EXAM 1 STUDYMATE GAMES REVIEW QUESTIONS

chapter 2

1. A small group of individuals can be the focus of a case study * A) True B) False 2. There is usually only one good way to measure a given construct A) True * B) False 3. A secure attachment to the mother regulates the neurobiology of stress in infants and young children * A) True B) False 4. The most common way to investigate age-related differences is to use a cross-sectional design * A) True B) False 5. The factor that researchers deliberately manipulate in an experiment is the dependent variable A) True * B) False 6. Direct observations of behavior cannot occur in laboratory settings A) True * B) False 7. Ecological validity refers to the degree to which a research study accurately represents events or processes that occur in the real world * A) True B) False 8. An effect size cannot represent the magnitude of the difference between treatment and control groups A) True * B) False 9. Ethnographic work often involves the use of participant observations * A) True B) False 10. Researchers observing relatively rare events would probably use event sampling over time sampling * A) True B) False 11. One problem with field experiments compared with laboratory experiments is that results from field experiments cannot easily be generalized to real life A) True * B) False 12. Focus groups are only valuable in the early stages of a study A) True * B) False 13. Hormones have a regulatory effect on the activity of certain organs * A) True B) False 14. Whether or not a participant is assigned to the treatment or control condition is an example of an independent variable * A) True B) False 15. All research with human subjects requires that researchers obtain informed consent from participants before they are enrolled in the study * A) True B) False 16. A principal difference between field experiments and interventions is that interventions have the explicit goal of changing behavior * A) True B) False 17. Laboratory analogue experiments are not typically designed to address problems of artificiality A) True * B) False 18. Practice effects, or the effect of repeatedly testing participants over many years, is not a problem with longitudinal designs A) True * B) False 19. The problem of observer bias cannot be reduced by carefully training observers A) True * B) False 20. Use of psychophysiological approaches including cortisol, EEG, and fMRI allow researchers to clearly argue for causation A) True * B) False 21. A form of research in which investigators study an individual person or group intensely is: A) a specimen record B) ethnography C) participant observation * D) a case study 22. Which of the following is not an advantage of case studies? Case studies A) allow the study of rare phenomena B) facilitate intensive investigation and details about the process under study * C) are easily generalizable to other individuals D) are useful as a precursor or follow-up to studies using other methods 23. An idea or concept, especially a complex one such as aggression or love, is: A) a hypothesis * B) a construct C) an operationalization D) an independent variable 24. Which of the following is not a construct: A) aggression B) love C) parenting * D) number of instances a person hits another person 25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cortisol: A) hormone involved in vigilance B) hormone involved in the control of arousal C) a natural steroid * D) secreted in response to psychological stress alone 26. Which of the following is not supported by research on cortisol in children? * A) children in child care exhibit lower amounts of cortisol as the day wears on B) children who have poorer relationships with other children at school have relatively higher levels of cortisol C) children raised in physically abusive homes have higher levels of cortisol D) children raised in crime-ridden neighborhoods have higher levels of cortisol 27. A research design in which researchers compare groups of individuals of different age levels at approximately the same point in time is: A) event sampling B) a longitudinal design C) a sequential design * D) a cross-sectional design 28. Advantages of the cross-sectional design over the longitudinal design include: A) comparatively low monetary cost B) comparatively fast data collection * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 29. The factor that researchers expect to change as a function of change in the independent variable is the: A) operationalization B) substitute variable C) construct * D) dependent variable 30. Which of the following is a reasonable dependent variable: A) child age B) child gender * C) child aggression D) all of the above 31. When researchers go into settings in the real world or bring participants into the laboratory to observe behaviors of interest, it is called: * A) direct observation B) participant observation C) a focus group D) a field experiment 32. Which of the following is not a type of direct observation: A) naturalistic observation B) structured observation * C) participant observation D) all of the above are examples of direct observation 33. The degree to which a research study accurately represents events or processes that occur in the real world is: A) observer bias B) reactivity C) effect size * D) ecological validity 34. Ecological validity is principally concerned with: A) measurement accuracy B) sample size C) repeated observations across time * D) generalizability 35. An estimate of the magnitude of the difference between groups or the strength of the association between the factors is: * A) an effect size B) meta-analysis C) quantitative study D) dependent variable 36. An effect size can represent: A) the magnitude of the difference between treatment and control groups B) the strength of association between factors in a correlational study * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 37. The use of intensive observations and interviews to gather data about the beliefs, practices, and behaviors of individuals in a particular context or culture is: A) experience sampling method B) naturalistic observation * C) ethnography D) structured observation 38. The data offered by the ethnographic approach is frequently: A) subjective B) in-depth C) biased/of limited generalizability * D) all of the above 39. Investigators record participants' behavior only when a behavior of particular interest occurs in: A) experience sampling method * B) event sampling C) participant observation D) structured observation 40. Researchers interested in studying the way a child responds to a parent's directions would most likely use: A) a specimen record B) time sampling C) ethnography * D) event sampling 41. A data collection strategy in which participants are signaled at random times throughout the day and record answers to researchers' questions is called: * A) the experience sampling method B) event sampling C) participant observation D) structured observation 42. A question less likely to be used with the experience sampling method would be: A) Where are you? B) Who are you with? * C) Do you consider yourself religious? D) What are you doing right now? 43. An experiment in which researchers deliberately create a change in a real-world setting and then measure the outcome of their manipulation is called: A) an intervention B) a natural experiment C) a quantitative study * D) a field experiment 44. Which of the following is an advantage of field experiments: A) strict control over extraneous variables * B) some degree of ecological validity C) high degree of control over the assessment of the dependent variable D) low expense and low effort 45. A type of group interview in which an interviewer poses a set of questions that are answered by the participants of the group is called: A) a representative sample B) a structured observation * C) a focus group D) a field experiment 46. Focus groups can increase the validity of a study by: A) making sure researchers ask the right questions B) helping researchers identify cultural preferences in interviewing styles C) making sure researchers include all the relevant factors * D) all of the above 47. An individual reacts with less and less intensity to a repeatedly presented stimulus until he or she responds only faintly or not at all. This is called: A) observer bias * B) habituation C) participant observation D) reactivity 48. Habituation is found as early as: * A) infancy B) toddlerhood C) kindergarten D) adolescence 49. Which of the following is true regarding hormones: A) hormones are powerful B) hormones have a regulatory effect C) hormones are highly specialized * D) all of the above 50. The assessment of hormone levels in the body is an example of a: A) neurological technique B) self-report C) meta-analysis * D) psychophysiological technique 51. What is the factor that researchers deliberately manipulate in an experiment? A) operationalization * B) independent variable C) construct D) dependent variable 52. Whether or not a participant is part of the experimental treatment or a control group is an example of: A) an operationalization * B) random assignment C) an intervention D) a quantitative study 53. Agreement to participate in a study based on a full understanding of its purposes and procedures is: * A) informed consent B) specimen record C) case study D) ethnography 54. To secure a child's participation in a study, it may be necessary to obtain informed consent from: A) the child B) the child's parent or legal guardian C) teachers or school administrators * D) all of the above 55. A program provided to improve a situation or relieve psychological illness or distress is: A) a field experiment B) a natural experiment C) a focus group * D) an intervention 56. An intervention: A) deliberately introduces change in the normal environment B) seeks to change behavior C) can be broader in focus than a field experiment * D) all of the above 57. A type of experiment in which researchers try to duplicate in the laboratory features or events that occur naturally in everyday life in order to increase the ecological validity of their results is: A) a field experiment B) a natural experiment * C) a laboratory analogue experiment D) an intervention 58. Laboratory analogue