Exam 3 Anatomy and physiology
A) create turbulence in the nasal passageways.
19) The nasal conchae A) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. B) attach muscles that move the eye. C) protect the pituitary gland. D) attach muscles that move the eyelids. E) contain the nerves for olfaction.
C) condylar process
2) Which of the following articulate in the mandibular fossa? A) acromion process B) zygomatic process C) condylar process D) coronoid process E) mastoid process
E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone.
20) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bones. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. C) vomer and sphenoid bone. D) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bone. E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone.
A) vomer
21) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? A) vomer B) maxillary C) nasal D) lacrimal E) palatine
B) close the mouth.
22) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for muscles that A) turn the head. B) close the mouth. C) move the ears. D) stabilize the skull at the vertebral column. E) open and close the eye.
A) stylohyoid
23) The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments. A) stylohyoid B) sternocleidomastoid C) styloid D) hyoid E) sutural
E) 22
24) The skull contains ________ bones. A) 27 B) 42 C) 32 D) 12 E) 22
B) a headache
25) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a sore back B) a headache C) a sore chest D) a broken jaw E) a black eye
A) supports the lower teeth.
26) The alveolar process of the mandible A) supports the lower teeth. B) supports the upper teeth. C) articulates with the hyoid bone. D) anchors the tongue. E) is part of the temporomandibular joint.
A) lacrimal bones.
27) The smallest facial bones are the A) lacrimal bones. B) ethmoid bones. C) lacerum bones. D) nasal bones. E) zygomatic bones.
C) inferior and superior nuchal lines.
28) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. B) medial and lateral nuchal lines. C) inferior and superior nuchal lines. D) anterior and superior nuchal lines. E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines.
B) foramen magnum
29) What structure does the occipital bone surround? A) foramina maximus B) foramen magnum C) foramen magnus D) magnum maximus E) maximus minimus
B) temporal
3) The internal acoustic meatus is located in which bone? A) maxillary B) temporal C) occipital D) sphenoid E) parietal
D) temporal bone.
30) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) sphenoid. B) ulna. C) occipital bone. D) temporal bone. E) parietal bone.
B) hearing and balance.
31) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense(s) of A) balance. B) hearing and balance. C) vision. D) smell and taste. E) touch and pressure.
C) a long and narrow head.
32) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in A) a very broad head. B) death. C) a long and narrow head. D) an unusually small head. E) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other.
E) condylar process of the mandible.
34) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the A) greater cornu of the hyoid bone. B) stylohyoid ligaments. C) alveolar process of the mandible. D) hyoid bone. E) condylar process of the mandible.
D) mandible.
35) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) zygomatic bone. B) external auditory meatus. C) clavicle. D) mandible. E) temporal bone.
B) stylomastoid foramen.
36) The facial nerve (N. VII) passes through the internal acoustic meatus and then through the A) jugular foramen. B) stylomastoid foramen. C) carotid foramen. D) mastoid foramen. E) foramen lacerum.
A) foramen magnum.
37) The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the A) foramen magnum. B) carotid canal. C) jugular foramen. D) foramen lacerum. E) foramen rotundum.
E) mental foramina.
38) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the A) ramus of the mandible. B) mandibular foramina. C) maxillary foramina. D) condylar process. E) mental foramina.
E) mandibular foramen.
39) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth of the lower jaw passes through the A) mental foramen. B) maxillary foramen. C) condylar process. D) ramus of the mandible. E) mandibular foramen.
A) atlas.
4) The occipital condyles of the skull articulate with the A) atlas. B) mandible. C) axis. D) occipital bone. E) first thoracic vertebra.
B) area just superior to the nasal bones and medially to the supraorbital margins
40) Which of the following best describes the location of the glabella? A) vertical groove extending between the nose and the upper lip B) area just superior to the nasal bones and medially to the supraorbital margins C) bilaterally on the thickened regions that form the superior rims of the orbits D) a slit-shaped opening between the sphenoid and the petrous part of the temporal bone E) small, hallow, y-shaped area in the central part of the mandible
A) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen
41) The ________ passes through the ________. A) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen B) optic nerve; foramen ovale C) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen D) vestibulocochlear nerve; external acoustic meatus E) vagus nerve; foramen magnum
E) nasal
42) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________ bone. A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) lacrimal D) frontal E) nasal
D) zygomatic
43) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the A) sphenoid. B) ethmoid. C) maxillary. D) zygomatic. E) frontal.
