ERP practice questions 4
Which of the following foods contains less than 20 kcal? 1 Tbsp peanut butter 1 Tbsp sunflower seeds 1 Tbsp ketchup 1 Tbsp light mayonnaise
1 Tbsp ketchup
A patient recently diagnosed with acute kidney injury has no evidence of chronic kidney disease but requires hemodialysis. If the patient is a 57-year-old male, weighs 70 kg, has a normal body mass index with no signs or symptoms of malnutrition, and skin is intact, what amount of protein should be recommended? 105 g > 140 g 56-70 g 42 g
105 g explain: Patients with acute kidney injury treated with hemodialysis demonstrate positive nitrogen balance with 1.5 g/kg/day of protein. 70 kg × 1.5 = 105 g. The other options underestimate or overestimate protein needs.
Approximately how many grams of protein does one cup of raw cauliflower contain? 2 grams 3 grams 7 grams 8 grams
2 grams
What is the minimum width that aisles should be to accommodate individuals who require wheelchairs in a hospital cafeteria's foodservice line? 32" 34" 36" 40"
36"
Weight and body mass index peak between age _____ and _____ years. 30 and 39 40 and 49 50 and 59 60 and 69
50 and 59 explain: Weight and BMI peak between age 50 and 59 years, then stabilize and start slowly dropping around age 70.
Medium-chain triglycerides (MCTs) comprise how many carbon atoms? 6-12 2-4 18-22 22-26
6-12 explain: MCTs comprise 6-12 carbon atoms, whereas long-chain fats contain >12 carbon atoms. MCTs are digested, absorbed, and metabolized differently than LCTs.
An 18-year-old female presents for a consultation about weight. She has a BMI of 35.1 and a waist circumference of 37 inches. During the nutrition-focused physical exam, the RDN observes facial acne, hirsutism , and alopecia. A medical diagnosis of _____ would support these physical findings Hypothyroid PCOS Type 2 diabetes Hyperthyroid
PCOS explain: Given the presence of alopecia, acne, obesity, and hirsutism , the patient likely has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) related to insulin resistance.
Which ingredient used in cola beverages has been shown to negatively affect cardiovascular function? Citric acid Sodium Caramel coloring Phosphate
Phosphate explain: A high-phosphate intake has been shown to impair endothelial cell function in the vascular system. "Free" (unorganically bound) phosphate that is added to food is very efficiently absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract, unlike organically bound phosphate that occurs naturally in protein-dominant foods and some grain foods.
Which inventory record is usually taken at the end of the month by counting and recording products in stock in all storage areas? Physical Perpetual Continual Periodic
Physical explain: A physical inventory involves actually counting all items in stock. A perpetual inventory involves recording all purchases and issues so that how much of a given item is in stock at any time is always known. Continual and periodic are not types of inventory records.
What type of jewelry are workers in food preparation permitted to wear? Plain wedding band Medical alert bracelet Bracelets without snaps or clasps None
Plain wedding band explain: During food preparation, the only jewelry allowed on arms and hands is a plain ring, such as a wedding band. Bracelets, including medical information jewelry, and elaborate rings are prohibited.
Health consequences of overweight and obesity include all of the the following EXCEPT Cancer Arthritis Pneumonia Asthma
Pneumonia explain: Breathing problems associated with overweight and obesity are sleep apnea and asthma. Pneumonia is associated with people who are underweight.
Which of the following is not characteristic of an effective performance appraisal system? Performance expectation Continuous open communication Due process Promotion
Promotion explain: Promotion may result from the performance appraisal but does not occur automatically as a part of the process.
Gout is an inflammatory disease associated with which of the following? Protein Calcium Cholesterol Purine
Purine explain: Gout is an accumulation of uric acid, which is the end-product of the metabolism of the purines adenine and guanine from DNA and RNA
Which of the following types of study has the potential to prove cause and effect? Randomized controlled trial Qualitative survey Case-control Cohort
Randomized controlled trial explain: In randomized controlled trials, the researcher determines who will receive treatment as well as the level of treatment or exposure. Being able to manipulate dosage and document the response to the various levels of treatment allows for better capability to attribute cause and effect.
While taking the nutrition history of a 60-year-old obese male (body mass index 39) referred for weight management, his wife states he snores loudly, is often sleepy during the day, and will often doze off in the evening while watching cable TV. It is also observed that he has a large neck circumference. What is the first step? Refer the patient to a physician to be evaluated for sleep apnea Refer the patient to a physician to be evaluated for gastroesophageal reflux Refer the patient to enroll in a sleep study Recommend 10% body weight loss
Refer the patient to a physician to be evaluated for sleep apnea
Where would one find information regarding hazardous exposure to cleaning agents? Safety data sheets ServSafe book Hazard data sheets Cleaning procedure manual
Safety data sheets explain: Safety data sheets (SDSs) (formerly called MSDSs or material safety data sheets) are created for each hazardous chemical to issue to all employees who use these chemicals so that they are aware of potential hazards of use. First aid measures are found in section 4 of SDSs.
A patient has developed vancomycin resistant enterococcus and is being treated with Linezolid. What type of food should be avoided? Non-nutritive sweeteners Shellfish Tree nuts Sauerkraut
Sauerkraut explain: Linezolid is an antibiotic in the same class of medications as MAOI. As a result, a patient on Linezolid should avoid high-tyramine foods to prevent potential interaction.
Who contracts with manufacturers, processors, or prime-source producers to sell and conduct local marketing programs with wholesalers, suppliers, or foodservice operators? Agent Principal Customer Broker
Broker explain: Brokers are independent sales and marketing representatives who contract with manufacturers, processors, or prime-source producers to sell and conduct local marketing programs with wholesalers, suppliers, or foodservice operations.
Where should a class B fire extinguisher be placed? By the restroom By the dishwasher By the range In the area where paper products are stored
By the range explain: Class B fire extinguishers are used for flammable liquid and gas fires and should be placed by the range.
Which nutrition facts will need to be displayed in a larger type size once the US Food and Drug Administration's new food label requirements go into effect? Calories and protein Protein and added sugars Calories and serving size Fat and added sugars
Calories and serving size explain: The FDA's changes to the food label format requires a larger type size for presenting calories and serving sizes to help consumers better monitor their intake.
Which fire classification includes electrical fires caused by equipment, motors, switches, and frayed cords? Class A Class B Class C Class D
Class C explain: Class C includes fires caused by electrical equipment, motors, switches, and frayed cords
Which of the following types of fish is safest for consumption by a woman trying to get pregnant? Orange roughy Swordfish Marlin Cod
Cod explain: Orange roughy, swordfish, and marlin all have higher levels of mercury. Because it is low in mercury, cod is considered one of the safest fish choices for women who are pregnant, may become pregnant, or are breastfeeding
A manager who punishes, threatens, or fires employees who do not comply is using what type of authoritative style? Reward power Referent power Coercive power Connection power
Coercive power explain: Coercive power employs persuasion and threats to employees regarding work performance.
What is a critical element for ensuring employees perceive fairness in disciplinary action? Off-the-record feedback Penalties for entire team for not preventing errors Consistency Peer-to-peer disciplinary hearings
Consistency explain: Consistency allows an employee to feel that any other employee would receive the same discipline for committing the same offense. Disciplinary action is the result of an employee's behavior and not personality conflicts. It should be handled by one's supervisor.
Based on this statement, determine which stage of change a client is in: "I know what you are going to tell me, because I know a lot about nutrition. I know what I need to do to lose weight, but I just can't do it." Precontemplation Contemplation Preparation Action
Contemplation explain: The classic indicator for a patient in the contemplation stage of change is a "yes, but" statement. The majority of RDNs' clients are in the contemplation stage when they come to their first appointment.
