Final Chapter test 1-18, 23, 25, 31, misc.

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With advances in clot-busting (thrombolytic) drugs, the patient has a window of _______ hours to receive treatment. Answer 6 4 5 3

3

How long does a typical hemodialysis treatment last? Answer 7 to 8 hours 3 to 4 hours 1 to 2 hours 10 to 12 hours

3 to 4 hours

A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a ______ percent chance of having an acute stroke. Answer 50 60 70 80

70

Approximately what percentage of United States dialysis patients treat themselves at home? Answer 50 percent 8 percent 25 percent 85 percent

8 percent

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult? Answer 80 mg/dL 40 mg/dL 180 mg/dL 150 mg/dL

80 mg/dL

At which of the following stages is​ toilet-training most likely to​ begin? A. Infant B. Toddler C. Preschool age D. School age

B

The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen saturation ​(SpO2​) is called​ a(n): A. sphygmomanometer. B. pulse oximeter. C. capnography. D. end tidal CO2 meter.

B

The increase in the work of breathing is reported​ as: A. troubled breathing. B. labored breathing. C. noisy breathing. D. obstructed breathing.

B

The mnemonic AVPU is used to evaluate which of the​ following? A. ​Patient's transport priority B. ​Patient's level of responsiveness C. ​EMT's general impression of the​ patient's condition D. ​Patient's chief complaintQ

B

The most vulnerable part of the cell is​ the: A. DNA. B. membrane. C. nucleus. D. mitochondria.

B

The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed​ ________ liters per minute. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4

B

The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called​ the: A. carina space. B. pleural space. C. dead space. D. lung space.

B

Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological​ problem? A. Increased speeding and reckless driving B. Irritability with​ friends, family,​ coworkers, or patients C. Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis D. ​Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment

B

Which of the following best describes body​ mechanics? A. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety B. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects C. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the​ user's body D. Both B and C

B

Which of the following can be correctly noted as a chief​ complaint? A. The patient was confused. B. The patient stated that she felt sick. C. The patient had a respiratory rate of 44. D. The patient was found sitting in the​ driver's seat of a​ full-size sedan.

B

Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen​ cylinder? A. Blue and yellow B. Green and white C. Orange and red D. Black and tan

B

Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated​ equipment? A. AIDS B. Hepatitis B C. Tuberculosis D. Hepatitis A

B

Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per​ minute? A. D tank B. E tank C. M tank D. G tank

B

Your elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the BEST way to address​ him? A. Sir B. Mr. Smith C. Smitty D. Joe

B

Which of the following is the cause of most strokes? Answer A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

A patient who has​ shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have​ ________ respirations. A. ​Kussmaul's B. central neurogenic C. agonal D. ​Cheyne-Stokes

C

A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what​ mechanism? A. Shivering B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Convection

C

Daniel has been performing landscaping on a​ hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels like he might faint. This disruption of fluid balance is most likely caused​ by: A. hyperthermia. B. hypotension. C. dehydration. D. tachycardia.

C

Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following​ situations? A. Pulseless bradycardia B. Asystole C. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. Pulseless electrical activity

C

During which age group is the body in peak physical​ condition? A. Adolescent B. Middle adult C. Early adult D. Preschool

C

During your radio report to the​ hospital, which of the following pieces of information should NOT be​ relayed? A. Baseline vital signs B. ​Patient's age C. ​Patient's name D. ​Patient's status

C

What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and​ nutrients? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Hypoxic D. Homeostatic

A

What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis​ A? A. ​Fecal-oral B. Bloodborne C. Respiratory droplet D. Unprotected sex

A

What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of​ reproduction? A. Reproduction system B. Lymphatic system C. Renal system D. Respiratory system

A

What term describes a surgical incision in the neck that is held open by a metal or plastic tube through which a patient can breathe or be placed on a​ ventilator? A. Tracheostomy B. Cricothyrotomy C. Tracheopharyngeal fistula D. Stoma

A

What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different​ patients? A. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient B. To minimize the amount of time the​ EMT's hands are spent in gloves C. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible D. To protect the EMT from becoming infected

A

When a patient describes how he​ feels, he is telling you which of the​ following? A. His symptoms B. His diagnosis C. His signs D. His syndrome

A

When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is​ elevated, what​ occurs? A. The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard. B. The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height. C. The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed. D. The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient.

A

When assessing a patient who has been​ stabbed, which of the following information should the EMT gain​ first? A. Size and type of the knife B. Make and model of the knife C. The reason the patient was stabbed D. Owner of the knife

A

Which of the following describes​ Fowler's position? A. Sitting upright with the legs straight B. Lying flat on the back C. Lying on the side D. Lying on the stomach

A

Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen​? A. An organism that causes infection and disease B. A study of the origins of infection and disease C. An immunity developed after an exposure D. A medication with a harmful effect

A

When a substance enters the body through unbroken skin, it has entered the body by which of the following routes? Answer Absorption Ingestion Injection Consumption

Absorption

Which of the following is the role of glucose in the body? Answer It assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin. It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body. It allows the body to use insulin. It is an essential building block for body tissues, such as muscle and bone.

It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body.

You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a 30-year-old man pacing about his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the following? Answer Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay. Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him. Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority. Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned.

Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him.

Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the EMT's arrival at the scene? Answer Checking for mechanism of injury Requesting advanced life support Suctioning Administering oxygen

Requesting advanced life support

What is NOT one of the basic parts of a​ bag-valve-mask system? A. Be nonrebreathing B. ​Non-jam valve C. ​15/25 respiratory fitting D. ​Self-refilling shell

C

What is a normal heart rate for a school age​ child? A. ​80-120/minute B. ​140-160/minute C. ​70-110/minue D. ​80-130/minute

C

What is not part of the cardiovascular​ system? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Hormones D. Venules

C

What is the best way to communicate with a young pediatric​ patient? A. Tell the child the procedure will hurt much more than it actually will so he or she will be pleasantly surprised when the procedure is over. B. Do not tell the child that a procedure will hurt beforehand because the child will become terrified. C. Sit at the level of the​ child, if​ possible, and always be honest. D. Only talk with the parents. The child is too young to know his or her medical history.

C

What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a​ bag-valve mask? A. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. B. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches​ 100%. C. Look for chest rise and fall. D. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to​ 100%.

C

What is the bone on the thumb side of the​ forearm? A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Radius D. Acromion

C

What is the first step in the reassessment​ process? A. Secondary assessment B. Focused history and physical exam C. Primary assessment D. Vital signs

C

What is the most common digestive​ disorder? A. Flatus B. Irritable bowel and gastric esophageal disease C. Vomiting and diarrhea D. Diarrhea and gastric esophageal disease

C

Where should a constricting band be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake​ bite? A. 2 inches above the bite B. 2 inches below the bite C. 2 inches above and 2 inches below the bite D. None of the above

C

Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis? Answer Peanuts Cat dander Wasp stings Sulfa drugs

Cat dander

Which of the following is a standardized test to evaluate a conscious patient for possible stroke? Answer Michigan TIA Assessment The Numbness-Aphasia-Paralysis (NAP) Test Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale The Functional Analysis Stroke Test

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become violent? Answer Tense body posture or clenched fists Crying Profane language Loud voice and rapid pacing

Crying

Which of the following is one of the most common inhaled poisons associated with fire? Answer Carbon dioxide Methane gas Polyvinyl chloride Cyanide

Cyanide

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin? Answer Cyanosis Flushing Hives Itching .

Cyanosis

"If it looks like a duck and quacks like a​ duck, it must be a ducklong dash—except when it​ isn't" is a way to summarize which of the​ following? A. Overconfidence B. Illusory correlation C. Confirmation bias D. Representativeness

D

11) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher B) Cardiac care responder C) EMT D) Emergency Medical Responder Answer:

D

13) What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A) Advanced EMT B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic Answer:

D

2) Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? A) The Spanish B) The Egyptians C) The Mayans D) The French Answer:

D

Name the type of medical direction consisting of standing orders and protocols. A. Written B. ​On-line C. Verbal D. ​Off-line

D

Nitroglycerin is indicated for which of the following chief​ complaints? A. Headache B. Decreased level of consciousness C. Difficulty breathing D. Chest pain

D

Of the following venomous​ snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a​ "dry bite?" A. Copperhead B. Water moccasin C. Mississauga rattlesnake D. Coral snake

D

On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the​ patient's side upon arrival on the​ scene? A. Cardiac arrest B. Seizure C. Motor vehicle collision D. All of the above

D

Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral​ emergency, which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Begin intense individual counseling with the patient. B. There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems. C. Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent. D. Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the​ patient's behavior.

D

Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory​ problem? A. ​Weak, thready pulse that is normal in rate B. Slow pulse C. Rapid pulse D. All of the above

D

Which of the following terms is best defined as​ "a state of physical​ and/or psychological arousal to a​ stimulus?" A. Homeostasis B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stress

D

Which of the following types of bleeding is most​ serious? A. Arterial bleeding B. External bleeding C. Internal bleeding D. Massive bleeding of any type

D

Which of the following types of snake is NOT a pit​ viper? A. Water moccasin B. Rattlesnake C. Copperhead D. Coral snake

D

A patient who has abused "uppers" will display which of the following signs and symptoms? Answer Dilated pupils, excessive salivation, and food cravings Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth Constricted pupils, hypotension, and blurred vision Slurred speech, constricted pupils, and frequent urination

Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth

If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result? Answer Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and hyperactivity Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria

Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger

What is a cycle of filling and draining of the abdominal cavity during peritoneal dialysis called? Answer Exchange Set Rotation Trade

Exchange

Which of the following is a typical cause of seizures in children 6 months to 3 years of age? Answer Administration of glucose to a hyperglycemic patient Fever Asthma Chest pain

Fever

Which abdominal quadrant contains the appendix? Answer Left lower Right upper Right lower Left upper

Right lower

Which of the following organs may seriously be damaged in sickle cell anemia, and often subsequently leads to severe infections? Answer Lungs Kidneys Liver Spleen

Spleen

Which of the following is NOT a cause of abdominal pain? Answer Stroke Food poisoning Heart attack Diabetes

Stroke

You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is a known insulin-dependant diabetic patient. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be restrained? Answer Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment. No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency. Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained. There is not enough information to answer this question.

There is not enough information to answer this question.

At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine auto-injector? Answer Abdomen Upper arm Thigh Buttocks

Thigh

Which of the following questions is inappropriate when taking the history of a female patient with abdominal pain? Answer Are you having vaginal bleeding or discharge now? What is your sexual orientation? Have you had sexual intercourse since your last menstrual period? All of the above

What is your sexual orientation?

With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations. Answer aorta ovaries liver colon

aorta

You are called to a 25-year-old male complaining of RLQ pain. His other symptoms are nausea and vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an EMT, you feel this patient might have: Answer appendicitis. pancreatitis. cholecystitis. peritonitis. .

appendicitis

Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. We call this sensation a(n): Answer tonic phase. postictal phase. clonic phase. aura.

aura

The correct terminology used for patients whose kidneys are damaged to the point where they require dialysis to survive is: Answer acute renal failure. end-stage renal disease. hepatic failure. terminal kidney disease

end-stage renal disease.

Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as: Answer chemical delirium. excited delirium. sensory excitement. intoxication reaction.

excited delirium.

A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is called: Answer toxinic. hypoxic. idiopathic. hypoglycemic.

idiopathic

Smoke inhalation can result in all of the following EXCEPT: Answer airway swelling and obstruction. cardiac arrest. lung contusion. respiratory arrest.

lung contusion.

When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others, you should do all of the following EXCEPT: Answer make sure only you and the patient are in the room. keep bystanders a safe distance away. watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior. retreat if the patient becomes threatening

make sure only you and the patient are in the room.

When the gallbladder is diseased, the pain is not only felt in the RUQ but also in the right shoulder, this is known as: Answer parietal pain. visceral pain. referred pain. tearing pain.

referred pain.

The medical term for fainting is: Answer syncope. altered RAS status. dehydration. vertigo.

syncope.

You suspect a patient who has been having a difficult time controlling the bleeding following a small laceration to the foot may have a history of: Answer sickle cell anemia. taking blood thinners. high blood pressure. poorly controlled diabetes.

taking blood thinners.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis? Answer "I am having severe muscle pains." "My legs are numb and I can't move them." "My throat feels like it is closing." "I can't remember what happened."

"My throat feels like it is closing."

Which of the following is the dosage of subcutaneous epinephrine in a pediatric patient? Answer 1.5 mg 0.3 mg 0.15 mg 0.03 mg

0.15 mg

Which of the following is the adult dosage of subcutaneous epinephrine in anaphylaxis? Answer 3 mg 0.3 mg 30 mg 0.03 mg

0.3 mg

After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh? Answer 30 seconds 10 seconds 1 minute It should be removed from the injection site immediately.

10 seconds

A severe allergic reaction will usually occur within what time period following exposure to the substance to which the patient is allergic? Answer 15 to 30 minutes 2 to 4 minutes 10 to 15 minutes 30 minutes to 2 hours

2 to 4 minutes

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack may last up to: Answer 1 hour. 30 minutes. 24 hours. 6 hours.

24 hours.

Approximately how many Americans are currently on some type of dialysis? Answer 200,000 50,000 100,000 350,000

350,000

A patient to whom you have administered epinephrine should be reassessed every ________ minutes. Answer 3 15 5 10

5

1) Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A) Quality improvement B) System effectiveness management C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP) D) Total quality system Answer:

A

10) What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Advanced EMT D) Emergency Ambulance Driver Answer:

A

12) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? A) Advanced EMT B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) EMT Answer:

A

16) Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? A) Transfer of care B) Breach of duty C) Definitive care D) End of tour Answer:

A

20) To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? A) Able to listen to others B) Pleasant C) Judgmental but fair D) Emotionally stable Answer:

A

25) Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? A) Self-starter B) Strong student C) Strong communication D) Good eyesight Answer:

A

3) In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A) U.S. Department of Transportation B) U.S. Department of the Interior C) U.S. Department of Health Services D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security Answer:

A

41) You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient. Answer:

A

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood​ components? A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Plasma

A

6) Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care Answer:

A

7) What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? A) Prehospital care B) Prompt emergency response C) Safe emergency transportation D) Trained medical personnel Answer:

A

8) Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? A) Emergency department B) Emergency medical services system C) Surgical services department D) Emergency medical dispatch center Answer:

A

A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to​ "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and​ dying? A. Denial B. Anger C. Rejection D. Projection

A

A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a​ 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical​ landmarks? A. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. B. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee. C. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. D. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee.