C) zygomatic.
44) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the A) ethmoid. B) maxillae. C) zygomatic. D) frontal. E) sphenoid.
D) The occipital fontanelles are also known as the soft spot.
45) Identify the correct statement regarding fontanelles. A) They persist throughout childhood. B) They form fibrous connections between facial bones. C) They enable easier delivery through the birth canal. D) The occipital fontanelles are also known as the soft spot. E) There is no correct statement.
D) both the atlas and the axis
66) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? A) vertebra prominens B) axis C) atlas D) both the atlas and the axis E) both the atlas and the vertebra prominens
A) thoracic vertebrae.
69) The ribs articulate with the A) thoracic vertebrae. B) sacrum. C) cervical vertebrae. D) hyoid bone. E) lumbar vertebrae.
E) coronal
7) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. A) rostral B) lambdoid C) sagittal D) squamosal E) coronal
D) manubrium.
70) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) body. B) tuberculum. C) xiphoid process. D) manubrium. E) angle.
D) sternum
71) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) scapula B) all of the vertebrae C) clavicle D) sternum E) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2
D) ribs 1-7 and are called verterbrosternal ribs.
72) The true ribs are A) ribs 1-7. B) ribs 8-12. C) called vertebrosternal ribs. D) ribs 1-7 and are called verterbrosternal ribs. E) called vertebrochondral ribs.
E) All of the answers are correct.
73) The sternum contains the A) xiphoid process. B) jugular notch. C) he body. D) manubrium. E) All of the answers are correct.
C) axial
74) The skull and vertebral column are part of the ________ skeleton. A) apical B) appendicular C) axial D) articulated E) sagittal
D) condyles
75) The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra. A) fossae B) processes C) tubercles D) condyles E) foramina
E) cranium
76) The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain. A) cortex B) skull C) cephalum D) centrum E) cranium
D) lambdoid
77) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture. A) central B) sagittal C) posterior D) lambdoid E) coronal
E) squamous.
78) The four primary sutures are lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and A) cuboidal. B) lateral. C) parietal. D) frontal. E) squamous.
C) temporomandibular joint
79) What is the full term for TMJ syndrome? A) tympanomentalis joint B) tympanomandibular joint C) temporomandibular joint D) tendermouth junction E) temporomaxillary joint
E) frontal, parietal, and occipital
8) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones. A) frontal, temporal, and parietal B) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital C) frontal, temporal, and occipital D) temporal, parietal, and occipital E) frontal, parietal, and occipital
C) superior articular processes
80) Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the inferior articular processes of the superior vertebra and facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae. A) pedicles B) dens C) superior articular processes D) transverse processes E) lamellae
C) coronal
81) The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) sagittal C) coronal D) central E) posterior
E) atlas.
82) The first cervical vertebra is better known as the A) axis. B) primum. C) apex. D) cervix. E) atlas.
D) axis.
83) The second cervical vertebra is called the A) apex. B) primum. C) cervix. D) axis. E) atlas.
E) manubrium.
84) The superior part of the sternum is called the A) coccyx. B) apex. C) head. D) xiphoid. E) manubrium.
E) false
85) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum. A) floating B) filamentous C) free D) fibrous E) false
D) sacrum
86) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) tibia B) metacarpals C) scapula D) sacrum E) coxal bones
A) scapula
87) The three sides of what bone form a broad triangle? A) scapula B) vertebra C) clavicle D) radius E) sternum
A) acromial process and the manubrium.
88) The clavicle articulates with the A) acromial process and the manubrium. B) coracoid process and the humerus. C) acromial and coracoid processes. D) manubrium and xiphoid process. E) glenoid cavity and scapular spine.
D) temporal and zygomatic
9) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? A) frontal and temporal B) temporal and maxilla C) zygomatic and maxilla D) temporal and zygomatic E) sphenoid and temporal
E) olecranon fossa.
93) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) coronoid fossa. B) radial fossa. C) radial groove. D) intertubercular groove. E) olecranon fossa.
B) scapula and humerus
94) The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones? A) clavicle and scapula B) scapula and humerus C) clavicle and sternum D) humerus and ulna E) clavicle and humerus
E) capitulum and trochlea.
95) The condyle of the humerus consists of the A) head and neck. B) trochlea and olecranon fossa. C) capitulum and coronoid process. D) medial and lateral epicondyles. E) capitulum and trochlea.
