Entire set of LSSBB questions
11.1. When following the design robustness approach, what step follows parameter design? a. Tolerance design b. System design c. Concept design d. Feature design
Answer a is correct.
9.10. The smallest run number possible to examine the main effects of 22 factors at 2 levels is: a. 23 b. 24 C. 44 d. 56
Answer b is correct.
9.32. A designed experiment is to be conducted with four factors at three levels. The design should probably be: a. A one-way ANOVA design b. A completely randomized design c. A two-way ANOVA design d. A Latin square
Answer b is correct.
9.36. The term level in experimental design refers to: a. The complexity of the design b. The specific settings of input factors c. The number of output responses d. The number of independent trials or tests
Answer b is correct.
5.39. One would say that the final stage in project management would be: a. The project proposal b. The project review c. Lessons learned d. Document archiving
Answer d is correct.
9.20. EVOP should be used: a. When there is a manufacturing problem b. When a process is not in statistical control c. When an experimenter first begins working on a new product d. When a process is producing satisfactory material
Answer d is correct.
2.15. Which two of the SWOT analysis elements clearly require a firm to assess the external business environment? a. Strengths and weaknesses b. Weaknesses and opportunities c. Opportunities and threats d. Threats and strengths
Answer c is correct.
2.19. The portfolio analysis methodology seeks to improve on traditional DMAIC approaches by: a. Correcting design problems and increasing flow rates b. Using the five competitive forces analyses c. Enhancing technical processes to prevent design issues d. Using an iterative process to arrive at a strong design
Answer c is correct.
2.20. In almost any type of process flow diagram, the element that indicates a need for correction and adjustment is called: a. SIPOC b. Inputs c. Feedback d. Outputs
Answer c is correct.
2.24. Which of the following quality luminaries would be most clearly identified as a proponent of improvement and breakthrough projects? a. Ishikawa b. Deming c. Juran d. Crosby
Answer c is correct.
4.38. When the team is creating their guidelines, the issue of what information will be shared outside the team is called: a. Brainstorming b. Conflict resolution c. Confidentiality d. Empathic listening
Answer c is correct.
8.22. In performing an analysis of variance for a single factor experiment, a fundamental assumption which is made is that the factor: a. Means are equal b. Means are unequal c. Variances are equal d. Variances are unequal
Answer c is correct.
3.19. If prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, and this results in a reduction in the number of product defects, this yields a reduction in: a. Appraisal costs b. Operating costs c. Quality costs d. Failure costs
Answer d is correct.
9.19. A randomized block experimental design is most like a: a. Higher - order experiment b. Steepest ascent/descent experiment c. Taguchi robustness design d. A Latin or Graeco-Latin design
Answer d is correct.
3.18. A calculation for ROI requires what two components? a. Net income and investment costs b. Cash flow and interest rates c. Net income and total assets d. Investment costs and cash flow
Answer a is correct.
3.3. The customer retention rate is noted to be: a. 1 minus the attrition rate b. 1 plus the churn rate c. The attrition rate minus the churn rate d. The attrition rate divided by the churn rate
Answer a is correct.
3.5. In the event that company A benchmarks company B for a particular process and then develops a breakthrough concept, what is considered to be the most ethical approach to take? a. Share the total results with the benchmark partner B b. Share the results up to the benchmarked level with partner B c. Protect the improvement if the benchmarked partner B is a competitor d. Share the breakthrough advance only if directly asked by benchmarked partner B
Answer a is correct.
4.13. Excessive conflict within a work team: a. Has a negative effect on team members and should be avoided b. Has a positive effect on creating alternate solutions c. Most often results in win-win situations d. Engages shy member participation
Answer a is correct.
4.23. Which of the following describes poorly functioning teams? a. Members act independently without interdependency b. Objectives are realistically set and met c. Team members have adequate training d. Team members listen to what is being said
Answer a is correct.
6.17. In order to ensure data accuracy and integrity, which of the following considerations should be observed? a. Round data whenever possible b. Record production data in lime sequence c. Include all entry errors d. Remove data based on a firm hunch that ii is false
Answer b is correct.
7.19. One thousand units of product were examined to detect 5 possible undesirable characteristics. A total of 80 defects were found. How many defects would be expected in a million opportunities? a. 16,000 b. 26,666 C. 61,458 d. 80,000
Answer a is correct.
6.11. Which of the following enterprise measurements could be applied to suppliers? a. Sales dollars compared to marketing dollars b. Percentage of early deliveries c. Number of projects behind schedule d. Average cycle times
Answer b is correct.
6.15. Which of the following statements describes discrete data? a. It takes 3 hours 48 minutes to fly from LA to New York b. Of 225 people on the airplane, 85 had connecting flights c. The flight arrived at 9:08 PM d. There were 5,923 gallons of fuel consumed on the flight
Answer b is correct.
Combination Formula from N choose K
n! / k! (n-k)!
3.1. What three strategy elements does Harry include with the traditional DMAIC approach to six sigma? a. R, S, I b. R, P, S C. S, I, C d. S, P, P
Answer a is correct.
5.36. An approved written plan of the total costs and cash inflows for a project is called: a. A budget b. A forecast c. Actual costs and revenues d. A variance
Answer a is correct
6.19. If the throughput rate for an operation is 3,600 units per hour, what is the cycle time in seconds? a. 1 second b. 2 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 60 seconds
Answer a is correct
10.15. Which of the following would be considered one of the six big negative contributors to equipment effectiveness? a. Set-up and adjustment b. Increased speed c. Enhanced yield d. Work cell arrangement
Answer a is correct.
10.19. An investigation of the total product or process variability indicates that the single largest element is: a. Dependent on the process itself b. The error of measurement c. Time-to-lime variation d. Stream-to-stream variation
Answer a is correct.
10.26. Tool boards, jidohka devices, and red lights all combine to: a. Make problems visible b. Prevent defective products c. Maintain management control d. Display targets for improvement
Answer a is correct.
10.36. To what level should organizational documentation be written? a. To the level that it is understood by the users b. To the level that it complies with applicable standards c. To the level that it will be audited to d. To the level that makes it easy to revise in the future
Answer a is correct.
10.37. When a new process change is introduced in an area, what is the most critical element in the successful implementation of that change? a. Training b. Documentation c. Education d. Procedures
Answer a is correct.
10.7. A process is in control with p-bar= 0.10 and n = 100. The three sigma limits of the np control chart are: a. 1 and 19 b. 9.1 and 10.9 c. 0.01 and 0.19 d. 0.07 and 0.13
Answer a is correct.
10.8. TPM in relationship to the lean enterprise system means: a. Total productive maintenance to maximize equipment effectiveness b. Total preventive maintenance to reduce total cost c. Total process management to manage process cost d. Total preventive maintenance to minimize downtime
Answer a is correct.
10.9. The design of a control plan for a particular part incorporates information from a variety of sources such as flow charts, QFD, FMEAs, designed experiments, and statistical studies. It is a tool to monitor and control the part or process. If used properly, the control plan avoids which of the following problems? a. Becoming a substitute for written operator instructions b. Having a listing of the critical Xs and Ys of the process c. Error proofing the process through various control plans d. Being used as evidence of installed controls
Answer a is correct.
11.10. What is the major difference between the DFX and DMAIC? a. One is a product design approach and the other is a problem solving approach b. One concentrates on functions and performance and the other does not c. One has a limited number of process steps whereas the other is virtually unlimited d. There are few differences, they can operate independently or together
Answer a is correct.
11.4. Taguchi's loss function describes the financial loss to society that will occur upon a deviation of a quality characteristic from its target value. Identify the loss function equation statement that is true: a. L(y) is the financial loss to society b. k is the target value c. y is the tolerance d. m is the derived constant
Answer a is correct.
11.6. The most effective and efficient method of solving quality problems for a product is to concentrate efforts in which area? a. Design b. Production c. Quality improvement d. Axiomatic design
Answer a is correct.
11.9. In robust design, the functional limits or tolerances of a device are set: a. By experimentation and testing b. By using a safety factor of 4 c. By using engineering experience d. By using six sigma limits
Answer a is correct.
2.1. Lean and six sigma share in common which of the following attributes: a. They both focus on continuous improvement b. Neither requires top management commitment c. They both focus on internal customers d. They both require long learning curves
Answer a is correct.
2.10. Which American figure is seen as the earliest advocate of waste reduction? a. Henry Ford b. Frederick W. Taylor c. W. Edwards Deming d. James Womack
Answer a is correct.
2.14. In highly effective six sigma companies, most employees receive some training. What group is most likely to receive sponsorship training? a. Senior management b. Master black belt candidates c. Black belt candidates d. Green belt candidates
Answer a is correct.
2.16. From an upper management perspective, what has been the principal motivating factor in embracing lean six sigma? a. Bottom line results b. Market share growth c. Defect reductions d. Customer focus
Answer a is correct.
2.18. The most negative management approach to overcome employee resistance to change is: a. Mandating the change b. Negotiating the conditions of the change c. Providing training on the change d. Involvement with the change project
Answer a is correct.
2.23. The dissemination of knowledge within a modern organization is normally coordinated by: a. IT or MIS department b. Quality department c. Engineering department d. Technology department
Answer a is correct.
2.28. The responsibility portion of the hoshin kanri X-matrix identifies: a. Who b. What c. How much of what d. A timeline
Answer a is correct.
2.30. In a nutshell, lean six sigma is considered: a. A business improvement approach b. A focus on critical customer items c. An elimination of mistakes and defects d. A concentrated focus on business outputs
Answer a is correct.
2.7. In the hoshin kanri X-matrix what are the targeted organizational improvements called? a. Aims b. Projects c. Hows d. Goals
Answer a is correct.
4.27. Why is the PDCA cycle so readily accepted by most American teams and individuals? a. It is the natural way that most people already approach problems b. It was promoted by Dr. Deming who has a wide American following c. It has been widely used in Japan with success d. It requires much less work than comparable improvement techniques
Answer a is correct.
4.29. It is noted that the involvement and participation of which of the following team roles expands and increases over time? a. Team members b. Facilitator c. Sponsor d. Leader
Answer a is correct.
4.33. Material rewards to team members should always: a. Be the same for all members of the team b. Be individualized for each team member within an established value range c. Be something with the company's logo on it d. Clearly distinguish those who made significant contributions
Answer a is correct.
