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam. C. Perform a detailed physical exam. D. Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.

You have responded for a patient with shortness of breath. He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the last few hours. You ask if he has taken anything to help his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified as: A. results of a rapid physical exam. B. the history of present illness. C. A complete SAMPLE history. D. relevant past medical history.

You have responded to a call about a "psychiatric patient" to find a 24-year-old woman talking to herself in her home. She is rocking back and forth and you can see from a distance that she is perspiring profusely. You also see an empty medication bottle on the floor. She does not acknowledge your presence. When you attempt to speak to her, she continues to talk to herself as if you were not there. Which of the following should be included in your actions at the scene? A. Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for their arrival. B. Look through the house with your partner to try to find some clues to the patient's problem. C. Distract her so your partner can look around the house. D. Shake the patient's shoulder to check for responsiveness to physical stimuli.

You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a patient with an altered mental status and angulated left femur; the other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do next? A. Apply a traction splint. B. Request ALS personnel. C. Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician. D. Perform a detailed physical exam.

A. Assure scene safety.

You respond to a patient who was hit in the face with a chair. Upon arrival, you notice a patient leaning in the corner and bleeding profusely from the mouth and nose. Your first action should be which of the following? A. Assure scene safety. B. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm. C. Suction the airway and have the patient lean back. D. Take cervical spine precautions

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle crash to find a middle-aged man on a long spine board being cared for by first responding firefighters. He appears to be bleeding from his head and he is unconscious. You should check the car for: A. a deployed passenger-side air bag. B. personal items too valuable to leave on-scene. C. a bent steering wheel or starred windshield. D. insurance information or identification.

You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a "little sick" for the past two days but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has "heart problems," suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress? A. Pneumonia B. Congestive heart failure C. Influenza D. Aortic aneurysm

You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this condition? A. Chest pain that is not relieved with nitroglycerin B. Chest pain that is not relieved with rest C. Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin D. Chest pain that radiates to the leg

Your elderly patient reports having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and he hasn't eaten for several hours. Which of the following is more important to your assessment of this patient? A. Asking him if he is able to walk B. Finding out if he has any chest pain C. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements D. Determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed

Your patient called 911 because he was having chest pain. He states that his pain is a 7 on a 10-point scale. As part of your care, you assist him with taking his nitroglycerin per medical direction. After waiting a few minutes for the medication to take effect, you should: A. ask him what his pain is like now. B. call medical direction to administer another dose. C. administer another dose of nitroglycerin. D. lay the head of the stretcher down.

Your patient has a decreased level of consciousness. There is no evidence of trauma, and the patient has a long list of medical problems. Of the following, which would most likely help the EMT determine why this patient has a decreased level of consciousness? A. Last oral intake B. Pulse and respiratory rate C. List of allergies D. List of medications

C. neurogenic shock.

Your patient has a suspected cervical spine injury from falling from a rope swing. His vital signs are pulse 62, respirations 20, and blood pressure 90/56. He has no feeling below his mid-chest area but is able to breathe on his own. You should suspect: A. hypovolemic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. psychogenic shock.

Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this situation? A. Area exam B. Focused exam C. Detailed physical exam D. Rapid trauma exam

B. cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine.

Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You spinal immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the: A. coccyx is easily dislocated. B. cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine. C. lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support. D. thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury.

B. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding

Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a contusion on his forehead, is confused, and is bleeding from his nose. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80/58 mmHg, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and his skin is cool and clammy. Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect? A. Head injury and spine injury B. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding C. Head injury D. Head injury and internal bleeding

A. Veins

Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned since it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism? A. Veins B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Arteries

C. occlusive dressing.

Your patient has sustained a serious laceration to his neck. He appears to have lost a lot of blood and you are considering how you will control the bleeding. Your primary treatment should be to place a(n): A. pressure dressing. B. dry, sterile dressing. C. occlusive dressing. D. bulky dressing.

Your patient is an unresponsive 40-year-old woman. Which of the following should you do immediately after the primary assessment? A. Ask her husband if she has any known allergies. B. Perform a rapid physical exam. C. Take her blood pressure. D. Determine the patient's past medical history.

Your patient is an 18-year-old female whom you believe may have had a miscarriage and is bleeding heavily. You have completed your primary and secondary assessments and now you need to reassess her to see if the bleeding has stopped. You should: A. ask her to check herself to see if she is still bleeding. B. take another set of vital signs to see if her blood pressure has dropped. C. wait and let the hospital staff reassess the bleeding. D. in a reassuring tone, explain what you need to do.

Your patient is an 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is "drowning in his own lungs." The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his "heart is shot." The patient's cardiac output is likely diminished because: A. the pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased (afterload is increased). B. less blood fills his heart with each contraction (preload is diminished). C. the heart's force of contraction is reduced (contractility is diminished). D. All of the above are true.

B. Cervical spine injury

Your patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? A. Thoracic spine injury B. Cervical spine injury C. Lumbar spine injury D. Soft-tissue injury of the neck only

Your patient is a 15-year-old female complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following is NOT appropriate during the focused exam? A. Listening to her breath sounds B. Looking at her nail beds C. Checking her pupils for reactivity to light D. Looking at the use of her neck muscles

Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation? A. Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. B. Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. C. Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport. D. Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

C. open head injury.

Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n): A. closed head injury. B. skull injury. C. open head injury. D. direct injury.

Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up this morning. Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks. In fact, every time you ask a question, the patient's mother answers. What should you do next? A. Have your partner interview the mother in the next room. B. Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient. C. Tell the mother to leave the room. D. Ask the mother to please be quiet.