A

According to Dr. Hans​ Selye, the third stage of the​ "Stress Triad" is known as the​ ________ stage. A. exhaustion B. alarm C. cumulative D. resistance

A

In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac​ arrest, you should assess the pulse for how​ long? A. 30 to 45 seconds B. 5 to 10 seconds C. 20 to 30 seconds D. 15 to 20 seconds

A

According to​ coworkers, your​ 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is​ "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general​ impression? A. An underlying physical illness B. Alcoholic intoxication C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Sudden onset of schizophrenia

A

All of the following are common techniques for measuring blood​ pressure, except: A. Rhythm method B. Auscultation C. Palpation D. Blood pressure monitor

A

An EMT is on the scene of a​ 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing the primary and secondary​ assessments, the EMT contacts medical control and is ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin.​ Carefully, the EMT performs the​ "five rights" and checks the expiration before administering the medication. The patient states the medicine is not helping his pain. The patient also states he does not have a headache. Reassessment of the​ patient's vital signs shows no change in blood pressure. The EMT suspects the nitro is not working because​ the: A. medication was somehow rendered inert. B. medication is not nitroglycerin. C. medication is expired. D. EMT only gave one tablet instead of two.

A

An elderly patient struck her head during a ground level fall. She presents with​ confusion, memory​ loss, elevated blood pressure and decreasing pulse. Which of the following conditions is most​ likely? A. Head injury B. Stroke C. Low blood sugar D. Psychiatric emergency

A

Applying an external source of heat to the​ patient's body to rewarm him is called​ ________ rewarming. A. active B. central C. peripheral D. endogenous

A

Before applying a nonrebreather​ mask, the EMT should take what​ action? A. Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration. B. Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than​ 2,000 psi in the tank. C. Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway. D. Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the​ patient's heart rate to slow.

A

As you approach the scene of a motorcycle​ accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the​ patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are​ needed? A. ​Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed. B. There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries. C. ​Gloves, gown, eye​ protection, and an​ N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed. D. Gloves and gown only are needed.

A

As you are assessing a​ 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty​ breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and​ shouts, "Get your hands off​ her; she​ doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart​ mouth." Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Request police backup immediately and consider leaving the scene. B. Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital. C. Let the husband know that his behavior is​ inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police. D. Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention.

A

As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma​ patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the​ nurse? A. She can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving. B. She can evaluate the quality of care you provided. C. She can determine if you understand the assessment process. D. She can critique your technique of taking vital signs.

A

As you arrive at the scene of a house​ fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young​ son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. ​Size-up the scene before acting. B. Perform an initial assessment on the patient. C. With the​ father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood. D. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.

A

Automatic defibrillation is NOT appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the​ following? A. Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient. B. AEDs cannot effectively determine rhythms on patients weighing less than 20 pounds. C. The energy delivered by the AED would not be effective on an infant. D. None of the above

A

A​ 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory​ rate, increased heart​ rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from​ respiratory: A. distress. B. arrest. C. failure. D. hypoxia.

A

A​ 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your​ assessment, your partner reports that​ she's concerned about his heart​ rate, which she measures as 64.​ She's checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his pulse rate​ is: A. too slow. B. not reliable. C. within normal range. D. too fast.

A

A​ ________ device works by blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure to prevent a​ patient's alveoli from collapsing. A. CPAP​ (Continuous Positive Airway​ Pressure) B. COPD​ (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary​ Disease) C. FROPVD​ (Flow-Restricted, Oxygen Powered Ventilation​ Device) D. Nonrebreather

A

A​ drug's form refers to which of the​ following? A. Its physical​ state, such as​ powder, liquid, or gas B. The way in which it is administered C. The mandatory paperwork that must be completed when giving any drug D. The type of container it comes in

A

Cells make up​ tissues, tissues make up​ organs, and organs make​ up: A. systems. B. organelles. C. groups. D. sections.

A

Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous​ system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size​ adjustments, are​ called: A. pressure receptors. B. volume receptors. C. chemoreceptors. D. stretch receptors.

A

Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure​ (CPAP) can include which of the​ following? A. History of pulmonary fibrosis B. History of obstructive sleep apnea C. Audible rhonchi D. Audible wheezing

A

During reassessment you notice that your patient is making gurgling sounds. Which of the following should you do​ immediately? A. Suction the airway. B. Increase the amount of oxygen being delivered to the patient. C. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device. D. Place the patient in the recovery position.

A

During the primary assessment of an unresponsive​ two-month old​ infant, which pulse should be​ palpated? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Umbilical D. Carotid

A

External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the following is one of those​ types? A. Capillary bleeding B. Liver bleeding C. Brain bleeding D. Cardiac bleeding

A

Failure of the liver would result in which of the​ following? A. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream B. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells C. Inability to secrete insulin D. None of the above

A

Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following​ substances? A. Salt B. Magnesium C. Water D. Water and potassium

A

How far apart should your hands be when using a power​ grip? A. 10 inches B. 6 inches C. 15 inches D. 24 inches

A

How many parts does a standard medical radio report have as described in your​ textbook? A. 12 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10

A

If a patient complains of abdominal pain localized to a specific area of the​ abdomen, which of the following techniques should be used to assess the​ abdomen? A. Palpate the painful area last. B. Do not palpate the painful area. C. Palpate the painful area first. D. Palpate the area at the beginning and end of the exam.

A

If capillary refill is assessed in a child​ patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail​ bed? A. 2 seconds or less B. 5 seconds or less C. 4 seconds or less D. 3 seconds or less

A

In a blood pressure reading of​ 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body​ process? A. Systolic blood​ pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries B. Systolic blood​ pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins C. Diastolic blood​ pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries D. Systolic blood​ pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins

A

In a conscious adult​ patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed​ initially? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Carotid

A

In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the​ patient's body? A. Extremities B. Intestines C. Head D. Heart and lungs

A

In assessing a​ patient's breathing, what is your first​ question? A. Is he​ breathing? B. Is he big sick or little​ sick? C. Is his breathing adequate or​ inadequate? D. Is he alive or​ dead?

A

In normal​ exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the​ chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of​ process? A. Passive B. Inspiration C. Active D. Respiration

A

In the normal drive to​ breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated​ by: A. high carbon dioxide. B. low carbon dioxide. C. high oxygen. D. diffusion.

A

In the primary​ assessment, which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of assessing the​ patient's circulatory​ status? A. Taking a blood pressure reading B. Assessing the​ patient's skin color C. Checking a radial pulse D. Looking for serious bleeding

A

In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a​ patient? A. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. B. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. C. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. D. The​ patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.

A

In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by​ conduction? A. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game B. Breathing C. Wearing wet clothing in windy weather D. Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day

A

In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange take place and also has the thinnest walls through which​ oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can​ pass? A. Capillaries B. Veins C. Microvenules D. Arterioles

A

Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth​ to: A. 12 months. B. 9 months. C. 15 months. D. 18 months.

A

Injuries to the brain and spinal​ cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular​ problem? A. Loss of tone B. Increased SVR C. Permeability D. Hypertension

A

In​ EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention​? A. Taking steps to correct a problem B. Determining if there is a problem C. Decreasing the​ EMT's liability for negligence D. Creating a permanent record of patient care

A

Management of the suicidal patient includes all of the following except​: A. psychoanalysis of the patient by the EMT. B. a SAMPLE history. C. communication. D. a physical examination.

A

Not all inspired air reaches the​ alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is​ called: A. dead air space. B. tidal volume. C. vital capacity. D. bronchial air

A

On which of the following patients should a reassessment be​ performed? A. All patients should be reassessed B. Patient with chest pain C. Patient with a gunshot wound D. Patient having difficulty breathing

A

Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following​ challenges? A. ​Self-worth B. Tax burden C. Hygiene D. All of the above

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as​ a(n): A. delayed stress reaction. B. severe stress reaction. C. cumulative stress reaction. D. acute stress reaction

A

Shock occurs as a result of which of the​ following? A. Inadequate perfusion B. Adequate perfusion C. ​C/Q match D. ​V/Q match

A

The CDC recommends using an​ alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following​ situation(s)? A. The​ provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter. B. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. C. The patient has a respiratory illness. D. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease

A

The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except​ the: A. right medial. B. left upper. C. right upper. D. left lower.

A

The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy​ is: A. glucose. B. water. C. oxygen. D. protein.

A

The bone most commonly fractured with a​ "broken hip" is​ the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. ilium. D. fibula.

A

The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset​ diffusion, which is defined​ as: A. the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries. B. the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration. C. maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing. D. the exchange of gases in the bronchi.

A

The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the​ following? A. Baseline vital signs B. Normal vital signs C. Standard vital signs D. None of the above

A

The human body is made up of​ ________ % water. A. 60 B. 17.5 C. 75 D. 7.5

A

The lower jaw bone is also known as​ the: A. mandible. B. maxillae. C. orbit. D. manubrium.

A

The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is​ called: A. anaerobic. B. homeostatic. C. hyperoxic. D. aerobic.

A

The portion of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the​ patient's presentation, assessment​ findings, treatment, and transport information is called​ the: A. narrative. B. deposition. C. data set. D. text.

A

The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is​ called: A. hydrostatic pressure. B. osmotic pressure. C. hyperstatic pressure. D. oncotic pressure.

A

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the​ ________ pulse. A. dorsalis pedis B. phalanx proximalis C. tibialis posterior D. suprametatarsal

A

The term blanching​, used to describe localized cold​ injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following​ colors? A. White or lighter B. Blue or purple C. Red D. Black

A

The term priapism means​ ________ and may be found in injuries of the​ ________. A. a persistent penile​ erection; spine B. abnormal​ pulsation; abdomen C. a painful muscle​ spasm; spine D. unequal​ pupils; brain

A

The tuberculin skin test​ (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative​ (PPD) test, is used​ to: A. detect a​ person's exposure to tuberculosis. B. determine if a person has infected others with TB. C. inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections. D. prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure.

A

Urgent moves are required​ when: A. performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries. B. an emergency move is not possible. C. there are no life threats and conditions are stable. D. rapid transport is necessary.

A

What are the two most easily injured portions of the​ spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Lumbar and sacral C. Cervical and thoracic D. Sacral and coccygeal

A

What condition is when fluid accumulates in the​ lungs, preventing them from breathing​ adequately? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary embolism D. Asthma

A

What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and​ die? A. Water B. Glucose C. Proteins D. Oxygen

A

What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary​ embolus? A. sudden calmness B. pain and swelling in one or both legs C. sudden onset of sharp chest pain D. anxiety

A

What is a surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a plastic bag in place to collect digestive​ waste? A. Colostomy B. Gastric bypass C. Thoracotomy D. Fistula

A

What is the largest bone of the lower​ leg? A. Tibia B. Patella C. Fibula D. Femur

A

What is the name of the heart dysfunction caused by an electrical source that causes the heart to beat too​ fast? A. Tachycardia B. Trauma C. Bradycardia D. Heart attack

A

What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical​ terminology? A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. B. It will make patients and family members trust in the​ EMT's abilities more. C. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. D. EMS providers​ can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

A

When considering the potential for injury from a​ fall, which of the following is LEAST​ important? A. ​Patient's weight B. Type of surface onto which the patient fell C. Height of the fall D. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down

A

When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic​ locations, what do they refer​ to? A. Left and right from the​ patient's perspective. B. Anatomic left and right refer to the​ provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. C. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the​ patient's positioning when care is provided. D. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation.

A

When inserting an oropharyngeal​ airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the​ patient's pharynx? A. 180 B. 45 C. 90 D. 270

A

When responding to an attempted​ suicide, which of the following is the​ EMT's primary​ concern? A. Personal safety B. Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal C. Managing the​ patient's airway D. Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression

A

When should the EMT evaluate the need for Standard​ Precautions? A. An evaluation should be made throughout the call. B. An evaluation should be made before arrival​ on-scene. C. No evaluation is ever​ needed, since the precautions are the same for every call. D. An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed.

A

When the body is in​ water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still​ air? A. 25 B. 10 C. 2 D. 100

A

When using an​ AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to​ "clear" the patient before delivering a​ shock? A. EMT operating the defibrillator B. EMT doing chest compressions C. EMT supervising bystanders D. EMT managing the airway

A

When using the memory aid​ SAMPLE, which of the following would you do to determine​ L? A. ​Ask, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or​ drink?" B. ​Ask, "When was the last time you took your​ medicine?" C. Look at the​ patient's pupils. D. Listen to the​ patient's lung sounds.

A

When you hear wheezes while auscultating your​ patient's breath​ sounds, which of the following is most likely the​ cause? A. The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed. B. There is mucus in the air passages. C. There is an upper airway obstruction. D. There is fluid in the lungs.

A

Which intervention is proven to be the most effective is obtaining a return of spontaneous circulation​ (ROSC) in a cardiac arrest​ patient? A. Early defibrillation B. ​High-concentration oxygen by​ bag-valve mask C. Combitube D. Early CPR

A

Which of the following BEST describes a mobile​ radio? A. A​ two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle B. A​ two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip C. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance D. A​ two-way radio at a fixed site

A

Which of the following BEST describes a​ repeater? A. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances B. A​ two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle C. A​ two-way radio at a fixed site D. A​ two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

A

Which of the following BEST describes inadequate​ breathing? A. The minute volume is less than normal. B. The respiratory rate is faster than normal. C. The respiratory rate is slower than normal. D. The minute volume is greater than normal.

A

Which of the following BEST describes the​ EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac​ care? A. Early defibrillation B. Early advanced cardiac life support C. Early CPR D. Early notification

A

Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the​ navel? A. Abdominal quadrants B. Abdominal sextants C. Abdominal regions D. Abdominal planes

A

Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be​ recorded? A. ​Pulse, respiration, skin​ color, skin temperature and​ condition, pupils, and blood pressure B. ​Pulse, respiration, skin​ color, skin​ temperature, pupils, and blood pressure C. ​Pulse, respiration, skin​ color, skin temperature and condition D. ​Pulse, respiration, skin​ color, skin temperature and​ condition, pupils, blood​ pressure, and bowel sounds

A

Which of the following best describes an urgent​ move? A. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board B. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot C. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt D. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher

A

Which of the following blood vessels cannot stop bleeding by​ constricting? A. Capillaries B. Vena cava C. Arterioles D. Arteries

A

Which of the following communication strategies should be used in dealing with a patient with a behavioral​ emergency? A. Acknowledge the​ patient's feelings B. Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. C. Show deep sympathy for the​ patient's predicament and let him know he​ can't control the things that are happening to him. D. Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure.

A

Which of the following describes the chief​ complaint? A. Reason why the patient summoned EMS B. Events immediately preceding the call for EMS C. Overall impression of the​ patient's condition D. All of the above

A

Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body​ temperature? A. Hyperthermia B. Hyperdynamic state C. Septic shock D. Heat shock

A

Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow​ hallway? A. Flexible stretcher B. Long backboard C. Basket stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

A

Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever​ possible? A. Stair chair B. Basket stretcher C. Wheeled ambulance stretcher D. Scoop stretcher

A

Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric​ patient, as compared to the adult​ patient? A. The normal respiratory rate is faster. B. An​ adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction. C. The normal pulse rate is slower. D. Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.