Which of the following is an eligibility requirement for FMLA? Employee has worked for the company for at least a year Company employs an onsite staff of 50 or fewer people Employee holds a managerial or executive position Employee provides documentation from at least one medical professional attesting to necessity of leave
Employee has worked for the company for at least a year explain: Eligibility for the Family and Medical Leave Act, or FMLA, is as follows: If employee has worked for employer at least 12 months, at least 1,250 hours over the past 12 months, and works at a location where the company employs 50 or more employees within 75 miles.
Which of the following is not a product of tryptophan? Epinephrine Niacin Serotonin Melatonin
Epinephrine explain: Serotonin, niacin, and melatonin are a product of tryptophan. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are synthesized from tyrosine.
Which law sets the minimum wage? Fair Labor Standards Act Labor Management and Reporting and Disclosure Act Labor management Act Equal Opportunity Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
Which of the following legislative acts requires employers with 50 or more employees to provide up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave to eligible employees for qualified health-related and family-related reasons. National Labor Relations Act of 1935 Social Security Act of 1935 Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993
Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 explain: The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 protects eligible employees who need to take a leave of absence for family and medical reasons
The USDA does NOT provide quality grade marks for: Fish Chicken Beef Lamb
Fish explain: Chicken, beef, and lamb are given quality grade marks by the USDA, but fish is not.
Which of the following nutrients is essential for cell division during pregnancy and, if deficient, can lead to development of neural tube defects in newborn? Thiamin Niacin Riboflavin Folate
Folate explain: Folate is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division. Deficiency can lead to defective development of neural tube and other organs.
Which of the following does not have an effect on bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) measurement of body composition? Gas in the intestinal tract Hydration status Body fatness Use of alcohol
Gas in the intestinal tract explain: Gas in the intestinal tract affects underwater weighing but has no effect on BIA. BIA depends on total body water, so only factors that affect hydration status can affect the results of BIA assessment.
Which of the following represents indirect labor costs? Full-time personnel Part-time personnel Contract employees Health insurance
Health insurance explain: Indirect labor costs include benefits such as insurance, taxes, and paid time off
Which of the following is used in a sensory evaluation panel? Hedonic scale Taste threshold test Triangle test Paired comparison
Hedonic scale explain: The hedonic scale is used to evaluate consumer likes and dislikes related to food, including sensory criteria.
Which organ is mainly responsible for ethanol metabolism? Kidney Liver Gallbladder Small intestine
Liver explain: Acetaldehyde (one of the metabolites of ethanol) is postulated to play an etiologic role in alcoholic liver disease. The liver is the main organ responsible for ethanol metabolism. The stomach and other organs play a minor role.
Which is the most important organ in the metabolism of fatty acids? Liver Heart Kidney Gallbladder
Liver explain: The liver plays an essential role in the metabolism of protein, carbohydrates, and fats. Plasma proteins, nonessential amino acids, urea, glycogen, and critical hormones are all synthesized in the liver.
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by what physiological changes? Low pH &low bicarbonate (HCO3) High CO2 and low pH High CO2 and normal HCO3 Normal pH and high bicarbonate
Low pH & low bicarbonate (HCO3)
hich of the following would a registered dietitian nutritionist assess using nutrition-focused physical findings (NFPF)? Height and weight Dietary intake Body mass index (BMI) Malnutrition
Malnutrition
What comorbidity is typically diagnosed in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis? Edema Kidney failure Malnutrition Cachexia
Malnutrition explain: Global malnutrition or nutritional status alteration such as micronutrient deficiency (potentially caused by poor nutritional intake, poor absorption, or increased losses) is often diagnosed in patients with cirrhosis. Malnutrition is present in almost every patient with alcoholic cirrhosis.
What is the recommendation for percentage of calories from added sugars in the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans? No more than 2% No more than 5% No more than 7% No more than 10%
No more than 10%
The wholesalers are _____ in the marketing channel. producers manufacturer suppliers distributors
distributors explain: Producers produce raw food to sell. Manufacturers take raw food items and make packaged products. Distributors transfer products from the processor/manufacturer to suppliers. Examples of distributors are wholesalers, brokers, and manufacturer's representatives. The wholesaler is the distributor that purchases from various processors/manufacturers and then stores, sells, and delivers products to suppliers. Suppliers then sell the products to the final buyer, the customer.
US Fancy is a quality designation used for _____. processed cheese products. milk and dairy products. eggs. fruits and vegetables.
fruits and vegetables. explain: US Fancy means premium quality. US Fancy fruits and vegetables are of more uniform shape and have fewer defects than US No. 1.
Breastmilk is rich in glucose maltose amylose lactose
lactose explain: Lactose is the predominant carbohydrate in human milk. Lactose enhances absorption of calcium in breastmilk.
The energy needs of an infant from birth to 12 months of age depend on the following factors except _____. growth rate length weight temperature and climate
length explain: The current energy intake recommendation of 98 kcal/kg to 108 kcal/kg body weight for infants is based on weight, growth rate, sleep/wake cycle, temperature and climate, physical activity, metabolic response to food, and health status and recovery from illness. Length is not a factor that affects energy needs.
Transmission of hepatitis A is generally through _____. blood airborne particles sharing of needles oral-fecal route
oral-fecal route
Excess simple sugars in the intestines can cause _____ diarrhea. exudative osmotic secretory infectious
osmotic explain: Osmotic diarrhea occurs when water retention occurs in the gastrointestinal tract due to poorly absorbed substances
Medical anthropologists have developed explanatory models that address five major concerns about an illness episode. These models address: etiology, time and mode of onset of symptoms, course of sickness, treatment, and ___. exposure pattern. family history. pathophysiology. emotional response.
pathophysiology. explain: Explanatory models also include pathophysiology that allows one to understand the changes associated with or resulting from diseases.
A research article describes the total diagnosed cases of obesity in the United States as of 2019. This statistic represents the _________ of obesity. prevalence incidence specificity sensitivity
prevalence explain: Prevalence is the proportion of a population affected by a certain disease or condition at a given time and includes both old and new cases.
Outlining a client's probable response to therapy is considered a _____. diagnosis remission prognosis cure
prognosis explain: Prognosis is a person's expected outcome and response to treatment.
The goal of HIPAA is _____. to protect the health care provider from malpractice lawsuits to protect patients from potentially harmful treatment to provide efficiency in sharing patient information to protect patient information
to protect patient information
Which of the following is the fork drip test for IDDSI Level 4 Pureed/Extremely Thick? Scooped sample sits in mound on fork and does not drip easily through prongs Small sample amount drips continuously through the prongs Sample drips slowly in dollops through the prongs, which do not leave a clear pattern Sample shows no sign of dripping through the prongs
Scooped sample sits in mound on fork and does not drip easily through prongs explain: The fork drip test for the Level 4 Pureed/Extremely Thick diet of the International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative requires that a scooped sample sits in mound on the fork and does not drip easily through prongs.
What happens to pancreatic exocrine gland secretions during the fasted state? Secretion decreases No change to exocrine secretions Secretion increases Same output as during the fed state
Secretion decreases explain: During fasting periods, very little secretion takes place. Once food enters into the stomach, the pancreas exocrine glands release proteases, amylase, and lipase enzymes to aid in digestion
Which of the following may result if participants leave a study before it concludes? Spurious relationship Statistical inference Stratification Selection bias
Selection bias explain: If subjects leave a study before it concludes, there may be selection bias if the association between a risk factor and a health outcome differs in retained participants compared with dropouts.