B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve-mask at 10-12 breaths per minute.

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve-mask at 10-12 breaths per minute. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 10 lpm. D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and ventilate via bag-valve mask (BVM) at 30 breaths per minute.

D. Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who slid head-first down a water slide at his fraternity house and impacted the bales of straw that his fraternity brothers had erected as a barrier to keep participants from sliding onto the adjacent highway. The patient is conscious and complaining of neck pain. Which of the following should be included in your assessment? A. Ask the patient to cautiously touch his chin to his chest to check for range of motion. B. If the patient has no numbness or tingling, ask him to stand and try to walk. C. Apply painful stimuli to his extremities, starting distally and moving closer and closer to the body. D. Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

Your patient is a 22-year-old college student complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented, although somewhat uncomfortable. Which of the following should be your first action? A. Perform a rapid head-to-toe physical examination. B. Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints. C. Take the patient's roommate aside and ask about the patient's medical history. D. Palpate the patient's abdomen for tenderness and guarding.

Your patient is a 22-year-old female that accidentally ate some shellfish and is now having a severe reaction. She tells you that the last time she ate shellfish, "they had to put a breathing tube in my throat and I almost died." Her face is starting to swell up and you can hear audible wheezing when she breathes. The chemical that produces edema and narrowing of the airways during hypersensitivity reactions like this is called: A. serotonin. B. histamine. C. insulin. D. acetylcholine.

Your patient is a 22-year-old male who has ingested a large amount of alcohol and is vomiting. He is conscious but uncooperative. He allows you to examine him but refuses transport to the hospital. You have sought assistance from law enforcement on scene. Which of the following is the BEST action? A. Obtain a witnessed refusal. B. Contact medical control for further advice. C. Stay with the patient until he has stopped vomiting. D. Find a relative or neighbor to come over and stay with the patient.

Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your reassessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this patient? A. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. B. Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding. C. Control the bleeding. D. Check the patient's blood pressure.

Your patient is a 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this patient? A. Maintaining an open airway B. Finding out exactly what she took C. Checking the patient's pupil size and reactivity to light D. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? A. Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent. B. Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. C. Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are. D. Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation.

Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST option? A. Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her. B. Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed. C. Wait for the level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. D. Obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs.

D. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from scaffolding and has been impaled by a piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal stimuli. You have determined the bar is too long to adequately secure during patient transport. Which of the following is your best course of action? A. Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene. B. Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from the wound. C. Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time under 10 minutes. D. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

A. Provide cervical spine immobilization.

Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention? A. Provide cervical spine immobilization. B. Apply a pressure dressing to her scalp lacerations. C. Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen. D. Elevate the legs.

Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first? A. Remove the patient's pillow. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Check the patient's pulse. D. Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

B. Posturing

Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver's side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this? A. Tonic-clonic activity B. Posturing C. Cushing's reflex D. Battle's sign

Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration? A. Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone. B. Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse. C. Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. D. Stay a safe distance away.

B. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? A. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. B. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard. C. Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. D. Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard.

Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious, is using increased effort during expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress? A. Epiglottitis B. COPD C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pneumonia

Your patient is a 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of severe difficulty breathing. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather mask? A. Obtain a history of the present illness. B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Listen to the patient's breath sounds. D. None of the above

B. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks' gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine? A. Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position. B. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard. C. Place the patient on her left side on the backboard. D. Place the patient supine on the backboard.

Your patient is the 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next step? A. Perform a tertiary assessment. B. Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient. C. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. D. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance.

D. remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.

Your patient was ejected from his motorcycle when he struck a deer. He is drowsy and unable to communicate clearly. You determine that the helmet he is wearing will not allow you to securely immobilize the patient to the long spine board. You should: A. tip his head back to gain neutral alignment. B. pad under his shoulders to straighten his neck. C. place towels on either side of the helmet to stabilize it. D. remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.

C. 10-12 breaths per minute.

Your unresponsive adult patient has a head injury and inadequate breathing. Your bag-valve-mask ventilations should be delivered at a rate of: A. 20-24 breaths per minute. B. 16-20 breaths per minute. C. 10-12 breaths per minute. D. 24-30 breaths per minute.

D. immobilize his cervical spine.

Your 38-year-old male patient has been injured in an assault. He has several facial lacerations and a large knot on his head. Bystanders say that he was thrown over a large table and landed on his head and shoulder. As part of your scene size-up and primary assessment, you should: A. wait for ALS to treat the patient. B. complete an initial set of vital signs. C. splint any other bone or joint injuries. D. immobilize his cervical spine.

Your 76-year-old female patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate her lungs, you hear crackles (rales) and you are concerned that she may have pulmonary edema. Her oxygen saturation is 92%, so you place her on 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. Her breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. You decide to expedite transport since she is anxious about her condition. Later, as you are completing your reassessment, you see that her respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and she is barely staying awake. What should you do next? A. Ask your partner to pull over and wait for ALS backup. B. Assist her with using her metered-dose inhaler. C. Begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask. D. Shake her to keep her awake.

By six months of age, infants are capable of recalling events that occurred three months previously. a. True b. False

Paul is asked by his teacher what he did during his summer vacation. When responding, Paul uses his ________ . a. implicit memory b. explicit memory c. short term memory d. sensory memory

Which theory of childhood amnesia asserts that children store separate verbatim and general accounts of their experiences? a. two-factor b. information processing c. fuzzy trace d. context-specific

Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following diseases?

obesity

Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as:

receptive aphasia.

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