A

Which of the following does NOT occur during​ inspiration? A. Diaphragm relaxes B. Intercostal muscles contract C. Chest cavity increases in size D. Diaphragm lowers

A

Which of the following information does NOT need to be provided to the​ dispatcher? A. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital B. When you arrive at the hospital C. Which hospital you are transporting to D. When you depart from the hospital

A

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of patient care report​ (PCR) information? A. For referral to Alcoholics Anonymous or similar social services B. To conduct research C. To provide EMS personnel with education and quality assurance D. For billing and insurance purposes

A

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way of dealing with a patient who does not speak the same language as you​ do? A. Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions. B. Use a manual that provides translation. C. Contact dispatch for assistance in finding a translator. D. Use an interpreter.

A

Which of the following is NOT appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving​ hospital? A. Name of the​ patient's health insurance provider B. Pertinent past illnesses C. The​ patient's mental status D. Physical exam findings

A

Which of the following is NOT assessed during the​ "Breathing" phase of the primary​ assessment? A. Obtaining a pulse oximetry reading B. Determining the presence of respirations C. Counting the respiratory rate D. Determining the depth of respiration

A

Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log​ roll? A. Place both feet flat on the ground. B. Keep your back straight. C. Use your shoulder muscles. D. Lean forward from the hips.

A

Which of the following is NOT part of the circulatory​ system? A. Brain B. Blood C. Blood vessels D. Heart

A

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower​ extremity? A. Carpals B. Patella C. Femur D. Pelvis

A

Which of the following is a classification of the severity of​ shock? A. Compensated B. Consumption C. ​Non-compensated D. Uncompensated

A

Which of the following is a commonly accepted list of medications an EMT can assist the patient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical​ Director? A. ​Aspirin, oral​ glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine​ auto-injectors B. Prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, prescribed​ nitroglycerin, and prescribed epinephrine​ auto-injectors C. ​Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral​ glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator​ inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine​ auto-injectors D. Any​ over-the-counter medication, oral​ glucose, and oxygen

A

Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways​ (OPAs)? A. They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex. B. They require the use of a​ water-soluble lubricant. C. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture. D. They do not come in pediatric sizes.

A

Which of the following is a potential side effect of​ nitroglycerin? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Difficulty breathing C. Sudden decrease in heart rate D. All of the above

A

Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and​ regulator? A. Gasket B. Medical grade adhesive tape C. Grease plug D. ​Pop-off valve

A

Which of the following is another name for describing the condition of​ shock? A. Hypoperfusion B. Hypotension C. Internal bleeding D. Hemorrhage

A

Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be​ used? A. Use a material that is wide and thick. B. Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet. C. Remove the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb. D. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee.

A

Which of the following is the BEST defense for an EMT when facing allegations of misconduct from a mentally ill​ patient? A. Providing accurate and complete​ documentation, supported by a​ third-party witness B. Making sure you and your partner get your stories straight before talking to anyone C. Having a clean employment record and lack of a criminal background D. Hiring a background investigator to discredit the accuser

A

Which of the following questions will most likely illicit your​ patient's chief​ complaint? A. What made you call 911 this​ evening? B. Do you have any medical​ problems? C. How have you been feeling​ lately? D. Have you been drinking​ today?

A

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a​ patient's skin​ temperature? A. Place the back of your hand against the​ patient's forehead. B. Place the back of your hand against the​ patient's abdomen. C. Place your cheek against the​ patient's forehead. D. Place your cheek against the​ patient's abdomen.

A

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac​ emergencies? A. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body. B. It slows down the heart. C. It constricts the coronary arteries. D. It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract.

A

Which of the following is the correct manner for making a correction on a patient care​ report? A. Draw a single line through the error and initial it. B. Blacken out the entire error and draw an arrow to the correct information. C. Use typing correction fluid to cover up the error and write over it. D. Get a credible witness to​ co-sign your patient care report.

A

Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries of the​ heart? A. Coronary artery disease B. Coronary thrombosis C. Arteriosclerosis D. Aneurysm

A

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary​ assessment? A. To detect and treat immediately​ life-threatening problems B. To find all of the​ patient's signs and symptoms C. To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the​ patient's condition D. To detect dangers to the patient​ and/or EMS crew

A

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of​ oxygen? A. Myocardial infarction B. Angina pectoris C. Cardiac arrest D. Heart failure

A

Which of the following is the​ EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime​ scene? A. Providing patient care B. Preserving evidence C. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene D. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony

A

Which of the following is the​ EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest​ pain? A. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack. B. Provide automatic external defibrillation. C. Make an interpretation of the​ patient's cardiac rhythm. D. Determine the cause of the​ patient's chest pain.

A

Which of the following is true concerning scene​ size-up? A. The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls. B. Information from bystanders is not important on trauma calls. C. Determining the number of patients is not important on a medical call. D. Scene​ size-up does not play a role in determining the nature of the illness.

A

Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS​ call? A. An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT. B. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for. C. The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes. D. You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it.

A

Which of the following is true concerning​ expiration? A. The diaphragm moves upward. B. The ribs move upward and outward. C. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. D. The chest cavity increases in size.

A

Which of the following is true regarding a patient who has a mental status of less than​ "alert"? A. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen. B. His condition does not indicate the need for oxygen. C. He is likely in a state of REM sleep. D. He has adequate circulation.

A

Which of the following is true regarding proper hand​ cleaning? A. If the​ EMT's hands are visibly​ dirty, an​ alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. B. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves. C. Following patient​ contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. D. In cases where soap and water and​ alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately​ available, bleach wipes should be used.

A

Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the​ body? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. White corpuscles

A

Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal​ behavior? A. Hypoxia B. Snakebites C. Gastroenteritis D. Allergic reaction

A

Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the​ bloodstream? A. Arterial gas embolism B. Hyperbaric arterial injury C. Arterial thrombosis D. Arterial blood gases

A

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood​ loss? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Heart D. Thyroid gland

A

Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate​ breathing? A. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm B. Patient with agonal respirations C. Patient with cyanosis D. ​Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard

A

Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a​ head-tilt, chin-lift​ maneuver? A. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. B. A​ 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter. C. A​ 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the​ driver's seat of the car in her​ driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband. D. A​ 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure.

A

Which of the following presentations would be considered normal during the​ "Breathing" phase of the primary​ assessment? A. Respiratory rate of 12 with adequate depth B. Respiratory rate of 28 with adequate depth C. Respiratory rate of 6 with shallow depth D. Respiratory rate of 16 with altered mental status

A

Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar​ situation? A. Standard of care B. Professional standards C. Protocols and standing orders D. Scope of practice

A

Which of the following requires​ training, policies, and procedures related to​ storing, accessing, and sharing patient​ information? A. HIPAA B. COBRA C. HIAPA D. EMTALA

A

Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an​ adult? A. 8​ breaths/min B. 16​ breaths/min C. 20​ breaths/min D. 12​ breaths/min

A

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a​ 2-month-old child? A. 16​ breaths/min B. 32​ breaths/min C. 28​ breaths/min D. 40​ breaths/min

A

Which of the following should always be done next for a behavioral patient once you have established scene​ safety? A. Conduct a primary assessment B. Restrain the patient C. Obtain baseline vital signs D. Assess the​ patient's blood glucose

A

Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold​ injury? A. Gradually warm the affected area. B. Massage the affected area. C. Rub the affected area with snow. D. Encourage the patient to use the affected part.

A

Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene​ size-up? A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence. B. A vehicle collision where bystanders are recording video on their phones. C. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park. D. A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.

A

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory​ obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Stridor C. Crowing D. Snoring

A

Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan​ laws? A. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency. B. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of​ practice, if​ necessary, when providing emergency care​ off-duty. C. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care​ off-duty. D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law.

A

Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the​ thorax? A. Ischium B. 8th through 19th vertebrae C. Sternum D. Ribs

A

Which of the following structures is found in the lower​ airway? A. Bronchi B. Tonsils C. Pharynx D. Uvula

A

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena​ cavae? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

A

Which of the following techniques of physical examination must an EMT​ master? A. ​Observation, palpation, and auscultation B. ​Auscultation, observation, and percussion C. ​Percussion, inspection, and palpation D. ​Visualization, percussion, and auscultation

A

Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond​ effectively? A. Eustress B. Prostress C. Unstress D. Distress

A

Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of​ pressure? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Venules D. Capillaries

A

Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a​ 4-year-old male​ patient? A. Heart rate​ 110/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg B. Heart rate​ 100/minute, respiratory rate​ 34/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg C. Heart rate​ 60/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg D. Heart rate​ 140/minute, respiratory rate​ 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg

A

Which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen​ administration? A. A patient with a stoma B. A patient with quadriplegia C. A patient with chronic bronchitis D. A patient with upper airway inflammation

A

Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a​ tourniquet? A. If​ possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint. B. The tourniquet should be 2 to 4 inches wide. C. A blood pressure cuff can be used as a tourniquet. D. The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 inches above the bleeding.

A

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large​ meal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder

A

While assessing the past medical history of a​ 68-year-old male patient involved in a fall from a​ 4-foot stepladder, you use the acronym SAMPLE. What does the A refer​ to? A. Allergies B. Acuity C. Assessment D. Amputations

A

While documenting a​ call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the​ following? A. Libel B. Degradation of character C. Slander D. HIPAA violation

A

While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the​ back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency​ Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be​ important? A. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. B. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize. C. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. D. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for.

A

Who is the most susceptible to​ hypothermia? A. ​21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day B. ​55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing C. ​80-year-old male patient on the ground who slipped and has a hip fracture D. ​55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing

A

Why are infants and young children more prone to hypothermia than​ adults? A. They have less fat than adults. B. They are unable to recognize how cold they are. C. Their immune system is not fully developed. D. They shiver more than adults.

A

Why is inhalation described as an active​ process? A. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to​ move, creating a negative pressure. B. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to​ contract, creating a negative pressure. C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to​ move, creating a positive pressure. D. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to​ move, creating a positive pressure.

A

Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric​ emergency? A. It will alert you to past issues as well as medication. B. It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it. C. It will help you to determine if the police are needed. D. It will help you to determine if you need to restrain the patient.

A

Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are​ hypothermic? A. Since the blood is coldest in the​ extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature. B. Since the blood is coldest in the​ extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure. C. Since the blood is warmest in the​ extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raises the core body temperature. D. None of the above

A

You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the​ truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the​ truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You​ should: A. consult the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. remove the bystanders from the scene. C. park downwind from the tanker truck. D. park about 50 feet from the truck.

A

You and your partner respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is a known diabetic patient. The patient is pacing and cursing as you approach. You​ should: A. request assistance from law enforcement personnel. B. immediately restrain the patient. C. approach the patient and firmly order him to sit with his hands in his lap. D. obtain a blood glucose level right away.

A

You are assessing a​ 76-year-old male patient that has been involved in a fall from a standing position. You have completed the scene​ size-up and primary assessment. What should you do​ next? A. Secondary assessment B. Reassessment C. Focused history assessment D. Ongoing assessment

A

You are attempting to assess the blood pressure of a​ 35-year-old male at the scene of a multiple vehicle collision. The scene is very noisy and you are unable to clearly hear the​ patient's heartbeat. You​ should: A. obtain the blood pressure by palpation. B. use an automatic blood pressure machine. C. try using the​ patient's other arm. D. have your partner try auscultating the blood pressure.

A

You are attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want the mask on his face. Which of the following is the BEST course of​ action? A. Explain the importance of oxygen and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask​ on, but that if he​ can't tolerate it you can try another method. B. Tell the patient the mask is for his benefit and you will restrain him if necessary to place it on him. C. Tell the patient he will soon become unconscious without the mask and then you will be able to place it on him. D. Document that the patient was uncooperative and refused oxygen.

A

You are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. After removing the regulator from the old​ cylinder, removing the old​ cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen​ compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. The new cylinder has a yellow stripe around it instead of a green one but was stored with the green cylinders. You are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. You​ should: A. remove the cylinder and get a green cylinder. B. replace the oxygen regulator with a new one. C. attempt to force the regulator onto the cylinder. D. put the old cylinder back on the truck.

A

You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the​ patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of​ 280/140. What should you do​ next? A. Take a manual blood pressure. B. Call immediately for ALS response. C. Continue with vital sign assessment. D. Begin transport immediately.

A

You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary​ assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your​ reassessment, you notice that the​ patient's respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You​ should: A. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute. B. assist the​ patient's breathing with a​ bag-valve mask. C. call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler. D. increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute.

A

You are called for a​ 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital​ signs, you​ should: A. write down the​ patient's vital signs. B. move the patient to the ambulance for transport. C. assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication. D. begin your reassessment.

A

You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the​ home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A​ man, who smells of​ alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what​ happened: "I just found her this​ way!" The husband is behaving​ suspiciously, appears​ paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of​ action? A. Leave the house and call for law enforcement. B. Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient. C. Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient. D. Evacuate the patient and begin treatment.

A

You are called to an elementary school for an​ 8-year-old female patient who is experiencing respiratory distress. The school nurse states the patient has an epinephrine​ auto-injector for a possible anaphylactic reaction to bee stings. The patient also has an Albuterol inhaler for asthma. The patient is breathing 30 times a​ minute, is in the tripod​ position, and is speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences. The nurse states the patient was playing basketball in the gym when she started having difficulty breathing. The patient has wheezing in all lung fields. An ALS unit is en route but it is 10 minutes away. You are 20 minutes away from the nearest hospital. After placing the patient on​ oxygen, your next intervention should be​ to: A. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her Albuterol. B. provide supportive care until the ALS unit arrives. C. contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her epinephrine. D. cancel the ALS unit and call medical control to assist with the Albuterol administration while en route to the hospital.

A

You are called to assist a​ 25-year-old female patient who is in profound respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma and severe allergies to peanuts. She has a prescribed albuterol inhaler and an epinephrine​ auto-injector. The patient states she was working in her garden when she accidentally stirred up a​ hornets' nest and was stung multiple times. The patient has wheezing in all​ fields, and is breathing at 28 times per minute. She states that she triggered her asthma by running across the yard to the safety of her home. As you apply​ oxygen, you notice that she is now speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences, her skin has​ splotches, and her tongue and neck appear to be swelling. Your next action is to call medical control and then do​ what? A. Request to assist the patient with her epinephrine pen for anaphylaxis. B. Do not request to give epinephrine. It was prescribed for a peanut​ reaction, not for asthma. C. Request to assist the patient with her Albuterol inhaler for her asthma. D. Request to assist the patient with her Albuterol for anaphylaxis.