During a nutrition counseling session with a patient, the patient states: "I'd really like to eat healthier, but I can't because my toddler only wants to eat pizza and macaroni and cheese." In motivational interviewing, this statement is an example of: Sustain talk Discord Self-efficacy Reflection
Sustain talk explain: The client's argument is sustain talk, which refers to any self-expressed argument for not changing or for sustaining the status quo. This type of scenario in motivational interviewing was previously called "resistance," but because that term implies blame on the client, the terminology has been changed to "sustain talk."
Which of the following must be included on the program evaluation review technique (PERT) chart? The amount of time needed to complete an activity The total cost associated with each activity The impact on labor cost if the project is delayed The degree of acceptance by consumers
The amount of time needed to complete an activity explain: Activities and times are detailed on a chart for planning and evaluation control purposes. Cost, impact, and consumer acceptance are not included on the chart.
What is a concern related to TCS foods? Cholesterol Trans fat Toxins Serving size
Toxins explain: TCS foods refer to foods that require time/temperature control for safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation.
What government agency's funding supports the National School Lunch Program? Medicaid Health and Human Services CACFP USDA
USDA
Which of the following is an effective way to make written educational materials relevant to patients? Develop a named character for patients to identify with Write in passive voice to help patients be open-minded to the message Use third-person "he or she" to generalize the message Use 2nd person pronouns to convey directives and recommendations
Use 2nd person pronouns to convey directives and recommendations explain: Using the 2nd person "you" in educational materials helps patients identify with the text and thus makes it relevant to them. Using a named character may impede identification with the text, and gendered pronouns is discouraged.
What is a major difference between warfarin and newer anti-coagulants with regard to food intake? The newer medications have increased side effects for individuals who eat dairy. Bananas should be eliminated from the diet while on warfarin, but this isn't an issue with the newer medications. Warfarin doesn't require monitoring of vitamin K intake whereas the newer medications do. Warfarin requires monitoring of vitamin K intake whereas the newer medications don't.
Warfarin requires monitoring of vitamin K intake whereas the newer medications don't.
What is an adverse effect of carbohydrate loading? Immediate fatigue during endurance event Compromised endurance performance Minimized muscle glycogen stores Weight gain
Weight gain
Which of the following strategies is a recommended approach to weight management? Conduct weight check at the end of the therapy session Work with the patient to determine whether to conduct blind weights Have the patient check weight daily and report findings Conduct weight monitoring during therapy sessions
Work with the patient to determine whether to conduct blind weights explain: Weight management should be a cooperative effort, so working with the patient to determine a best course of treatment is recommended.
What kind of agenda is distributed to the board before a meeting and is voted on for approval without filing individual motions? operational agenda consent agenda meeting agenda approved agenda
consent agenda explain: The consent agenda is a group of routine business items that are unanimously approved by the board without discussion or individual motions.
Ingredients in a food product are listed on the label in order according to their _____. volume weight similarity commonality
weight explain: Food product ingredients are listed on the label in descending order of their weight.
Which of the following foods contains approximately 15 grams of carbohydrate? 1 English muffin ½ cup mashed potatoes 4 cups popped popcorn 1 large banana
½ cup mashed potatoes explain: One exchange of starch or fruit each has about 15 g carbohydrate. There are approximately 15 g carbohydrate in a ½ cup of mashed potatoes. For the other options to have 15 g carbohydrate, the serving sizes would need to be ½ an English muffin, 3 cups popped popcorn, and 1 small (4 oz) banana.
If a client exploring readiness for change rates confidence as a "4" and importance as a "10," which of the following questions/comments would lead to the most productive conversation about change? "Why aren't you more motivated?" "What can I do to help you?" "What would need to happen in order for your confidence to increase to a '6'?" "It's encouraging that the importance rating is so high."
"What would need to happen in order for your confidence to increase to a '6'?" explain: Moving the talk about readiness for change forward is an important component in motivational interviewing. Option A is a poor question to ask as one rarely uses "why" with change talk. Option B isn't specific enough with regard to the behavior. Option D is an affirmation and probably won't move the discussion forward. Option C is the best question to ask as it invites an evocative response.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding telehealth? For eligible telehealth services, the use of a telecommunications system substitutes an in-person encounter. The interactive audio and video telecommunications system must permit real-time communication between the provider and beneficiary. Asynchronous store and forward is specifically intended to allow the medical professional to retain a transcript of electronic messages sent by the patient. RDNs, nurse practitioners, and nurse midwives, are among providers who may provide telehealth services and receive payment
Asynchronous store and forward is specifically intended to allow the medical professional to retain a transcript of electronic messages sent by the patient. explain: Store and forward technology permits providers to electronically transmit digital images and documents such as x-rays, magnetic resonance imaging, photos, and patient data to the patient and other members of the health care team. Note, however, that in 2018, this technology is only permitted in federal telemedicine demonstration programs in Hawaii and Alaska.
Which of the following causes 90% of foodborne illnesses? Bacteria Virus Mold Parasites
Bacteria explain: Bacteria are the most common cause and represent 90% of foodborne illnesses.
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is seen in individuals with deficiency of which vitamin? Thiamin Riboflavin Niacin Pyridoxine
Thiamin explain: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a manifestation of thiamin deficiency, which is usually seen in individuals suffering from alcoholism
In terms of illness and disease burden, the four most costly foodborne bacteria pathogens are salmonella, e. coli, listeria, and staphylococcus aureus. clostridium perfringens. clostridium botulinum. campylobacter jejuni.
campylobacter jejuni. explain: Campylobacter jejuni is among the four most costly foodborne pathogens in terms of illness and disease burden. Campylobacter species are resistant to antibiotics and have been associated with a longer illness duration of illness, an increased risk of invasive disease and death, and increased health care costs. It was estimated in 2012 that the annual costs of campylobacteriosis in the United States total $1.7 billion. Clostridium perfringens and staphylococcus aureus are acquired via human contact, and botulism forms in and is contracted from improperly processed foods.
The objectives of patient-centered counseling for dietary change are to increase awareness of diet-related risks, provide nutrition knowledge, enhance skills to promote long-term changes in intake, and _____. reinforce patient values increase confidence for making dietary changes solicit social support from family members and friends identify and minimize external barriers to change
increase confidence for making dietary changes explain: The actions in responses A, C, and D are all part of helping clients to make changes. However, patient-centered counseling is focused on helping patients develop a sense of self so they can realize how their attitudes, feelings, and behavior are being negatively affected. The goal is to have the patient confident enough to make the dietary change.
Who among the following would be the BEST candidate for proprotein convertase subtilisin kexin 9? A patient with coronary artery disease, a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 75 mg/dL, and taking Atorvastatin A patient who cannot tolerate statins A woman with type 2 diabetes and microvascular disease who is currently on a statin A patient with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (HeFH)
A patient with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia (HeFH) explain: PCSK9 inhibitors are expensive medications that can significantly reduce LDL. PCSK9 can reduce LDL-C by 55% to 70% and helps patients with familial hypercholesterolemia reach their lipid goals. The patient with coronary artery disease doesn't need PCSK9, as the statin has achieved the LDL target. The patient who cannot tolerate statins is not a candidate for PCSK9 because Zetia (Ezetimibe) can be used in combination with stanols/sterols. The woman with type 2 diabetes is not a candidate because a high-intensity statin would be the preferred medication.
hen cooking fish, it should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.
145°F for 15 seconds
When cooking pork chops, they should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.
145°F for 15 seconds.
Which is the best question to ask when gauging a patient's level of commitment? "Which part of what we discussed are you ready to do?" "What would be the advantages of making the change?" "How do you want your health to improve?" "What's worked for you before?"