E) All of the answers are correct.
96) Which of the following surface features occur on the ulna? A) trochlear notch B) styloid process C) olecranon D) radial notch E) All of the answers are correct.
B) phalanges.
97) The bones that form the fingers are the A) carpals. B) phalanges. C) tarsals. D) metacarpals. E) metatarsals.
E) metatarsals
98) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) carpals C) radius D) humerus E) metatarsals
sinus
A chamber within in a bone, normally filled with air, is a ___________.
process
A general term for a bony projection, often where a muscle, tendon, or ligament attaches to a bone is called a _______.
condyle
A large, rounded, articulating process of bone is a _________.
tuberosity
A muscle attachment site, which appears as a slightly raised and roughened area on the bone is called a __________.
the scapular spine
A prominent ridge that runs across the posterior surface of the scapula is __________.
crest
A prominent ridge where ligaments or tendons attach to the bone is called a __________.
trochlea
A smooth, grooved articulating process of bone shaped like a pulley is a ___________.
sinuses
Air-filled cavities found in some bones of the skull are called __________.
nasal conchae
Airflow in the nasal cavity is made turbulent by the ________.
atlas and the axis
C1 and C2 have specific names, which are the __________.
Mineral storage
Calcium is a very important substance for the proper functioning of various body systems. Which function of the skeletal system helps maintain calcium homeostasis?
leverage
Changing the magnitude and direction of forces generated by skeletal muscles is an illustration of the skeletal function of __________.
Protecting abdominal and thoracic organs
Compared to the axial skeleton, which of the following is not a function of the appendicular skeleton?
where blood vessels or nerves lay alongside or penetrated bones
Depressions, grooves, and tunnels in bone indicate locations __________.
nerves and blood vessels
Foramina located on the bones of the skull serve primarily as passageways for __________.
The vertebral column
Humans are distinguished from many animals by having an upright body position. What parts of the skeleton help us to maintain that upright body position?
manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
The three components of the adult sternum are the __________.
longitudinal arch
Weight transfer occurs along the __________ of the foot.
Skeletal muscles
What attaches the scapula to the trunk of the body?
Femur
What bone articulates, or forms a joint, with the acetabulum?
The sacrum and the pelvic girdle
What bones connect the axial skeleton and the lower appendicular skeleton?
Trochanters
What bony processes are unique to the femur and are found at the junction of the neck and shaft of the femur?
The secondary curves of the vertebral column
What feature of the skeleton eventually allow a child to maintain balance while walking and running?
Breathing
What important function is associated with the ribs?
Vertebrosternal ribs connect directly to the sternum, whereas vertebrochondral ribs do not.
What is the difference between vertebrosternal ribs and vertebrochondral ribs?
To connect spinal nerves to the spinal cord.
What is the function of the intervertebral foramina?
Patella
What is the large sesamoid bone found in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris?
Calcaneus
What is the name for the heel bone?
Atlas
What is the name of the first cervical vertebra?
Acetabulum
What is the name of the large, concave socket that articulates with the head of the femur?
Talus
What is the only bone in the ankle that articulates with the tibia and the fibula?
Linea aspera
What is the prominent ridge that runs along the center of the posterior surface of the femur and serves as an attachment site for muscles that adduct the femur?
neck
What is the structure that joins the femoral head to the shaft?
Vertebral foramen
What is the term for the opening in the vertebrae that encloses the spinal cord?
hallux
What is the term given to the big toe?
The stronger the joint, the more restricted the range of motion.
What is the unusual compromise of the articulations in the appendicular skeleton?
Auricular surface
What rough area of the ilium marks the site of articulation with the sacrum?
Relatively weak joint
What structural characteristics of the shoulder joint allow for a great deal of movement?
The pectoral girdle
What structure do the scapula and the clavicle make up?
The olecranon and the olecranon fossa
What structures limit the extension of the forearm?
Lumbar vertebrae
What type of vertebrae are characterized by short, stumpy spinous processes and large bodies?
The fibula provides lateral stability to the ankle joint.
When a person fractures the fibula, why does walking become difficult?
Femur
When someone is told they have a "broken hip" or a hip fracture, what bone is actually broken?
near joints at the knees, the hands, and the feet
Where is a sesamoid bone most often found?
foramen
Which anatomical term describes a rounded passageway for blood vessels or nerves?