A

You are called to the scene of a patient who fell approximately 5 feet off a stepladder to the floor of a​ third-story attic of a very old building. He is complaining of severe neck and back​ pain, and he has an obvious fractured ankle. You cannot get your stretcher past the​ first-floor stairs and your long spine board is not practical with the winding spiral staircase and the small attic access. What is the best device to safely get the patient out of the attic where he can be properly​ immobilized? A. ​Vest-type extrication device B. Flexible stretcher C. Stair chair D. Scoop stretcher

A

You are caring for a​ 25-year-old male patient that has been shot once in the head. The patient is in extremis​ (near the point of​ death) with a noticeable breathing pattern that alternates between no breathing and fast breathing. Your understanding of pathophysiology leads you to believe the breathing pattern may be due to damage to the section of his brain responsible for respiratory​ control, also known as​ the: A. medulla oblongata. B. thalamus. C. frontal lobe. D. cerebellum.

A

You are caring for a​ 4-month-old male patient who is reported to have vomited five times today. His parents describe no other associated symptoms or complaints. The patient is lying on the couch with a pacifier in his​ mouth, smiling at you.​ Developmentally, you would expect a patient of this age to be able​ to: A. drool without swallowing. B. say the word​ "no." C. have attachment anxiety or fear strangers. D. sit up without assistance.

A

You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the​ hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to​ obtain? A. Reassessment results B. Primary assessment C. Pulse and respiratory rates D. ​Patient's gender

A

You are dispatched to a​ "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives​ on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to​ you, "Help​ him, he's been​ shot! He's bleeding real​ bad!" What would be the best course of​ action? A. Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure. B. Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment. C. Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER. D. Load and​ go, because​ you're already​ on-scene.

A

You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to​ fall? A. Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her. B. Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down. C. Use a strap to safely secure the​ patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the​ patient's extremities. D. Gently tie the​ patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing.

A

You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a​ 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are​ stable, and he takes medications for​ hypertension, high​ cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on​ oxygen, you contact medical control and​ request: A. to administer aspirin to the patient. B. to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient. C. no orders. D. to administer nitroglycerin to the patient.

A

You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive​ 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and goes unresponsive often due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary​ assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness.​ However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the​ patient's sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field​ impression? A. Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment. B. You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice. C. Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong. D. Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took.

A

You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a​ 30-year-old man pacing about his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the​ following? A. Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him. B. Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned. C. Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority. D. Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay.

A

You are on the scene of a​ 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states the child rapidly developed a sore throat and is found in the tripod position. He is crying and drooling profusely. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Epiglottitis B. Strep throat C. Croup D. Child abuse

A

You are on the scene of a​ 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the​ patient, what is your next​ intervention? A. Continue CPR. B. Check for a pulse. C. Place in the recovery position. D. Insert a Combitube.

A

You are on the scene of a​ 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next​ intervention? A. Continue CPR. B. Replace the malfunctioning AED. C. Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position. D. Insert a Combitube.

A

You are on the scene of a​ 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD who is breathing 44 times per minute and has a diminished level of consciousness. His wife states he has an Albuterol inhaler and nitroglycerin tablets for angina. What is the most important drug you can administer to the​ patient? A. Oxygen by​ bag-valve mask B. Albuterol C. Nitroglycerin D. Oxygen by nonrebreather mask

A

You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash. Your​ patient's initial blood pressure was​ 88/52. You should reassess blood​ pressure: A. at least every 5 minutes. B. only if the patient gets worse. C. only if the pulse rate changes. D. at least every 15 minutes.

A

You are transporting a patient whom you are treating for chest pain. You have completed all of your assessments and are writing down some of his personal information such as his address and phone number. As the patient is​ speaking, you notice that he is having increasing difficulty breathing. You​ should: A. immediately repeat your primary assessment. B. call the hospital and report the difficulty. C. get a quick set of vital signs. D. call for ALS backup.

A

You are transporting a​ 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of​ action? A. Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary. B. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with​ CPR, and request another unit for assistance. C. Initiate CPR and continue transporting. D. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.

A

You are treating a patient with signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction​ (MI). What is the most important drug you should​ administer? A. Oxygen B. Albuterol C. Aspirin D. Epinephrine​ auto-injector ​(Epi-Pen®®​)

A

You are treating a​ 15-year-old boy who apparently broke his right arm when he fell while skateboarding with his friends. You have completed your primary and secondary assessment including splinting his​ arm, but you found no other injuries or problems. Which of the following is the most important step to do during the​ reassessment? A. Check distal circulation on his right arm. B. Place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Recheck his pupils. D. Visualize his chest for bruising.

A

You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the​ airway? A. Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached B. Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning C. Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip D. Using a 14 French suction catheter

A

You are ventilating a​ 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT​ appropriate? A. Notify medical control that the​ patient's condition has improved. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. C. Increase the force of ventilations. D. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the​ bag-valve-mask device.

A

You arrive​ on-scene of a​ 56-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. What is the first airway you should​ administer? A. Oropharyngeal airway B. Nasopharyngeal airway​ (NPA) C. Combitube D. ​Pharyngeal-Tracheal Lumen airway

A

You find a teenage male lying supine in his bedroom. You hear gurgling sounds from the​ patient's mouth and see vomit with pill fragments on the floor. You should​ FIRST: A. suction the airway. B. ventilate with oxygen. C. perform chest thrusts. D. identify the pills.

A

You find a​ middle-aged unresponsive man lying prone on the ground near a ladder. You should​ FIRST: A. manually immobilize his head. B. move the ladder out of the way. C. pick him up with a scoop stretcher. D. roll him over to a supine position.

A

You have arrived at the scene of a call for a​ "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his​ mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring​ profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and​ lips, and has​ rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen. B. Obtain the​ patient's medical history. C. Listen to his lung sounds. D. Check for a radial pulse.

A

You have a​ 38-year-old patient who has fainted. Following your local protocol you use a light wave device to determine the SpO2. As the​ EMT, you attach the device on the​ patient's finger, which gives you a reading of 91. What does that reading​ indicate? A. Mild hypoxia B. Significant hypoxia C. Severe hypoxia D. Normal results

A

You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a​ 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best​ efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in​ service, the​ patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her​ husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast​ enough, taking too long at the​ house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her​ anger? A. Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance. B. Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are​ fiction, so she will not sue you in the future. C. Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. D. Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay.

A

You have performed a head​ tilt-chin lift maneuver on a​ 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a​ bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations​ again, you​ should: A. perform chest thrusts. B. ease the head forward a little. C. tilt the head back further. D. finger sweep the airway.

A

You have received the following order from medical​ control: "Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the​ patient's tongue." Which of the following is the BEST​ response? A. ​"Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the​ patient's tongue." B. ​"Clear. Will advise of any changes in​ patient's condition." C. ​"Copy. Administering medication​ now." D. ​"Roger, order​ received."

A

You have responded to a call about a​ "psychiatric patient" to find a​ 24-year-old woman talking to herself in her home. She is rocking back and forth and you can see from a distance that she is perspiring profusely. You also see an empty medication bottle on the floor. She does not acknowledge your presence. When you attempt to speak to​ her, she continues to talk to herself as if you were not there. Which of the following should be included in your actions at the​ scene? A. Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for their arrival. B. Look through the house with your partner to try to find some clues to the​ patient's problem. C. Distract her so your partner can look around the house. D. Shake the​ patient's shoulder to check for responsiveness to physical stimuli.

A

You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured​ patients? A. Emergency move B. ​Non-urgent move C. Urgent move D. Extremity lift

A

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a​ 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The​ patient's friends state they were diving when he unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What is your first​ action? A. Suction the airway. B. Place the patient on​ high-concentration oxygen by​ bag-valve mask. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. D. Place the patient on​ high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

A

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a​ 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The​ patient's friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Air embolism B. Decompression sickness C. Myocardial infarction D. Near drowning

A

You respond to a call at a park where you find a​ 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the​ situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a​ stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this​ lift? A. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting. B. You will place two persons at the head of the​ stretcher, one at the​ foot, and one to act as a spotter. C. You will place two persons at the​ foot, one at the​ head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope. D. They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued.

A

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person​ "not acting​ right." You find a​ 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started​ "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure​ 90/60, pulse​ 136, and respiratory rate 24. The​ patient's skin is cool to the touch and​ dry, but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. You​ suspect: A. hypovolemic shock. B. hypernatremia. C. myocardial infarction. D. heat cramps.

A

You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a​ 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is​ "really sick." As you​ approach, you notice that the patient appears in obvious​ distress, diaphoretic, and holding his right wrist. Which of the following is your highest​ priority? A. Ensure the snake is no longer a threat. B. Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions. C. Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom. D. Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats.

A

You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search and rescue helicopter. Your patient is a​ 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to​ time, person,​ place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel​ "frozen" on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid​ transport, your next action is​ to: A. bandage the digits. B. keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital. C. actively rewarm the digits. D. gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them.

A

You respond to a patient who is choking. The victim is suffering from the most common of airway obstructions. This would indicate that the problem is in the​ ________ airway. A. upper B. alveoli C. lower D. bronchial

A

You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heatstroke. Upon arrival you find a​ 28-year-old male patient seated inside the​ air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the​ cramping? A. Sweating too much B. Cooling off too quickly C. Drinking too many sports drinks D. Heat exhaustion

A

You respond to a​ 48-year-old morbidly obese female patient. Her adult daughter called you because she has not gotten up from her oversized recliner chair in over a week. She has tried to help her out of the chair but states that each time her mother screams in agony. The foul odor presence of urine and feces is strong around the patient. Her feet do not touch the​ ground, and any attempt to lift the patient by her arms or scoot her down to the end of the chair results in severe pain to the patient. You are finding it nearly impossible to get a good grip on the patient. How will you get her out of the​ chair? A. ​Vest-type extrication device B. Soft stretcher C. Long spine board D. Lie the chair back and use a scoop stretcher

A

Your patient called 911 because he was having chest pain. He states that his pain is a 7 on a​ 10-point scale. As part of your​ care, you assist him with taking his nitroglycerin per medical direction. After waiting a few minutes for the medication to take​ effect, you​ should: A. ask him what his pain is like now. B. call medical direction to administer another dose. C. administer another dose of nitroglycerin. D. lay the head of the stretcher down.

A

Your patient is a​ 14-year-old male who was run over by a tractor and is now unresponsive. During the rapid​ assessment, you should look for clear drainage coming from the​ patient's ________ indicating a serious injury. A. ears B. rectum C. mouth D. eyes

A

Your patient is a​ 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up this morning. Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks. In​ fact, every time you ask a​ question, the​ patient's mother answers. What should you do​ next? A. Have your partner interview the mother in the next room. B. Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient. C. Tell the mother to leave the room. D. Ask the mother to please be quiet.

A

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no​ complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this​ patient? A. Maintaining an open airway B. Finding out exactly what she took C. Checking the​ patient's pupil size and reactivity to light D. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status

A

Your patient is a​ 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your​ arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do​ first? A. Remove the​ patient's pillow. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Check the​ patient's pulse. D. Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

A

Your patient is a​ 33-year-old man who has been ejected from his vehicle during a​ high-speed collision. During your primary assessment it is discovered that he is not​ moving, does not appear to have adequate​ respirations, and has suffered moderate external bleeding. Which of the following should be done​ first? A. Open the airway. B. Control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. Begin​ bag-valve-mask ventilations. D. Check the​ patient's carotid pulse.

A

Your patient is a​ 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this​ patient? A. Implied consent B. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies C. Consent for mentally incompetent adults D. Expressed consent

A

Your patient is a​ 6-year-old male who appears very​ anxious, is using increased effort during​ expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The​ patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the​ patient's distress? A. Epiglottitis B. COPD C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pneumonia

A

Your patient is​ warm, dry,​ pink, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the​ patient's oxygen​ saturation? A. ​98% B. ​95% C. ​102% D. ​91%

A

Your​ patient, a​ 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the​ passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have​ occurred? A. The​ patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her​ head, causing injury to the cervical spine. B. The patient took the​ "down and​ under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities. C. The patient took the​ "up and​ over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield. D. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her​ chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

A

​A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. A. injury of a coworker B. abuse of alcohol C. routine call D. ongoing night shift

A

​________ are signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious. A. Red flags B. Pertinent negatives C. Differentials D. All of the above

A

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied? Answer A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin A 6-month-old suspected of having SIDS A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash

A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic

Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for suicide? Answer A 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced A 35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness A married, 30-year-old man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state A 44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness

A 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced

What is epilepsy? Answer A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication. A condition in which a person has an aura followed by seizure usually controlled by medication. A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only twice a year. A condition in which a person has general seizures that start in childhood.

A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication.

Concerning behavioral emergencies, which of the following statements is true? Answer Only a licensed psychiatrist can apply crisis management techniques with a patient having a behavioral emergency. A diabetic problem may mimic signs of a behavioral emergency. It is relatively easy to determine if the underlying cause of a behavioral emergency is related to drug abuse. A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques must be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility.

A diabetic problem may mimic signs of a behavioral emergency.

How is activated charcoal, which is carried by some EMS systems, supplied for use in emergency situations? A) As a powder, which is premixed with water B) As a gel or paste C) As tablets D) As a fine liquid spray for inhalation

A) As a powder, which is premixed with water

Why should EMTs study pharmacology? A) As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm. B) An EMT must know the manufacturer, sources, characteristics, and effects of every medication that has been prescribed to the patient. C) As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope. D)An EMT must know the sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe.

A) As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm.

Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by auto-injector? A) Constriction of blood vessels B) Constriction of coronary arteries C) Dilation of coronary arteries D) Decrease in blood pressure .

A) Constriction of blood vessels

Which of the following is a potential side effect of nitroglycerin? A) Decreased blood pressure B) Sudden increase in heart rate C) Difficulty breathing D) All of the above

A) Decreased blood pressure

Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A) Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible. B) Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. C) Do not use the patient's inhaler, because you do not know how the medication has been stored. D) Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray.

A) Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.

A drug's form refers to which of the following? A) Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas B) The mandatory paperwork that must be completed when giving any drug C) The type of container it comes in D) The way in which it is administered

A) Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas

Which of the following heart chambers pumps oxygenated blood to the body? A) Left ventricle B) Left atrium C) Right ventricle D) Right atrium

A) Left ventricle

You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient. Within a few minutes, she complains of feeling faint and lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the BEST sequence of actions? A) Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure. B) Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the patient's blood pressure. C) Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin. D) Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin.

A) Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure.

You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? A) Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved. B) Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device. C) Increase the force of ventilations. D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating.

A) Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved.

Name the type of medical direction consisting of standing orders and protocols. A) Off-line B) Verbal C) On-line D) Written

A) Off-line

What medication is given when a patient suffers from a medical or traumatic condition called hypoxia? A) Oxygen B) Oral glucose C) Epinephrine D) Aspirin

A) Oxygen

After the administration of a prescribed inhaler, which of the following should the EMT NOT reassess? A) Pupillary size and reaction B) Pulse C) Respirations D) Mental status

A) Pupillary size and reaction

Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems? A) They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication. B) The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. C) Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler. D) They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate.

A) They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.

Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? A) Tremors B) Sleepiness C) Trapped air in the lungs D) Decreased heart rate

A) Tremors

Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding IV administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and is: A) beyond the scope of the EMT level. B) allowed in larger cities and more advanced EMS services. C) used in advanced life support only when the patient is intubated. D) only performed on advanced life support services

A) beyond the scope of the EMT level.

Which of the following is a trade name for activated charcoal? Answer Actifed Charcoal Actidose Mesquite

Actidose

You are dispatched to a sick call. The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 weeks. This 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. The patient is complaining of disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. What do you think is the underlying cause for the illness? Answer Chronic renal failure End-stage renal disease Acute renal failure Gastrointestinal infection .

Acute renal failure

Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner? Answer Call medical control. Administer milk or water. Maintain the airway. Administer activated charcoal.

Administer activated charcoal.

Your patient is a 3-year-old female who has taken an unknown quantity of aspirin. She is conscious and alert. Which of the following orders is likely to be given by medical control? Answer Administer one to two glasses of milk. Administer activated charcoal. Induce vomiting by placing your finger in the child's throat. Administer syrup of ipecac.

Administer activated charcoal.

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first? Answer Administer high-concentration oxygen. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts. Perform rapid extrication. Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector. .

Administer high-concentration oxygen.

Your patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. Which of the following is a priority in this patient's care? Answer Begin rapid transport. Administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask. Decontaminate the patient by flushing with copious amounts of water. Assist her with her epinephrine auto-injector.

Administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the BEST option for the EMT? Answer Transport rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital. Immediately administer the patient's Epi-Pen®. Do not administer the Epi-Pen® under any circumstances. Administer the Epi-Pen® only on the advice of medical control.

Administer the Epi-Pen® only on the advice of medical control.

Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac care? Answer CPR Early defibrillation Administration of epinephrine Airway management

Administration of epinephrine

Which of the following is within the EMT's scope of practice for the treatment of the diabetic patient? Answer Assisting the patient with the administration of his insulin Administration of oral glucose Rectal administration of glucose Both A and B

Administration of oral glucose

When a poison attaches to the chemical structure of activated charcoal, which of the following BEST describes this mechanism of action? Answer Absorption Inactivation Incorporation Adsorption

Adsorption

_________ patients are at high risk for acquiring the inherited disorder called sickle cell anemia. Answer Native American African American Eastern European Hispanic

African American

Carbon monoxide poisoning should be suspected when a patient has been in an enclosed area and has which of the following signs and/or symptoms? Answer Headache, dizziness, and nausea Flu-like symptoms Vomiting and altered mental status All of the above

All of the above

When documenting the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, which of the following should be included? Answer The patient's response to the medication The site of medication administration The time the medication was administered All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs? Answer Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation. The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure following successful defibrillation. In cases of refractory or recurrent ventricular fibrillation, the use of medications may increase the chances of defibrillating successfully. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following conditions can mimic the signs of alcohol intoxication? Answer Epilepsy Head injuries Diabetes All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following effects may occur due to chronic abuse of alcohol? Answer Abnormal blood sugar levels Poor nutrition Potential for gastrointestinal bleeding All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide? Answer Recent emotional trauma Sudden improvement in depression Alcohol and drug abuse All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is a concern when caring for the patient with abdominal pain? Answer Shock Patient comfort Airway management All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of withdrawal from alcohol? Answer Seizures Sweating Hallucinations All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following medical conditions may be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral emergency? Answer Mental illness Stroke Hypoglycemia All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following questions may help the EMT assess a patient with abdominal pain? Answer Do you have any allergies to foods or medicines? Do you have any medical problems, such as diabetes or heart problems? What medications are you taking? All of the above

All of the above

Your patient has come in contact with a strong acid substance. Using an alkaline solution to treat the patient may result in which of the following? Answer Production of heat when the acid and alkali interact Further damage to the patient's tissues Neutralization of the acid substance All of the above

All of the above

Your patient is a 50-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She is found unresponsive in bed by her son. Which of the following possibilities should you keep in mind during your assessment? Answer Low blood sugar A head injury A heart attack All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is NOT typical of angina pectoris? Answer Responds to nitroglycerin Lasts 3 to 5 minutes Often subsides with rest All of the above are typical findings of angina pectoris.

All of the above are typical findings of angina pectoris.

Which of the following needs to be considered by the EMT before administering an epinephrine auto-injector? Answer All of the choices need to be considered Verification that the drug has been prescribed to the patient Color of the contents Expiration date of the drug

All of the choices need to be considered

Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true? Answer Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note. All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere. There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS.

All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere.

Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic reaction? Answer Pathogen Allergen Antibody Pyrogen

Allergen

The detection of a pulsating mass upon palpation of a patient's abdomen should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following? Answer A hernia An ulcer Gastroenteritis An abdominal aortic aneurysm

An abdominal aortic aneurysm

According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression? Answer Alcoholic intoxication An underlying physical illness Sudden onset of schizophrenia None of the above

An underlying physical illness

A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition? Answer Anaphylaxis Dyspnea Shock Mild allergy

Anaphylaxis

What is another name for a severe allergic reaction? Answer Dermatitis Asthma Anaphylaxis Psychosomatic reaction

Anaphylaxis

You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she can't catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following? Answer Anaphylaxis Heat stroke Allergic reaction Hyperventilation syndrome

Anaphylaxis

Which of the following is a substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects? Answer Deactivator Antidote Antivert Curative

Antidote

Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a stroke? Answer Hemiparesis Ischemia Ataxia Aphasia

Aphasia

Your patient is an unresponsive 30-year-old male wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. As you are completing your assessment, the patient's sister arrives at the scene. Which of the following should you do next? Answer Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar level. Use the patient's glucometer to check his blood sugar level. Administer oral glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia, but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.

Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action.

Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first action? Answer Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment. Apply the AED. Stop CPR and check for a pulse.

Apply the AED.

You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next? Answer Perform one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated. Perform bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads. Contact medical direction before taking any action.

Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

Your patient is a 60-year-old male who is complaining of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. He is pale, sweaty, and pleads with you, "Don't let me die, I think I'm going to die." Which of the following measures is NOT part of your initial treatment of this patient? Answer Giving 15 lpm of oxygen by nonrebreather mask Applying the defibrillator pads to his chest Determining whether you should assist the patient in taking nitroglycerin Placing the patient in a position of comfort

Applying the defibrillator pads to his chest

Your patient is a 59-year-old man who has collapsed while working in the yard. He has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. His neighbor is attempting CPR, but the quality is questionable. Which of the following should be your first action? Answer Apply the AED. Load the patient into the ambulance for further evaluation. Ask your partner to take over CPR from the neighbor. Ask the neighbor to stop CPR so you can check the patient's pulse.

Ask the neighbor to stop CPR so you can check the patient's pulse.

As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the patient? Answer Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves. Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves. Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI. Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.

Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.

What are the three items that make up the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? Answer Ask the patient to smile, hold his arms out straight in front of him with his eyes closed, and ask him to say the alphabet backward. Ask the patient to look up, hold his arms straight out by his side with his eyes closed, and ask him to repeat a sentence to see if he can remember it. Ask the patient to smile. tilt his head back with his eyes closed, and ask him to say a sentence such as, " The sky is blue in Cincinnati." to see if he can say Cincinnati. Ask the patient to smile, hold his arms straight out in front of him with his eyes closed, and ask him to say a sentence to see if it is clear.

Ask the patient to smile, hold his arms straight out in front of him with his eyes closed, and ask him to say a sentence to see if it is clear.

Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock? Answer Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic Looking for hives and swelling Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg

Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient? Answer Elevate the patient's head. Transport rapidly. Search for an epinephrine auto-injector. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next? Answer Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient's respiratory status. Remove the AED and assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep re-assessing the pulse. Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.

Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.

Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral emergency, which of the following is the best course of action? Answer Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent. Begin intense individual counseling with the patient. Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior. There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems. .

Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior.

Which of the following is the most important intervention the EMT can provide to the patient having a stroke? Answer Assisting with administration of the patient's nitroglycerin tablets Conducting a detailed neurological exam Giving oral glucose to the patient Avoiding delay in transporting to the hospital

Avoiding delay in transporting to the hospital

15) What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? A) Patient access B) Patient assessment C) Medical intervention D) Patient advocacy Answer:

B

28) You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him? A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition. C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player. D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out. Answer:

B

31) The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following? A) Writing protocols and standing orders B) Maintaining your equipment C) Providing quality care D) Being a member of the QI committee Answer:

B

32) Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process? A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner B) Writing complete patient care reports C) Critiquing performance of one's partner D) Assuring personal safety Answer:

B

At what point is the scene​ size-up complete? A. Upon stabilization of the​ c-spine B. At the end of the call C. When the number of patients has been determined D. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized

B

A blood pressure in an adult patient of​ 134/84 mm Hg would be​ considered: A. hypertension. B. prehypertension. C. hypotension. D. normotension.

B

A list of potential diagnoses compiled early in the​ patient's assessment is known as which of the​ following? A. Traditional diagnosis B. Differential diagnosis C. ​Assessment-based diagnosis D. Emergency medical diagnosis

B

A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the​ following? A. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh B. Fractures of both femurs C. Two fractures in the same femur D. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

B

A serious negative interaction for giving Nitrostat is a drug interaction with what​ medications? A. Oral​ glucose, Viagra, and aspirin B. ​Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction C. ​Sildenafil, vardenafil, and epinephrine D. ​Nitroglycerin, Ventolin, and epinephrine

B

A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may​ rupture, causing catastrophic​ bleeding, is​ called: A. angioplasty. B. aneurysm. C. angina. D. asystole.

B

All of the following are elements of adult high performance​ CPR, except​: A. spending half of each compression on the downstroke and half on the upstroke. B. compressing the​ patient's chest about 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation. C. compression rate of at least 100 per minute. D. taking no more than 1 second to deliver each ventilation.

B

An infection of the brain is​ called: A. multiple sclerosis. B. encephalitis. C. meningitis. D. rhinitis.

B

An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the​ following? A. Cavitating trauma B. Penetrating trauma C. Impaling trauma D. Puncturing trauma

B

An unconscious trauma patient should always be assumed to have which of the following types of​ injury? A. Cardiac B. Spine C. Abdominal D. Skull

B

Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions​ exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital​ setting? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

B

Nitroglycerin is given via the​ ________ route. A. enteral B. sublingual C. lingual D. parenteral

B

A​ 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible​ wheezes, heart rate of​ 124, respiration​ 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the best treatment for this​ patient? A. Give​ mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal​ cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen. B. Ventilate with a​ bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. C. Supplement the breaths with​ high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. D. Use a pocket​ mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the​ patient's condition.

B

Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT​ are: A. ​retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing. B. ​snoring, gurgling,​ wheezing, and crowing. C. ​snoring, gurgling,​ wheezing, crowing, and crowning. D. ​tachycardia, retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing.

B

Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two​ ways: via the red blood cells​ and: A. white blood cells. B. plasma. C. oncotic pressure. D. hydrostatic pressure.

B

Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding IV​ administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and​ is: A. allowed in larger cities and more advanced EMS services. B. beyond the scope of the EMT level. C. used in advanced life support only when the patient is intubated. D. only performed by air medical personnel.

B

Concerning behavioral​ emergencies, which of the following statements is true​? A. It is relatively easy to determine if the underlying cause of a behavioral emergency is related to drug abuse. B. A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques may be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility. C. Only a licensed psychiatrist can apply crisis management techniques with a patient having a behavioral emergency. D. A diabetic problem never mimics signs of a behavioral emergency.

B

Concerning the use of humidified​ oxygen, which of the following is​ true? A. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis. B. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable. C. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria. D. It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device.

B

During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance​ exposure? A. Childbirth B. Splinting a sprained ankle C. Bandaging a laceration D. Glucometry

B

For a patient without a possibility of spinal​ injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a​ stretcher? A. ​Direct-ground lift B. ​Draw-sheet method C. ​Firefighter's carry D. Extremity lift

B

For the last few​ days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble​ sleeping, has been on​ edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls.​ Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. A. Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling. B. Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. C. Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days. D. Your partner is suffering from​ post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him.

B

For which of the following reasons are​ newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age​ groups? A. Inadequate salt intake B. Poor ability to regulate body temperature C. Faster metabolism D. Increased body mass

B

How does aspirin actually reduce the chances that a patient suffering a heart attack will​ die? A. It reduces the inflammation in the heart. B. It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots. C. It prevents a deadly fever from developing. D. It reduces the amount of pain in the heart.

B

How is activated​ charcoal, which is carried by some EMS​ systems, supplied for use in emergency​ situations? A. As a fine liquid spray for inhalation B. As a​ powder, which is mixed with water before administration C. As tablets D. As a gel or paste

B

If the weight being pulled is below the level of the​ EMT's waist, he should be in​ a(n) ________ position. A. squatting B. kneeling C. overhead D. ​feet-together

B

Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical​ patient, which of the following should you do​ next? A. Check the scene for medications. B. Obtain baseline vital signs. C. Perform a focused physical exam. D. Find out who the​ patient's doctor is.

B

In medical​ terms, bruises are known as which of the​ following? A. Discoloration B. Contusion C. Blemish D. Abrasion

B

In the assessment of a responsive medical​ patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important​ information? A. Detailed physical exam B. ​Patient's medical history C. Focused physical exam D. Baseline vital signs

B

In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood​ volume? A. Early adulthood B. Late adulthood C. Infancy D. Middle adulthood

B

In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal​ injury? A. An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury B. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down C. A responsive patient with no history of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain D. All of the above

B

In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac​ arrest? A. Family members request that nothing be done. B. The​ patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. C. The​ EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding​ resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the​ patient's wishes. D. All of the above

B

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be​ prohibited? A. The patient does not currently take aspirin. B. The patient has a history of asthma. C. The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg. D. The patient feels dizzy.

B

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in​ adults? A. Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults. B. Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure. C. Ventricular fibrillation is common in children. D. Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

B

In​ EMS, what does mental status refer​ to? A. Any history of mental illness that the patient may have B. ​Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings C. ​Patient's general level of intelligence D. None of the above

B

Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350​ mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute​ volume? A. 378 mL B. ​9,800 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 342 mL

B

Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction​ and:

B

Middle adulthood is the stage of life from​ ________ to​ ________ years. A. ​35; 55 B. ​41; 60 C. ​35; 65 D. ​31; 60

B

Mr. Green is complaining of severe difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. His wife states he has had reactions to bee stings​ before, but not quite this severe. Which medications should you specifically ask him​ about? A. Antihistamines B. Epinephrine​ auto-injector C. Inhaler D. Nitroglycerine tablets

B

Mr. Hughes is a​ 49-year-old man complaining of chest pain. To find out about the quality of his chest​ pain, which of the following questions is most​ appropriate? A. Does anything make the pain​ worse? B. Can you describe how the pain in your chest​ feels? C. On a scale of 1 to​ 10, with 10 being the​ worst, how would you rate your level of​ pain? D. Are you having pain anywhere besides your​ chest?