"Which part of what we discussed are you ready to do?" explain: The questions presented in options B, C, and D are all are ways of evoking change talk. But asking about readiness to make change is a question about commitment. This is best demonstrated in option A.
Which measurement is the basis for a standard scoop size or disher serving? 1 cup 1 pint 1 quart 1 gallon
1 quart explain: Scoops and dishers are based on level servings per quart. The utensil size specifies the number of servings so, for example, a serving from a #8 disher or scoop yields 1/8 of a quart
The biologically active hormone form of vitamin D is 7-dehydrocholesterol 25-hydroxyvitamin D D3 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D
1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D explain: Vitamin D is considered to be devoid of direct biological activity. It must be first hydroxylated in the liver by a 25-hydroxylase and then in the kidney by a 1 alpha-hydroxylase, which is responsible for the synthesis of the active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.
This enzyme found in the kidney is needed for the conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to the active form. 25-hydroxylase 24-hydroxylase 1- hydroxylase 22-hydroxylase
1- hydroxylase explain: The 1-hydroxylase enzyme is found in highest concentrations in the kidneys and is responsible for converting 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (its active form). 25-hydroxylase is the enzyme responsible for the first required hydroxylation of D3 and is found in the liver. 24-hydroxylase is responsible for the breakdown of the vitamin.
To prevent aspiration in a patient receiving enteral nutrition, what is the appropriate range for the angle of the head of the bed? 15°-20° 20°-25° 25°-30° 30°-45°
30°-45° explain: Unless contraindicated, the head of the bed of a patient receiving enteral nutrition should be set at an angle of 30° to 45° to prevent aspiration.
Scoop size #8 for an entrée is equal to which of the following? 2 oz 4 oz 6 oz 8 oz
4 oz explain: Scoop size #8 is equivalent to a ½cup portion, or 4 oz.
After a power outage, how long will food keep safely in the freezer if the freezer is full? 24 hours 48 hours 72 hours 96 hours
48 hours explain: A full freezer will hold its temperature for 48 hours. If the freezer is half-full, it will only hold its temperature for 24 hours.
McGregor's Theory X states that the supervisor's role is to maintain close watch on employees to ensure that organizational goals are being met employee motivation comes primarily through money neither of the above A and B
A and B explain: Theory X is an authoritarian style that emphasizes production and shows minimal concern for people who are working for the company.
Which is NOT a characteristic of respiratory acidosis? Reduced pH Elevation in PCO2 Variable increase In plasma HCO3- concentration Increased pH
Increased pH explain: Respiratory acidosis almost always results from decreased effective alveolar ventilation, not because of an increase in CO2 production. When pH is reduced, the environment becomes acidic.
An RDN notices an individual in a nutrition education group is monopolizing the conversation. What is the best course of action for the RDN? Politely ask the participant to give someone else a turn Ask a group member who has been quiet to share Pull the individual from the group With the RDN's back facing the group member who is too talkative, the RDN asks for a volunteer in the group to share
Ask a group member who has been quiet to share explain: It may make others uncomfortable if the participant is confronted. Because members of the group will want the RDN to facilitate and manage the group process, removing someone from the group is not the ideal solution.
The presence of fat in the intestine stimulates cells to release: Gastrin Secretin Insulin Cholecystokinin
Cholecystokinin explain: Cholecystokinin is a hormone produced principally by the small intestine in response to the presence of fats, causing contraction of the gallbladder, release of bile, and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes.
The LEARN guidelines provide a framework that dietetics practitioners can use to convey a culturally sensitive treatment plan. The "A" in LEARN stands for _____. Acknowledge Assess Access Alternatives
Acknowledge explain: "Acknowledge" is represented by the "A" in the "LEARN" guidelines regarding culturally appropriate intervention strategy. The strategy allows practitioners to acknowledge and discuss differences and similarities during the treatment plan process.
During the nutrition-focused physical exam on an obese woman, dark patches of skin with a thick velvety texture on the back of her neck are observed. This nutrition-focused physical finding is called _____. Acanthosis nigricans Ecchymosis Petechiae Purpura
Acanthosis nigricans explain: Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition in which one or more areas of skin darken and thicken and often feel velvety. Acanthosis nigricans can be caused by endocrine, metabolic, genetic, and paraneoplastic conditions. Petechiae (tiny red dots), ecchymosis (large bruises), and purpura (larger flat areas) are caused by bleeding into the skin and can be signs of vitamin C and K deficiencies.
What is the term for subjectively experiencing another person's feelings? Sympathy Identification with client Affective empathy Autonomy
Affective empathy explain: Sympathy is more about recognizing something bad has happened to a patient and demonstrating a form of pity for or camaraderie with them as a result. "Identification with client" is transference of one's experiences onto another individual, for example, "I've been there, let me tell you my story." Autonomy involves respecting each person's freedom. Affective empathy is the ability to subjectively experience and share in another's psychological state or feelings
Why wouldn't an RDN in the acute care setting use albumin as a prognostic screening tool? It has a long half-life Albumin is affected by the effects of disease Prealbumin should be measured There is no reason not to use albumin in this setting
Albumin is affected by the effects of disease explain: Albumin is a good prognostic screening tool; however, in the acute care setting, albumin can be affected by the effects of disease including inflammation, hydration and numerous other factors.
What is the primary purpose of a nutrition intervention? Alleviating symptoms of a nutrition problem Determining the cause of a person's nutrition problem Altering or eliminating the etiologies of a nutrition diagnosis Researching potential cures for conditions with nutrition implications
Altering or eliminating the etiologies of a nutrition diagnosis explain: A nutrition intervention is a purposely planned action intended to change a nutrition-related behavior, risk factor, environmental condition, or aspect of health status to resolve or improve the identified nutrition diagnosis or nutrition problem. It is less often directed at alleviating signs and symptoms.
If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for energy, which of the following can be converted to glucose? Acetyl-CoA Fatty acids Carbon dioxide Amino acids
Amino acids explain: In a diet that lacks carbohydrates, the liver cells can make glucose from from pyruvate, which can be generated by catabolizing various amino acids, and other 3-carbon compounds like glycerol. Amino acids also produce glucose to keep the brain cells alive.
What is OSFED? A subsidiary of the US Food and Drug Administration A type of obstructive sleep disorder An eating disorder classification An oncology specialist credential
An eating disorder classification explain: OSFED, or other specified feeding or eating disorders, is a classification in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) used to assign a diagnosis to individuals with significant disordered eating behaviors but who don't meet the threshold of strict diagnostic criteria. OSFED was introduced in the 5th edition of the DSM and replaced the previous classification of EDNOS, or, eating disorder not otherwise specified.
Which of the following is a recommendation for people with dumping syndrome? Avoid simple sugars such as sucrose Consume a low-fat diet for more efficient stomach emptying Sit up after meals Consume more liquids because they empty out of the stomach most easily
Avoid simple sugars such as sucrose explain: Late dumping syndrome results from rapid movement of sugar into the intestine, which raises the body's blood glucose level and causes the pancreas to increase its release of the hormone insulin. The increased release of insulin causes a rapid drop in blood glucose.