4.37. Which of the following statements is a true description of a team during the storming stage? a. The team wants the project to move forward b. The team works cohesively c. The team members are very cooperative d. The team operates smoothly
Answer a is correct.
4.43. A skilled facilitator will: a. Intervene when progress ceases b. Correct the group when their ideas are wrong c. Take sides when one side is correct d. Make sure the opinions of influential members are heard
Answer a is correct.
5.1. A customer satisfaction program was started on the rightfoot, and it has gone very well for the last year or so. The company should now: a. Look to improve the program, with new customer input b. Do nothing with the program, it's not broken c. Form a management group to add new wrinkles to the program d. Stop collecting data to save money
Answer a is correct.
5.11. What planning activity occurs before the project work breakdown structure? a. The project objective is defined b. The work is divided into smaller activities c. The interrelationships between activities are defined d. The project schedule is established
Answer a is correct.
5.18. The RACI model is considered: a. A project management tool b. A rapid deployment approach c. An analytical definition treatment d. A SMART problem methodology
Answer a is correct.
5.22. Focus groups can best be defined as: a. Small groups with a specific topic b. A segmented group of suppliers c. A segmented group of intermediate users d. A pre-selected group of users
Answer a is correct.
5.23. Critical to quality (CTQ) improvement projects would be concerned with: a. Meeting product technical requirements b. Reducing various forms of waste c. Minimizing unnecessary inspections d. Reducing internal and external rejections
Answer a is correct.
5.37. A problem solving technique that attempts to show the steps necessary to pass the CSSBB exam is called? a. A tree diagram b. An affinity diagram c. A matrix diagram d. A prioritization matrix
Answer a is correct.
5.38. Variances from budget for a project: a. Are the differences between planned and actual costs b. Indicate the project manager did a poor job of controlling costs c. Are usually expressed in standard deviation units from the norm d. Are expected in most complex design activities
Answer a is correct.
5.4. One would say that the "I" in a SIPOC diagram relates to: a. The materials, services, or information provided to processes b. The action steps that transforms inputs into outputs c. The process or organization that receives output d. The organization providing resources to processes
Answer a is correct.
5.40. Manual project management planning and controlling methods: a. Have an advantage over computer methods in terms of cost b. Have become nearly extinct because of the availability of computer methods c. Are best for large, complex projects d. Are harder to learn than computer methods
Answer a is correct.
5.42. A project review would concern itself with which of the following? a. The effectiveness of the entire project b. The storage media for document archiving c. What tracking software worked best d. What project team members fell below expectations
Answer a is correct.
5.43. The project charter is useful in many ways, including: a. Providing a consistent target for the team b. Permitting the team leader to develop milestones from it c. Ensuring the champion will assign responsible team members d. Ensuring team members will support the charter project
Answer a is correct.
5.46. A characteristic of project management is that it requires: a. Planning and objectives b. Objectives and automated/computer usage c. Unlimited resources and time d. People and Gantt charts
Answer a is correct.
5.51. Input and output variables can be effectively evaluated using which of the following techniques? a. Cause-and-effect matrices b. Lean metrics c. Tak! time calculations d. Spaghetti diagrams
Answer a is correct.
5.6. Which of the new quality management tools is used to organize facts and data about an unfamiliar subject or problem? a. The affinity diagram b. The header technique c. The activity network diagram d. Matrix diagram
Answer a is correct.
6.25. Which of the following statements describes attribute data? a. Number of employees wearing green shirts b. Number of gallons of chemical used in a process c. Diameter of a hole d. Miles per gallon of automobile fuel economy
Answer a is correct.
6.3. What is the best definition of takt time? a. It is a calculated time element that equals customer demand b. It is the speed at which parts must be manufactured in order to satisfy demand c. It is the heartbeat of any lean system d. It is the application of kaizen to continuous flow manufacturing
Answer a is correct.
6.8. Random selection of a sample: a. Theoretically means that each item in the lot had an equal chance to be selected b. Ensures that the sample average will equal the population average c. Means that a table of random numbers was used to dictate the selection d. Is a meaningless theoretical requirement
Answer a is correct.
6.9. Gages that tell how much a dimension varies from the specification are called: a. Indicating gages b. Depth gages c. Actuators d. Tolerators
Answer a is correct.
7.13. Which techniques could easily be used to display the same data? a. Stem and leaf plots, boxplots, histograms b. Boxplots, trend charts, stem and leaf plots c. Scatter diagrams, histograms and boxplo!s d. Histograms, trend charts, boxplots
Answer a is correct.
7.17. Determine the coefficient of variation for the last 500 pilot plant test runs of high temperature film having a mean of 900° Kelvin with a standard deviation of 54 °. a. 6% b. 16.7% C. 0.6% d. 31%
Answer a is correct.
7.18. The distribution which has a mean equal to the variance is the: a. Poisson b. Exponential C. Weibull d. Rayleigh
Answer a is correct.
7.27. A capability study, conducted during a pilot run of 100 units, indicated that the Cpk upper value to be 1.8 while the Cpk lower value was 0.90. The customer requires a Cpk minimum value of 1.25. What action should be taken? a. Center the process b. Reduce variability c. Renegotiate the customer specification d. 100% inspect until new equipment is available
Answer a is correct.
7.29. What graphical data method can show the value of all individual readings? a. A stem and leaf plot b. A grouped probability density function c. A typical histogram d. A complex boxplot
Answer a is correct.
7.31. There are five fabricating operations that can be performed in any sequence. Four of the operations yield 98% recovery and one yields 80% recovery. What is the preferred production sequence, assuming that the 80% operation cannot be immediately improved? a. Place the 80% operation first b. Place the 80% operation in the middle c. Place the 80% operation last d. It doesn't matter the RTY is the same
Answer a is correct.
7.32. The measure of the central location for the nominal scale is considered to be the: a. Mode b. Median c. Arithmetic mean d. Average
Answer a is correct.
7.5. When the natural process limits exceed the specification range, which of the following courses of action may require customer approval? a. Change the specification b. Center the process c. Reduce the variability d. Accept the losses
Answer a is correct.
7.6. A process calls for the mean value of a dimension to be 2.02". Which of the following should be used as the null hypothesis to test whether or not the process is achieving this mean? a. The mean of the population is 2.02" b. The mean of the sample is 2.02" c. The mean of the population is not 2.02" d. The mean of the sample is not 2.02"
Answer a is correct.
8. 14. Assume that data for a goodness-of-fit test has been structured into effective cells for a chi square calculation. Which of the following distributions loses the most degrees of freedom? a. Normal b. Poisson c. Binomial d. Uniform
Answer a is correct.
8.20. A dendogram, as used in cluster analysis, can be described as a: a. Classification tree b. Pareto diagram c. Decision tree d. Line diagram
Answer a is correct.
8.24.If a sample size of 16 yields an average of 12, and standard deviation of 3, estimate the 95% confidence interval for the population (assume a normal distribution). a. 10.40 <= mu <= 13.60 b. 10.45 <= mu <= 13.55 c. 10.53 <= mu <= 13.47 d. 10.77 <= mu <= 13.23
Answer a is correct.
8.28. When plotting a regression chart on graph paper, what metric is used for the horizontal scale? a. Time b. Count data c. Variable data d. Percentages
Answer a is correct.
8.3. A random sample size n is to be taken from a large population having a standard deviation of 1". The sample size is to be determined so that there will be a 0.05 risk probability of exceeding a 0.1" tolerance error in using the sample mean to estimate m. Which of the following values is nearest the required sample size? a. 385 b. 40 c. 200 d. 100
Answer a is correct.
8.34. A small change truly exists between a current process and an experimental process. However, an insufficient sample size is collected to determine this difference. What type of error would result? a. A type II error b. A 1-alpha ·decision c. A type I error d. A 1-beta decision
Answer a is correct.
8.35. Identify the subjective root cause analysis tool from the options below: a. 5 whys b. Pareto analysis c. Control charts d. Regression analysis
Answer a is correct.
8.44. What is the probability of the top event occurring in the fault-tree below, given the probability of event A is 0.9 and the probability of event B is 0.8? a. 0.72 b. 0.70 C. 0.99 d. 0.98
Answer a is correct.
8.45. The alpha critical region, to determine if a new pen lasts longer, would be placed: a. In the upper tail b. In both upper and lower tails c. In the lower tail d. In neither tail
Answer a is correct.
8.47. The probabilistic regression model for any particular observed value of Y contains a term beta 0 , which represents: a. The Y axis intercept, when X = 0 b. The Y axis intercept, when X = 1 c. The slope of the model d. The X axis intercept, when Y = 0
Answer a is correct.
8.54. From a gap analysis perspective, why does an organization need performance metrics? a. To provide information for goal achievement b. To indicate the number of and return on improvement projects c. To determine the best internal and external benchmarks d. To measure customer retention and loyalty
Answer a is correct.
8.55. Which of the following tasks is value added? a. An appropriate product development process b. Reworking parts to meet customer requirements c. MRB meetings d. Efficient material handling of customer returns
Answer a is correct.
8.56. It is desirable to reduce the variation in a process. The current variance is known to be seven. A new process yielded a standard deviation of two for twenty-five test trials. What is the calculated statistic and decision for 95% confidence ? a. 13.71, reject the null b. 13.71, fail to reject the null c. 13.85, reject the null d. 13.85, fail to reject the null
Answer a is correct.
9.13. Considering that all of the following terms have benefits, which would most likely improve product quality? a. Waste elimination b. Takt lime c. Setup reduction d. Standard work sheets
Answer a is correct.
9.15. Which of the following Japanese techniques is most clearly identified with small incremental change? a. Kaizen b. Kanban c. Poka-yoke d. 5S strategy
Answer a is correct.
9.17. The tool/technique most widely used by a number of automotive manufactures that supply products to Toyota is called: a. Kanban b. Muda c. Poka-yoke d. An andon board
Answer a is correct.
9.3. Which of the following statements is true regarding experimental error? a. This error is due to material uniformity and to inherent experimental variability b. This error can be changed statistically by increasing the degrees of freedom c. The error can be reduced only by improving the material d. In a well-designed experiment there is no interaction effect
Answer a is correct.
9.33. Consider the following statement: "The best combination of machines and people working together to produce a product or service at a particular point in time." What lean concept is being described? a. Standard work b. A future state map c. The value stream d. Ultimate cycle time
Answer a is correct.