experiments typically differ from regular experiments in that: A) they have no control group B) participants are not randomly assigned to groups C) they have lower ecological validity * D) none of the above 59. A study in which investigators follow the same people over a period of time(often years), observing them repeatedly is: A) a cross-sectional design B) time sampling C) a quantitative study * D) a longitudinal design 60. Advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs include allowing researchers to: A) follow children's development over time B) study whether individual children's patterns are stable C) analyze links between early events and later behaviors while controlling for early behaviors * D) all of the above 61. Disadvantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs include the following: A) they take a long time B) participants drop out C) they are not flexible to changing conditions or to new assessments * D) all of the above 62. A statistical technique that allows the researcher to summarize the results of many studies on a particular topic and to draw conclusions about the size and replicability of observed differences or associations is: A) a quantitative study B) a sequential design * C) a meta-analysis D) a regression analysis 63. Meta-analysis: A) yields an overall estimate of effect size across studies B) permits researchers to draw conclusions about the reliability of observed differences across studies C) is only as valid as the studies from which it is based * D) all of the above 64. An experiment in which researchers measure the results of events that occur naturally in the real world is: A) a naturalistic observation * B) a natural experiment C) a meta-analysis D) a laboratory analogue experiment 65. Natural experiments: A) are different from quasi-experiments B) cannot be done when researchers are unable to introduce changes into the natural environment C) incorporate random assignment to experimental conditions * D) involve comparing children who are naturally exposed to a set of conditions to those not exposed to those conditions 66. Information collected in the child's natural settings, at home, in child care, or in school without interfering with the child's activities is: * A) a naturalistic observation B) a natural experiment C) a meta-analysis D) a laboratory analogue experiment 67. Distortions in naturalistic observations can be reduced by: A) conducting repeated observations B) using less obtrusive observational methods * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 68. An observer's tendency to be influenced by knowledge about the research design or hypothesis is: A) a naturalistic observation B) participant observation * C) observer bias D) reactivity 69. Observer bias is most frequently a problem with: A) self reports * B) naturalistic observations C) psychophysiological approaches D) the experience sampling method 70. The process of defining a concept so that it is observable and measurable is: A) ethnography B) focus group C) structured observation * D) operationalization 71. Turning a theory into hypotheses involves: A) meta-analysis B) qualitative study * C) operationalization D) quantitative study 72. A research strategy used to gain familiarity with a group of individuals by means of intensive involvement in their activities, usually over an extended period of time, is: * A) participant observation B) focus group C) structured observation D) qualitative study 73. An element that distinguishes participant observation from other ethnographic approaches is: * A) living as a member of the community B) increased time spent in data collection C) focusing exclusively on field notes D) none of these distinguish participant observation from other ethnographic approaches 74. Physiological bases of psychological processes measured by brain activity, brain waves, heart rate, and so on are best described as A) event sampling B) specimen record C) experience sampling method * D) psychophysiological methods 75. Psychophysiological research may focus on measuring: A) respiration B) brain activity C) hormone levels * D) all of the above 76. Research using nonstatistical analysis of materials gathered from a relatively small number of participants to gain an in-depth understanding of behavior and contexts: A) ethnography B) quantitative approach C) meta-analysis * D) qualitative study 77. Qualitative studies: A) are ideal for establishing causal effects B) aid in generate hypotheses C) can help interpret findings from more objective research * D) b and c 78. Research involving statistical analysis of numerical data is: * A) a quantitative study B) an ethnographic study C) a lab analogue study D) a qualitative study 79. Quantitative studies: A) interpret responses to lengthy interviews or narratives B) are often based solely on a researchers' field notes C) are less concerned with generalizability than in-depth understanding of a specific target * D) turn observations, interviews, and test results into numbers to analyze 80. The change in a person's behavior because he or she is being observed is: A) habituation B) observer bias C) event sampling * D) reactivity 81. Reactivity: A) is never a problem with naturalistic observation B) is always a problem with structured observation * C) becomes less a problem with repeated observations D) is usually worse when researchers fade into the background as compared with being in close proximity to the participants 82. A research sample in which participants are drawn from strata or categories in the same proportions as they are found in the larger population is: A) cross-sectional * B) representative C) ecological D) experiential 83. The following elements are thought of as important for making a sample representative: A) participant gender B) participant social class C) geographic location of participants * D) all of the above 84. Information that people provide about themselves either in a direct interview or in some written form, such as a questionnaire is best described as a: A) case study B) informed consent * C) self-report D) participant observation 85. The following illustrate why self-report data are thought of as problematic for children: A) compared with adults, children are less attentive B) compared with adults, children lie more C) compared with adults, children are less likely to understand the questions * D) both a and c 86. A way of studying change over time that combines features of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs is: * A) a sequential design B) event sampling C) time sampling D) meta-analysis 87. Which of the following is not an advantage of a sequential design: A) the ability to examine age-related changes * B) the ability to determine cause-effect relations C) the ability to look at generational effects D) the ability to look at practice effects 88. Researchers record everything a person does within a given period of time in: A) a naturalistic observation B) event sampling C) time sampling * D) specimen record 89. Specimen records are described as most useful: * A) if researchers are interested in a broad range of behaviors B) when researchers want to record a set of predetermined behaviors C) when researchers want to examine a continuous stream of predetermined behaviors D) when researchers want to record behaviors in a particular time interval 90. A form of observation in which researchers structure a situation so that behaviors they wish to study are more likely to occur is called: * A) a structured observation B) event sampling C) time sampling D) specimen record 91. One limitation of structured interactions is: A) researchers cannot address a broad range of behaviors * B) researchers cannot know if the observed behavior is similar to behavior in everyday situations C) researchers cannot examine a continuous stream of behaviors D) researchers cannot look at child reactions to particular behaviors 92. A technique by which researchers record any of a set of predetermined behaviors that occur within a specified period of time is referred to as: A) structured observation B) event sampling * C) time sampling D) specimen record 93. Limitations of time sampling include: A) researchers cannot address the sequential order in which behaviors occur B) researchers are restricted to a set of predetermined behaviors C) researchers cannot assess the duration of a particular behavior * D) all of the above 94. Which of the following is a reason to review prior literature before conducting a study? A) to know if the research question has already been answered in prior studies B) to know how the constructs were measured in prior studies C) to know how to situate your findings(whatever they end up being) into the existing literature * D) all of the above 95. If two variables are correlated +1.00: * A) for every increase in one variable, there is a comparable increase in the other B) for every increase in one variable, there is a comparable decrease in the other C) there is no systematic association between the two variables D) correlations cannot go as high as 1.00 96. Correlational studies do not allow us to determine whether a factor is actually causing a child's behavior, yet researchers conduct them because: A) we cannot always design a suitable experiment to study our research question B) ethical concerns prevent random assignment into some conditions we want to study C) understanding causal processes is not the only goal of research * D) all of the above 97. For a study to be a true experiment requires: A) random assignment B) a control group * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 98. Research on the consequences of adoption for children from Romanian orphanages is an example of: A) a lab experiment * B) a natural experiment C) a lab analogue study D) a field experiment 99. A researcher who wants to maximize control over the independent variable and maximize ecological validity on the dependent variable can collect the independent variable in the ____ and the dependent variable in the ____: * A) lab, field B) field, lab C) lab, lab D) field, field 100. In an ABAB design, the B represents: A) the control group B) the normal condition that exists without the experimental treatment C) the post-treatment measurement * D) none of the above 101. The Terman study is an example of: A) a cross-sectional design * B) a longitudinal design C) a sequential design D) a focus group 102. The problems with national surveys include: * A) cost in terms of time and labor B) an overdeveloped capacity to identify psychological processes underlying development C) low levels of representativeness D) all of the above