In order to measure body composition, the _________ machine determines body density by measuring the amount of air displaced. Bod pod Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Ultrasound
Bod pod
Which of the following is classified as a body compartment estimate in the Nutrition Care Process? Bone age Estimated fat intake Inadequate energy intake 24-hour fecal fat
Bone age explain: In the Nutrition Care Process, body compartment estimates are classified under anthropometric measurements. Bone age is an anthropometric measurement. Estimated fat intake is a food- and nutrition-related history parameter, 24-hour fecal fat is a biochemical data parameter, and inadequate energy intake is a nutrition diagnosis,
What kind of food should mostly comprise the diet of a 14-month old child? Homemade, pureed foods Stage 3 baby foods Chopped table foods, including some that the child can pick up with their fingers All foods including whole nuts, raw carrots, and whole grapes
Chopped table foods, including some that the child can pick up with their fingers explain: Young children can still choke on large chunks of food. Toddlers are learning to like new flavors and textures that allow them to practice age-appropriate oral and fine motor skills. They require repeated exposure to master eating skills. For this reason, chopped table foods are recommended for the diet of children at this age
Which of the following lipoproteins is not synthesized in the liver? Low-density lipoprotein High-density lipoprotein Chylomicron Very low-density lipoprotein
Chylomicron explain: Chylomicrons are synthesized by the intestine and carry dietary lipids
_____ is the process in which a buyer will open cans of different brands for comparisons before placing an order. Can comparison Bid comparison Packer's comparison Can cutting
Can cutting explain: Can cutting is a process where a buyer will open cans of different brands for comparisons before placing major orders.
Which of the following recipes is the most likely to be appropriate for a Jewish client looking to eat less red meat? Seafood bouillabaisse Chicken parmigiana Chicken vegetable kebab Pork tenderloin
Chicken vegetable kebab explain: Jewish clients who observe the kosher diet cannot eat shellfish or pork and cannot eat meat and dairy in the same meal. A kebab made with chicken and vegetable is more likely to be appropriate. Bouillabaisse is made with shellfish and chicken parmigiana is made with meat and cheese.
In which nutrition assessment domain of the Nutrition Care Process would an RDN contrast a patient's actual energy intake with estimated energy needs when using the Nutrition Care Process? Client History Food and Nutrition-Related History Comparative Standards Nutrition Diagnosis
Comparative Standards explain: A patient's results compared against thresholds of standards is done as part of the Comparative Standards component of a nutrition assessment
Efficiency is: Completing tasks while reducing labor costs Completing tasks per protocol Completing only what the manager tells an employee to do Completing work assignments quickly
Completing tasks while reducing labor costs
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an innovative organization? Empowered decision making Differentiation or departmentalization Flat hierarchy Personal consideration
Differentiation or departmentalization explain: Empowered decision making, flat hierarchy, and personal consideration are all hallmarks of an innovative organization. Departmentalization, which segregates areas of the business, works contrary to this philosophy and culture.
Which recipe adjustment method does not require all ingredients to be converted into weights and volumes? Factor Percentage Direct reading measurement tables All three methods require conversion
Direct reading measurement tables explain: Direct reading measurement tables is simple and quick to use because it requires no mathematical calculations.
From a legal standpoint, which is an appropriate question to ask when interviewing candidates? "Have you ever had a serious illness?" "What are your child care arrangements?" "Do you anticipate you will be absent from work on a regular basis?" "What year did you graduate from your dietetics program?"
Do you anticipate you will be absent from work on a regular basis?" explain: Within inquiry areas in interviews, some specific types of questions are legal, some are illegal, and some are technically legal but not appropriate. For example: It is legal to ask about projected absenteeism from work. It is not legal to ask about child care arrangements. It is illegal to inquire about health status except in how it relates to ability to perform specific job requirements. While asking about year of graduation is technically legal, it is illegal to specifically attempt to identify if a candidate is age 40 and older, so asking this question is not advised.
Which pancreatic function is involved in cystic fibrosis? Exocrine Endocrine Hormonal Glucoregulatory
Exocrine explain: The two main functions of the pancreas are the endocrine function, which is responsible for blood glucose homeostasis, and the exocrine function, which contributes to macronutrient digestion. Macronutrient digestion, particularly fat digestion, is compromised in the most common genetic variant of cystic fibrosis, which is cystic fibrosis with pancreatic insufficiency.
What feeding regimen is appropriate for a patient who is NPO for >5-7 days with pancreatitis? Elemental Standard isotonic Immune-modulating Renal
Elemental explain: An elemental formula is appropriate for NPO patients with pancreatitis receiving enteral nutrition. Early initiation of enteral nutrition support has been said to improve outcomes and healing time.
A program that provides workers with confidential and free short-term counseling and referrals for advice or treatment for problems such as alcohol or drug abuse, emotional difficulties, and marital, family, or financial difficulties is called _____. Progressive disciplinary program (PDP) Employee supportive program (ESP) Employee assistance program (EAP) Employee benefit program (EBP)
Employee assistance program (EAP) explain: EAPs are provided by human resources departments in many organizations to take a more proactive approach in helping employees experiencing difficulties.
What is the preferred method of feeding for a patient with diabetes if an oral diet is not medically appropriate? Enteral nutrition Parenteral nutrition Clear liquid Full liquid diet
Enteral nutrition explain: EN via tube feeding is the preferred route of feeding the patient with diabetes or hyperglycemia if unable to take an oral diet. EN is associated with fewer complications than PN, particularly with regard to metabolic abnormalities, infection risk, and glucose control.
What is the main fuel source for patients with liver cirrhosis? Fatty acids Amino acids Glucose Water
Fatty acids explain: Cirrhotic patients have respiratory quotients that are lower than controls after an overnight fast. This reduction in the respiratory quotient of cirrhotic patients results from a metabolic switch in the primary fuel from glucose to fatty acids. During this state of accelerated starvation, protein synthesis is decreased and gluconeogenesis from amino acids is increased, which requires proteolysis, which in turn contributes to sarcopenia.
During the nutrition assessment, which of the following would an RDN document under Client Social History to evaluate a client's risk for developing type 2 diabetes? Geographic location of home Primary language spoken in the home Family mealtimes and snack patterns Blood glucose panel results
Geographic location of home explain: Better neighborhood walkability and greater access to green space has been associated with a lower risk of type 2 diabetes, so geographic location of home should be documented. This parameter is classified as Client Social History. Primary language spoken in the home is also a Client History assessment parameter, but it would be documented under "Personal Data." Mealtimes and snack patterns are documented under food and nutrition-related history and glucose panel results are recorded under Biochemical Data, Medical Tests, and Procedures
What process includes the breakdown of protein in the presence of critical illness? A. Glycogenolysis B. Glycolysis C. Lipolysis D. Gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis explain: Gluconeogenesis is the process by which protein is converted to glucose in the liver and this occurs in the catabolic stress phase of critical illness. Glycolysis and glycogenolysis are the breakdown of glucose and lipolysis is the breakdown of fat.
Which of the following diabetes medications should not be prescribed to an elderly person as it has a higher risk of severe prolonged hypoglycemia and is listed in the 2015 Beers criteria? insulin degludec (Tresiba) Metformin Sitagliptin (Januvia) Glyburide
Glyburide explain: Metformin and sitagliptin do not cause hypoglycemia. Insulin degludec is a long-acting insulin that can be safely used in elderly individuals. Glyburide is unsafe to use in an elderly population and is among the medications listed in the Beers criteria for medications potentially inappropriate for older adults.
Evidence-based medicine (EBM) involves grading evidence to support clinical guidelines and guide practice recommendations. Which of the following statements is valid regarding the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics' system? Grade I indicates strong evidence to support a recommendation. Grade I indicates minimal evidence to support a recommendation. Grade I indicates expert opinion to support a recommendation. Grade I indicates fair evidence to support a recommendation.
Grade I indicates strong evidence to support a recommendation. explain: Grade I is the highest rating that is given for supporting evidence in research. It is indicated when there is strong supporting evidence for EBM.