Lumbar vertebrae
Which are the largest and most massive of the vertebrae?
Head
Which body region is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?
Scapula
Which bone articulates with the humerus to form the shoulder joint?
Zygomatic
Which bone forms the lateral wall and rim of the eye orbit?
Occipital bone
Which bone forms the posterior and inferior portions of the cranium and contains a large opening called the foramen magnum?
Scapula
Which bone has a glenoid cavity that is the site of articulation with the humerus in the pectoral girdle?
Frontal
Which bone is NOT part of the floor of the cranium?
Clavicle
Which bone provides the only fixed support for the pectoral girdle?
auditory ossicles
Which bones conduct sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear?
Nasal bones
Which bones form part of the bridge of the nose?
Maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid
Which bones form the medial wall of the eye orbit?
Metacarpals
Which bones form the palm of the hand?
Ethmoid and vomer
Which bones make up the nasal septum?
Temporal bones
Which bones of the skull form the lateral walls of the cranium, house the inner ear, articulate with the mandible, and have attachments for muscles that move the jaw and head?
Yellow marrow
Which component of the bone stores energy?
Olecranon
Which feature of the ulna forms the point of the elbow?
Anterior fontanelle
Which fontanelle might indicate dehydration in an infant?
Temporal bone
Which of the following bones contains the auditory ossicles?
Hyoid bone
Which of the following bones does NOT directly articulate with the skull but is an important site for muscle attachment for the larynx, pharynx, and tongue?
Temporal bone
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the orbital complex?
vertebra
Which of the following bones is accurately described as an irregular bone?
Reduction of the mineral content of the bony matrix
Which of the following changes in the skeleton does not happen from the time of birth to young adulthood?
Breaking of the ribs or sternum can occur during CPR
Which of the following clinical problems is associated with the sternum?
Occipital and frontal bones
Which of the following collections of bones include bones that are unpaired in the skull?
Sacrum
Which of the following consists of five fused vertebrae and articulates with the pelvic girdle?
All of the listed responses are correct.
Which of the following data could be determined by studying the bones of a skeleton? The person's sex All of the listed responses are correct. The person's muscular development The person's age
Malleoli
Which of the following features, found on the tibia and fibula, provide(s) support for the ankle joint?
Mandible
Which of the following forms the lower jaw?
Maxilla
Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?
Lateral malleolus
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the femur?
Trochlea
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the scapula?
Abdominal obesity causing an exaggeration of the lumbar curvature
Which of the following is NOT likely to cause kyphosis?
Coccyx
Which of the following is NOT one of the three fused bones that form each coxal bone?
costal groove
Which of the following is NOT one of the three parts of the sternum?
Upper limb
Which of the following is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
The mandible is larger and more robust in males.
Which of the following is a common difference between the male and female skeleton?
Clavicle
Which of the following is commonly known as the collarbone?
trochlea
Which of the following is found on the distal portion of the humerus?
providing attachments for muscles that move the legs and feet
Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton?
Contraction
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
Femur
Which of the following is the largest and heaviest bone in the body?
Anterior fontanelle
Which of the following is the largest fontanelle and is commonly called the "soft spot" in newborn babies?
Tibia
Which of the following is the medial bone in the leg?
The sternum does not ossify until an individual reaches 30 years of age.
Which of the following statements about the thoracic cage is FALSE?
The pelvic inlet in the female is more open and circular.
Which of the following statements is most accurate comparing the differences in male and female pelvic girdle?
calcaneus
Which of the following tarsals forms the bone of the heel?
The stability of the scapula would decrease.
Which of the following would occur if you broke your collarbone?
Rib pairs 11 and 12
Which of the ribs are referred to as vertebral ribs?
The longitudinal arch
Which part of the foot provides a cushioning or shock-absorbing effect?
The medial border
Which part of the scapula is closest to the vertebral column?
Sella turcica
Which part of the sphenoid bone houses the pituitary gland?
Thoracic
Which region of the vertebral column articulates with the ribs?
Rib pairs 8-12
Which ribs are named false ribs?
The scapula and humerus
Which two bones articulate at the glenoid cavity?
Spinous process
Which vertebral process projects posteriorly?
Fibrous connective tissue connects the cranial bones.
Why can the skull be distorted without damage during birth?
Some vertebrae fuse together after birth.