9.34. The iterative approach to DOE refers to: a. The use of sequential experimentation b. Ensuring the stability of the process during experimentation c. Ensuring the capability of the measurement system d. Appropriate estimates of experimental error
Answer a is correct.
9.35. What is required for SMED? a. All internal and external setup steps must be reviewed in detail b. Outside specialists with knowledge on dies must be consulted c. Outstanding communications between operators and setup personnel d. Process mapping of improvement steps
Answer a is correct.
9.55. As the new experimenter for several six sigma projects, you have allocated budget funds for preliminary trial runs. The reason(s) for this would be: a. Some practice trials are needed to test equipment and develop skills b. The plant manager wants evidence that experimentation will work c. Planning is critical for success and this is a safe plan d. The financial department wants evidence of potential success
Answer a is correct.
9.8. Identify the lean enterprise technique in which the videotaping of a segment of the operation is helpful: a. SUR/SMED b. TPM c. Taki time determination d. FIFO
Answer a is correct.
2.21. Which luminary is generally recognized as being the creator of the control chart? a. Deming b. Shewhart c. Harry d. Ishikawa
Answer b is correct
9.21. What lean technique is most widely used to make problems visible? a. JIT b. 5S c. Kaizen d. SMED
Answer b is correct
9.24. Review the following 5S elements and identify the step that is being referenced. Determine who has missing items Create a name and location for everything Use aisle and material placement markings Use labels, tool boards, and color codes a. Sort b. Straighten c. Scrub d. Standardize
Answer b is correct
10.16. Which of the following indicates an out-of-control condition? a. A trend of 5 consecutive points in an upward direction b. 9 consecutive points above or below the center line c. 2 of 3 consecutive points outside the one sigma limit d. 9 consecutive points within the one sigma limit
Answer b is correct.
10.17. The primary reason that an organization should support training is: a. II is required by many ISO standards b. II enhances the company's capabilities c. II reflects well on customer surveys d. II secures the future of the company
Answer b is correct.
10.18. What charting technique is useful for looking at a process for trends after smoothing of data has occurred? a. X-bar and R chart b. Moving average chart c. Mulli-vari chart d. np chart
Answer b is correct.
10.2. The basic objective of visual factory techniques is to: a. Utilize production and schedule boards b. Enable everyone to maintain contact with the workplace c. Regulate production using kanban cards d. Make problems visible using tool boards and jidohka devices
Answer b is correct.
10.20. What measurements should management make to ensure current controls and look for additional ways to improve their six sigma process? a. Gap and root cause analysis b. A balanced mix of metrics c. Audit and benchmark results d. Financial and SWOT analysis
Answer b is correct.
10.27. The most important determination of a postmortem project analysis is: a. Whether the project was achieved within the time deadlines b. The effectiveness of the entire project c. How well the project team was recognized for their efforts d. Whether the project was completed within the cost constraints
Answer b is correct.
10.30. The most common subgrouping scheme for X-bar and R control charts is to separate the variation: a. Within stream versus stream-to-stream b. Within time versus time-to-time c. Within piece versus piece-to-piece d. Inherent process versus error of measurement
Answer b is correct.
10.35. Identify the most logical reason for using short run SPC charts: a. There is limited operator time b. There is limited data c. There is a need to plot multiple variables per chart d. There is a need to simplify the charting process
Answer b is correct.
10.39. After the successful implementation of an "improve" stage, a DMAIC team is considering control charts to monitor the new gains for a process. Which approach would provide the best results? a. Chart as many characteristics as possible b. Chart the most important variables associated to the CTQs c. Use control charts for variables only d. Use numerous control charts for attributes and variables
Answer b is correct.
10.4. A process has been experiencing problems lately. The operators charting the process have identified the cause to be due to a change in incoming materials. This problem is: a. Attributed to purchasing b. A special cause c. A common cause d. A normal event
Answer b is correct.
11.14. DFX has many internal and external customer-based objectives. Which of the following would be considered an external target? a. Design for assembly b. Design for features c. Design for testability d. Design for manufacture
Answer b is correct.
11.15. At what robust design stage would the use of more expensive components or processes be considered? a. Control b. Tolerance c. Parametric d. Concept
Answer b is correct.
2.2. In order to assist a team in addressing an improvement project, which of the following tools would be most helpful? a. The SIPOC high level process map b. The DMAIC process c. Pareto analysis of defect levels d. The determination of RTY for major processes
Answer b is correct.
2.9. The extension from lean production to lean office is possible because: a. The office produces a variety of services b. The concept of waste applies to every business environment c. Offices are more data driven than manufacturing d. There is little difference between production and office environments
Answer b is correct.
3.10. Which of the following statements best reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough benchmarking? a. Researching the competitive and non-competitive intelligence b. Attempting to surpass the performance of the benchmarked source c. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient d. Identifying all major critical success functions
Answer b is correct.
3.12. If a large company fails to meet their quarterly projected sales and profit forecasts, which of the following stakeholders groups would be affected first? a. Suppliers b. Stockholders c. Employees d. Society
Answer b is correct.
3.16. Business process management is most concerned with: a. Allocating resources between functional departments b. Controlling and improving processes to create shareholder value c. Understanding and following the SIPOC diagram d. Developing closed loop relationships with customers and suppliers
Answer b is correct.
3.17. II is generally easier to find a benchmarking partner in which of the following areas? a. Process b. Project c. Strategic d. Product
Answer b is correct.
3.21. A method of improving the performance in any functional area of a company, including product or service quality, would be: a. Utilizing FMEA or FMECA techniques b. Applying the benchmarking process c. Instituting an improved design review procedure d. Reading the Baldrige application guidelines
Answer b is correct.
3.22. Requesting funds to move meter calibration in-house for better service is an example of: a. Prevention costs b. Appraisal costs c. Internal failure costs d. External failure costs
Answer b is correct.
3.4. The techniques known as the balanced scorecard measures such perspectives as: a. Payback period and the IRR method b. Financial and customer concerns c. Periodic reviews and senior management vision d. Traditional costs and costs of poor quality
Answer b is correct.
4.1. Which of the following teams are likely to disband upon completion of a specific job or application? a. Self-directed and quality circles b. Project and cross functional c. Cross functional and quality circles d. Improvement and self-directed
Answer b is correct.
4.15. Identify two techniques useful for team facilitators when narrowing a list of potential problem areas to investigate: a. Brainstorming and groupthink b. Nominal group technique and multivoting c. 4-M diagram and discounts d. Multivoting and brainstorming
Answer b is correct.
4.19. Divided member loyalties, having personal confrontations, thinking individually, and learning their role on the team are indicators that a team is in which stage of its evolution? a. Forming b. Storming c. Performing d. Norming
Answer b is correct.
4.20. The most important factor determining the quality of training is: a. The size of the training department b. The content of the training materials c. The cost of the training d. The years of experience of the instructor
Answer b is correct.
4.22. The fundamental purpose of establishing teams is: a. Provide team members a form of job enrichment and broadening b. Improve the internal efficiencies of the organization c. Teach team members new problem solving skills d. To avoid spending money on outside consultants
Answer b is correct.
4.24. The Hawthorne studies conducted by Elton Mayo concluded that: a. Increasing illumination would increase worker productivity b. Workers responded favorably to humane treatment c. The needs of management were not understood at the floor level d. Group behavior is influenced by a relatively few floor level leaders
Answer b is correct.
4.30. Quality Council of Indiana offers a question CD, which students can use to measure their knowledge in various CSSBB BOK areas. From QCl's perspective this tool would be considered: a. A classical training tool with low development costs b. A technical training tool with low user costs c. A classical training tool with high user costs d. A technical training tool with low development costs
Answer b is correct.
4.31. What is the major advantage of _the A3 report? a. It is more thorough than other problem solving tools b. It is a concise problem presentation format c. It requires less preparation time than other reports d. It minimizes the need for a follow-up plan
Answer b is correct.
4.35. What role is most likely to define the objectives for a six sigma team? a. Leader b. Sponsor c. Facilitator d. Member
Answer b is correct.
4.40. A project team has been functioning very well for about two months. One member has suggested a different approach to solving the problem they have been working on. The other members strongly reject the idea. This is an example of: a. Mind think b. Groupthink c. Isolationism d. Active-passive behavior
Answer b is correct.
4.44. An essential technique in making training programs more effective is to: a. Have training classes which teach skills and knowledge required b. Provide feedback to the employee as to his/her performance c. Post results of performance before and after the training program d. Set individual goals instead of group goals
Answer b is correct.
4.45. One of the human dynamics that occurs within work teams is conflict. What is a disadvantage of having internal team conflict? a. It increases a team's energy level b. It can result in hostility and isolation c. It offers diverse perspectives for problem solutions d. It provides the opportunity for greater creativity
Answer b is correct.
4.47. Identify the facilitation technique that would most likely result in team conflict: a. Multivoting b. Voting c. Consensus d. Nominal group technique
Answer b is correct.
4.48. If every new employee receives an hour of training on the company's quality system, then: a. The duration needs to be at least one-half day b. The effectiveness of the training should be evaluated c. This training should be repeated once a year for all employees d. The course material is effective if it has remained the same for five years
Answer b is correct.
4.8. When a team finds itself divided into two groups and they have reached an impasse on a solution, then: a. The team leader should disband the team b. The facilitator should guide the team through the process c. The sergeant at arms should ask one group to excuse themselves d. The team should split and have each group work on solutions
Answer b is correct.
4.9. The team leadership model characterized by "we'll talk but I'll decide" is called: a. Directing b. Coaching c. Supporting d. Delegating
Answer b is correct.
5.10. Which of the following is a primary reason for periodic project reviews? a. To highlight the project team's efforts b. To update goal achievement c. To expand the schedule d. To increase the costs
Answer b is correct.
5.15. Project management usually contains a phase known as the statement of work. The best description of this activity includes which of the following? a. It contains the start and end dates of the project as well as major milestones b. It is an expansion of the project objectives including project outputs and deliverables c. It details the reasons for undertaking the project d. It is a plan which includes a detailed listing of those activities necessary to complete the project
Answer b is correct.
5.17. Customer expectations follow which hierarchy of needs, from low to high? a. Expected, basic, unanticipated, desired b. Basic, expected, desired, unanticipated c. Unanticipated, basic, expected, desired d. Desired, expected, basic, unanticipated
Answer b is correct.
