Exam 1 Study Set

The muscarinic receptor that couples to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and plays a key role in cholinergic input to the heart is classified as A)muscarinic-M1 receptor. B)muscarinic-M2 receptor. C)muscarinic-M3 receptor. D)muscarinic-M4 receptor. E)muscarinic-M5 receptor.

B

The pharmacologic effect of IV metaraminol (an alpha-1 drug) is A. vasodilation B. vasoconstriction C. cardiac stimulation D. cardiac depression E. bronchodilation

B

The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the A. duration of action B. onset of action C. ceiling effect D. maximal response E. ceiling effect

B

When a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, the process is termed A. first-pass metabolism B. enzyme induction C. enzyme inhibition D. enterohepatic cycling E. microsomal inhibition

B

Which of the following would be a preferred treatment for overactive bladder? A. neostigmine B. tolterodine C. physostigmine D. bethanechol E. donepezil

B

In the presynaptic terminal of neuronal cells, the immediate trigger to release a neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft is A)a drop in cytosolic Ca2+ B)a drop in cytosolic K+ C)a rise in cytosolic Ca2+ D)a drop in cytosolic Mg2+ E)a rise in cytosolic K+ F)a rise in cytosolic Mg2+

C

Metoprolol is classified as a(n) A. alpha-blocker B. nonselective beta-blocker C. selective beta-1 blocker D. adrenergic neuronal blocker E. selective beta-2 blocker

C

Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions? A. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly B. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver C. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors D. longer duration of action than vecuronium E. stimulation of presynaptic ACH release

C

The main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha-1 receptors is A. increased heart rate B. bronchodilation C. vasoconstriction D. contraction of urinary bladder E. increased force of myocardial contraction

C

The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as A. pharmacotherapeutics B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics D. pharmacy E. posology

C

The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as A. side effect B. adverse effect C. drug allergy D. contraindication E. antagonism

D

Which factor of individual variation is dependent upon the patient's attitude toward treatment? A. weight B. age C. genetic variation D. placebo effect E. gender

D

Which of the following is correct about the nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptor blocking drugs? A. the mechanism of action is the same as represented by dantrolene B. all of these drugs depolarize the muscle fiber before blockade occurs C. calcium ions are released from the storage sites D. there are two groups in this class: either depolarizing agents or nondepolarizing agents E. botulinumtoxinA rapidly attaches to these receptors

D

The following diagram shows the antagonist effect on the agonist dose-response relationship. This is an example of a A)competitive antagonist. B)partial agonist. C)inverse agonist. D)spare receptor. E)noncompetitive antagonist.

E

The rate of drug absorption would be increased by which of the following? A. drug ionization B. water solubility C. positively charged drug D. negatively charged drug E. lipid solubility

E

The time a drug continues to produce its effect is its A. ED50 B. maximal response C. ceiling effect D. onset of action E. duration of action

E

Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking drugs? A. decreasing heart rate B. decreasing force of myocardial contraction C. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels D. lowering of blood pressure E. all of these

E

Which of the following could be categorized as an adverse reaction? A. idiosyncrasy B. drug allergy C. teratogenicity D. carcinogenicity E. all of these

E

The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the A. generic name B. over-the-counter name C. trade name D. chemical name E. none of these

C

The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following? A. bronchodilation B. vasoconstriction C. relaxation of uterus D. increased heart rate E. all of these

E

In the delivery room, a 24-year-old patient who is pregnant and in gestational week 40 with twins, receives an intravenous infusion of oxytocin to promote the onset of regular uterine contractions. The goal is a constant state of medication delivery. Which of the graphs in the figure is the best approximation of the patient's oxytocin plasma curve? A)Graph A B)Graph B C)Graph C D)Graph D E)Graph E

C

A 16-year-old female with a history of goiter is admitted with fever, profuse sweating, tachyarrhythmia, hypertension, abdominal pain, and anxiety. Based on a working diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, she is started on a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist that has a very short half-life. Refer to the case above. Regarding the mechanism by which the drug ameliorates the toxic effects of excessive thyroxine levels, the drug acts as A)a physiologic antagonist. B)a competitive receptor antagonist. C)a noncompetitive receptor antagonist. D)a partial agonist. E)an inverse agonist.

A

A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called A)suicide substrates. B)orphan drugs. C)protein drugs. D)competitive antagonists. E)enantiomers.