Why does the adult vertebral column have fewer vertebrae than that of a newborn?
The brain stops growing, and cranial sutures develop.
Why does the most significant growth in the skull occur before 5 years of age?
The joints and connective tissue between the tibia and fibula are different than the joints and connective tissue between the radius and ulna.
Why is it NOT possible to move the bones of the leg like you can move the bones of the forearm, even though there are two bones in each?
E) sphenoid.
18) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) cribriform. B) maxilla. C) crista galli. D) ethmoid. E) sphenoid.
E) All of the answers are correct.
1) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration D) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk E) All of the answers are correct.
B) mastoid process.
10) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) temporal process. B) mastoid process. C) condyloid process. D) occipital condyle. E) styloid process.
E) ilium.
100) The sacrum articulates with the A) ischium and pubis. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) ilium and ischium. E) ilium.
B) pelvis.
101) The coxal bone and sacrum combine to form the A) pelvic girdle. B) pelvis. C) pectoral girdle. D) hips. E) pubic symphysis.
A) femur.
102) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) coxal bone. E) humerus.
C) calcaneus
103) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) navicular B) cuboid C) calcaneus D) patella E) talus
C) talus.
104) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) patella. B) coxal bone. C) talus. D) calcaneus. E) fibula.
E) hallux.
105) Another name for the first toe is A) lateral cuneiform. B) hyoid. C) pollex. D) phalanx. E) hallux.
B) his foot
106) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his ankle B) his foot C) his hand D) his hip E) his knee
D) ulna
107) Which of the following is not a lower limb bone? A) patella B) femur C) fibula D) ulna E) metatarsal
E) contains arches that help distribute body weight.
108) Compared to the hand, the foot A) has more phalanges. B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. C) has more tarsal bones than the hand has carpal bones. D) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones. E) contains arches that help distribute body weight.
A) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
109) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees B) relatively deep iliac fossa C) heavy, rough textured bone D) heart-shaped pelvic inlet E) ilia extend far above sacrum
A) frontal
11) Which of these is not one of the facial bones? A) frontal B) maxilla C) zygomatic D) vomer E) mandible
E) coccyx points anteriorly
110) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis? A) triangular obturator foramen B) bone markings not very prominent C) ischial spine points posteriorly D) sacrum broad and short E) coccyx points anteriorly
A) clavicles
111) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch. A) clavicles B) acromial processes C) manubria D) rib pairs 1 and 2 E) coracoid processes
D) pubic symphysis.
112) The two pubic bones join medially at the A) pubic tubercle. B) superior ramus. C) inferior ramus. D) pubic symphysis. E) pubic tuberosity.
A) interosseous
113) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) ________ ligament. A) interosseous B) intrabrachial C) antebrachial D) lateromedial E) radioulnar
C) outlet
114) The pelvic ________ is bordered by the coccyx, the ischial tuberosities, and the inferior border of the pubic symphysis. A) inlet B) crest C) outlet D) spine E) brim
A) tibia
115) The medial malleolus is located on the A) tibia. B) ischium. C) patella. D) fibula. E) femur.
D) styloid process.
12) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) articular tubercle. B) mastoid process. C) middle concha. D) styloid process. E) posterior clinoid process.
B) petrous process.
13) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the A) jugular foramen. B) petrous process. C) superficial nuchal lines. D) hypoglossal canals. E) occipital crest.
A) sella turcica.
14) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the A) sella turcica. B) mandibular fossa. C) petrous portion. D) mastoid cells. E) internal acoustic meatus.
C) pituitary
15) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. A) sellar B) lacrimal C) pituitary D) olfactory E) nasal
B) cribriform plate.
16) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the A) sella turcica. B) cribriform plate. C) foramen ovale. D) pterygoid processes. E) optic canals.
D) crista galli.
17) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the A) perpendicular plate. B) pterygoid processes. C) styloid process. D) crista galli. E) cribriform plate.
C) the mandible and the cranium.
46) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between A) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. B) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone. C) the mandible and the cranium. D) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. E) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.
A) maxilla.
47) The floor of the orbital complex is formed by the A) maxilla. B) zygomatic. C) ethmoid. D) frontal. E) sphenoid.
A) maxilla.
48) The largest sinus is within which bone? A) maxilla B) ethmoid C) frontal D) nasal E) sphenoid
B) The mucus they secrete enters the oral cavities.