5.19. The boundaries of a project are contained in the: a. Problem statement b. Project scope c. Goal statement d. Resources required
Answer b is correct.
5.21. Potentially, the most difficult area to obtain meaningful information, during the six sigma define phase, would be: a. From internal manufacturing processes b. From primary customers c. From principal suppliers d. From internal process input areas
Answer b is correct.
5.24. Why is it important for a six sigma improvement team to be aware of any CTX (critical to X) requirements impacting an assigned project? a. It could potentially simplify the project b. It helps to align the project to the requirements c. It assists in the selection of appropriate team members d. It eliminates areas that will require investigation
Answer b is correct.
5.25. Lessons learned for a project would typically include which of the following? a. How to secure increased funding for similar projects b. The effectiveness of the entire project c. The advantages of manual project management methods d. Elimination of milestone reporting
Answer b is correct.
5.28. Which of the analytical tools incorporates a form of flow charting? a. Affinity diagrams and matrix diagrams b. Tree diagrams and activity network diagrams c. Affinity diagrams and tree diagrams d. Matrix diagrams and tree diagrams
Answer b is correct.
5.29. Which of the following management tools is most similar to the cause-and-effect diagram? a. Prioritization matrices b. Affinity diagrams c. Activity network diagrams d. Tree diagrams
Answer b is correct.
5.30. As an alternative to QFD, the plotting of items of customer importance versus the customer's corresponding satisfaction level, using a form of Likert scale, would most appropriately be called: a. A matrix diagram b. A perceptual map c. A cause-and-effect matrix d. A correlation chart
Answer b is correct.
5.48. A project has been completed and the final report has been written. The next activity relevant to the project is: a. Benefit-cost analysis b. Postmortem analysis c. Reward and recognition of project team members d. Document archiving
Answer b is correct.
5.53. During a project work breakdown structure, a number of planning activities occur. Which of the following items is included? a. The project objective is defined b. The work is divided into smaller activities c. Unnecessary activities are defined d. The project savings are established
Answer b is correct.
3.14. The term "metrics" most frequently refers to: a. A unit of measurement b. The metric system c. Net present value d. An evaluation method
Answer d is correct.
6.21. ABC manufacturing company has just hired a new manager as a champion to implement lean initiatives. The champion's first task is: a. Review the lean program with senior management b. Define the current state map c. Develop an implementation program d. Talk to everyone about their personal needs
Answer b is correct.
6.22. One use of recording check sheets is: a. Automated charting of variable data b. Collecting tally counts of attribute data c. Identification of process variables d. To create a process map
Answer b is correct.
6.23. Refer to the circle (Venn) diagram below: Which of the following is true? a. A is a subset of B b. B and C are mutually exclusive c. A is a subset of C d. C and B form the entire sample space
Answer b is correct.
6.24. Little's law is widely used as a determination of: a. Value added times b. Process flow times c. Productive maintenance requirements d. Nonconforming material control
Answer b is correct.
6.4. If the interaction roof of a house of quality (HOQ) uses a numeric scale (instead of alphabetic), what type of data is being displayed? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio
Answer b is correct.
7.12. The major difference between process capability indices and process performance indices is: a. The specification spread must be known for process capability indices b. How the standard deviation term is determined for the two indices c. The target value must be known for process performance indices d. The required failure rate limit must be known for process capability indices
Answer b is correct.
7.16. lf we were to compare short-term capability with long-term capability for the same process, one should not be surprised to find: a. The long-term capability improves b. The Cp is better short-term c. The results are very comparable d. The average drifts but the variation stays
Answer b is correct.
7.25. Which distribution is most appropriate for modelling the number of surface defects on a disk drive? a. Normal b. Poisson c. Exponential d. Lognormal
Answer b is correct.
7.28. For two events, A and B, which one of the following is a true probability statement? a. P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) if A and B are independent b. P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) if A and B are mutually exclusive c. P(A and B) = P(A) x P(B) if A and B are mutually exclusive d. P(A or B) = P(A) x P(B) if A and B are independent
Answer b is correct.
7.3. A number derived from sample data, which describes the data in some useful way, is called a: a. Constant b. Statistic c. Parameter d. Critical value
Answer b is correct.
7.37. A histogram is also known as: a. A cumulative frequency graph b. A relative frequency graph c. A population distribution function d. A central tendency diagram
Answer b is correct.
7.4. The best way to determine process capability for non-normal data is by: a. Removing the non-normal data points b. Using some form of data transformation c. Constructing a histogram and estimate the results d. Improving the process by making the data normal
Answer b is correct.
8.1. A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and their gasoline mileage. The correlation coefficient was found to be 0.35. Later, it was discovered that there was a defect in the speedometers and they had all been set 5 miles per hour too fast. The correlation coefficient was computed using the corrected scores. Its new value will be: a. 0.30 b. 0.35 C. 0.40 d. -0.35
Answer b is correct.
8.15. Which of the following statements is true regarding nonparametric tests? a. They have a greater efficiency than comparable parametric tests b. They can be applied to correlation studies c. They require assumptions about the shape or nature of the populations involved d. They require computations that are more difficult than corresponding parametric methods
Answer b is correct.
8.16. A two-way analysis of variance has r levels for one variable and c levels for the second variable with 2 observations per cell. The degree of freedom for interaction is: a. 2(r)(c) b. (r-1)(c-1) c. rc -1 d. 2(r-1)(c-1)
Answer b is correct.
8.17. A null hypothesis states that a process has not improved after some modifications were made. The type II error is to conclude that: a. One has failed to reject the null hypothesis when it is true b. One has failed to reject the null hypothesis when it is false c. One has rejected the null hypothesis d. One has made a correct decision with an alpha probability
Answer b is correct.
8.18. In the manufacture of airplane fuselage frame sections, thousands of rivets are used to join aluminum sheets and frames. A study of the number of oversize rivet holes and the number of minor repairs on a unit yielded a correlation coefficient of +/- 1.08 . This means that: a. The number of oversized rivet holes is a good predictor of the number of minor repairs b. A new statistician should be hired c. The number of oversized rivet holes is a poor predictor of the number of minor repairs d. A small number of minor repairs will have to be made
Answer b is correct.
8.19. In an experiment designed to compare two different ways of measuring a given quantity, it was desired to test the null hypothesis that the means were equal at the 0.05 level of significance. A sample of five parts was measured by method A and a sample of seven parts with method B. A t-ratio of 2.179 was obtained. One should: a. Reject the null hypothesis b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis c. Conclude that A is greater than B d. Conclude that more should be known about the sample means
Answer b is correct.
8.23. The equation below is: a. The covariance of X and Y b. The correlation coefficient of X and Y c. The coefficient of determination of X and Y d. The variance of the product of X and Y
Answer b is correct.
8.27. Tremendous advances have been made in the quality of an electronic component produced in quantities of one million units per year. Last year only six defectives were discovered. A further improvement was made. The plant manager asked the master black belt to run a 100,000 unit trial to determine with 95% confidence if the rate had been lowered by 2 DPMO. What was the master black belt's response? a. It will take too much time b. It can't be done with 100,000 units c. It will only be proven if defectives are found d. There must be a larger improvement for testing purposes
Answer b is correct.
8.58. How are the expected values in a contingency table calculated? a. Column total - row total I grand total b. (Column total) (row total) I grand total c. Column total + row total I grand total d. Row total - column total I grand total
Answer b is correct.
8.29. Consider the SS and MS columns of an analysis of variance table for a single factor design. The appropriate ratio for testing the null hypothesis of no treatment effect is: a. SS treatments divided by SS residual b. MS treatments divided by MS residual c. SS treatments divided by MS residual d. MS treatments divided by SS residual
Answer b is correct.
8.30. Which of the following is considered a preventive technique? a. Rework due to poor molding b. Performing design validation c. In-process inspection by an inspector d. Re-tooling because of engineering changes
Answer b is correct.
8.31. In a t test, alpha is 0.05, therefore: a. 5% of the time one will say that there is no real difference when there is a difference b. 5% of the time one will say that there is a real difference when there is not a difference c. 95% of the time one will make an incorrect inference d. 95% of the time the null hypothesis will be correct
Answer b is correct.
8.36. Why should an experimenter plot data points and graph the least squares line if a probabilistic regression model exists? a. To visually present the relationship to others b. To check for fit; there may be a calculation error c. There's no rational reason for doing so d. To permit a projection outside of the test area
Answer b is correct.
8.37. The current process produces fifty units per shift, a new process yielded fifty-two units per shift for sixteen straight shifts, with a standard deviation of four units per shifts. What is the level of confidence that the process has changed? a. <90% b. 90-95% C. 95-99% d. >99%
Answer b is correct.
8.38. Most practitioners of regression analysis would not be surprised to find that: a. The coefficient of determination is greater than r^2 b. The r^2 value is a smaller absolute value than r c. The correlation coefficient equals r^2 d. The correlation coefficient equals the slope of the line
Answer b is correct.
8.40. Which table should be used to determine a confidence interval on the mean when a is not known and the sample size is 10? a. z b. t c. F d. X'
Answer b is correct.
8.50. What inference test compares observed and expected frequencies of test outcomes? a. F test b. Chi square test c. t test d. Paired t test
Answer b is correct.
8.52. A process FMEA is generally performed: a. Just after the design FMEA is completed b. Just before the production tooling is authorized c. Just after the design drawings are finalized d. As soon as a manufacturing defect is uncovered
Answer b is correct.
8.53. A lowered rejection rate following corrective action: a. Gives positive indication that one cause of nonconformance has been removed b. May be unrelated to the corrective action c. Indicates that the corrective action was directly related to the problem d. Has no significance
Answer b is correct.
8.7. When constructing a power of test curve, one would not be surprised to discover that as alpha (a) increases: a. The value of mu becomes greater b. Beta decreases c. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis decreases d. The sample size becomes larger
Answer b is correct.
9.1. In the drum-buffer-rope methodology, what role does the drum play? a. The process output b. The process constraint c. The process feedback d. The process inventory
Answer b is correct.
9.12. When selecting and scaling the process input variables for an experiment, what is a desirable approach? a. Include all known factors b. Set factor levels at practical or possible levels c. Combine process measurement responses when possible d. Select very high and low factor levels
Answer b is correct.