B

Mrs. Butler is a​ 66-year-old woman who is complaining of chest pain. Which of the following questions would be best in helping you determine if the pain is​ radiating? A. Does anything make the pain better or​ worse? B. Are you having pain anywhere besides your​ chest? C. Are you having pain in your​ arm? D. Are you experiencing any other​ symptoms?

B

Nitroglycerin​ (Nitro) is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is most commonly supplied in what two​ forms? A. Ointment and pills B. Pills and spray C. Aerosol and spray D. Pills and injectable

B

Of the three types of oxygen​ flowmeters, which one can only be used​ upright? A. Constant flow selector valve B. ​Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Hudson gauge flowmeter D. Bourdon gauge flowmeter

B

Patient data includes all of the following except​ the: A. ​patient's chief complaint. B. nature of the dispatch. C. mechanism of injury. D. ​patient's medications.

B

Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body​ image? A. Middle adulthood B. Adolescence C. Early adulthood D. School age

B

Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is​ to: A. check for adequate chest rise. B. say​ "hello." C. auscultate for breath sounds. D. determine a respiratory rate.

B

Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the​ following? A. Constriction of the vessels B. Large proteins C. Dilation of the vessels D. Contraction of the heart

B

Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the​ following? A. Heart attack B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Seizures D. Rewarming shock

B

Sharing information about a​ patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the​ following? A. Negligence B. Breach of confidentiality C. Slander D. Libel

B

Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic​ stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with​ on-the-job experiences. A. stress prevention B. critical incident stress C. crisis intervention D. chronic stress

B

The EMTs should provide patients with viral respiratory​ infections: A. a prescribed inhaler. B. oxygen. C. antibiotics. D. a​ small-volume nebulizer.

B

The abbreviation mm Hg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following​ comparisons? A. Millimeters of water B. Millimeters of mercury C. Atmospheric pressure D. Minimum heart rate

B

The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to age and weight is​ called: A. pharmacology. B. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacokinetics. D. measurement and documentation.

B

The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to​ occur? A. Breathe slower and​ deeper, blood vessels to​ dilate, heart to beat stronger and​ faster, skin to​ sweat, pupils to​ constrict, and skin to become pale B. Breathe faster and​ deeper, blood vessels to​ constrict, heart to beat stronger and​ faster, skin to​ sweat, pupils to​ dilate, and skin to become pale C. Breathe faster and​ deeper, blood vessels to​ constrict, heart to beat stronger and​ faster, skin to​ sweat, pupils to​ constrict, and skin to become warm D. Breathe faster and​ deeper, blood vessels to​ dilate, heart to beat stronger and​ slower, skin to​ sweat, pupils to​ dilate, and skin to become pale

B

The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are​ called: A. untoward effects. B. indications. C. contraindications. D. side effects.

B

The term burnout is also known as​ a(n) ________ stress reaction. A. delayed B. cumulative C. acute D. ​post-traumatic

B

The term cyanosis is used when the​ patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following​ characteristics? A. Yellow B. ​Blue-gray C. Very pale D. Flushed

B

The term gangrene means​ tissue: A. damage. B. death. C. discoloration. D. infection.

B

The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the​ following? A. Early adulthood B. Adolescence C. Transitional D. Young adult

B

The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is​ called: A. expiration. B. tidal volume. C. inspiration. D. vital capacity.

B

The wrist is​ ________ to the elbow. A. dorsal B. distal C. inferior D. medial

B

The​ "fight-or-flight" response is activated by​ the: A. endocrine system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. renal system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

B

The​ jaw-thrust maneuver is the only​ _______ airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible​ head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury. A. forbidden B. recommended C. required D. prohibited

B

To be​ effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of​ ________ liters per minute and create a vacuum of​ ________ mmHg. A. ​30; 30 B. ​30; 300 C. ​300; 30 D. ​300; 330

B

To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the​ forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which​ location? A. Armpit B. Wrist C. Throat D. Upper arm

B

Two EMTs are​ on-scene of a behavioral call at a psychiatric facility. The medical personnel state that the patient had a psychotic episode and slashed his wrists. During the​ call, the patient claims to hear the voice of God and says that the voice is hurting his ears. The patient refuses to be transported to the emergency​ department, becomes​ combative, and bites one of the EMTs. Which of the following should NOT be documented on the EMS​ report? A. The fact that the patient was violent and bit the EMT B. The fact that the EMT had an exposure incident C. The fact that the patient slashed his wrists D. The fact that the patient hears voices

B

Upon assessment of your​ patient, you notice that he has​ cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the​ following? A. Symptom B. Sign C. Diagnosis D. Complaint

B

What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction​ (PTSD)? A. ​Headaches, stomach​ ailments, and a chronic cough B. ​Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment C. Excessive​ sleeping, loss of​ appetite, and distractibility D. Suspicion of​ friends, family,​ coworkers, or patients

B

What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome​ (MERS)? A. Gloves and​ N-95 mask B. ​Gloves, N-95​ mask, goggles, and gown C. ​Gloves, N-95​ mask, and goggles D. Gloves

B

What are the names given to each medication listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia​? A. ​Official, chemical, and generic B. ​Trade, chemical, and generic C. ​Trade, brand, and generic D. ​Manufacturers, general, and governmental

B

What are the signs of​ hypoxia? A. Warm dry​ skin, with difficulty in​ breathing, and hypertension B. Commonly seen as blue or gray​ skin, deterioration of​ patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness C. Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brain and heart that is irreversible D. Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion

B

What are the small bones that make up the wrist​ called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Metatarsals D. Metacarpals

B

What causes the​ "seesaw" breathing pattern of young​ children? A. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in​ adults, making breathing more difficult. B. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. D. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

B

What condition must be present before you give oral​ glucose? A. The patient must not have a history of diabetes. B. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes. C. The​ patient, if​ conscious, must be able to​ swallow; if​ unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue. D. The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes.

B

What is FiO2​? A. The concentration of gases in our expired​ air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygen B. The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled​ air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygen C. The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minute D. The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula

B

What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive​ system? A. Uterus B. Urethra C. Vagina D. Ovaries

B

What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric​ patient? A. 1 minute B. less than 2 seconds C. 3 seconds D. 5 seconds

B

What is a patent​ airway? A. A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure the airway B. A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway necessary for life C. An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway D. The condition of the​ patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention

B

What is another name for the eye​ socket? A. Odontoid process B. Orbit C. Zygomatic arch D. Parietal bone

B

What is another name for the shoulder​ blade? A. Patella B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Pharynx

B

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the​ body? A. Dorsal B. Anterior C. Posterior D. Caudal

B

What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the​ heart? A. Cardiac arrest B. Dysrhythmia C. Pulmonary edema D. Shock

B

What is the best description of the​ chest's mechanical​ functions? A. With the chest being an airtight​ space, the act of breathing occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm and intercostal​ relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs. B. The chest is a closed space with only one​ opening; the​ trachea, to inspire​ air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the​ ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air. C. The diaphragm​ contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also​ contract, which moves the air into the lungs. D. The chest is a closed​ space, and the pleural space surrounds the​ lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals​ expand, the chest and lungs move outward and​ downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.

B

What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic​ stretcher? A. Internal injuries B. Spinal injury C. Hip fracture D. Pelvic injury

B

What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the​ lungs? A. ​Nose, hyperpharynx,​ pharynx, hypopharynx,​ trachea, mainstem​ bronchi, bronchi, alveoli B. ​Nose, nasopharynx,​ pharynx, hypopharynx,​ larynx, trachea,​ bronchi, alveoli C. ​Nose, pharynx,​ hypopharynx, epiglottis,​ trachea, crania, mainstem​ bronchi, alveoli D. ​Mouth, pharynx,​ epiglottis, hypopharynx,​ trachea, mainstem​ bronchi, crania, alveoli

B

What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a​ patient's breathing? A. Depressed alveolar function B. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse C. Bronchospasms D. Hyperoxia

B

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the​ arm? A. Scapula B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius

B

What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially​ life-threatening diseases while on the​ job? A. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act B. Ryan White CARE Act C. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 D. Communicable Disease Notification Act

B

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright​ light? A. Fluttering B. Constriction C. Dilation D. No effect

B

What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair​ chair? A. Only one with the​ track-like chair B. ​Three: two lifting and one spotting C. ​Four: one for each corner of the device D. ​Two: one in front and one in back

B

What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed​ through? A. Venous pressure B. Diastolic blood pressure C. Resting blood pressure D. Systolic blood pressure

B

What is the sound or feel of broken bones rubbing against each other​ called? A. Decapitation B. Crepitation C. Emesis D. Osteomyelitis

B

What law of physics explains why a​ patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a​ tree? A. Law of kinetic energy B. Law of inertia C. Second law of motion D. ​Newton's law of moving energy

B

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a​ patient? A. Decreased depth of​ respiration, decreased rate of​ breathing, hot clammy​ skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to​ breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy​ skin, altered mental status C. Increased effort to​ breathe, increased depth of​ respiration, pink dry​ skin, normal mental status D. Rapid​ breathing, pale​ skin, and a normal mental status

B

What type of blood vessels surround the​ alveoli? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Arteries

B

What word would be used to refer to a​ patient's rapid​ breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Tachypnea C. Tachycardia D. Dyseffusion

B

When assessing a​ patient's pertinent past​ history, you should ask which of the following​ questions? A. Are you currently taking any​ medications? B. Have you been having any medical​ problems? C. Could you describe what​ happened? D. Have you ever had a reaction to a​ medication?

B

When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic​ shock, which of the following is the MOST important service to be provided by the receiving​ hospital? A. Rehabilitation services B. Immediate surgical capabilities C. Availability of a chaplain D. ​Critical-care nursing

B

When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot​ wound, which of the following is​ true? A. Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound. B. The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way. C. The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing. D. The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved.

B

When managing a patient who may hurt himself or​ others, you should do all of the following except​: A. watch for sudden changes in the​ patient's behavior. B. make sure only you and the patient are in the room. C. retreat if the patient becomes threatening. D. keep bystanders a safe distance away.

B

When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being​ lifted, you are using which of the​ following? A. Lock grip B. Power grip C. Vise grip D. Power lift

B

When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile​ patient, what is the highest​ priority? A. Finding out if the patient is oriented to​ person, time, and place B. Performing a scene​ size-up C. Calming the patient down D. Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior

B

When pupils are dilated they​ are: A. elliptical or elongated in shape. B. larger than normal. C. irregularly shaped. D. smaller than normal.

B

When restraining a​ patient, which of the following is NOT a​ consideration? A. How to position the patient B. ​Patient's informed consent C. Number of people available to carry out the required actions D. ​Patient's size and strength

B

When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma​ attack? A. While breathing in B. While breathing out C. While holding his breath D. In between breaths

B

When taking blood​ pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what​ point? A. Until the patient says it hurts B. 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears C. Until the Velcro starts to crackle D. Until the gauge reads 200 mmHg

B

When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three​ things? A. ​Movement, gaze, and equality B. ​Size, equality, and reactivity C. ​Reactivity, gaze, and equality D. ​Color, equality, and reactivity

B

When the heart contracts and forces blood into the​ arteries, the pressure created is known as​ the: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. central venous pressure.

B

When you arrive at the receiving​ facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the​ patient's condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route.​ Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both​ reports? A. Only the physician is permitted read the written patient care report. B. The​ patient's condition may have changed or the nurse​ didn't hear the radio report. C. The nurse cannot make decisions about the patient based on the radio reportport. D. Two verbal reports are always required prior to transferring care.

B

When you give patients​ nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called​ a(n): A. untoward effect. B. side effect. C. indication. D. contraindication.

B

Where should you position the weight of the object being​ lifted? A. As far from the body as possible B. As close to the body as possible C. To one side or the other D. An​ arm's length away from the body

B

Which of the following are the components of the nervous​ system? A. Spinal cord and motor nerves B. ​Brain, spinal​ cord, and nerves C. Brain and autonomic nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves

B

Which of the following BEST describes a base​ station? A. A device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances B. A​ two-way radio at a fixed site C. A​ two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip D. A​ two-way radio mounted in a vehicle

B

Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic​ position? A. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips B. ​Standing, facing​ forward, with arms at the​ side, palms forward C. ​Standing, facing​ forward, with arms raised above the head D. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent

B

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life​ support, even when EMTs in the community carry​ AEDs? A. The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation. B. Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation. C. In cases of refractory or recurrent ventricular​ fibrillation, the use of medications may decrease the chances of defibrillating successfully. D. All of the above

B

Which of the following BEST describes the five​ rights? A. Right​ decision, right​ medication, right​ order, right​ dose, right place B. Right​ patient, right​ medication, right​ time, right​ dose, right route C. In​ date, right​ medication, right​ order, right​ dose, right time D. Right​ patient, right​ medication, in​ date, right​ dose, right route

B

Which of the following BEST describes the location of the​ mid-axillary line? A. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel B. A line from the center of the​ armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest C. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the​ other, across the front of the body D. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

B

Which of the following BEST describes the proper placement of the blood pressure​ cuff? A. Midway between the elbow and shoulder B. Covering​ two-thirds of the upper arm C. One inch below the armpit D. Covering the​ patient's elbow

B

Which of the following BEST describes​ blunt-force trauma? A. The object is not​ sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used. B. An object strikes the​ body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues. C. The object penetrates soft​ tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone. D. A rounded object impacts the body tissues.

B

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral​ emergency? A. Establish control of the situation by a show of force. B. Remain calm and reassure the patient. C. Find out if the​ patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment. D. Quickly perform a​ head-to-toe exam and transport without delay.

B

Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio​ frequencies? A. Transportation Security Administration B. Federal Communications Commission C. United States Department of Transportation D. Federal Trade Commission

B

Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication​ administration? A. The medication is injected under the skin. B. The medication is placed under the tongue. C. The medication is breathed into the​ lungs, such as from an inhaler. D. The medication is swallowed​ whole, not chewed.

B

Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law​ enforcement? A. Your patient is a​ 12-year-old male who fell from his​ bicycle, breaking his left​ arm, and tells you his parents are at work. B. Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver. C. Your patient is an​ 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party. D. You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana.

B

Which of the following increases a scuba​ diver's risk of decompression​ sickness? A. Breathing​ 100% oxygen before a dive B. Flying within several hours after a dive C. Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive D. Diving on a full stomach

B

Which of the following instructions should you give to a patient whom you are about to assist with administering​ epinephrine? A. Insert the mouthpiece and inhale deeply as you depress the canister. B. I am going to inject medication into your thigh. C. Open your mouth and lift your tongue so I can spray this medication under your tongue. D. This is not pleasant​ tasting, but it is important that you drink all of it.

B

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of​ hypoperfusion? A. Cells are not supplied with nutrients. B. Aerobic metabolism will continue in the cell. C. Cellular waste products are not removed. D. Cells are not supplied with oxygen.