A

A 17-year-old girl with suspected intrinsic asthma but nearly normal results on spirometry and flow volume testing takes a methacholine provocative test. The mechanism of action of methacholine most closely resembles that of A)hemicholinium. B)acetylcholine. C)edrophonium. D)succinylcholine. E)neostigmine.

B

A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the selectivity of a given drug is A)its target receptor ligand affinity. B)its target receptor cell-type distribution. C)its ionic interactions. D)its hydrogen bonding. E)its intrinsic activity.

B

A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a A. poison B. OTC drug C. prescription drug D. controlled substance E. nonproprietary drug

D

At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these

D

Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as Pregnancy Category A. B B. C C. D D. X E. NR

D

In order for drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be A. ionized B. positively charged C. water soluble D. lipid soluble E. negatively charged

D

Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as A. alpha-1 B. nicotinic-neural (Nn) C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm) D. muscarinic E. ganglionic

D

Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular mechanism is called A)tachyphylaxis. B)inactivation. C)desensitization. D)downregulation. E)refractoriness.

D

The antidote for atropine poisoning is A. scopolamine B. bethanechol C. neostigmine D. physostigmine E. dicyclomine

D

The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is A. norepinephrine B. phenylephrine C. pseudoephedrine D. epinephrine E. propranolol

D

The mechanism of action of methyldopa is A. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending B. alpha-1 receptor blocker C. beta-1 receptor blocker D. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending E. none of these

D

Epinephrine stimulates A. alpha-1 receptors B. alpha-2 receptors C. beta-1 receptors D. beta-2 receptors E. all of these

E

Pick the correct pharmacological effect(s) of direct-acting cholinergic drugs. A. respiratory paralysis B. urinary retention C. increased heart rate D. bronchodilation E. none of these

E

Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include A. slow pulse rate B. increased urination C. diarrhea D. sweating E. all of these

E

A 25-year old female presents with delirium, hyperthermia, and symptoms of central anticholinergic intoxication. She has attended a ìwitches' conventî and ingested some herbal extracts including fruits of the species ì Atropa belladonna .î As one component of her treatment, she receives a dose of physostigmine. Refer to the case above. Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine because A)it is a nonpolar compound that penetrates the CNS more easily than neostigmine. B)it has a shorter half-life than neostigmine, making it more useful for emergency treatment. C)it has a longer half-life than neostigmine, better matching the half-life of atropine. D)it is eliminated via the kidneys, and dosage is not critical with compromised liver function. E)it is eliminated via the liver, and dosage is not critical with compromised renal function.

A

Select the term below that relates to the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect. A. posology B. toxicology C. pharmacodynamics D. pharmacotherapeutics E. pharmacy

A

The graph shows the dose-response relationship for three different drugs. Which of the following correctly describes properties of drug X in comparison to drugs A and B? A)X is less potent than A and less efficacious than B. B)X is equally potent with A and more efficacious than B. C)X is less potent than B and equally efficacious with A. D)X is equally potent with B and less potent than A. E)X is more efficacious than A and less efficacious than B.

A

Which FDA pregnancy category would appear to be the safest for a developing fetus? A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D E. Category X

A

A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called A)idiosyncrasy. B)tachyphylaxis. C)heterologous desensitization. D)refractoriness. E)receptor downregulation.

B

Drug X has a half-life of 6 hours. How much drug is left in the body 18 hours after an IV injection of 1200 milligrams (mg)? A. 75 mg B. 150 mg C. 300 mg D. 600 mg E. 900 mg

B

Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n) A. direct-acting cholinergic drug B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor D. anticholinergic drug E. ganglionic blocker

B

Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs. A. increased heart rate B. increased gastrointestinal motility C. decreased urination D. pupillary dilation E. bronchodilation

B

The drug administration route demonstrating the slowest onset of action is A. inhalation B. transdermal C. intramuscular D. sublingual E. intravenous

B

A medication that does not require a physician's service to obtain is referred to as A. trade B. nonproprietary C. nonprescription D. brand E. generic

C

An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as A. toxic effect B. antagonism C. idiosyncrasy D. side effect E. drug allergy

C

Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except A. bronchodilation B. increased heart rate C. increased gastrointestinal activity D. decreased respiratory secretions E. dry mouth

C

First-pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the A. kidney B. blood vessels C. liver D. heart E. adipose tissue

C