Which of the following foods should be limited in women taking tamoxifen? Tofu Edamame Chickpeas Grapefruit juice
Grapefruit juice explain: Grapefruit is known as interfering with a host of medications, including tamoxifen. Meanwhile, there is a lot of misinformation regarding soy and estrogens. Though there are concerns regarding "phytoestrogens" in soy foods that have led to recommendations that women who take tamoxifen should avoid soy foods (the hypothesis is that these foods could negate the medication's estrogen-blocking effects), research demonstrates that soy foods appear to enhance or improve tamoxifen's breast cancer-blocking actions.
What financial information is obtained by subtracting cost of goods sold from total sales in a given period? Gross profit Net profit Final profit Operating costs
Gross profit explain: Total sales − cost of goods = gross profit. Net profit subtracts expenses from gross profit; final profit is merely another way of referring to net profit. Operating costs refer to expenses.
What reference height and weight were used for women when developing calorie recommendations for the 2015-2020 US Dietary Guidelines? Height: 5'3"; weight: 115 pounds Height: 5'4"; weight: 126 pounds Height: 5'5"; weight: 132 pounds Height: 5'6"; weight: 120 pounds
Height: 5'4"; weight: 126 pounds explain: The US Dietary Guidelines were developed using estimated energy requirements (EER) equations, using reference heights (average) and reference weights (healthy) for age-sex groups. For women, the reference height was 5 feet 4 inches tall and weight 126 pounds. For men, the reference height was 5 feet 10 inches tall and weight 154 pounds.
Which of the following is an example of a correctly formatted and complete PES statement? Inadequate intake as evidenced by decreased absorption related to a serum level of 190 ng/mL Decreased B12 absorption evidenced by laboratory reports and observation of physical symptoms Inadequate intake related to decreased absorption as evidenced by serum levels below normal Inadequate B12 intake related to decreased absorption as evidenced by a serum level of 190 ng/mL
Inadequate B12 intake related to decreased absorption as evidenced by a serum level of 190 ng/mL explain: A complete PES (problem, etiology, signs and symptoms) statement is formatted as follows: "[Nutrition diagnosis term (problem)] related to[etiology] as evidenced by [signs/symptoms]." The nutrition diagnosis term, etiology, and signs/symptoms must all be specific. The Problem describes alterations in the client's nutritional status or contributing factors to alterations in the client's nutritional status or contributing factors to alterations in the client's nutritional status. The Etiology reflects the cause/contributing risk factors and is linked to the nutrition diagnosis term by the phrase "related to." The Signs/Symptoms are the data or indicators that were used to determine the nutrition diagnosis and are linked to the etiology by the words "as evidenced by."
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing metabolic syndrome? Low high-density lipoprotein An environment promoting thrombus formation Abdominal obesity Increase in insulin sensitivity
Increase in insulin sensitivity
An early body mass index rebound has been associated with which of the following? Lower risk of overweight and obesity Lower risk of cardiovascular disease Increased risk of cardiovascular disease Increased risk of overweight and obesity
Increased risk of overweight and obesity explain: An early BMI rebound has been associated with an increased risk of overweight and obesity
Which of the following statements is true with regard to NPIs (national provider identifiers)? NPI requirements are no longer applicable if a billing agency is responsible for transactions. NPI numbers change if an RDN moves from one state to another If an NPI isn't used within 12 months, it is automatically deactivated Individual practitioners who don't meet HIPAA coverage criteria may still need an NPI.
Individual practitioners who don't meet HIPAA coverage criteria may still need an NPI. explain: The NPI is a unique, 10-digit number that identifies a health care provider; the NPI is specific to an individual and doesn't change. An EIN number is separate from an NPI and is important if an RDN is working in private practice. All health care providers (individuals or organizations) who are HIPAA-covered entities are required by law to obtain an NPI when transmitting electronic health information in connection with HIPAA standard transactions, even if the transaction is prepared by a third-party billing agency. And some individuals who don't meet HIPAA coverage criteria may still be required to obtain an NPI. RDNs who work in a private practice setting need to have these specific numbers to assist with "credentialing" or becoming a recognized health care provider of an insurance plan. The Academy encourages all members to obtain an NPI to ensure there are adequate numbers of RDNs who can provide service.
What is recommended medication for hyperglycemia in GDM? Metformin Glyburide Non-insulin glucose-lowering medications Insulin
Insulin explain: Insulin is the preferred medication for treating hyperglycemia in gestational diabetes mellitus. Metformin and glyburide cross the placenta to the fetus so they are not appropriate as first-line treatments. Currently there are no long-term safety data regarding use of oral and noninsulin injectable glucose-lowering medications in GDM.
What condition must be present for using chlorine bleach to wash produce? It must sit for at least 24 hours to ensure the solution has evaporated The skin or peel must be immediately removed It must be rinsed afterward with potable water It must be used in a concentration of 5000 ppm or higher
It must be rinsed afterward with potable water explain: Federal regulations specify that there are two conditions for the permitted use of chlorine bleach solutions for washing produce: • The concentration of sanitizer in the wash water must not exceed 2000 ppm hypochlorite • The produce must be rinsed with potable water following the chlorine treatment
What valuation method is being used when inventory is valued by assuming that newer items are used before older items? FIFO LIFO Latest purchase price Weighted average
LIFO explain: LIFO (last in, first out) is based on the assumption that newer items are used before older items, in other words, that current purchases are largely meeting current production needs. FIFO (first in, first out) is based on using older items before newer items.
Which of the following is considered to be the most expensive category of cost in a foodservice operation? Transportation Food Equipment Labor
Labor explain: Labor is typically the most expensive cost category in a foodservice operation. Controlling labor costs can have a major impact on financial performance.
What hormone acts on the hypothalamus to regulate food intake and energy expenditure? Leptin Ghrelin Pectin Insulin
Leptin explain: Leptin acts a hormone in the hypothalamus to regulate food intake and energy expenditure in response to adipose tissue. When body fat increases, leptin increases and appetite decreases. When body fat decreases, leptin decreases, appetite increases and energy expenditure is suppressed.
According to the Fried criteria, which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing an elderly individual as frail? Shortness of breath, poor appetite, weight loss of >10 lb in 1 year Number of comorbid conditions, depression, needing assistance with activities of daily living Exhaustion, cognitive impairment, limited social support Loss of 10 lb or more in 1 year, weakness, slow walking pace
Loss of 10 lb or more in 1 year, weakness, slow walking pace explain: The Fried criteria require that three of the five following criteria are present for a diagnosis of frailty: Unintended weight loss (measured as 10 pounds or more lost in 1 year), weakness (measured as grip strength in lowest 20% at baseline using dynamometer), exhaustion (self-reported exhaustion, identified by 2 questions on CES-D scale), slow walking speed (measured as slowest 20% of population at baseline based on 15 feet timed walk), and low physical activity level (based on weighted score of energy expended per week calculated from patient report of physical activity)
What component of serum cholesterol do plant stanols/sterols lower? Total cholesterol High-density lipoprotein (HDL) Triglycerides Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) explain: Plant stanols are often used in place of statin therapy for lowering LDL, especially for those patients who are unable to tolerate statins.
Which of the following is the strongest predictor of an individual's health status? Age Employment Income Lower health literacy skills
Lower health literacy skills explain: Age, employment, and income may affect a person's health status, but nothing is stronger a predictor than health literacy skills.