49) Which statement(s) about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is/are not true? A) They support cilia that move the mucus. B) The mucus they secrete enters the oral cavities. C) They make skull bones lighter. D) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. E) All of the answers are correct.
B) palatine process of the maxillae.
5) The hard palate of the roof of the mouth is mostly formed by the A) zygomatic process. B) palatine process of the maxillae. C) nasal bones. D) palatine bones. E) sphenoid bone.
A) anterior fontanel.
50) While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is A) anterior fontanel. B) cushion spot. C) sphenoidal fontanel. D) occipital fontanel. E) mastoid fontanel.
B) checks the anterior fontanel for depression.
51) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she A) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper. B) checks the anterior fontanel for depression. C) weighs the infant. D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits. E) checks the infant's reflexes.
A) cervical and lumbar
52) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, which do not appear until several months later? A) cervical and lumbar B) sacral and lumbar C) thoracic and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) cervical and sacral
B) scoliosis.
53) An exaggerated lateral curvature is termed A) lordosis. B) scoliosis. C) mentosis. D) kyphosis. E) gomphosis.
E) axial
54) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) axial
A) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera.
55) The primary spinal curves A) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. B) develop several months after birth. C) are also called compensation curves. D) develop several months after birth to accommodate the growing viscera in the thoracic cavity. E) All of the answers are correct.
E) 12
56) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. A) 7 B) 4 C) 5 D) 31 E) 12
B) 5
57) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. A) 31 B) 5 C) 4 D) 7 E) 12
A) laminae.
58) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) laminae. B) transverse spinous processes. C) intervertebral disc. D) dorsal spinous processes. E) costal facets.
E) vertebral body.
59) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) intervertebral space. B) articular processes. C) vertebral arch. D) transverse process. E) vertebral body.
A) occipital
6) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. A) occipital B) temporal C) parietal D) frontal E) sphenoid
D) sacral and coccygeal regions
60) Vertebrae of which regions are fused in the adult? A) lumbar region B) thoracic C) sacral region D) sacral and coccygeal regions E) coccygeal region
C) axis.
61) The dens process is found on the A) atlas. B) ribs. C) axis. D) sacrum. E) coccyx.
E) seventh cervical
62) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra. A) second cervical B) first thoracic C) first cervical D) fifth lumbar E) seventh cervical
D) facets for the articulation of ribs.
63) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) costal cartilages. B) transverse processes. C) notched spinous processes. D) facets for the articulation of ribs. E) transverse foramina.
E) transverse foramen.
64) The distinguishing feature of a cervical vertebra is the A) spinous process. B) costal facet. C) vertebral arch. D) pedicle. E) transverse foramen.
D) sacral: 1
65) Which of the following types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? A) cervical: 7 B) coccygeal: 3 to 5 C) lumbar: 5 D) sacral: 1 E) thoracic: 12
scoliosis
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called __________.
head
An expanded joint surface shaped like a ball and found on the articular end of the epiphysis is called a __________.
the arch of the foot
As a group, the metatarsals are the bones that comprise __________.
osteoclastic crypt
As osteoclasts absorb and remove bone matrix, they leave shallow depressions called a(n) _________.
scapula
At its proximal end, the round head of the humerus articulates with the __________.
Ethmoid bone
Because of its position in the skull, there is one bone that forms part of the floor of the cranium, the roof of the nasal cavity, a wall of the eye orbit, and divides the nasal cavity into two parts. Which bone does all this?
the diameter of the vertebral foramen decreases, and the size of the vertebral body increases
Beginning at the superior end of the vertebral canal and proceeding inferiorly, __________.
osteogenic cells
Even as an adult, we have populations of primitive cells that can produce osteoblasts. These primitive cells are called __________.
sutures
Except for the mandible, all bones of the skull articulate at joints called __________.
ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
In which of the following groups does each bone contain a sinus?
sutural bones.
Small, flat, irregularly shaped bones found between the flat bones of the skull are called ________
skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, hyoid
Of the following choices, which one includes bones found exclusively in the axial skeleton?
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx
Of the following, which correctly identifies the sequence of the vertebrae from superior to inferior?
sternal end
On the clavicle, the __________ articulates with the manubrium.
red marrow
One function of bone is to produce red and white blood cells. These cells are made in what substance in bone?
vertebrochondral ribs
Ribs pairs 8, 9, and 10 are called __________.