9.16. When performing one experiment with five repetitions, what are the six experiments called? a. Randomization b. Replications c. Planned grouping d. Sequential
Answer b is correct.
9.2. Goldratt's theory of constraints deals with money in relationship to three fundamental measurements for evaluating a system. Align the following measures with their monetary equivalents. a. Throughput is money going out b. Inventory is money stuck inside c. Operational expenses are incoming money d. Inventory is money going out
Answer b is correct.
9.25. Identify the most difficult limitation to overcome in achieving continuous flow. a. Untrained employees b. Dated equipment c. Employee culture d. Middle management involvement
Answer b is correct.
9.26. Randomized block designs are best suited for: a. Screening objectives b. Comparative objectives c. Response surface objectives d. Regression model objectives
Answer b is correct.
9.28. A 2 level 5 factor experiment is being conducted to optimize the reliability of an electronic control module. A half replicate of the standard full factorial experiment is proposed. The number of treatment combinations will be: a. 10 b. 16 C. 25 d. 32
Answer b is correct.
9.37. A prime reason to consider the use of evolutionary operations (EVOP) in industrial facilities would be: a. When a bold strategy for improvement is considered b. When existing industrial processes are not running at their highest efficiencies c. To test large samples in a conservative manner d. Because calculations for EVOP are simplified and will lead to better results
Answer b is correct.
9.40. Identify the best way to error proof activities? a. By corrective actions b. By preventive actions c. By containment actions d. By temporary actions
Answer b is correct.
9.41. The repeated trials in a designed experiment allow for: a. First order modeling b. Determination of experimental error c. Nested experimentation d. The resolution of main effects
Answer b is correct.
9.43. Which of the following is a downtime setup loss? a. Preparing parts b. Changing dies c. Cleaning spares d. Finding parts
Answer b is correct.
9.49. Residuals are estimates of experimental error obtained by subtracting the predicted responses from the observed responses. The residuals should be checked for behavior. This can be accomplished by which of the following methods? a. Applying a statistical test such as a t test b. Using a normal probability plot c. Using a box-and-whiskers box chart d. Comparing the Xs to the Ys
Answer b is correct.
9.52. A randomized complete block design is used to reduce the residual error in an experiment. A special type of randomized complete block design will remove two sources of variability in the design by blocking in two directions. This is referred to as a: a. Graeco-Latin square b. Latin Square design c. Hyper-Graceo-Latin design d. Randomized incomplete block
Answer b is correct.
9.54. Which of the following 5S stages is primarily the responsibility of top management? a. Shine b. Sustain c. Sort d. Straighten
Answer b is correct.
9.6. The main objection to designed experimentation in an industrial environment is: a. Obtaining more information for less cost than with traditional experimentation b. Getting excessive scrap as a result of choosing factor levels that are too extreme c. Verifying that one factor at a time is the most economical way to proceed d. Obtaining data and then deciding what to do with it
Answer b is correct.
2.22. In the social portion of PEST analysis, an organization would be concerned with: a. Birth rates b. Monetary policies c. Inflation rates d. Emerging technologies
Answer bis a political or economic concern. Answer c is an economic concern. Answer dis a technological ]
9.27. Which of the following is the best description of randomization? a. A means of ensuring parallel experimentation b. A technique used to increase the validity of an experiment c. The repetition of an observation or measurement d. The relationship between two or more variables
Answer bis the best choice. Randomization enhances the precision and validity of an experiment by freeing ]
7.8. Which of the following measures of variability is independent of the exact value of every measurement? a. Mean deviation b. Variance c. Range d. Standard deviation
Answer c is correct
10.10. Since many variables are important in control charting, what is the risk in having an operator plot a large number of characteristics? a. None, if the operator is trained and knowledgeable b. Danger in overlooking a CTQ characteristic c. Distraction from the actual process itself d. It is non-value added work in the lean philosophy
Answer c is correct.
10.14. In a visual factory setting, kanban cards are typically used to: a. Identify areas needing housekeeping attention b. Clarify targets for future improvement c. Regulate the flow of production and inventory d. Make production problems visible
Answer c is correct.
10.23. What organizational documentation levels describe who will accomplish specific tasks and how they are to be accomplished? a. The control manual and operating procedures b. Work instructions and work records c. Operating procedures and work instructions d. Operating procedures and work records
Answer c is correct.
10.25. A p chart has been plotted for some time. Recently, steps have been made to substantially improve the process. One would not be surprised to find that: a. The chart demonstrates more out-of-control conditions b. The chart must be converted into a variable chart c. A larger sample size must be taken d. The chart requires the samples to be taken more frequently than in the past
Answer c is correct.
10.31. What is the equipment availability if there are 7.5 hours available per shift, 30 minutes of setup time, 15 minutes of planned downtime, and 15 minutes of unscheduled equipment failure? a. 87% b. 93% C. 90% d. 85%
Answer c is correct.
10.32. A six sigma project lessons learned review committee consists of individuals who are: a. Members of the original improvement team b. Black belts not associated with the project under review c. Participants established by company policy d. Representatives of major internal company functions
Answer c is correct.
10.34. Which control chart pattern best represents an in control process? a. A consecutive run of seven or more points on one side of the center line b. A random distribution of points with one point outside the control limits c. A random distribution of points on both sides of the center line d. A steady trend of points toward either control limit
Answer c is correct.
10.38. The best chart for analyzing volatile data, like stock market averages or commodity prices, would be: a. X-bar and R chart b. P chart c. Moving average chart d. Short run chart
Answer c is correct.
10.40. Assume an operating speed rate of 80%. If 40 units are produced at 2 minutes/unit in two hours, what is the performance efficiency of the work unit? a. 0.800 b. 0.667 C. 0.534 d. 0.435
Answer c is correct.
10.6. About 9 months after embarking on a six sigma effort, a company moved from measurement with traditional mikes and verniers to digital mikes and two piece linear scales. Why was this action necessary? a. They probably wanted to show prospective customers their level of measurement precision b. If changes were made they did not want to be caught "asleep at the switch" c. Processes have improved and they needed finer product measurements d. This would be required in the control phase of the DMAIC process
Answer c is correct.
11.17. What signal to noise (s/n) ratio would be used to calculate system performance for items such as shrinkage, wear, deterioration rate? a. Nominal is best b. Robust is best c. Smaller is better d. Larger is better
Answer c is correct.
11.2. Which of the following is a key consideration when designing for cost? a. Utilizing unique components b. Increasing features that are critical to quality c. Reducing the number of parts d. Using fasteners instead of self-fastening features
Answer c is correct.
11.5. In 2014, QCI produced a Yellow Belt (CSSYB) Primer. This product would be considered: a. A lower cost model b. A product improvement c. An addition to existing product lines d. A product repositioning
Answer c is correct.
2.11. As a rule, which of the following statements can be made regarding organizations that are tall and narrow? a. They are less bureaucratic than many other structures b. Communication channels allow for the rapid dissemination of information c. They are typical for many large organizations d. They handle decision-making rapidly
Answer c is correct.
2.13. What is the best upper management reason for not providing black belt assistance to an improvement team? a. Black belt resources may be tight b. It forces the team to develop their own skills c. It may not be required d. It requires the team to ask for help c. Management may choose to apply black belt resources in a targeted approach.
Answer c is correct.
2.25. A company struggling with low performance in terms of quality, profitability, and productivity is considering a six sigma initiative. A decision to proceed would be considered: a. Smart, they have a lot of low lying fruit b. Unwise, they probably can't afford the effort c. Unwise, they need to attend to basic activities first d. Smart, they obviously need the six sigma structure
Answer c is correct.
2.26. Many tools can be used in either lean or six sigma projects. A problem solving approach that unifies project follow-up is: a. SIPOC b. DOE c. DMAIC d. TPM
Answer c is correct.
2.29. Change agents (the person or group that acts as the catalyst and assumes responsibility for managing the change process) may be internal or external. Which of the following is an advantage of using an internal change agent? a. They may be part of the problem b. They may not have diverse knowledge c. They may be readily available d. They may be too close to the problem
Answer c is correct.
2.3. Reluctance of a line manager to release manpower or resources to a project manager is one type of: a. Matrix management b. Objective prioritization c. Organizational roadblock d. Harmonization of responsibility and authority
Answer c is correct.
2.31. Review the following assessment statements: There is low industry rivalry There are few regulatory requirements There is currently a positive growth cycle What SWOT analysis area is most clearly being portrayed? a. Strengths b. Weaknesses c. Opportunities d. Threats
Answer c is correct.
2.32. The function of a coach in a six sigma organization is most likely to be filled by which of the following: a. Steering committee members b. Process owners c. Black belts d. Green belts
Answer c is correct.
2.4. A SWOT analysis is an easy way for a company to evaluate itself and plan a strategy. A key concern is: a. Lack of resources to do an analysis b. Situations changing over time c. Lack of objectivity in the analysis d. Lack of planned change
Answer c is correct.
2.6. Increasing performance in a lean six sigma corporation from 3 sigma to 4 sigma would reduce defects per million by a factor of: a. 2 b. 8 C. 10 d. 16
Answer c is correct.
3.15. The best reason for instituting a quality cost system is: a. To satisfy ISO 9001 requirements b. To achieve a proper balance of prevention, appraisal, and failure costs c. To identify opportunities for improvement d. To benchmark major competitors
Answer c is correct.
3.20. Why would an improvement team undertake a cost-benefit analysis? a. To determine the project net present value b. To determine the project return on assets c. To determine if the project is financially worthwhile d. To determine the project return on investment
Answer c is correct.
3.26. The establishment of a balanced scorecard for an organization almost always includes the need for: a. A stakeholder b. A customer c. A facilitator d. A mentor
Answer c is correct.
3.9. Understanding, controlling, and improving an organization's processes to create value for all stakeholders would be called: a. The SIPOC diagram b. Process performance metric c. Business process management d. The establishment of KPIVs and KPOVs
Answer c is correct.
4.11. Good team members: a. Provide valid excuses when they miss a meeting b. Don't argue with other team members, even when they are wrong c. Encourage participation by other team members d. Withhold unpopular information from the team
Answer c is correct.
4.12. When a student receives high marks on a set of questions relating to training he/she received, it indicates that: a. The student understood the training material b. The test questions were fair c. Most of the questions were answered correctly d. The student can apply the training information
Answer c is correct.