Which of the following components comprise the core of motivational interviewing? Collaboration, empathy, autonomy, and patient-centered care Partnership, acceptance, compassion, and evocation Rolling with resistance, unconditional positive regard, empowerment, and empathy Partnership, autonomy, setting smart goals, and evocation
Partnership, acceptance, compassion, and evocation
Why should a foodservice manager be informed about MSDs? MSDs are musculoskeletal disorders, which can develop from standing for long periods of time. MSDs are machine servicing departments and working with these contractors requires specialized knowledge. MSDs are meat sauteeing devices, which have become obsolete in foodservice operations. MSDs are marketing and sales development, which will be relevant in any business context.
MSDs are musculoskeletal disorders, which can develop from standing for long periods of time. explain: MSDs are musculoskeletal disorders, which can develop from lifting, repetitive movements, and standing for long periods of time. MSDs can compromise efficiency and worker health.
Which research design is not used in sensory evaluation? Paired comparison Observational Duo-trio Staircase procedure
Observational explain: Paired comparison, duo-trio, and staircase procedure are all types of sensory evaluation. In a paired-comparison test, judges are asked to determine which sample has the target sensory attribute. In a duo-trio test, a judge is given three samples wherein one is an identified reference sample and the others are unknown to the judge, who is asked determine which two are identical. In the staircase procedure, one sample with an easily identifiable stimulus is given, and the judge is given less and less concentrated versions until they can't detect it, and then given more and more concentrated until they can (the purpose of this design is for determining thresholds of perceptibility). Observational research design describes when the researcher observes ongoing behavior.
Coenzyme A is synthesized from which of the following vitamins? Thiamin Pyridoxine Pantothenic acid Biotin
Pantothenic acid
What food is most likely to cause solanine poisoning? Deli meats Canned fish Soft cheeses Potatoes
Potatoes explain: Solanine is a bitter-tasting steroidal alkaloid saponin that develops on nightshades. Potatoes are the most common source of ingested solanine, which develops when potato tubers are exposed to light, turn green, and increase saponin production. Doses as low as 200 mg in adults and 20 mg in children can cause toxicity. Saponine poisoning typically presents as neurological or gastrointestinal disorders.
What is the FDA's definition of "gluten free"? Products containing less than 20 ppm of gluten. Products 95% free of wheat, rye, and barley. The FDA has not defined this term. Products 95% free of wheat, rye, barley, and oats.
Products containing less than 20 ppm of gluten. explain: The FDA has defined "gluten-free" for food labeling. In general, foods may be labeled "gluten-free" if they either are inherently gluten free or do not contain an ingredient that is: (1) a gluten-containing grain; (2) derived from a gluten-containing grain that has not been processed to remove gluten; or (3) derived from a gluten-containing grain that has been processed to remove gluten if the use of that ingredient results in the presence of 20 parts per million (ppm) or more gluten in the food. Any unavoidable presence of gluten in the food must be less than 20 ppm.
What is the threshold for continuing face-to-face intensive behavioral therapy (IBT ) appointments with obese Medicare Part B beneficiaries after 6 months? Body mass index has been lowered to at least 24.9 Readiness for change has been verified by a licensed mental health professional Required 3 kg weight loss during the first 6 months has been achieved Blood glucose is measured as "normal" for three consecutive tests
Required 3 kg weight loss during the first 6 months has been achieved explain: As part of the Medicare Part B rules, obese patients can continue with one face-to-face IBT visit every month for months 7-12 if the 3 kg (6.6 lbs) weight loss requirement during the first 6 months has been met.
Which of the following is an example of Theory X? Requiring staff who work from home to keep videoconferencing programs running at all times Asking entry-level employees for feedback on improving workplace protocols and processes Requiring employees who travel or have offsite meetings with clients to submit receipts with expense reports Recognizing date-of-hire anniversaries and other personal mil
Requiring staff who work from home to keep videoconferencing programs running at all times explain: Theory X and Theory Y are tenets of motivational and management theory. Theory X posits that employees are inherently disinclined to work and require strict oversight to be productive, whereas Theory Y posits that trust and empowerment are effective motivational tools. Subjecting work-from-home staff to video observation at all times is indicative of mistrust. Requiring receipts with an expense report is standard accounting practice.
What ratio is used to determine a business' ability to pay its debts? Acid-test ratio Solvency ratio Inventory turnover ratio Profit margin ratio
Solvency ratio explain: Solvency ratios are the relationship between total assets and total liabilities. They are used to examine an establishment's ability to meet long-term financial obligations and attain financial leverage.
Which of the following type of interview questions asks the candidates how they would behave in a hypothetical scenario? Case study interview question Situational interview question Behavioral interview question Unstructured interview question
Situational interview question explain: Situational interview questions ask candidates how they would behave in hypothetical situations. An example of a situational interview questions is, "What would you do if you saw another employee stealing food?"
What is an appropriate nutrition intervention recommendation for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Small, frequent meals Weight loss, if patient is overweight Decreased milk intake Low-carbohydrate diet
Small, frequent meals explain: Small, frequent meals are recommended to reduce fatigue in patients with COPD. Patients who are overweight should not be encouraged to lose weight since a low body mass index is associated with a higher mortality rate in patients with COPD. Milk consumption is not related to mucus production, and the evidence does not support a low-carbohydrate diet for patients with COPD.
Listeriosis can be avoided if pregnant women avoid the following food. Cooked luncheon meats Pasteurized hard cheese Cooked ground beef Smoked fish
Smoked fish *this might be wrong* *reported to ERP* explain: Listeria is found in raw or smoked fish, oysters, unpasteurized or soft cheese, raw or undercooked meat, or unpasteurized milk, as well as luncheon meats and hot dogs that are not cooked or stored properly.
Which of the following might be categorized as dairy according to MyPlate? Butter Cream Cream cheese Soy milk
Soy milk explain: According to MyPlate, foods made from milk that have little to no calcium—including cream cheese, cream, and butter—are not included in the Dairy Group. Soy milk might be categorized as dairy if it is calcium fortified.
The nutrition manager of an ambulatory care practice has decided clients should pay for nutrition services upfront even if they are reimbursed by third-party payers. What is the appropriate document to provide so the client can submit for reimbursement? Invoice Superbill Statement CPT
Superbill explain: Invoices and statements might be provided as part of the business transaction, but a superbill would be issued to the client for insurance reimbursement. A superbill includes private health information such as diagnosis and ICD-10 codes.
Which of the following is true of the IDDSI Level 7 Regular (Black) diet Crunchy and hard foods are the only restriction There are no restrictions on allowable foods Mixed-consistency foods are permitted for adult patients only Food particle size is the only restriction
There are no restrictions on allowable foods explain: The Level 7 Regular (Black) diet of the International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative is not a texture-modified diet and therefore there are no restrictions on allowable foods on this diet.
Which of the following is true of the Academy's Standards of Practice in Nutrition Care? They are common to all registered dietetics professionals. They are supported by data contained in the Academy's Evidence Analysis Library. They evolved following the granting of Medicare Medical Nutrition Therapy Benefit Provider Status to RDNs. They evolved independently of the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics core educational competencies.
They evolved following the granting of Medicare Medical Nutrition Therapy Benefit Provider Status to RDNs. explain: The Standards of Practice evolved from the need to describe competencies in practice for RDNs when they were granted Medicare MNT benefits and adopted the Nutrition Care Process model.
This agency oversees voluntary inspections and grading of fish and fish products. Department of the Treasury Food and Drug Administration (FDA) US Department of Commerce (USDC) US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
US Department of Commerce (USDC) explain: Inspection of fish and fish products, which are not subject to mandatory grading, is overseen by the USDC's National Marine Fisheries Service.