Protection
Shielding the soft organs like the brain, spinal cord, and heart with its hard, strong matrix is an example of which function of the skeletal system?
They are as long as they are wide.
The appendicular skeleton has many long bones. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of long bones?
C3 to C7
The area of the greatest degree of flexibility along the vertebral column is found from __________.
hyoid and auditory ossicles
The associated bones of the skull include the __________.
cranial and thoracic cavities
The axial skeleton creates a framework that supports and protects organ systems in the __________.
It is the attachment site for muscles that move the arm.
The body of the scapula is valuable for what reason?
radius and the ulna
The bones of the forearm are the __________.
clavicle and scapula
The bones of the pectoral girdle include the __________.
lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid
The bones that make up the eye socket, or orbit, include the __________.
the acromion process
The bony point of the shoulder that you feel along the superior margin of the shoulder joint is __________.
short bones
The carpals or wrist bones are examples of __________.
manubrium
The clavicles articulate with a bone of the sternum called the __________.
The capitulum and the trochlea
The condyle of the humerus is made up of which structures?
scapula
The coracoid process and acromion are parts of the __________.
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate
The distal carpals are the __________.
ischial tuberosity
The enlarged roughened projection that bears your weight when you are sitting is the __________.
skeletal muscles to bones
The fibers of tendons intermingle with those of the periosteum, attaching __________.
true ribs
The first seven ribs are called __________, and they connect to the sternum by individual costal cartilages.
foramen magnum
The foramen that allows the medulla of the brainstem to connect with the spinal cord is the __________.
lambdoidal, sagittal, coronal, and squamous
The sutures that articulate the bones of the skull are the __________ sutures.
fingers and toes
The term "phalanges" is used for the bones of the __________.
broad, light, and smooth
The general appearance of the female pelvis is different from that of the male pelvis in that the female pelvis is __________.
the expansion of the brain
The growth of the cranium is usually associated with __________.
distal
The head of the ulna is located __________ to the ulnar tuberosity.
Long bones
The humerus and the femur are examples of what shape of bone?
permit the passage of nerves to and from the spinal cord
The intervertebral foramina __________.
the pubic symphysis
The joint between the two coxal bones is called the __________.
tibia
The large medial bone of the leg is the ____________.
capitate
The largest carpal bone in the hand is the __________.
attachment of muscles to bones
The lines, tubercles, crests, ridges, and other processes on bones represent areas that are used primarily for __________.
lateral
The malleolus of the fibula is always on the __________ aspect of the leg.
ilium
The more superior, broad, and wing-like bone of the pelvic girdle is the __________.
accelerating the production of mucous
The mucous membrane of the paranasal sinuses responds to environmental stress by __________.
make air flow easier
The mucus secreted by the nasal epithelium does all of the following EXCEPT __________.
metaphysis
The narrow zone that connects the epiphysis and the diaphysis of long bones is the _________.
all of the listed bones and structures are correct
The nasal complex consists of __________.
posterior
The olecranon fossa on the humerus is located on the bone's __________ surface.
Clavicle and sternum
The only joint between the upper appendage and the axial skeleton involves which bones?
cervical
The only vertebrae that have transverse foramina in the transverse processes are __________.
optic canal
The passageway that allows the optic nerve to reach the eyeball for the sense of vision is the __________.
thumb
The pollex is the __________.
position the shoulder joint and provide a base for arm movement
The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to __________.
accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera
The primary spinal curves that appear late in fetal development __________.
the male pelvis
The sacrum and the coccyx are curved in __________.
the parietal bones to each other
The sagittal suture joins __________.
sphenoid, frontal, ethmoid, and maxillary bones
The sinuses, or internal chambers in the skull, are found in the __________.
thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum
The skeleton of the chest, or thorax, consists of __________.
triquetrum
The small, pea-shaped pisiform bone sits anterior to the __________ bone.
posterior
The spine of the scapula is located on the bone's __________ surface.
vertebral canal
The structure that encloses and protects the spinal cord is the __________.
Ethmoid bone
The superior and middle nasal conchae are part of which bone?
olecranon
The superior lip of the trochlear notch of the ulna is formed by the __________.
muscle attachment
The surfaces of the scapulae and clavicles are extremely important as sites for __________.
Ulna
The trochlea of the humerus articulates with what bone?
flat bones
Thin bones that form the roof of the skull, the sternum, and the scapulae are considered ________.