chapter 4

1. A strong emotional bond that forms between infant and caregiver in the second half of the child's first year: A) imprinting B) secure base * C) attachment D) maternal bond 2. This theory of attachment development highlights the gratification of instinctual drives like the infant's desire for oral stimulation: * A) psychoanalytic B) learning C) cognitive D) ethological 3. This theory of attachment development describes the mother as a secondary drive because she is associated with the relief of hunger: A) psychoanalytic * B) learning C) cognitive D) ethological 4. This theory of attachment development highlights the ability to differentiate between familiar and unfamiliar people: A) psychoanalytic B) learning * C) cognitive D) ethological 5. This theory of attachment development highlights instinctual responses that are important for the protection and survival of the species: A) psychoanalytic B) learning C) cognitive * D) ethological 6. The psychoanalytic explanation for attachment is incorrect because: * A) infants form attachments to people who never feed them B) infants have no id, ego, or superego C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 7. Which theorist is noted for the ethological approach to attachment? A) Klaus B) Hinde * C) Bowlby D) Kagan 8. According to the psychoanalytic explanation for attachment: A) attachment takes place during the anal stage B) infants become attached first to the mother and then the mother's breast * C) attachment begins in the oral stage D) attachment develops in the phallic phase 9. The central point of more recent learning theory-based perspectives on attachment is that attachment: A) takes place during classical conditioning B) is intrinsically tied to the feeding of the infant * C) results from satisfying interactions over time with responsive adults D) all of the above 10. The central point of Harlow's experiments with "surrogate mothers" was that: A) attachment occurs in primates as well as humans B) attachment is intrinsically tied to the feeding of the infant C) attachment is not limited to one "caregiver" * D) none of the above 11. The central point of more recent learning theory-based perspectives on attachment which suggests that attachment results from satisfying interactions over time with responsive adults: A) offers the most complete and empirically validated explanation of attachment * B) does not explain why both children and animals appear to form attachments to abusive parents C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 12. The understanding that objects, including people, have a continuous existence apart from the baby's own interactions with them: A) attachment B) secure base * C) object permanence D) imprinting 13. Cognitive developmental theory: A) emphasizes infants' ability to distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar people B) emphasizes infants' awareness that people continue to exist even when they cannot be seen C) helps account for the gradual shift in the way attachment is expressed * D) all of the above 14. Birds and other infrahuman animals develop a preference for the person or object to which they are first exposed during a brief, critical period after birth. This is referred to as: A) attachment B) secure base C) object permanence * D) imprinting 15. Ethological theory: A) offers the least detailed explanation of attachment B) is rarely used by attachment researchers today * C) suggests that infants are biologically programmed for attachment D) mothers learn to become attached to their infants but are not biologically prepared for attachment 16. Bowlby's theory of attachment emphasizes the degree to which: A) infants are biologically prepared to respond to the sights, sounds, and nurturance provided by parents B) parents are biologically prepared to respond to the infant's eliciting behaviors, such as crying, smiling, and vocalizing C) parents provide the infant with a safe and stimulating environment * D) both a and b 17. Unique contributions of Bowlby's theory include: A) the active role played by the infant's smiling and crying B) emphasis on the development of mutual attachments C) the position that attachment is a relationship not a behavior * D) all of the above 18. Controversies regarding Bowlby's theory include: A) the idea that infants' early behaviors are biologically programmed B) the emphasis on mothers as the only caregivers who can provide the care and support necessary to foster infants' attachment C) the suggestion that both mothers and fathers are important for infants' attachment development * D) both a and b 19. What do we call the feeling of attachment a mother has to her infant, perhaps influenced by postnatal contact: A) internal working model B) secure base * C) maternal bond D) imprinting 20. Research has shown that contact between mother and baby immediately after birth: A) is necessary to avoid severe developmental delays B) is necessary to avoid disturbed mothering patterns * C) helps mothers form a strong bond to their infants D) neither a nor b 21. The phase of attachment that is characterized by indiscriminate social responsiveness: A) goal-corrected partnership B) attachment in the making C) clear-cut attachment * D) preattachment 22. The phase of attachment that is characterized by recognition of familiar people: A) goal-corrected partnership * B) attachment in the making C) clear-cut attachment D) preattachment 23. The phase of attachment that is characterized by separation protest and intentional communication: A) goal-corrected partnership B) attachment in the making * C) clear-cut attachment D) preattachment 24. The phase of attachment that is characterized by children understanding parents' needs: * A) goal-corrected partnership B) attachment in the making C) clear-cut attachment D) preattachment 25. An infant's distress reaction to being separated from the attachment object, usually the mother, which typically peaks at about 15 months of age: A) insecure-ambivalent attachment B) insecure-avoidant attachment C) insecure-disorganized attachment * D) separation distress or protest 26. An infant's attachment to one special person, usually the mother, emerges by: A) 6 months * B) 9 months C) 12 months D) 36 months 27. A study of infant attachment among 60 two-parent working-class families in Scotland found that the number of infants who formed a specific attachment to their mother during the first year of life was: * A) over 90% B) 75% C) 60% D) none of the above 28. A study of infant attachment among 60 two-parent working-class families in Scotland found that the number of infants who formed a secondary attachment to their father during the first 18 months of life was: A) over 90% * B) 75% C) 60% D) none of the above 29. A study of infant attachment among 60 two-parent working-class families in Scotland found that the number of infants who formed a secondary attachment to a grandparent during the first 18 months of life was: A) over 75% B) 75% C) 60% * D) none of the above 30. Differences between fathers and mothers include: * A) across cultures mothers are usually the primary caregivers B) fathers hold and kiss their children less than mothers do C) fathers talk to their children less than mothers do D) fathers play with their children less than mothers do 31. Fathers: * A) spend 4 to 5 more times playing with their infants than caring for them B) engage in more verbally stimulating games than mothers C) engage in equal amount of diaper changing as mothers D) engage in less arousing play than mothers 32. Babies who are able to explore novel environments, are minimally disturbed by brief separations from their parents, and are quickly comforted by their parents when they return have a: A) parental bond B) secure base * C) secure attachment D) positive attachment 33. A scenario in which parent and child are separated and reunited so that investigators can assess the nature and quality of the parent infant attachment relationship: A) Attachment Q-set B) California Attachment Procedure C) Standardized Attachment Assessment * D) Strange Situation 34. Babies who seem not to be bothered by their mother's brief absences but turn away, increase distance, or pay her no attention when she returns, and sometimes become visibly upset have: A) an insecure-ambivalent attachment * B) an insecure-avoidant attachment C) an insecure-disorganized attachment D) a secure attachment 35. Babies who tend to become very upset at the departure of the mother and exhibit inconsistent behaviors upon the mothers return(e.g., seeking contact with the mother and then angrily pushing her away) have: * A) an insecure-ambivalent attachment B) an insecure-avoidant attachment C) an insecure-disorganized attachment D) a secure attachment 36. Babies who look dazed, freeze in the middle of their movements, or engage in repetitive behaviors when reunited with the mothers after a brief separation have: A) an insecure-ambivalent attachment B) an insecure-avoidant attachment * C) an insecure-disorganized attachment D) a secure attachment 37. The two theoretical dimensions used to assess attachment in addition to the four attachment types are: * A) proximity seeking versus avoidance and anger/resistance B) contact maintenance and secure base C) secure base and anxiety reduction D) physical proximity and emotional resistance 38. Which alternative to the Strange Situation provides as output the same four-category classification of secure, insecure-ambivalent, insecure-avoidant, and insecure-disorganized: A) the Attachment Q Set * B) the California Attachment Procedure C) The Adult Attachment Interview D) The McArthur Story Completion Test 39. Reasons the Strange Situation reveals cultural differences in the proportion of children exhibiting a secure attachment include the following: * A) the degree