Why are excipients added into the formulation of medications? To decrease medication metabolism To increase or decrease the rate that the drug dissolves in the GI tract To increase the pH of the drug To make the drug more acidic
To increase or decrease the rate that the drug dissolves in the GI tract explain: Excipients are added to affect dissolution or dissolving of medication in the GI tract. The dissolution of the medication has to occur first, and then the medication can be absorbed.
Which of the following is a conditional amino acid? Tryptophan Tyrosine Alanine Leucine
Tyrosine explain: Conditional amino acids are typically not essential with the exception of periods of stress and illness. They require a dietary source when endogenous synthesis cannot meet metabolic need. The conditional amino acids are arginine, cysteine, glutamine, glycine, proline, and tyrosine.
Phenylalanine is a precursor to which amino acid? Arginine Glutamine Cysteine Tyrosine
Tyrosine explain: Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid the body makes from phenylalanine.
What is the definition of a low sodium food for the food label? Less than 5 mg sodium per serving Up to 35 mg of sodium per serving Up to 140 mg sodium per serving At least 25% less sodium than the regular food
Up to 140 mg sodium per serving explain: Food labeling laws require that a food have no more than 140 mg sodium per serving in order to be identified as a low-sodium food.
When developing written educational handouts, employ all of the following EXCEPT Use all capital letters to make a point Use bold type to emphasize words or phrases Limit the use of italics and underlining Limit use of light-colored text on a dark background
Use all capital letters to make a point explain: Capital letters are harder for individuals with limited health literacy to read
USDA beef grades typically sold to the public include the following except _____. Select Choice Prime Utility
Utility explain: Prime, choice, and select beef grades are typically sold to the public. Utility, cutter, and canner grades are rarely sold to the public but rather are used to make ground beef and processed products.
In what type of diet would docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) supplementation be important? A. FODMAP B. Anti-inflammatory C. Gluten free D. Vegan
Vegan explain: DHA is typically absent in vegan diets, so supplementation may be called for. DHA supplements derived from algae and thus appropriate for vegans are available.
Which vitamins are potentially indicated for liver disease-related impaired bile flow? Folic acid and vitamin B12 Vitamins A and E Vitamins B12 and A Thiamin and riboflavin
Vitamins A and E explain: Bile acid is essential for the normal uptake of fat-soluble vitamins into the liver where they are metabololized. Vitamins A and E are fat soluble.
When is workplace bullying deemed a hostile environment? When tolerating it is a condition of employment The first time the bullying behavior is presented When mediators are called in to resolve a conflict Only when economic consequences can be proven
When tolerating it is a condition of employment explain: Workplace bullying is an unwelcome behavior that offends, humiliates, or intimidates an employee or group of employees. This bullying may be targeting a characteristic such as gender, sex, race, or ethnicity. Bullying is deemed as escalated to a hostile workplace designation if it is sustained behavior that management is aware of but does not address or if tolerating the behavior is deemed a condition of employment. Proof of economic consequences is not required for a workplace environment to be deemed hostile
According to the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard, which of the following hazards cannot be communicated through warning symbols on product labels? health hazard flame hazard explosion hazard broken glass hazard
broken glass hazard explain: The Occupational Health and Safety Administration's Hazard Communication Standard uses symbols for the following hazards: health hazard, flame, irritant, gas cylinder (under pressure), corrosion, explosive material, oxidizers, aquatic toxicity (non-mandatory), and acute toxicity.
Rapid Eating Assessment for Patients can be used by primary care providers to assess the following EXCEPT _____. dietary intake alcohol consumption physical activity drug use
drug use explain: REAP, or Rapid Eating Assessment for Patients, is a tool used to quickly assess dietary intake and physical activity. It asks a patient about the frequency of food consumed, frequency of physical activity, and alcohol consumption, but there are no questions about medications used
It would be appropriate to recommend the use of meal replacements for weight loss to a client who: has no more than 20 pounds to lose. has difficulty with portion control. habitually eats late at night. does not engage in physical activity.
has difficulty with portion control. explain: The Academy's Evidence Analysis Library recommends, with a strong, conditional rating, that for people who have difficulty with self-selection and/or portion control, meal replacements may be used as part of the diet component of a comprehensive weight management program. Substituting one or two daily meals or snacks with meal replacements is a successful weight loss and weight maintenance strategy.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) would issue a class I recall for: hot dogs contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes. a product that contained canola oil rather than olive oil as stated on the label. cornflakes mislabeled as having 16 net ounces when in fact the package contained only 14 net ounces. strawberry jam that had only 35% fruit.
hot dogs contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes. explain: Contaminated hot dogs represent a safety issue that could affect many individuals detrimentally and could be a "health hazard," which represents the definition of a class I recall.
A weight _____ approach is based on the assumption that everyone is capable of achieving health and well-being independent of weight, so long as they have access to non-stigmatizing health care. inclusive normative considerate neutral
inclusive explain: Unlike the weight normative approach, which emphasizes weight and weight loss when defining health and well-being, the weight inclusive approach views health and well-being as multifaceted and advocates for efforts toward improving health care access.
When lactose is malabsorbed in a person with lactose intolerance, it travels intact to the _____. large intestine ileum ileocecal valve jejunum
large intestine explain: Lactose intolerance occurs when there is a relative deficiency in the enzyme lactase, which is normally expressed in the brush border of the small intestine. Lactase splits lactose into its component simple sugar, glucose and galactose. When this does not occur, lactose continues on to the colon, where it is fermented by bacteria.
Components of an emergency preparedness plan include all of the following EXCEPT _____. menu energy source equipment number of patrons
number of patrons explain: An emergency preparedness plan typically details plans for food preparation in times when the organization is operating in an emergency situation. The plan may include menu, equipment for lack of electricity, gas, or water.
If 100 patients with a disease are tested but only 96 test positive for the disease, that means the test has a ________ of 96%. sensitivity specificity positive predictive value negative predictive value
sensitivity explain: Sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify all screened individuals who are positive for a disease. The test identified 96 out of 100 patients, resulting in 96% sensitivity. Monsen ER. Research: Successful Approa
Using behavioral learning theory can be problematic in a foodservice environment because one of its tenets is that ______. positive reinforcement is used its use requires that there be a good role model learners have to be permitted to ask questions undesirable behaviors are ignored
undesirable behaviors are ignored explain: In behavioral learning theory, conditioning is used to learn new information and behaviors. Conditioning is a process by which one learns and that process can be less effective in a chaotic environment. Chaotic environments can wrongly give the impression that multiple, inconsistent behaviors are acceptable, resulting in confusion about what is considered the acceptable behavior.
Nutrition informatics computer skills include the ability to use the eNCPT to document care. successfully write smart phone applications (apps). successfully complete a computer course in JavaScript. correctly identify on a schematic all parts of a personal computer.
use the eNCPT to document care. explain: Nutrition informatics in practice is reflected in the use of standardized terminology to document medical nutrition therapy effectiveness in the electronic health record (EHR), such as when RDNs use the standardized Nutrition Care Process Terminology (eNCPT) in EHRs.
A manager was instructed to prepare a budget without relying on the figures from previous years. This is known as a top-down budget. bottom-up budget. baseline budget. zero-based budget.
zero-based budget. explain: A top-down budget is prepared by top management and given to each operating units. In a bottom-up budget, individual units prepare their own budget that is then sent to upper management. A baseline budget starts with the previous budget and adjusts for current conditions. A zero-based budget starts with no previous figures before costs, outlay, and inflows are determined.
The term for a menu style that has all components of a meal priced individually is __________. prix fixe table d'hôte à la carte family style
à la carte explain: In an à la carte menu, items are priced individually. A table d'hôte menu, also called prix fixe menu, is a complete meal at a fixed price. Family style is a style of serving food and has nothing to do with pricing.