B

Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac​ care? A. CPR B. Administration of epinephrine C. Airway management D. Early defibrillation

B

Which of the following is NOT appropriate to document on your patient care​ report? A. ​Patient's mental status B. ​Patient's attitude C. ​Patient's race D. All should be documented

B

Which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in​ EMS? A. Use plain English. B. Speak as quickly as possible. C. Speak with your lips 2 to 3 inches from the microphone. D. Make sure the radio is on before speaking.

B

Which of the following is NOT recommended when controlling​ epistaxis? A. Pinching the nostrils together B. Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose C. Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position D. Keeping the patient calm and quiet

B

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial​ bleeding? A. Steady flow B. Spurting under pressure C. Dark red color D. Both B and C

B

Which of the following is a good indication of an occluded​ airway? A. The patient is crying loudly. B. The patient has snoring respirations. C. The patient is alert. D. The patient is speaking clearly.

B

Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the​ "Stress Triad" as described by the physician Hans​ Selye? A. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes B. Bleeding gastric ulcers C. Atrophy of the adrenal glands D. Amnesia for stressful events

B

Which of the following is acceptable when actively rewarming a hypothermic​ patient? A. Encouraging the patient to exercise B. Applying humidified oxygen C. Warming the patient as quickly as possible D. Giving coffee or brandy to drink

B

Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric​ emergency? A. Go along with the​ patient's hallucinations or false beliefs. B. Make supportive statements such​ as, "That must have been very hard for​ you." C. Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior. D. Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him.

B

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis​ (TB)? A. TB is not spread through surface contamination. B. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure. C. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue. D. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days.

B

Which of the following is another name for an ambulance​ cot? A. Stair chair B. Wheeled ambulance stretcher C. Scoop stretcher D. ​Reeve's stretcher

B

Which of the following is false regarding the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are​ obtained? A. You will be able to compare each set of vital signs with the previous ones to detect trends in the​ patient's condition. B. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record. C. You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility. D. It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on.

B

Which of the following is most likely to keep a rescuer safe and dry during a water rescue through broken​ ice? A. Ladder B. ​Flat-bottomed aluminum boat C. Ring buoy D. ​Jet-ski

B

Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe​ pressure? A. Flowmeter B. Regulator C. Float ball D. Filter

B

Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration​ (NHTSA) for purposes of data collection in conducting​ research? A. ​Patient's name B. Time of arrival at the​ patient's location C. ​Patient's insurance coverage D. Amount charged for ambulance services

B

Which of the following is the LEAST effective method of controlling​ bleeding? A. Hemostatic agent B. Elevation C. Direct pressure D. Tourniquet

B

Which of the following is the best device to deliver​ high-concentration oxygen to a breathing​ patient? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Nasal cannula

B

Which of the following must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external​ bleeding? A. A younger person can tolerate more blood loss than an adult. B. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost. C. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the ground. D. All of the above

B

Which of the following is the correct method of​ suctioning? A. Suction​ continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. C. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth. D. Suction​ intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.

B

Which of the following is the leading cause of internal​ bleeding? A. Penetrating trauma B. Blunt trauma C. Aortic aneurysm D. Crush injury

B

Which of the following is the most common situation in which an EMT may be​ liable? A. Failing to get the receiving​ physician's signature on the patient care report B. Patient refusal of treatment and transport C. Inaccurate recording of times and mileage D. Failure to document all of a​ patient's medications on the patient care report

B

Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with​ administering? A. One spray B. The number of sprays directed by medical control C. Two sprays D. As needed until respiratory status improves

B

Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway​ (NPA)? A. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways. B. The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum. C. If a​ water-soluble lubricant is not​ available, a silicon spray can be substituted. D. It can only be placed in the right nostril.

B

Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental​ oxygen? A. A​ 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics B. A​ 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband C. A​ 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath D. A​ 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy

B

Which of the following patients should not be transported in a stair​ chair? A. Patient who is nauseated B. Patient with a suspected spinal injury C. Patient with difficulty breathing D. Patient found lying in bed

B

Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for​ suicide? A. ​44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness B. ​22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced C. ​Married, 30-year-old man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state D. ​35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness

B

Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the​ EMT? A. Protocols and standing orders B. Scope of practice C. Legal standards of practice D. Professional standards

B

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of​ muscles? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Gas exchange D. Bifurcation

B

Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric​ patient? A. Due to their short​ necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults. B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling. C. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult. D. Gastric distention is unlikely.

B

Which of the following should be placed in quotes in the patient care​ report? A. List of​ patient's medications B. Chief complaint C. ​Patient's expressed consent D. Mechanism of injury

B

Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a​ stretcher? A. Clothing lift B. Extremity lift C. Ground transfer D. Modified direct lift

B

Which of the following signs would you NOT expect to see in a patient suffering from severe​ hypothermia? A. Skin cool to touch B. Shivering C. Drowsiness D. Numbness

B

Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her​ wishes? A. The​ patient's personal physician gives you permission. B. The patient is a threat to himself or others. C. A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient. D. The​ patient's insurance company agrees to​ pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

B

Which of the following spiders can cause a characteristic wound with a bite that is often​ painless? A. Black widow spider B. Brown recluse spider C. Sheet web spider D. Argiope spider

B

Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the​ alveoli? A. Air moves into the​ airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary​ veins, and osmosis occurs. B. Air moves into the​ alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary​ capillaries, and diffusion occurs. C. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary​ capillaries, air arrives at the​ alveoli, and osmosis occurs. D. Blood moves from the left heart to the​ lungs, air arrives in the alveoli​ sacks, and diffusion occurs.

B

Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true​? A. This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. B. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement. C. It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. D. It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.

B

Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true​? A. They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die. B. They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide. C. They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious. D. They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is truly depressed.

B

Which of the following statements is NOT true when you are​ on-scene and treating a patient that appears to be in​ shock? A. Airway management is of top priority. B. It is important to spend​ on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This is more important than rapid transport. C. Prompt transportation is a very high priority. D. The patient should be promptly put on​ high-concentration oxygen.

B

Which of the following statements is true when talking about neurogenic​ shock? A. Neurogenic shock is very common in the field. B. Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries. C. Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with​ blood, causing leaking into the nerves. D. Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size.

B

Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory​ control? A. Mechanical​ failure, soft-tissue​ damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control. B. Medical​ reasons, infections,​ trauma, toxins, and​ drugs, along with neurologic​ disorders, can interrupt this control. C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control. D. A​ medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of​ life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

B

Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is NOT​ true? A. Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others. B. It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. C. Differences in culture may initially appear to be abnormal behaviors to the EMT. D. Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause.

B

Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is​ true? A. Position your feet close together. B. Use your legs to lift. C. Use your back to lift. D. Twist your torso while lifting.

B

Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT​ true? A. It shows you are interested in the patient. B. Eye contact is always appropriate. C. It shows you are confident. D. It shows you are attentive.

B

Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac​ patients? A. Congestive heart failure B. Pedal edema C. Crackles D. Presacral swelling

B

Which of the following traumatic conditions may account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral​ emergency? A. ​10% BSA partial thickness burn B. Internal hemorrhage C. Fractured lumbar vertebra D. Fractured tibia

B

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the​ body? A. Alveoli B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Arterioles

B

Which of the following vessels has the thickest muscular walls that allow constriction and​ dilation? A. Capillaries B. Arteries C. Lymphatic vessels D. Veins

B

Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe​ hypothermia? A. Tachycardia B. Irrational behavior C. Loss of muscle tone D. Rapid respirations

B

Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers​ kneel, curl the patient to their​ chests, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the​ stretcher? A. Power lift B. Direct ground lift C. Direct carry D. ​Draw-sheet method

B

Which one of the following statements is NOT​ true? A. In any given​ year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder. B. It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency. C. Just over​ 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues. D. Almost​ 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression.

B

Which organ is the principal organ of the renal​ system? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra

B

Which three​ "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to​ danger? A. ​Ricochet, recover,​ re-entry B. ​Retreat, radio, reevaluate C. ​Realize, react, reassess D. ​Remember, respect, respond

B

Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent​ adult? A. Implied consent B. Expressed consent C. Unconditional consent D. Conscious consenT

B

While assessing the airway of a pediatric​ patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those​ differences? A. The cricoid cartilage is less​ developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. B. The trachea is​ smaller, softer, and more​ flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed. C. The tongue is​ smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. D. The chest wall is​ softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.

B

While caring for a​ 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds​ ________ breaths per minute. A. 16 B. 30 C. 20 D. 24

B

While transporting a patient to the​ hospital, the EMT repeats his reassessment including vital signs every 15 minutes until he arrives at the emergency department. According to this​ information, which of the following BEST describes your​ patient's current​ status? A. Unstable B. Stable C. Poor D. Not enough information was given to answer this question.

B

Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be​ concise? A. You want to appear professional. B. The emergency department needs to know quickly and accurately the​ patient's condition. C. You want to make sure the doctor approves your medical order request. D. You do not want to bore the nurse receiving your report.

B

You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene​ size-up. This is known as which of the​ following? A. Nature of illness B. Index of suspicion C. Mechanism of injury D. Law of inertia

B

Why is it important to notify medical control as soon as practical about your​ patient's condition? A. It provides legal protection as patient care now becomes their responsibility. B. It allows the receiving facility more time to prepare for your arrival. C. It is common courtesy. D. It minimizes the chance that you will forget to contact medical control.

B

Why would an EMT give aspirin to a​ patient? A. It is given to calm the patient by reducing the pain because stress is the real killer. B. Aspirin reduces the​ blood's ability to clot and works to prevent further clot formation in patients suffering chest pain. C. Aspirin reduces the​ heart's ability to beat fast and works to prevent rapid heart rate. D. Aspirin reduces the pain level in patients who are in pain.

B

You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly​ non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the​ head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the​ patient's head to a neutral position.​ "Why? This is not a pediatric​ patient!" your partner protests. What would you​ say? A. Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. B. It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. C. Using the​ head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion. D. Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning.

B

You and your partner arrive on the scene of a​ 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit​ up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the​ stretcher, you decide to do which of the​ following? A. Use the​ patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher. B. Call for additional manpower to move the patient. C. Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher. D. Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient.

B

You are about to apply a blood pressure cuff to an unconscious patient when you notice that she appears to have a tube underneath the skin of her arm. The tube feels like it has fluid going through it. You​ should: A. continue to take her blood pressure in the arm. B. find another site to measure her blood pressure. C. use an automatic blood pressure cuff instead. D. move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate.

B

You are alone in the back of the​ ambulance, where you are ventilating an apneic patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the​ reassessment? A. Stay on the scene and request additional help so you will have someone to help you perform a reassessment. B. Continue ventilating the patient during transport and skip the reassessment. C. Stop ventilating the patient every 5 minutes so you can perform a reassessment. D. Have your partner stop the ambulance every 5 minutes to help you perform a reassessment.

B

You are approaching a​ 16-year-old male with bright red spurting blood coming from his leg. He is​ screaming, and he begs you to help him. You should​ FIRST: A. assess his airway. B. control the bleeding. C. apply oxygen. D. ask him to calm down.

B

You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with​ "empty-nest syndrome." What age group is this associated​ with? A. Late adulthood B. Middle adulthood C. School age D. Early adulthood

B

You are assessing a​ 21-year-old female who was assaulted by an unknown person. She is complaining of abdominal pain. As you perform a rapid assessment of her​ abdomen, you should check for all of the following except​: A. distention. B. bowel sounds. C. contusions. D. firmness.

B

You are at the scene where a​ 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your​ arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of​ trauma, has​ vomited, and has​ slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Check for carotid and radial pulses. B. Open the​ patient's airway using a​ head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. C. Assist respirations with a​ bag-valve-mask device. D. Determine the respiratory rate.

B

You are called for a patient who reports a headache for several days. He tells you that he has started a new blood pressure medication and is finishing an antibiotic for a skin infection. During your history​ taking, you​ should: A. get your patient to repeat his chief complaint. B. write down the pertinent facts. C. suggest that he take some aspirin. D. suspect an allergic reaction.

B

You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety​ by: A. using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. B. remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out. C. borrowing turnout gear from the fire department. D. putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.

B

You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the​ patient's mouth and nose. During​ assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient​ says, "Don't​ worry, I'm not contagious.​ I've had this cough for a​ year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A. Use gloves for​ PPE, as​ that's all​ that's needed. B. Mask yourself and the patient. C. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask. D. Mask yourself only.

B

You are called to a​ 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of​ 140/92. Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. Her condition is​ called: A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. prehypertension. D. hypotension.

B

You are called to the scene of an attempted suicide. You arrive to find a​ 25-year-old man sitting on the sofa who apparently cut his wrists. Family members have bandaged​ them, and there does not appear to be any bleeding risk at this time. The scene is secure. Which action would you NOT take in treating this​ patient? A. Contact the receiving hospital and report on current mental status and other essential information. B. Make sure you take charge of the situation. Let the patient know that what he has done is wrong. Tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not. Do not worry about gaining the​ patient's confidence. Take charge. The patient must know that you are the boss. C. As soon as​ possible, perform a history and physical exam and provide emergency care on the​ wrist, if necessary. D. Perform a detailed physical exam only if it is safe and you suspect the patient may have an injury.

B

You are called to the scene of a​ 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is​ diaphoretic, and complains of being​ cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of​ 110/70, heart rate of​ 116, respiratory rate of​ 24, oxygen saturation of​ 93%, and temperature of​ 100.6°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up​ yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. COPD D. Silent myocardial infarction

B

You are caring for a woman who sustained a head injury as a result of a domestic dispute. You suspect she has a closed head injury since she cannot remember what happened and one of her pupils is slightly larger than the other. You have been monitoring her vital signs every 5 minutes and you see that her blood pressure is rising and her pulse is dropping. This part of the assessment is​ called: A. modified secondary assessment. B. trending. C. crisis management. D. intervention check.

B

You are caring for a​ 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular​ system, you know he could be suffering from​ damage, narrowing, or blockage of what​ arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries

B

You are dispatched for a patient with chest pain. Your patient tells you that she has had shortness of breath and chest pain for about 20 minutes. Which of the following will give you the best information regarding your​ patient's chest pain​ symptoms? A. Do you have a history of chest​ pain? B. Describe how the pain feels. C. Have you taken your medications​ correctly? D. Is the pain in your chest a sharp​ pain?

B

You are dispatched to the staging area of a​ terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT​ on-board an​ ambulance, what statement BEST describes your​ role? A. Triage patients to be decontaminated. B. Transport decontaminated patients. C. Coordinate hazmat response. D. Transport patients to be decontaminated.

B

You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to​ him? A. His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue. B. He is not only putting his life at​ risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk. C. He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money. D. The​ patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him.