4.2. Many training instructors have developed approaches to emphasize multiple sense learning. Which of the following options would be generally recognized to best foster student retention? a. Reading and hearing b. Hearing and seeing c. Seeing and speaking d. Reading and seeing
Answer c is correct.
4.21. In order for a team to understand and anticipate the resistance that other members of the organization may have for a proposed recommendation, what team tool would be most useful? a. Multivoting b. Groupthink c. Force field analysis d. Nominal group think
Answer c is correct.
4.25. When two team members express strong opposite views, the remaining team members should: a. Ask both members to leave b. Vote that the leader stop the discussion c. Have the two clearly state their positions d. Use the sponsor to clarify the situation
Answer c is correct.
4.26. Which of the following is the most beneficial reason for training program evaluation? a. To reduce the training content b. To compensate the instructors c. To measure the perceived training value d. To improve the training conditions
Answer c is correct.
4.28. Training is most effective when: a. It is conducted by trained educators b. The human resources department provides it c. The employee has a desire to learn d. The company makes it mandatory
Answer c is correct.
4.3. Using a PDCA process to design a customer survey, while implementing a customer feedback and improvement process, is an example of: a. The critical path method b. A customer driven company c. A PDCA process within a PDCA process d. A reactive versus a proactive approach
Answer c is correct.
4.34. Training methods using lectures, books, and homework: a. Are seldom used for high tech products b. Will be obsolete within 20 years c. Allows for instructor adjustment to meet class specific needs d. Requires a relatively high cost for preparation of course materials
Answer c is correct.
4.36. Which of the following are true statements regarding such classical training techniques as books, home study, demonstrations, etc.? a. The per student costs are insignificant b. They are seldom effective for high technology products and services c. They allow an instructor to make quick adjustments to meet class needs d. They are most useful for large audiences or training groups
Answer c is correct.
4.39. Which of the following would be indicative of a poorly functioning team? a. Conflict is openly discussed b. All team members participate in deliberations and meetings c. Goals of the team have been predetermined without negotiation d. Decisions are made by consensus
Answer c is correct.
4.4. What primary activities take place during a typical team meeting? a. Conflict between the facilitator and the team members b. Taking detailed minutes and publishing the information promptly c. Learning the team process and improving the work process d. Consensus building and conflict resolution
Answer c is correct.
4.41. Which of the following statements is true for technological driven training tools? a. They are easier to use for most employees than are the older methods b. They can be simultaneously used by a relatively small number of people c. They can simulate real events for training purposes d. They are usually limited to specific locations because of equipment requirements
Answer c is correct.
4.42. Modifying or redesigning a product would most likely occur during which two PDCA phases? a. Plan and do b. Check and act c. Do and act d. Plan and act
Answer c is correct.
4.5. Team briefing presentations to senior management should include which of the following considerations? a. Since the time of senior management is valuable address all potential details b. Every member of the team should have a speaking/briefing role c. Identify the problem and the proposed action desired d. Handouts should require author(s) explanations
Answer c is correct.
4.6. In most cases, an improvement team receives the least control and direction during which of the following stages: a. Building b. Storming c. Performing d. Alarming
Answer c is correct.
5.12. The project charter will contain a business case, which can be defined as: a. A reasoning for the redesign of a process or product b. The full arguments for the project c. A short summary of the strategic reason for the project d. A case study of the project situation
Answer c is correct.
5.12. The project charter will contain a business case, which can be defined as: a. A reasoning for the redesign of a process or product b. The full arguments for the project c. A short summary of the strategic reason for the project d. A case study of the project situation
Answer c is correct.
5.26. If a team discovers that additional resources from other areas must be included to solve a problem, they are suggesting an adjustment to the charter: a. Transition b. Scope c. Boundaries d. Revenues
Answer c is correct.
5.34. In QFD, which of the following steps should occur before proceeding to any additional steps? a. Perform customer competitive assessments b. Conduct technical competitive assessments c. Determine the customer needs d. Assess the technical design features required
Answer c is correct.
5.41. If an improvement team were charged with a project to provide services and products within a specified time interval, they would be working on what CTX requirement? a. CTQ b. CTP c. CTD d. CTS
Answer c is correct.
5.45. The SMART approach focuses on: a. Individual involvement b. Time boxed results c. Project management d. Process management
Answer c is correct.
5.47. If an improvement team were to investigate their customer base by moving from general to more specific customer needs, what technique would be employed? a. Pareto analysis b. Kano model c. CTQ tree d. Affinity diagram
Answer c is correct.
5.7. Which of the following management tools requires the least preliminary knowledge about a subject or activity? a. Prioritization matrices b. Matrix diagrams c. Affinity diagrams d. Activity network diagrams
Answer c is correct.
6.1. One would normally describe recorded values reflecting length, volume, and time as: a. Measurable, discrete, continuous b. Discrete, variable, continuous c. Continuous, measurable, variable d. Variable, discrete, measurable
Answer c is correct.
6.18. When calibration is being performed on a measuring device, and no applicable national reference standard exists, then an acceptable alternative is to: a. Create the standard based on 10 readings from each of the 3 technicians b. Petition NIST to establish a standard for the device c. Document the method of establishing and maintaining the standard used d. Indicate in the device calibration records "calibration not required"
Answer c is correct.
6.26. Typically, spaghetti diagrams focus on: a. Machine locations b. Employee activities c. Information and material flow d. Takt time for all key products
Answer c is correct.
6.27. What set of basic quality tools would be most applicable for a work team to use when there is a desire to follow procedures and work instructions more closely? a. Pareto and affinity diagrams b. Data sheets and histograms c. Checklists and flow charts d. Fishbone diagrams and control charts
Answer c is correct.
6.6. Which of the following is most important when calibrating a piece of equipment? a. The calibration sticker b. The maintenance history card c. The standard used d. The calibration interval
Answer c is correct.
6.7. The calibration of measuring instruments is necessary to maintain accuracy. How does calibration affect precision? a. The precision increases over the working range of the instrument b. The precision decreases over the working range of the instrument c. Calibration has a minimal impact on precision d. The precision will vary over the working range of the instrument
Answer c is correct.
7.20. For attribute data, process capability: a. Cannot be determined b. Is determined by the control limits on the applicable attribute chart c. Is defined as the average proportion of nonconforming product d. Is measured by counting the average nonconforming units in 25 or more samples
Answer c is correct.
7.34. Which of the following statistical distributions can be used to compare sample means? a. Chi square distribution b. Normal distribution c. t distribution d. Exponential distribution
Answer c is correct.
7.35. The hypergeometric distribution should be used instead of the binomial distribution when: a. There are more than 2 outcomes on a single trial b. Each trial is independent c. Sampling does not involve replacement d. There is a fixed number of trials
Answer c is correct.
8.13. Which of the following statements concerning the coefficient of simple linear correlation, r, is true? a. r = 0.00 represents the absence of a relationship b. The relationship between the two variables must be nonlinear c. r = 0.76 has the same predictive power as r = -0.76 d. r = 2.00 represents a perfect relationship
Answer c is correct.
8.2. Failure modes and effects analysis involves what activity? a. The determination of the probability of failure in a specified period of time b. The expected number of failures in a given time interval c. The study of how a product fails and what causes the failure d. A study of the probability of success in a given time period
Answer c is correct.
8.21. An assessment technique to compare a company's current performance to a desired or potential performance is called: a. Benchmarking b. SWOT analysis c. Gap analysis d. Marketplace response
Answer c is correct.
8.25. In order to test whether the average output of one machine is the same or greater value than another machine, a sample of ten pieces was taken from each. The calculated t-value turned out to be 1.767. a. The obtained t-ratio does not fall within the critical region b. There was no significant difference between the means c. The null hypothesis was rejected d. The null hypothesis was accepted
Answer c is correct.
8.32. The risk priority number (RPN) is the measure of risk related to a particular failure mode. The ratings for each category (severity, occurrence, and detection) are on a 1 to 10 scale. If a FMEA has 10 failure modes with RPN numbers ranging from 50 to 300, an improvement team's recommended actions should focus on which of the following? a. Working on those failure modes with RPNs greater than 50 b. Using the Pareto principle to prioritize the highest RPNs c. Identifying high severity failure modes followed by high RPN numbers d. Using the Pareto principle and start with the top 20% of the failure modes
Answer c is correct.
8.39. The hybrid option on a $25,000 car costs $3,000. A gas mileage test found the hybrid averaged 39.1 mpg and the standard model averaged 34. 7 mpg and a p-value of 0.024. At a level of significance of 5%, the difference is: a. Not statistically significant, buy the standard car b. Not practically significant, buy the hybrid car c. Statistically significant, but not practically significant d. Statistically significant, one should buy the hybrid
Answer c is correct.
8.42. Given the following results obtained from a fixed factor, randomized, block design experiment, in which the production outputs of three machines A, B, and C are compared: a. 2 b. 3 c. 12 d. 14
Answer c is correct.
8.46. It is desirable to reduce the variation in a process. The current variance is known to be six. A new process yielded a standard deviation of two for twenty-five trials. What is the chi square calculated statistic ? a. 13.85 b. 15.66 C. 16.00 d. 18.24
Answer c is correct.
8.48. For a linear correlation the total sum of squares equals 1,600 and the total sum of squared errors equals 1,000. What is r2? a. 0.600 b. 0.625 C. 0.375 d. 0.750
Answer c is correct.
8.5. Identify a non-value added activity that would be considered a form of processing muda: a. Any and all forms of transportation b. An ergonomically unsound workplace c. Reshaping a product due to poor dies d. Producing more than needed by the customer
Answer c is correct.
8.51. A product was yielding 90% recovery before an improvement was made. To determine if a 2% change (in either direction) has been made at the 95% confidence level, what sample size should be taken? a. 468 b. 648 C. 864 d. 1,728
Answer c is correct.
8.59. If two sigma limits are substituted for conventional three sigma limits on a control chart, which of the following will occur? a. Alpha risk decreases b. Beta risk increases c. Alpha risk increases d. Sample size increases
Answer c is correct.
8.6. The test used for testing significance in an analysis of variance table is the: a. Z test c. F test b. t test d. Chi square test
Answer c is correct.