to which the Strange Situation stresses infants varies across cultures B) the degree to which attachment exists varies across cultures C) the definition of a secure attachment varies across cultures D) all of the above 40. Children from which countries will, on average, be classified as more avoidant than U.S. children in the Strange Situation: * A) Germany, Sweden, Great Britain B) Puerto Rico, Japan, Uganda C) Great Britain, Sweden, Japan D) Germany, Puerto Rico, Uganda 41. Children from which countries will, on average, be classified as less avoidant than U.S. children in the Strange Situation: A) Germany, Sweden, Great Britain * B) Puerto Rico, Japan, Uganda C) Great Britain, Sweden, Japan D) Germany, Puerto Rico, Uganda 42. Infants who are classified as insecurely attached: A) show relatively more brain activity in the left temporal lobe B) show relatively less brain activity in the left temporal lobe * C) show relatively less brain activity in the left prefrontal cortex D) show relatively more brain activity in the left prefrontal cortex 43. Which of the following is true regarding mothers' biological preparedness for parenting: A) hormonal changes before and during childbirth make them sensitive to infant cries and primed for the tasks of motherhood B) show relatively less brain activity in the left temporal lobe * C) show relatively less brain activity in the left prefrontal cortex D) show relatively more brain activity in the left prefrontal cortex 44. Israeli children who live in communal villages called kibbutzim, especially if they regularly sleep there overnight, are less likely to show: A) insecure-ambivalent attachment B) insecure-avoidant attachment C) insecure-disorganized attachment * D) secure attachment 45. Aspects of maternal behavior that promote a child's development of a secure attachment include: A) sensitivity and responsiveness B) adaptation to the child's current state C) physical and psychological availability * D) all of the above 46. The established link between parent sensitivity and secure attachment is true: A) only for mothers B) only among North American samples C) only for fathers * D) none of the above 47. Children who form insecure-avoidant attachments: A) direct their attention to toys B) avoid seeking contact with their parents * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 48. Children with an insecure-ambivalent attachments do not leave their mother during the Strange Situation because: A) they are using her as a secure base B) they enjoy being close to her more than children of other attachment types C) they are less interested in exploring their surroundings * D) they don't know if she will be available and are consequently hesitant to leave her side 49. Over 80 percent of abused children form _______ to their caregiver(s): A) an insecure-avoidant attachment B) an insecure-ambivalent attachment * C) an insecure-disorganized attachment D) a secure attachment 50. If you were observing institutionalized young children living in poor quality orphanages, about how many would you expect to be securely attached? A) more than 85 percent B) more than 65 percent C) more than 55 percent * D) none of the above 51. In a study in Bucharest, orphanage children who were adopted later formed secure attachments ______ of the time, whereas those who remained in the orphanage formed secure attachments ______ of the time: A) half; one quarter B) two thirds; one quarter * C) half; less than one quarter D) two thirds; less than one quarter 52. The hormone that increases when an infant experiences warm physical contact with a familiar person is called the "cuddle hormone" or: A) vasopressin * B) oxytocin C) prolactin D) serotonin 53. The hormone that increases when an infant recognizes a familiar person: * A) vasopressin B) oxytocin C) prolactin D) serotonin 54. When 4-year olds who lived their first year in an orphanage before being adopted were compared with 4-year-olds who had been raised at home: A) the adopted children were less socially responsive B) their level of oxytocin did not increase when interacting physically with their adopted mothers C) their level of vasopressin was lower than the home-reared children * D) all of the above 55. Contextual variables that make it more likely that a child will develop a secure attachment to mother include the following: * A) the parents have a happy marriage B) the family lives in an unsafe neighborhood C) the mother is depressed D) the family lives in a rural rather than an urban setting 56. People's mental representations of themselves in childhood, their parents, and the nature of their interactions with their parents are referred to as: A) intergenerational representation * B) an internal working model C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 57. Children who form secure attachments often have parents whose attachment type as measured by the Adult Attachment Interview is described as: A) preoccupied B) dismissing C) authoritative * D) none of the above 58. Children who form insecure-avoidant attachments often have parents whose attachment type is: A) preoccupied * B) dismissing C) authoritative D) none of the above 59. Individuals who are able to overcome their early insecure attachments and develop secure relationships with their spouses and offspring are referred to as: A) recovered secure B) delayed secure * C) earned secure D) rediscovered secure 60. Which of the following is not usually a barrier for attachment formation when the mother is in prison: A) geographic distance B) visitation rules * C) mother's lack of interest D) changes in both mother and infant caused by their respective environments 61. Which of the following best describes the relation between infants' temperament characteristics and attachment relationships? A) infants' temperament directly relates to attachment relationships B) infants' temperament is not related to attachment relationships * C) infants' temperament is sometimes related to attachment relationships D) no research has yet examined the link between infants' temperament characteristics and attachment relationships 62. The stability of attachment security from infancy to adulthood is characterized as A) highly stable; correlation of .80 B) highly unstable; correlation of .10 * C) moderately stable; correlation of .40 D) impossible to predict how stable attachment is over time 63. Factors that can shift a secure attachment to an insecure attachment include the following: A) declines in the quality of parent-child communication B) increases in hostility or conflict C) exposure to stressful life events * D) all of the above 64. Factors associated with a secure attachment include: A) higher levels of cognitive ability B) being rated as more attentive in the classroom C) lower levels of frustration, crying, and whining * D) all of the above 65. Children with secure attachment relationships are likely to succeed in situations that require cognitive ability and effort because: A) their emotional security facilitates exploration and mastery of the physical environment B) their parents' sensitive and responsive care promotes cognitive development as well as attachment security C) their genetic makeup leads to both secure attachment and cognitive ability * D) all of the above 66. Newborn monkeys who are isolated from all social contact during their first year: A) withdraw from other monkeys at first, but eventually fully recover B) are unable to have normal sexual relations for the next few years before reintegrating into the social group * C) show timid and withdrawn behavior interactions patterns D) recover well if properly fathered after isolation 67. Researchers have found that at age 19 adolescents with a history of secure attachments are more likely to have: * A) long-term friendships B) higher-paying jobs C) more early adulthood depression D) children of their own 68. As Bowlby argued, the links between early attachment and social outcomes are mediated by: A) imprinting B) self-esteem C) parent sensitivity * D) children's internal working models 69. Secure attachments to parents: A) facilitates mastery of the social world B) increases the child's trust in other social relationships C) facilitates the development of mature affectional relationship with peers * D) all of the above 70. Children who have formed a/an _______ attachment view themselves negatively, whereas children who have formed a/an _______ attachment view themselves as perfect: A) insecure-avoidant; secure B) insecure-avoidant; insecure-disorganized * C) insecure-disorganized; insecure avoidant D) insecure- avoidant; insecure ambivalent 71. When 1-year-old children are assessed in terms of their attachment to both their mothers and fathers and are then presented with a friendly clown: A) children respond well as long as they are securely attached to their mother B) children respond well as long as they are securely attached to one parent * C) children respond best when securely attached to both parents D) degree of attachment to their parents did not matter 72. The ideas of "extreme early effects" and "mediating effects" are alternatives for explaining: A) patterns seen in the attachment formation of adoptees * B) the association between attachment quality and later development C) the role of internal working models in attachment formation D) none of the above 73. Which of the following accurately describes the relation between internal working models and social behaviors: A) social behaviors predict changes in internal working models B) internal working models predict changes in social behaviors * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 119- 74. The NICHD Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development found support for the: A) "extreme early effects" hypothesis * B) "mediating effects" hypothesis C) both a and b D) neither a nor b 75. The NICHD Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development found that: A) changes in later parenting mattered more for securely attached children * B) changes in later parenting mattered more for insecurely attached children C) changes in later parenting were equally linked to child outcomes regardless of attachment type D) none of the above 76. The theory that children's attachment histories modify how they perceive and react to changes in their family environment is: A) the "extreme early effects" hypothesis B) the "mediating effects" hypothesis * C) the "dynamic interaction process" D) critical period hypothesis 77. The theory that children's attachment histories matter less than the continuity or discontinuity of the child's experiences and relationships with parents is: A) the "extreme early effects" hypothesis * B) the "mediating effects" hypothesis C) the "dynamic interaction process" D) the sensitive period hypothesis 78. Adults who find it difficult to trust their romantic partners are likely to have relationships that are: A) secure B) ambivalent * C) avoidant D) diffuse 79. Adults who constantly worry about being abandoned are likely to have relationships that are: A) secure * B) ambivalent C) avoidant D) diffuse 80. Rank the types of attachment relationships observed among U.S. infants from most frequent to least frequent: A) secure, ambivalent, avoidant * B) secure, avoidant, ambivalent C) ambivalent, secure, avoidant D) avoidant, secure, ambivalent