9.11. Prior to the full-scale deployment of a potential product, process, or equipment change, an improvement team would be wise to: a. Consider an expansion to new markets b. Upgrade any obsolete facilities c. Conduct a pilot study d. Consider what the competition's reactions might be
Answer c is correct.
9.22. The advantage of using the modern designed method of experimentation, rather than the classical, is that: a. Everything is held constant except the factor under investigation b. Experimental error is recognized but need not be stated in quantitative terms c. Fewer terms and measurements are needed for valid and useful information d. The sequence of measurement is often assumed to have no effect
Answer c is correct.
9.23. Highly fractional factorial designs are often used as: a. Simplex designs b. Orthogonal designs c. Screening experiments d. Mixture experiments
Answer c is correct.
9.29. An assumption that is made regarding experimental residuals is that: a. They be quadratically distributed b. They be small relative to the main effects c. They be independently distributed d. They demonstrate unequal variances
Answer c is correct.
9.31. If confounding occurs in a three factor experiment (A, B, and C) conducted at two levels, one would expect that factor A would be confounded with: a. Factor B b. Factor C c. The BC interaction d. Either the AB or AC interaction
Answer c is correct.
9.38. To achieve rapid improvement, which of the following concepts is appropriate? a. Standard work b. Poka-yoke c. Kaizen blitz d. 5S activities
Answer c is correct.
9.39. A designed experiment of three factors (A, B, & C) at two levels was conducted. The eight runs were analyzed, suggesting that one level of factor A showed significant improvement. The plant manager stated that no additional runs are needed. The experimenter's response should be: a. The experiment did its job and should be closed b. The results of the test should be implemented immediately c. Additional replications are needed to verify the experiment d. An EVOP should be conducted to improve the process further
Answer c is correct.
9.4. As with the seven quality management tools, the Japanese concept of workplace organization, 5S, has been "Americanized." Of the five original tools, which is the hardest to find in the American system? a. Seiri b. Seiton C. Shitsuke d. Seiso
Answer c is correct.
9.45. The differences between the actual experimental response data and the predicted model data are termed: a. Confounded data b. Nested experiments c. Residuals d. Efficiency of estimators
Answer c is correct.
9.47. In examining the residuals of an experiment, one would hope to avoid which of the following results? a. Some residuals higher than predicted b. Some residuals lower than expected c. Some residuals exhibiting correlation d. A consistent amount of error across the test range
Answer c is correct.
9.5. An incomplete block design may be especially suitable when: a. There is missing data b. There is need for fractional replication c. It may not be possible to apply all treatments in every block d. There is a need to estimate the parameters during the experimentation
Answer c is correct.
9.51. Why are pilot runs, simulations, demonstrations, and prototype testing important to six sigma teams? a. They are great ways to define problems b. They can save time and money during problem analysis c. They are important techniques to evaluate potential improvements d. They indicate the optimal way to control a number of processes
Answer c is correct.
9.53. Plackett and Burman experimental designs are called screening designs. A screening design can be defined as: a. An experiment with interactions among the main effects b. The use of non-geometric experimental designs c. An identification of the key input factors d. A fractional factorial experiment
Answer c is correct.
9.56. What is considered an ideal batch size in a continuous flow operation? a. Large batches b. It depends on the bin size c. One piece at a time d. The takt time batch size
Answer c is correct.
9.7. When considering EVOP as a statistical tool: a. A change in the means indicates that the wrong model has been used b. An external estimate of the experiment error is necessary c. It may be extended beyond the two level factorial case d. One is limited to one response variable at a time
Answer c is correct.
9.9. The DOE term "collinear" refers to: a. Two linear variables b. A linear interaction c. Variables being a linear combination of one another d. Linear correlation
Answer c is correct.
2.27. The most technical training and knowledge in the typical six sigma organization typically resides in which of the following roles? a. Executive sponsors b. Green belts c. Black belts d. Master black belts
Answer d Is correct.
6.10. Calculate the takt time for the provided system data: Demand 30 units /hr a. 5 minutes b. 1.8 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 2 minutes
Answer d is correct
10.1. A manufacturer of micro tubing measures a single unit width in four different locations. For every unit measured, the four readings become one sample. The sample mean and range are then plotted on an X-bar and R chart. The resulting chart shows a distinct lack of control. How would the charts be interpreted? a. Look for assignable causes of variation b. Look for chance causes of variation c. There is a combination of chance and assignable causes of variation d. The approach is inconsistent with rational subgrouping, making the charts meaningless
Answer d is correct.
10.11. A six sigma project has progressed to the point that a control plan is required. Control plan activities can be considered closed after which of the following? a. A process owner is named for the control plan b. A responsible engineer is designated c. The cross functional team signs off on the control plan d. The control plan is a "living document" and is rarely closed
Answer d is correct.
10.12. An X-bar and R chart was prepared for an operation using twenty samples with five pieces in each sample; X-bar bar was found to be 33.6 and R-bar was 6.20. During production, a sample of five was taken and the pieces measured 36, 43, 37, 25, and 38. At the time, this sample was taken: a. Both the average and range were within control limits b. Neither the average nor range were within control limits c. Only the average was outside control limits d. Only the range was outside control limits
Answer d is correct.
2.8. Relative to the duties and responsibilities of departments within a six sigma company, the most critical requirement calls for: a. Task forces and teams b. The establishment of liaison roles c. A matrix organizational structure d. Cross functional collaboration
Answer d is correct.
10.13. An average chart has been in control for some time. If the sample ranges suddenly and significantly increase, the sample mean will: a. Usually increase b. Stay the same c. Always decrease d. Occasionally show out-of-control of either limit
Answer d is correct.
10.21. An operator is plotting a control chart and the last two of three points are greater than 2 sigma, four out of the last five points are beyond 1 sigma, and eight successive points are on one side of the center line. Based on this information, the operator should: a. Stop the process immediately b. Take more readings and continue to plot c. Write a discrepancy notice to the supervisor d. Investigate to determine what has changed
Answer d is correct.
10.29. When should an X - MR chart be used? a. When the number of defectives is being monitored b. When an exceptionally large run size is expected c. When range data is unreliable d. For destructive testing applications
Answer d is correct.
10.3. A control chart is used to: a. Determine if defective parts are being produced b. Measure process capability c. Determine causes of process variation d. Detect non-random variation in processes
Answer d is correct.
10.5. After the creation of a new or revised process, what action step should follow next? a. Management should be trained in the techniques b. A human interaction curriculum must be developed c. A group of adequately qualified instructors should be recruited d. The appropriate individuals needing training should be identified
Answer d is correct.
11.11. The product development process should consist of: a. An individual product developer b. A relay team of function-to-function specialists c. Internal quality teams d. Multi-functional teams
Answer d is correct.
11.12. In the robust design approach what is the design output? a. Signal factors b. Noise factors c. Control factors d. Response factors
Answer d is correct.
11.18. The most significant difference between the six step DMADOV design process and the four step IDOV design process is: a. The two additional design steps in the DMADOV process b. IDOV uses validate and DMADOV uses verify c. The IDOV process is quicker d. IDOV includes measure and analyze in the design step
Answer d is correct.
11.8. In both the DMADVand DMADOV development methodologies there is a measure step. What is being measured? a. The project goals b. The estimated cost of the project c. The depth of the potential creative model solutions d. The customer needs and specifications
Answer d is correct.
2.12. What guru is most widely associated with DOE? a. Shingo b. Juran c. Ishikawa d. Taguchi
Answer d is correct.
2.17. The concept most closely associated with lean production is: a. Better quality b. Faster production c. Flexible production d. Elimination of waste
Answer d is correct.
2.5. Which of the following concepts is mostly associated with Taiichi Ohno? a. SPC b. TOG c. CTQ d. TPS
Answer d is correct.
3.11. One may say that business metrics, as opposed to process or operational metrics, would be most concerned with: a. Quality and costs b. Throughput and costs c. Quality and features d. Profit and market share
Answer d is correct.
3.2. What key step would follow an evaluation of current practices against a benchmark? a. Identifying key performance factors b. Selecting performance criteria based on priorities c. Determining a leader in a critical performance area d. Undertaking significant changes to advance performance
Answer d is correct.
3.23. If the project internal rate of return is estimated to be 8%, the project will be approved when: a. The discount rate of 8% yields an NPV of less than 0 b. The company cost of capital is 9% or higher c. Funds are limited and another project will yield 10% d. Funds are unlimited and another project will yield 11 %
Answer d is correct.
3.24. An improvement in quality costs is most clearly indicated when: a. Appraisal and failure costs drop b. Prevention costs increase c. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales d. Management objectives are met
Answer d is correct.
3.25. How are strategic goals determined? a. From vital quality department requirements b. From customer benchmarked data c. From a planning team's goal analysis d. From items determined to be of critical business value
Answer d is correct.
3.27. One would not be surprised to find that a measure of customer loyalty would include: a. Customer purchase amount b. A benchmark comparison c. The cost breakeven point d. Customer retention rate
Answer d is correct.
3.8. One would say, from an overall perspective, the activities of a company are tied together by: a. Customers b. Stockholders c. Suppliers d. Process management
Answer d is correct.
4.10. Using the DMAIC approach to lean six sigma improvemen~ at what step would the root causes of defects be identified? a. Measure b. Control c. Improve d. Analyze
Answer d is correct.
4.14. The primary purpose of rewards and recognition for teams and team members, from an organizational management perspective, is: a. To document performance for the annual performance evaluations b. To monetarily compensate team members for their time and effort c. To avoid having to pay team members overtime or to provide time off d. To reinforce desired behaviors and induce repetitions of those behaviors
Answer d is correct.
4.16. Project improvement team members normally have: a. Narrow skills and experiences b. Diverse skills and narrow experiences c. Diverse experience and narrow skills d. Diverse skills and experiences
Answer d is correct.
4.17. In most industrial settings the majority of training attendees will be mature adults. Which of the following training approaches would be considered the most effective method to convey complex information to such a group? a. Theory and lecture b. Non-interactive computer - based learning c. Programmed instruction d. Role playing and discussion
Answer d is correct.
4.32. The situational leadership model which exhibits both low supportive and low directive behavior is called? a. Directing b. Coaching c. Supporting d. Delegating
Answer d is correct.
4.46. The proper sizing of a team is: a. Something that management should include in the team charter b. Best based upon including representatives of all affected parties c. A straightforward management decision d. A complex balancing of a number of considerations
Answer d is correct.
5.13. Which of the following techniques has proven useful in translating customer needs into product design features? a. Changing perceptions b. Customer service principles c. Confrontation and problem solving d. Quality function deployment
Answer d is correct.
5.16. Which of the following quality management techniques would be considered the most complex? The complexity involves both the ease of use and the amount of subject familiarity necessary for effectiveness. a. Affinity diagram b. Tree diagram c. Matrix diagram d. Prioritization matrix
Answer d is correct.
5.2. The Kano model is an indicator of customer satisfaction which is quite useful to help the organization understand the appropriate customer satisfaction level. One weakness in the Kano model is an inability to: a. Analyze customer needs and requirements b. Determine the basic satisfiers for the customer c. Meet the latent requirements of the customers d. Determine when the customer's expectations have risen
Answer d is correct.
5.20. New quality management tools are being used to help the problem solving process. Which of the following tools provides a numeric ranking of options? a. Tree diagram b. Affinity diagram c. Activity network diagram d. Prioritization matrices
Answer d is correct.
5.27. The key difference between internal and external customers is: a. Their interest in the product or service b. Internal customers can influence the design of the product c. External customers usually influence the design of the product d. External customers best determine the true quality of the product
Answer d is correct.
5.3. A six sigma project directed at critical to safety (CTS) concerns could include: a. Increasing process flow velocity b. Reducing various forms of waste c. Exceeding product appearance expectations d. Providing operator visual prompts
Answer d is correct.
5.31. The organization's customer service program can be enhanced in many ways. One of the ways would be: a. Provide better procedures for customer service personnel b. Restrict access to customer data c. Have supervisors available to answer more questions d. Utilize employee involvement
Answer d is correct.
5.32. One limitation of Gantt charts would be that: a. They are easy to understand b. Changes can be made easily c. Each bar represents a single activity d. Estimates of optimistic and pessimistic times can't be included
Answer d is correct.
5.33. Project management is summarized as: a. Vision, planning, and implementation b. Goals, objectives, and measurement c. Designing, engineering, and manufacturing d. Planning, scheduling, and controlling
Answer d is correct.
5.35. When using the SIPOC model, which of the following is downstream of process outputs? a. System inputs b. Process inputs c. Process actions d. Customer actions
Answer d is correct.
5.44. In the preparation of a project, efforts should be made to identify and involve various parties affected by the planned changes. These other parties are known as: a. Process owners b. Champions c. Team leaders d. Stakeholders
Answer d is correct.
5.49. If a project charter was found to lack a company impact measurement, what is missing in most situations? a. The importance of the improvement team to the company b. Not using the SIPOC diagram c. Customer satisfaction improvement d. Financial impact or cost savings
Answer d is correct.
5.5. Having an in-depth knowledge of an industry makes the manager an expert in customer needs and desires. To win in the marketplace, the manager should: a. Authorize a new product soon b. Start with a new marketing plan fitting customer needs c. Develop a strategic plan for his new products d. Ask for help, because the manager doesn't really know the customer
Answer d is correct.
5.50. A commonly reported problem associated with six sigma projects deals with: a. A failure to complete any project charter documentation b. A desire to complete projects on time c. A requirement that projects must be at least $100,000 in value d. A lack of business impact for the company
Answer d is correct.
5.52. The SIPOC process map stands for suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers. It provides a view of the process that contains approximately how many steps? a. 21-40 steps b. 16-20 steps c. 8-15 steps d. 4-7 steps
Answer d is correct.
5.8. The house of quality is used to translate customer wants into engineering design variables. The linking or prioritizing of customer wants into engineered values occurs in what element? a. Competitive analysis b. Conflict analysis c. Technical review d. Relationship matrix
Answer d is correct.
5.8. The house of quality is used to translate customer wants into engineering design variables. The linking or prioritizing of customer wants into engineered values occurs in what element? a. Competitive analysis b. Conflict analysis c. Technical review d. Relationship matrix
Answer d is correct.
5.9. The matrix diagram is used to show the relationship between 2 variables. Matrices can be developed in several ways. Which of the following matrix types illustrates relationships in three planes? a. L-type b. T-type c. C-type d. Y-type
Answer d is correct.
6.12. Calibration intervals should be adjusted when: a. No defective product is reported as acceptable due to measurement errors b. Few instruments are scrapped during calibration c. The results of previous calibrations reflect few out of tolerance conditions during calibration d. A particular characteristic on the gage is consistently found to be out of tolerance
Answer d is correct.
6.13. Value stream mapping means: a. Flow charting techniques b. An identification of inputs, tasks, and outputs c. A pictorial view that identifies process steps d. A graphical flow charting technique that shows material and information flows
Answer d is correct.
6.14. In linear measurement, what overriding consideration should guide the quality professional in specifying the measuring instrument to be used? a. The ability of the instrument to be read to one decimal place beyond that required in the base b. The ability of the instrument to meet an error design goal of 10% c. The combination of base dimension and tolerance as they relate to measurement error d. The ability of the measurement system to obtain the necessary correct information with minimal
Answer d is correct.
6.2. When performing calculations on sample data: a. A continuous relative frequency graph called a histogram results b. Rounding the data has no effect on the mean and standard deviation c. Coding the data has no effect on the mean and standard deviation d. Coding and rounding affect both the mean and standard deviation 0.05, 0.06, 0.07, 0.08, 0.09 S = 0.01581
Answer d is correct.
6.20. The measurement and recording of the length of a product in centimeters would reflect the application of which measurement scale? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio
Answer d is correct.
6.28. The major advantage of process mapping is: a. Presenting a topological representation of the situation b. Capturing all process variables in a compact matrix c. Defining the likely source of the defects d. Visualizing the process being described
Answer d is correct.
6.29. Pallets of product are staged in a warehouse prior to shipment. There are indications that container damage is occurring disproportionately at aisle and row end locations. The best method of data collection to confirm this theory would be: a. Random sampling b. Sequential sampling c. Skip-lot sampling d. Stratified sampling
Answer d is correct.
7.2. Which of the following distributions requires the use of the natural logarithmic base for probability calculations? a. Hypergeometric b. Student's t c. Binomial d. Weibull
Answer d is correct.
7.22. Process capability analysis is often defined as: a. The ability to make the process reliable and maintainable b. The inherent variability of items produced by the process c. The variability allowed by the specification limits d. The determination that the process can meet the product specifications c. False. This answer focuses on specification limits, which are only part of the requirement. d. True. Process capability analysis measures the process variation versus the specification limits to
Answer d is correct.
7.26. When comparing analytical to enumerative studies, one would say that: a. Only enumerative studies are inferential b. Only analytical studies are descriptive c. Only analytical data can be counted d. Enumerative studies are descriptive and inferential studies are analytical
Answer d is correct.
7.36. The probability of a train arriving on time and leaving on time is 0.8. The probability of the same train arriving on time is 0.84. The probability of this train leaving on time is 0.86. Given the train arrived on time, what is the probability it will leave on time? a. 0.93 b. 0.84 C. 0.88 d. 0.95
Answer d is correct.
8.26. When a problem solving team applies the 5 whys technique, they are attempting to: a. Determine if the interviewee is telling the truth b. Understand the basics of the problem c. Eliminate areas not to investigate d. Determine the root cause of the problem
Answer d is correct.
8.41. MANOVA is used for testing many independent X variables and multiple Y dependent variables. The primary reason ii is preferred to a plain ANOVA when performing the testing is: a. The MANOVA is much faster b. The alpha value can range from 5% to 15% with MANOVA c. Only 4 or 5 dependent variables can be tested with ANOVA d. ANOVAs used across many dependent variables could increase the alpha risk
Answer d is correct.
8.49. Goodness-of-fit calculations for various distributions have many features in common. Which of the following are included? a. They all use the same DF and the same assumed distribution b. They all use the same assumed distribution and data values structured in cells c. They all use a calculated chi square test statistic and the same DF d. They use data values structured in cells and a calculated chi square test statistic
Answer d is correct.
8.57. Suppose that, given X = 35, and Z .01 = ± 2.58, one establishes confidence limits for mu of 30 and 40. This means that: a. The probability that¬µ= 35 is 0.01 b. The probability that¬µ= 35 is 0.99 c. The probability that the interval contains¬µ is 0.01 d. The probability that the interval contains¬µ is 0.99
Answer d is correct.
8.8. When finding a confidence interval for mean m, based on a sample size of n: a. Increasing n increases the interval b. Having to use S, instead of n decreases the interval c. The larger the interval, the better the estimate of µ d. Increasing n decreases the interval
Answer d is correct.
9.14. A hyper-Graeco-Latin (4 x 4) design is constructed as follows: Carburetor Type a. 256 b. 1,024 C. 1,296 d. 4,096
Answer d is correct.
9.18. One would say that continuous flow manufacturing: a. Increases product damage b. Requires more storage and transport c. Increases cycle time d. Provides mechanisms to solve other production problems
Answer d is correct.
9.30. One would say that the kanban method would be most closely associated with: a. The elimination of non-value added activities in the process b. The development of a future state process stream map c. Making problems visible in a process, thus clarifying targets for improvement d. The control of material flow
Answer d is correct.
9.42. How does poka-yoke respond to human error? a. By eliminating human error b. By punishing human error c. By rewarding defect detection due to human error d. By catching human error before it becomes a defect
Answer d is correct.
9.44. An experimental design using a Latin square of 3 factors and 5 levels will be able to determine which of the following? a. Main treatment effects and interactions b. Interactions only c. Column and row effects d. Main treatment effects
Answer d is correct.
9.46. The theory of constraints concentrates mainly on: a. Understanding customer needs b. Developing a value stream map c. Achieving on-time goals d. Removing process bottlenecks
Answer d is correct.
9.48. Red tagging is used during which 5S stage? a. Standardize b. Sustain c. Straighten d. Sort
Answer d is correct.
8.43. If an investigator were interested in performing a chi-square hypothesis test of the equality of measurement data, which of the following would be an option? a. Runs test b. Mood's Median test c. Mann Whitney test d. Kruskal-Wallis test
Answers a, b, and care tested from table values. The Kruskal-Wallis test can require can require a chi-square ]
What does CPK stand for?
Cpk is a process capability index used to measure what a process is capable of producing.