chapter 1

People who are born within the same time period and share historical experiences are called: A) a population * B) an age cohort C) a normative event cohort D) a social dyad 2. Which of the following is an example of an age cohort? * A) people born in the 1950s who were adolescents during the upheaval and social unrest of the late 1960s B) people living in the same macrosystem C) people who share a zone of proximal development D) all of the above 3. Which of the following are not among the causes of change outlined by the life span theory of development? A) normative events B) nonnormative events C) historical events * D) critical periods 4. Modifying an existing schema to fit a new experience is called: A) operant conditioning * B) accommodation C) assimilation D) classical conditioning 5. Liz has learned how to print her name with both a crayon and a pencil. Which of the following illustrates accommodation? A) Her mother gives her an ink pen and Liz immediately begins to print her name B) Her mother gives her an ink pen and Liz ignores it, keeping the pencil instead C) Her mother gives her a brush and paint and Liz writes her name with the brush without putting it into the paint first * D) Her mother gives her a brush and paint and Liz learns to place the brush into the paint before trying to print her name 6. Applying an existing schema to fit a new experience is called: A) operant conditioning B) accommodation * C) assimilation D) classical conditioning 7. Liz has learned how to print her name with both a crayon and a pencil. Which of the following illustrates assimilation? * A) Her mother gives her an ink pen and Liz immediately begins to print her name B) Her mother gives her an ink pen and Liz ignores it, keeping the pencil instead C) Her mother gives her a brush and paint and Liz learns to place the brush into the paint before trying to print her name D) none of the above 8. Traditional learning theories emphasize A) the prediction of overt behavior B) the control of overt behavior C) the continuous nature of development * D) all of the above 9. Which of the following is not considered a traditional learning theory? A) drive reduction B) operant conditioning * C) cognitive social learning D) classical conditioning 10. The time-based dimension that can alter the operation of all other systems in Bronfenbrenner's model is the: A) temporal system B) developmental system * C) chronosystem D) macrosystem 11. The fact that over time the relative importance of different people with whom you interact changes is depicted by the: A) mesosystem B) exosystem * C) chronosystem D) microsystem 12. A type of learning in which a new stimulus is repeatedly presented with a familiar stimulus until an individual learns to respond to the new stimulus in the same way as the familiar stimulus is: A) operant conditioning B) desensitization * C) classical conditioning D) reciprocal determination 13. Which of the following best illustrates classical conditioning: A) a parent tells a child he did a good job after he completes his homework early B) a parent will not allow a child to watch TV because she broke a house rule C) a parent makes sure to reward a child's prosocial behavior intermittently instead of continuously * D) a mother gives her toddler a snack whenever she hears the toddler's new baby sibling crying to be nursed 14. A learning theory that stresses the importance of observation and imitation in the acquisition of new behaviors, with learning mediated by cognitive processes is: A) drive reduction theory * B) cognitive social learning theory C) social information processing theory D) psychosocial theory 15. Which of the following is not emphasized by cognitive social learning theory: * A) reinforcement of observed behavior B) observation and imitation of behavior C) motivation to reproduce or imitate behavior D) attention and retention of observed behaviors 16. A concept that there is a specific time in an organism's development during which external factors have a unique and irreversible impact is: A) ethology B) equifinality * C) critical period D) zone of proximal development 17. The concept of a critical period comes from: A) behavior genetics B) evolutionary developmental theory * C) ethological theory D) sociocultural theory 18. A type of classical conditioning therapy used to overcome phobias and fears through exposure to increasingly intense versions of the feared stimulus is: A) reciprocal determination B) operant conditioning * C) desensitization D) assimilation 19. Which of the following is not characteristic of systematic desensitization: * A) sudden exposure to the feared object or event B) imagining the feared object or event C) gradual exposure to the feared object or event D) a, b, and c all are characteristic of systematic desensitization 20. The idea that the processes of development are different for different types of behavior(e.g., moral judgments, manners, and peer relationships) is: A) egocentricity B) reciprocal determination C) multifinality * D) domain specificity 21. Domain specificity originates in: A) ethological theory * B) cognitive developmental theory C) sociocultural theory D) ecological theory 22. A version of learning theory stating that the association of stimulus and response results in learning only if it is accompanied by reduction of motivators such as hunger and thirst is: A) classical conditioning B) operant conditioning C) desensitization * D) drive reduction 23. The idea that children learned to love their mothers because their mothers provided them with food was an example of: A) cognitive social learning theory B) generativity * C) drive reduction theory D) a critical period 24. A theory that stresses the importance of the relations between organisms and environmental systems and the relations between the systems themselves is: A) sociocultural theory * B) ecological theory C) ethological theory D) evolutionary developmental theory 25. Which of the following is not a system associated with Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory: A) exosystem * B) endosystem C) macrosystem D) microsystem 26. In Freud's theory, the rational component of the personality, which tries to satisfy needs through appropriate, socially acceptable behaviors is the: A) id B) superego * C) ego D) pleasure principle 27. A child who lacked an ego would have difficulty in: * A) satisfying needs through appropriate, socially acceptable behaviors B) maximizing pleasure and satisfying needs immediately C) applying moral values to his or her own acts D) initiating an Oedipus or Electra complex 28. Tending to view the world from one's own perspective and to have difficulty seeing things from another's viewpoint is termed: A) domain specificity B) accommodation C) id * D) egocentric 29. In which stage of cognitive development is a child least likely to be egocentric: A) preoperational * B) formal operations C) sensorimotor D) concrete operations 30. According to Freud, girls focus their sexual feelings on their father. They then resolve this by instead identifying with their mother. This describes the: A) Oedipus complex B) latency stage C) genital stage * D) Electra complex 31. The Electra complex appears during which of Freud's developmental stages? * A) phallic B) latency C) genital D) concrete operations 32. The fact that children follow very different paths to reach the same developmental end point is referred to as: A) multifinality * B) equifinality C) domain specificity D) age cohorts 33. Which of the following is not an example of equifinality? Two children experience the same adverse circumstance: * A) both suffer developmental delays B) one exhibits resilience and the other suffers a developmental delay C) one exhibits a 'sleeper effect' developmental delay whereas the other suffers an immediate developmental delay D) both a and b 34. The theory that behavior must be viewed in a particular context and as having adaptive or survival value is: A) ecological theory B) psychosocial theory * C) ethological theory D) evolutionary developmental theory 35. Which of the following is not a contribution of ethological theory: A) greater understanding of how nonverbal behavior regulates social interactions * B) instead of being merely descriptive, it contains many explanatory principles C) greater understating of how children's groups are organized D) greater popularity and detail of observational approaches including naturalistic observations 36. The collection of settings that impinge on a child's development but in which the child does not play a direct role is the: A) endosystem * B) exosystem C) mesosystem D) macrosystem 37. Which of the following is part of the exosystem? A) peers B) attitudes and ideologies of the culture C) playground * D) none of the above 38. A commitment to family, work, society, and future generations is called: A) egocentrism B) superego * C) generativityc. conscience 39. Generativity is a goal included in: A) Freud's psychodynamic theory B) Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory C) Bandura's cognitive social learning theory * D) Erikson's psychosocial theory 40. In Freud's theory, instinctual drives that operate on the basis of the pleasure principle comprise the: A) superego * B) id C) ego D) all of the above 41. Of the interrelated parts of a child's developing personality, the first to emerge is the: A) superego B) ego * C) id D) they all emerge simultaneously 42. The system representing the values, ideologies, and laws of the society or culture is the: A) mesosystem B) chronosystem * C) macrosystem D) exosystem 43. Which of the following is part of the macrosystem in Bronfenbrenner's theory: A) social rules of the child's peers * B) laws of the society C) school rules D) parents' house rules 44. A biologically determined process of growth that unfolds over a period of time is: A) a critical period B) a normative event * C) maturation D) generativity 45. The extreme version of the maturation position is exemplified best by: * A) Gesell B) Watson C) Vygotsky D) Bandura 46. The interrelation among the components of the microsystem is the: * A) mesosystem B) macrosystem C) exosystem D) endosystem 47. Which of the following illustrates the mesosystem: A) distant friends of family visiting with the child's parents B) neighbors the child does not know interacting with the child's playmates C) the child playing at the playground with playmates * D) the child's parents interacting with the child's playmates 48. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory, the context in which children live and interact with the people and institutions closest to them, such as parents, peers, and school, is the: A) macrosystem B) mesosystem * C) microsystem D) exosystem 49. Which of the following illustrates the microsystem: A) distant friends of family visiting with the child's parents B) neighbors the child does not know interacting with the child's playmates * C) the child playing at the playground with playmates D) the child's parents interacting with the child's playmates 50. The divergence of developmental paths in which two individuals start out similarly but end at very different points is: * A) multifinality B) equifinality C) a social dyad D) an age cohort 51. Which of the following is an example of multifinality? Two children experience the same adverse circumstance: A) both suffer developmental delays * B) one exhibits resilience and the other suffers a developmental delay C) one exhibits a 'sleeper effect' developmental delay whereas the other suffers an immediate developmental delay D) both a and b 52. The realization in infancy that objects and people do not cease to exist when they are no longer visible is: A) geocentricism * B) object permanence C) role confusion D) desensitization 53. The concept of object permanence was first identified by: A) Vygotsky * B) Piaget C) Freud D) Erikson 54. Freud's theory that boys become attracted to their mother and jealous of their father is: * A) the Oedipus complex B) the Electra complex C) psychodynamic theory D) all of the above 55. The Oedipus complex happens during which of Freud's developmental stages: * A) phallic B) latency C) genital D) concrete operations 56. A type of learning that depends on the consequence of the behavior is: * A) operant conditioning B) drive reduction C) classical conditioning D) desensitization 57. Which of the following best illustrates operant conditioning: A) a parent tells a child he did a good job after he completes his homework early B) a parent will not allow a child to watch TV because she broke a house rule C) a parent makes sure to reward a child's prosocial behavior at least some of the time * D) all of the above 58. A view suggesting that development is determined by innate biologically based drives shaped by encounters with the environment in early childhood: A) ethological theory B) evolutionary developmental theory * C) psychodynamic theory D) cognitive social learning theory 59. Which is not a contribution of psychodynamic theory? A) the role of the unconscious or instinctual urges B) the idea of development being discontinuous and composed of stages C) the idea that early experience can have long-lasting implications * D) the recognition that social behavior can be caused by the situation instead of the individual 60. A theory that each stage of development depends on accomplishing psychological tasks in interactions with the social environment is: A) evolutionary developmental theory * B) psychosocial theory C) social information processing theory D) cognitive developmental theory 61. Which of the following is the final stage in psychosocial theory: A) genital B) formal operations * C) integrity versus despair D) generativity versus stagnation 62. Traditionally psychologists' study of social development has focused mainly on: * A) the individual child B) a pair of social partners, such as friends, parent and child, or marital partners C) a social triad such as mother-father-child or a trio of friends D) the social group 63. Contemporary social development scholars view the following as important contexts for studying development: A) individuals B) dyads C) triads * D) all of the above 64. A theory that explains a person's social behavior in terms of his or her assessment and evaluation of the social situation as a guide deciding on a course of social action is: A) traditional learning theory B) cognitive social learning theory C) sociocultural theory * D) social information processing theory 65. Social information-processing theory: A) underscores the link between cognitive understanding and social behavior B) is criticized for its lack of attention to emotional factors C) does not account for the fact that much social interaction is automatic * D) all of the above 66. The theory that development emerges from interactions with more skilled people and the institutions and tools provided by the culture is: A) social information processing theory B) cognitive social learning theory * C) sociocultural theory D) cognitive developmental theory 67. Sociocultural theory suggests the following: A) children learn about their culture from equally experienced cultural members B) cultures do not vary in the settings and practices they provide C) cultural settings and practices do not facilitate child development * D) none of the above 68. In Freud's theory, the personality component that is the repository of the child's internalization of parental or societal values, morals, and roles is the: A) id * B) superego C) ego D) zone of proximal development 69. Which personality component appears when the child accepts and absorbs parental or societal morals, values, and roles: A) id B) ego * C) superego D) both b and c 70. Transactional interactions involve: * A) reciprocal determination B) zone of proximal development C) social dyad D) accommodation 71. The zone of proximal development refers to: * A) the difference between a child's level of performance while working alone and while working with a more experienced partner B) the difference between a child's performance while working with an equally experienced partner and while working with a more experienced partner C) the difference in performance between a child working with an experienced partner and another child working alone D) the difference in performance between a child working with a age-appropriate task and a task that is intended for children at other ages 72. The theory that discusses the zone of proximal development is: A) cognitive social learning theory * B) sociocultural theory C) psychosocial theory D) ethological theory 73. Which theoretical perspectives view development as influenced by historical change: A) learning and psychosocial B) learning and information processing C) life span and psychosexual * D) sociocultural and life span 74. Which theoretical perspectives view development as continuous: * A) learning, cognitive, and information processing B) sociocultural, ecological, and ethological C) cognitive social learning, information processing, and cognitive developmental theory D) psychosexual, learning, and life span 75. Which theoretical perspectives view development as culture-specific: * A) sociocultural, ecological, and life span B) sociocultural, psychosexual, and learning C) evolutionary, ecological, and information processing D) traditional learning, social learning, and sociocultural 76. According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, the primary task of adolescence is to develop: A) self-control and autonomy B) initiative C) industry * D) identity 77. According to Bandura, self-efficacy comes from all of the following sources except: A) direct experience B) observing others C) biological and affective reactions * D) broader cultural messages 78. According to information-processing theorists, the quality of thinking at any age depends on: A) the information the person is able to represent B) the ways in which the person can operate on the information C) the amount of information the person can keep in mind at one time * D) all of the above 79. Which of the following correctly orders the steps of the information processing model of social behavior: A) review possible actions, clarify goals, encode cues, interpret cues, decide on an action, act on decision * B) encode cues, interpret cues, clarify goals, review possible actions, decide on an action, act on decision C) encode cues, review possible actions, interpret cues, clarify goals, decide on an action, act on decision D) clarify goals, encode cues, review possible actions, decide on an action, interpret cues, act on decision 80. Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development is characterized by flexible and complex thinking, where one can think of abstract ideas and hypotheses: A) preoperational B) concrete operations C) sensorimotor * D) formal operations 81. According to life history theory: A) stress decreases parent-child conflict B) genetic factors are of minor importance * C) stress speeds up the onset of puberty D) generativity plays a key role in development 82. Having a close friend can make up for being rejected by classmates * A) True B) False 83. Aggressive behavior in an 8-year-old can predict criminal behavior at age 30 * A) True B) False 84. The views of John Watson were more biologically oriented than those of his contemporary, Sigmund Freud A) True * B) False 85. The case of "Genie," the 13-year-old kept in isolation for most of her life, illustrates the importance of critical periods * A) True B) False 86. One characteristic shared by both Freud's psychosexual stages and Erikson's psychosocial stages is that development continues into late adulthood A) True * B) False 87. A limitation of sociocultural theory is that it is insufficiently developmental * A) True B) False 88. age cohorts are people who were born in the same time period and share historical experiences * A) True B) False 89. Accommodation is applying an existing schema to a new experience A) True * B) False 90. Assimilation is applying an existing schema to a new experience * A) True B) False 91. Bronfenbrenner's chronosystem dictates that time can affect only some, but not all, other systems in his ecological model A) True * B) False 92. One limitation of cognitive social learning theory is its overemphasis on development A) True * B) False 93. The concept of a narrowly defined critical period has been replaced with the notion of a sensitive period that has more porous boundaries * A) True B) False 94. A disadvantage of Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory is that the processes by which each system affects development are largely drawn from other theoretical perspectives * A) True B) False 95. Considerable empirical support exists for the Electra complex A) True * B) False 96. Considerable empirical support exists for the Oedipus complex A) True * B) False 97. The value of the social information-processing approach is perhaps most evident in explaining social behavior that is novel or social situations that are unfamiliar * A) True B) False 98. Object permanence has informed the study of child-to-caregiver attachment * A) True B) False 99. One strength of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is the explicit recognition that the stages are not universal, invariant, or irreversible A) True * B) False 100. One limitation of the concept of the zone of proximal development is that we have no simple metric with which to measure it * A) True B) False 101. One advantage of systems theory is that it incorporates knowledge and ideas from many other disciplines beyond developmental psychology * A) True B) False 21 Maximizing the transmission of one's genes to the next generation is a central aim of life history theory *a. True b. False

chapter 3

A cell in the body's nervous system, consisting of a cell body, a long projection called an axon, and several shorter projections called dendrites: A) glial cell B) synapse C) cerebrum * D) neuron A cell that supports, protects, and repairs neurons: A) synapse * B) glial cell C) modifier gene D) mirror neuron A disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of impulsivity is: A) autism spectrum disorder B) Williams syndrome C) Turner syndrome * D) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder A nerve cell that fires both when a person acts and when a person observes the same action performed by someone else, as if the observer himself or herself were acting: A) glial cell * B) mirror neuron C) modifier gene D) none of the above A portion of DNA located at a particular site on a chromosome and coding for the production of a specific type of protein: A) mirror neuron B) heritability factor C) allele * D) gene A set of conditions or activities experienced by children raised in the same family: A) nonshared environment B) niche picking * C) shared environment D) experience dependent processes A set of conditions or activities experienced by one child in a family but not another child in the same family comprises: * A) the nonshared environment B) the shared environment C) niche picking D) experience-dependent processes A specialized site of intercellular communication that exchanges information between nerve cells, usually by means of a chemical neurotransmitter: A) neuron * B) synapse C) cerebrum D) mirror neuron A statistical estimate of the contribution heredity makes to a particular trait or ability: A) reaction range B) phenotype C) evocative gene-environment association * D) heritability factor A type of childhood behavior problem in which the behavior is directed at others, including hitting, stealing, vandalizing, and lying: A) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder B) internalizing * C) externalizing D) autism spectrum disorder A type of childhood behavior problem in which the behavior is directed at the self rather than others, including fear, anxiety, depression, loneliness, and withdrawal is: A) externalizing B) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder C) fragile x syndrome * D) internalizing According to Rothbart, primary temperament dimensions include: * A) effortful control B) fear C) sensation seeking D) impulsivity Alleles for a particular trait from each parent are different: A) Williams syndrome B) Turner syndrome * C) heterozygous D) homozygous Alleles for a particular trait from each parent are the same: A) Williams syndrome B) Turner syndrome C) heterozygous * D) homozygous An alternate form of a gene is called: A) a neuron B) monozygotic * C) an allele D) a heritability factor An individual's typical mode of response, including activity level, emotional intensity, and attention span, is referred to as: A) heritability factor * B) temperament C) externalizing problems D) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder: A) is completely genetic * B) makes it difficult for the child to track contingencies C) is more similar in fraternal twins than identical twins D) all of the above Babies are biologically prepared for social interactions by: A) having biological rhythms, which they soon learn to control and regulate B) preferring to look at all the visual features that compose human faces(i.e., large visible elements, movement, clear contours, contrast) C) preferring voices over other sounds * D) all of the above Brain processes that are unique to the individual and responsive to particular cultural, community, and family experiences are called: A) an evocative gene-environment association * B) experience-dependent C) experience-expectant D) nonshared environment Brain processes that are universal, and experienced by all human beings across evolution are called: A) passive gene-environment associations B) experience-dependent * C) experience-expectant D) shared environment Cerebral hemispheres: A) are anatomically different B) in general, control different functions C) can take over some of the tasks of the other hemisphere if one is damaged * D) all of the above Dizygotic twins are unlike fraternal twins in that: A) dizygotic twins develop from two different eggs B) fraternal twins are more likely to be similar in most traits than dizygotic twins C) both a and b * D) neither a nor b Examples of phenotypes include: A) height B) intelligence C) sociability * D) all of the above Fraternal twins who develop from two different eggs fertilized by two different sperm, producing two different zygotes: A) monozygotic B) experience-dependent process C) experience-expectant process * D) dizygotic Genes that exert their influence indirectly by affecting the expression of other genes: A) glial cell B) mirror neuron * C) modifier gene D) mediator gene Heritability factors are calculated by directly measuring: A) genes B) DNA C) both a and b * D) neither a nor b Heterozygous genes cannot be expressed as: A) a blend of the two alleles B) a combination of the two alleles C) the dominant allele * D) the expression of the recessive allele Human behavior genetics: A) is the study of the origin of differences in human behavior B) typically involves twin or adoption designs C) is often conducted without directly measuring genes * D) all of the above Identical twins are: A) heterozygous B) homozygous C) dizygotic * D) monozygotic Insufficient _______ is associated with various forms of mental disability and with disorders such as dyslexia and schizophrenia: * A) neural migration B) programmed neuronal death C) synaptogenesis D) none of the above Internalizing problems include: A) withdrawn behavior, anxiety, hyperactivity B) low empathy, disruptive behavior, guilt C) withdrawn behavior, aggressive behavior, anxiety disorders * D) guilt, low empathy, sadness Mirror neurons have been linked to: A) social behavior B) intelligence C) language acquisition * D) both a and c Monozygotic twins are unlike identical twins in that: A) monozygotic twins develop from a single zygote B) identical twins are more likely to be similar in most traits than monozygotic twins C) both a and b * D) neither a nor b. Myelination: A) makes glial cells more efficient at transmitting information B) most myelination occurs after the first two years * C) covers parts of neurons with a layer of fatty tissue D) all of the above Nonshared environments: * A) include separate activities chosen by the child B) appear to be relatively unrelated to development C) do not include the child's perceptions of the environment D) all of the above Passive gene-environment associations: * A) are supported by twin studies that show genetic influences on parenting B) are supported by adoption studies that show genetic influences on parenting C) both a and b D) neither a nor b People in the same environment are affected differently depending on their genetic makeup. This describes: A) a passive gene-environment association * B) a gene-environment(G × E) interaction C) an experience-dependent process D) a reaction range People's genes encourage them to seek out experiences compatible with their inherited tendencies. This is called: A) passive gene-environment association * B) active gene-environment association C) evocative gene-environment association D) genotype People's inherited tendencies elicit certain environmental responses. This is called: * A) an evocative gene-environment association B) an experience-dependent process C) an experience-expectant process D) an active gene-environment association Programmed neuronal death: * A) eliminates immature neurons surrounding new synapses B) disposes of understimulated neurons' axons and dendrites C) makes existing synapses weaker D) a form of neural migration Reaction ranges: * A) are said to be canalized if very narrow B) are very narrow for intelligence and sociability C) are less narrow for a baby's tendency to babble D) are said to be canalized if broad Research on cultural differences in temperament shows that: A) although 48 percent of the children in the U.S. show a genetic pattern associated with impulse problems, the genetic pattern occurs in only 2 percent of Chinese children B) Chinese babies are calmer and easier to console than Caucasian babies C) Chinese preschoolers are better than Caucasian babies at controlling their impulses * D) all of the above Seeking out or creating environments compatible with one's genetically based predispositions: A) evocative gene-environment association B) passive gene-environment association * C) niche picking D) experience-dependent process Shared environments: A) are argued to be higher for fraternal twins than identical twins B) are argued to be more important than nonshared environment C) both a and b * D) neither a nor b Synapses are: * A) where neurons communicate B) as numerous as neurons C) a kind of synaptogenesis D) a type of mirror neuron Synaptic pruning: A) eliminates immature neurons surrounding new synapses * B) disposes of understimulated neurons' axons and dendrites C) both a and b D) neither a nor b Synaptogenesis: A) begins late in prenatal life B) results in more neurons than synapses * C) begins early in prenatal life D) begins in the postnatal period Temperament and personality are related in that: A) temperament is often viewed as the core of personality B) temperament variables have clear links to personality variables, both concurrently and longitudinally C) both temperament and personality have clear genetic components and are affected by experience * D) all of the above The biological foundation of social development that focuses on visual, olfactory, and tactile capacities present at birth is referred to as: A) temperament B) genetics C) neurology * D) biological preparedness The brain's disposal of the axons and dendrites of a neuron that is not often stimulated: * A) synaptic pruning B) programmed neuronal death C) synaptogenesis D) hemispheric regulation The cerebral cortex: A) is the bottom layer of the cerebrum B) contains 10 percent of the brain's cell bodies * C) has areas that can be traced to specific behaviors D) all of the above The corpus callosum: A) is the only link between the two hemispheres * B) facilitates inter-hemispheric communication C) cannot be severed without severe disruptions to brain functioning D) none of the above The description of traits expressed by two alleles that can be either dominant or recessive is: A) the simplest model of genetic transmission B) applies to the subset of characteristics determined by single genes * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b The difference between active gene-environment associations and niche picking is: A) active gene-environment associations have to do with evoked responses from the environment B) niche picking has to do with seeking out or creating environments C) both a and b * D) active gene-environment associations and niche picking are the same The environment created by parents with particular genetic characteristics encourages the expression of these tendencies in their children: A) nonshared environment B) shared environment * C) passive gene-environment association D) experience-dependent process The fact that some traits influenced by genes do not run in families(e.g., shy children are born to extraverted parents) is explained by the existence of: A) mirror neurons B) nonshared environment C) experience-expectant processes * D) modifier genes The forming of synapses is called: A) synaptic pruning B) programmed neuronal death * C) synaptogenesis D) myelination The movement of neurons within the brain that ensures that all brain areas have a sufficient number of neural connections is referred to as: A) programmed neuronal death * B) neural migration C) neural proliferation D) synaptogenesis The naturally occurring death of immature nerve cells during early development of the nervous system is: A) synaptic pruning * B) programmed neuronal death C) lateralization D) neural migration The outer layer of the cerebrum, which contains the cells that control specific functions such as seeing, hearing, moving, and thinking, is: A) the neuronal network * B) the cerebral cortex C) the corpus callosum D) the cerebral hemispheres The particular set of genes a person inherits from his or her parents is the: * A) genotype B) heritability factor C) temperament D) phenotype The possible developmental outcomes established by a person's genotype in the environment in which development takes place is referred to as: A) niche picking B) gene-environment interaction C) active gene-environment association * D) reaction range The process by which each half of the brain becomes specialized for certain functions: A) programmed neuronal death B) synaptic pruning * C) lateralization D) niche picking The process by which glial cells encase neurons in sheaths of the fatty substance myelin: * A) myelination B) lateralization C) neural proliferation D) synaptogenesis The rapid formation of neurons in the developing organism's brain: A) programmed neuronal death B) neural migration * C) neural proliferation D) synaptogenesis The reason people typically have two alleles is: A) synaptic pruning B) reaction range C) programmed neuronal death * D) people inherit one from each parent The similarity between active gene-environment associations and niche picking is: A) active gene-environment associations have to do with evoked responses from the environment B) niche picking has to do with seeking out or creating environments * C) both a and b D) neither a nor b The social brain includes: A) the hippocampus B) the cerebellum * C) the amygdala D) glial cells The study of the relative influences of heredity and environment on individual differences in traits and abilities: A) experience-expectant process B) gene-environment interaction model * C) human behavior genetics D) experience-dependent process The two connected hemispheres of the brain are the: A) neurons B) cerebral cortex C) corpus callosum * D) cerebrum The two halves of the brain's cerebrum are called: A) glial cells B) lateralization C) corpus callosum * D) cerebral hemispheres The visible expression of the person's particular physical and behavioral characteristics A) evocative gene-environment interaction B) active gene-environment interaction C) genotype * D) phenotype Today most developmentalists believe that: A) genes are more important than social influences in shaping human development B) temperament is determined by one's experiences, with biology playing only a minor role * C) most complex human attributes reflect an interaction between genetic and environmental forces D) in higher mammals such as human beings, social influences are more important than biological forces in determining developmental outcomes Which of the following correctly describes neuron proliferation: * A) most neurons are present in the brain by the seventh month after conception B) about 250,000 new neurons are added every day during neuron proliferation C) after birth, the brain does not grow because synaptic pruning counterbalances neuron proliferation D) all of the above Which of the following correctly describes neurons: A) they have a long projection called a dendrite B) they have several short projections called axons * C) they send and receive neural impulses D) all of the above Which of the following exemplifies an evocative gene-environment association? A) unhappy and irritable parents are more likely to provide a negative home environment, which encourages their children to become antisocial or depressed * B) parents' physical punishment is strongly influenced by the child's genetic tendency to be antisocial and defiant C) individuals who are aggressive sign up for martial arts classes instead of chess club D) none of the above Which of the following factors is not an example of a gene-environment interaction: A) a genetic predisposition for depression results in depressive symptoms only when the person experiences many life stressors B) a strong genetic predisposition for alcoholism results in alcoholism only when the person decides to drink alcohol C) a genetic predisposition to be sociable produces social behavior, which then elicits social behavior from others, reinforcing the original predisposition for sociability * D) a, b, and c are all examples of gene-environment interactions Which of the following factors is not characteristic of genes: A) they serve as a template for building proteins B) they must be activated to function * C) they vary across people principally because of mutations D) all of the above are characteristic of genes Which of the following factors would be expected to influence experience-dependent processes: * A) having your own cell phone B) patterned visual input C) sounds of language D) all of the above Which of the following factors would be expected to influence experience-expectant processes: A) having your own cell phone B) living in a high-crime neighborhood * C) sounds of language D) having a family that provided an especially enriching environment Which of the following factors would not be expected to predict externalizing problems: A) poor effortful control B) high negative emotionality * C) fear or shyness D) a, b, and c all predict externalizing problems. Which of the following is not carried out by glial cells: A) providing structural support to neurons * B) transmitting neuronal information C) myelination D) all of the above are carried out by glial cells Which of the following is not true regarding hemispheric lateralization? A) both hemispheres play some role in most functions B) when one side of the brain suffers damage, the other half may take over some of its functions C) the degree of lateralization is partially genetic * D) parents and children usually have dissimilar levels of language lateralization Which of the following reflects a person's genotype most directly: * A) eye color s B) height C) intelligence D) sociability