B

You are first on the scene of a​ 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is​ effective? A. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute. B. ​Patient's pulse returns to normal. C. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. D. ​Patient's skin color remains the same.

B

You are on a call of a minor vehicle accident. Your patient is a​ 22-year-old male who was the driver of a moderate​ T-Bone collision. The patient was not wearing a seat belt and there was spidering of the windshield. The patient complains of neck pain and has a scalp laceration. After performing the primary​ assessment, you take vital signs and bandage the​ patient's scalp. When you tell him you need to backboard​ him, he refuses care and ambulance transport. Because the person is alert and oriented to​ time, place, and​ person, you have the patient sign the separate patient refusal form provided by your service. How should you document this incident in your EMS​ report? A. You should only document what treatment you performed before the patient refused treatment. B. You should document everything including all patient​ care, all of your attempts to persuade the patient to go by​ ambulance, and who witnessed the patient refusal. C. You should document your patient care and then simply document that the patient was informed of the risks prior to his refusal. Anything extra is unnecessary and wastes time. D. No report is needed because the patient refused transport and signed the refusal.

B

You are on the scene of a person down. You arrive at a college dormitory and find a​ 21-year-old patient lying supine on the​ floor, unresponsive. The patient is​ "guppy" breathing at 5 times a​ minute, has a strong radial pulse at 110 beats per​ minute, and has vomited on himself. Friends state they went out to dinner and a party. They returned to change clothes for another party and he never came out of his room. Your partner suctions the​ patient, inserts an oropharyngeal​ airway, and ventilates the patient with a​ bag-valve mask with​ high-concentration oxygen. You listen to lung sounds and there are coarse rhonchi bilaterally. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Severe meningitis B. Aspiration C. Overdose D. Status asthmaticus

B

You are responding to a​ 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. The patient is on home oxygen by nasal cannula at 1 lpm. The patient has diminished lung sounds bilaterally with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Congestive heart failure B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Asthma D. Bronchitis

B

You are on the scene of an unresponsive adult female patient. You find an empty pill bottle lying next to her bed. You look up the medication in your field guide and discover the medication is a powerful sedative. The prescription on the bottle is for the​ patient's husband, who is not present to answer questions about the medication. What should you​ do? A. Document the empty pill bottle. It is obvious that she took the pills. B. Document the empty pill bottle. It may provide important clues to the​ patient's condition. C. Do not document the empty pill bottle. It does not belong to the patient. D. Do not document the empty pill bottle. You cannot prove that she took the pills and could lead the doctor to make a false diagnosis.

B

You are on the scene of a​ 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma. After placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary​ assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. How can you be sure your field diagnosis is​ accurate? A. Keep your EMT textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis. B. Think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings. C. Ask your partner her​ opinion; if she also agrees that it is​ asthma, the diagnosis is correct. D. Constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct.

B

You are on the scene of a​ 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once. You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal. How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the​ medication? A. Activated charcoal will inactivate the​ patient's stomach acid. B. Activated charcoal will bind to the​ medication, reducing absorption. C. Activated charcoal will coat the​ intestines, preventing absorption. D. Activated charcoal will cause the patient to vomit the medication.

B

You are on the scene of a​ 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing your physical​ examination, you contact medical control and are ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Five minutes after taking his​ nitroglycerin, the patient complains of being dizzy and having a headache. You lie the patient down on the stretcher and reassess his vital signs. He is now hypotensive. The patient is suffering​ from: A. an untoward reaction to nitroglycerin. B. the side effects of nitroglycerin. C. an allergic reaction to nitroglycerin. D. an anaphylactic reaction to nitroglycerin.

B

You are on the scene of a​ 5-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a​ "seal bark"-sounding cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared. The patient has stable vital signs. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. After performing your primary​ assessment, what is your best treatment​ option? A. Provide oxygen by BVM. B. Calm the child as much as possible and provide oxygen by​ blow-by. C. Use a tongue depressor to examine the​ patient's mouth to determine whether the patient has strep throat or croup. D. Provide​ high-concentration oxygen and have the parent hold it to the​ patient's face.

B

You are on the scene of a​ 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states it feels​ "just like the last​ time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is 5 minutes​ away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes​ away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his​ cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best​ destination? A. The nearest facility B. The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization C. The hospital the patient requests D. The trauma center

B

You are responding to a nursing home for an​ 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this​ patient? A. Stand near the head of the bed and shout to make sure the patient can hear you. B. Place yourself at​ eye-level, identify​ yourself, and ask the patient what she would like to be called. C. Sit on the foot of the bed and ask the patient​ what's up. D. Pick up the​ patient's wrist and begin taking her pulse.

B

You are transporting a​ 20-year-old soccer player who injured his ankle during a match. His injury appears to be isolated and he has no significant past medical history. How frequently should you perform a reassessment on this​ patient? A. 5 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 30 minutes

B

You are transporting a​ 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is​ agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best​ option? A. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient. B. Use a nasal cannula instead. C. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation. D. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.

B

You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this​ patient? A. His pain will be reduced with aspirin. B. His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs. C. His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin. D. His pain will go away with oxygen.

B

You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the​ patient? A. ​Semi-Fowler position B. Recovery position C. Supine D. Fowler position

B

You are treating a​ 57-year-old male for chest pain. You have gathered all pertinent history of present​ illness, completed two sets of vital​ signs, talked with medical​ direction, and assisted the patient with two doses of his nitroglycerin. Determination of whether or not the nitroglycerin was effective is assessed during​ the: A. primary assessment. B. reassessment. C. secondary assessment. D. primary and secondary assessment.

B

You are ventilating an adult patient with a​ bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting bigger. You​ should: A. decrease the flow of oxygen. B. reduce the force and volume of ventilations. C. apply pressure to the abdomen. D. suction the airway.

B

You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the​ captain's chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most​ likely? A. The bends B. Air embolism C. ​Caisson's disease D. Decompression sickness

B

You care caring for a patient that looks at you as you approach. Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to​ end? A. Patient​ priority, general​ impression, mental​ status, airway,​ breathing, circulation B. General​ impression, mental​ status, airway,​ breathing, circulation, patient priority C. Mental​ status, general​ impression, airway,​ breathing, circulation, patient priority D. None of the above

B

You enter a room to find a​ 16-year-old female sitting upright in a chair with her back​ straight, leaning​ forward, and her arms supporting her. She is having a hard time talking to you. You should​ suspect: A. abdominal pain. B. respiratory distress. C. allergic reaction. D. chest discomfort.

B

You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the​ patient's unresponsiveness? A. Check the​ patient's blood sugar to rule out hypoglycemia. B. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident. C. Look for a Glasgow Coma Scale score that is less than 8. D. Examine the patient for signs of trauma.

B

You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a​ 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and​ cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done​ first? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway. B. Open the​ patient's airway using a manual maneuver. C. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. D. Apply​ high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

B

You have responded for a patient with shortness of breath. He reports that his breathing problems began this morning and have gotten worse over the last few hours. You ask if he has taken anything to help his symptoms and he tells you that he has used his inhaler several times in the last hour. The information you have just gathered can be classified​ as: A. results of a rapid physical exam. B. the history of present illness. C. A complete SAMPLE history. D. relevant past medical history.

B

You have responded to a call at a government office building. One of the office workers became very upset during a fire drill and experienced an episode of difficulty breathing. As your partner is speaking with the​ patient, who is not sure she wants to be​ transported, an individual wearing civilian clothes approaches you and states she is a security guard in the building. She asks you for the​ "yellow copy" of your patient care report. Which of the following should you​ do? A. Ask the patient if it is alright with her if you provide the individual with a copy of the patient care report. B. State that you are unable to comply with the request due to patient confidentiality. C. Get permission from medical control. D. Provide the documentation if the individual shows proper identification.

B

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find the​ 16-year-old patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. What is your first​ action? A. Apply​ high-concentration oxygen by​ bag-valve mask. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Insert a Combitube. D. Apply​ high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

B

You respond to the scene of a​ 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a​ "little sick" for the past two days but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has​ "heart problems," suffers from high blood​ pressure, and takes a​ "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles​ (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory​ distress? A. Pneumonia B. Congestive heart failure C. Influenza D. Aortic aneurysm

B

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a​ 22-year-old female patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The​ patient's friends state they were diving when she unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away and the nearest specialty resource center with a hyperbaric chamber is 30 minutes away. What is the best decision when determining​ transport? A. Transport the patient by air medical to the nearest facility. B. Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center. C. Transport the patient to the nearest facility. D. Remain on scene until ALS personnel arrive.

B

You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory​ sounds? A. Tongue blocking the airway B. Fluids in the airway C. Cardiac arrest D. Complete airway obstruction

B

You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured​ 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST describes this​ finding? A. Normal for the​ child's age B. Tachycardic C. Unable to determine without knowing the family history D. Bradycardic

B

You respond to a medical call for a​ 59-year-old female complaining of tightness in her chest. You place her on a high concentration of oxygen and prepare for a short​ 5-minute transport to the hospital. The patient tells you she is on​ nitroglycerin, which she has not taken. Your partner tells you that you can give aspirin per protocol. Should you delay the patient transport to give the medication and​ why? A. ​No, any delay will cause the patient more​ stress; she needs to be in a definitive care facility. B. ​Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood​ flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process. C. ​No, any delay will cause the patient more heart​ damage; each delay weakens the myocardium. D. ​Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the heart to beat stronger and restore some blood​ flow, and the aspirin will ease the pain.

B

You respond to a middle school for a​ 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the​ parents? A. Res ipsa loquitur B. In loco parentis C. Informed consent D. Healthcare proxy

B

You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a patient with an altered mental status and angulated left​ femur; the other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do​ next? A. Apply a traction splint. B. Request ALS personnel. C. Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician. D. Perform a detailed physical exam.

B

You respond to a​ 30-month-old patient who has passed out. Is the​ patient's blood pressure important to your treatment and​ why? A. ​Yes, blood pressure must be taken on everyone because without it we cannot impact the​ patient's field management. B. ​No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the​ patient's field management. C. ​Yes, blood pressure can be taken on children because it is the only way we can understand the​ patient's condition. D. ​No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 can cause damage to the tender tissues of the arm that could lead to hypertension in later life.

B

You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the​ following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. ​Driver's license D. ​On-call Medical Director

B

Your partner asks why EMTs should avoid use of medical terminology when communicating with most patients. What should you tell​ her? A. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is​ new, she should just take your advice and apply it. B. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear​ understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. C. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being​ egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. D. Tell her that the general public​ isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be​ "dumbed down" when talking to patients.

B

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A​ 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported​ to: A. an urgent care center. B. a trauma center. C. the closest hospital. D. a neurosurgery center.

B

Your patient has attempted suicide by slitting his wrists. You notice that he has run the knife across his​ wrist, perpendicular to the​ arm, and that the wound is not deep. Which of the following statements is true regarding the likelihood for serious blood​ loss? A. You should expect severe blood loss. B. Blood loss is probably not​ life-threatening. C. There is most likely tremendous internal blood loss. D. A tourniquet will probably be necessary.

B

Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and​ oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this​ situation? A. Area exam B. Focused exam C. Detailed physical exam D. Rapid trauma exam

B

Your patient is an unresponsive​ 40-year-old woman. Which of the following should you do immediately after the primary​ assessment? A. Ask her husband if she has any known allergies. B. Perform a rapid physical exam. C. Take her blood pressure. D. Determine the​ patient's past medical history.

B

Your patient is a​ 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an​ 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and​ bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do​ now? A. Apply additional dressing​ material, bandage it in​ place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent. C. Remove the pressure dressing and​ bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved​ hand, and elevate the arm. D. Remove the pressure dressing and​ bandage, apply an ice pack to the​ wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage.

B

Nitroglycerin is indicated for which of the following chief complaints? A) Decreased level of consciousness B) Chest pain C) Headache D) Difficulty breathing

B) Chest pain

Your patient is a​ 22-year-old college student complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and​ oriented, although somewhat uncomfortable. Which of the following should be your first​ action? A. Perform a rapid​ head-to-toe physical examination. B. Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints. C. Take the​ patient's roommate aside and ask about the​ patient's medical history. D. Palpate the​ patient's abdomen for tenderness and guarding.

B

Your patient is a​ 22-year-old female that accidentally ate some shellfish and is now having a severe reaction. She tells you that the last time she ate​ shellfish, "they had to put a breathing tube in my throat and I almost​ died." Her face is starting to swell up and you can hear audible wheezing when she breathes. The chemical that produces edema and narrowing of the airways during hypersensitivity reactions like this is​ called: A. serotonin. B. histamine. C. insulin. D. acetylcholine.

B

Your patient is a​ 22-year-old male who has ingested a large amount of alcohol and is vomiting. He is conscious but uncooperative. He allows you to examine him but refuses transport to the hospital. You have sought assistance from law enforcement on scene. Which of the following is the BEST​ action? A. Obtain a witnessed refusal. B. Contact medical control for further advice. C. Stay with the patient until he has stopped vomiting. D. Find a relative or neighbor to come over and stay with the patient.

B

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he​ can't "handle the​ pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this​ patient's care? A. Respect the​ patient's wishes; he is​ alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent. B. Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. C. Contact the​ patient's family to find out what their wishes are. D. Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation.

B

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail​ beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST​ option? A. Have your partner restrain the​ patient's hands so you can ventilate her. B. Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed. C. Wait for the level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. D. Obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs.

B

Your patient is a​ 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. Bleeding is significant and difficult to control. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper management of this​ patient? A. Use of a tourniquet B. Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water C. Using direct pressure to control the bleeding D. Administering oxygen

B

Your patient is a​ 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has​ active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is​ awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per​ minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per​ minute, and a blood pressure of​ 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of steps in the management of this​ patient? A. ​High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the​ extremity, and application of ice B. Direct​ pressure, high-concentration​ oxygen, and splinting the leg C. Cervical spine​ immobilization, high-concentration​ oxygen, direct​ pressure, and pressure point compression D. ​High-concentration oxygen,​ tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity

B

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon​ arrival, the patient is​ pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he​ needs? A. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his​ diet, have him take an​ antacid, and go to bed. B. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. C. Call the​ patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the​ patient's house but he is now refusing care. D. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to​ treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially​ life-threatening problem.

B

Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries? A) Arteriosclerosis B) Coronary artery disease C) Coronary thrombosis D) Aneurysm

B) Coronary artery disease

Your patient is a​ 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of​ breath, leaning forward to​ breathe, a productive​ cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this​ patient? A. You should increase the​ patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. B. You should increase the​ patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate​ decreases, you can assist him with a​ bag-valve-mask device. C. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to​ breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. D. You should not increase the​ patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

B

Your patient is a​ 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per​ protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be​ documented? A. Expiration date of the medication B. ​Patient's response to the medication C. Chemical name of the medication D. All of the above

B

Your patient is a​ 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You​ should: A. administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula. B. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen. C. insert a nasal airway and ventilate. D. suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.

B

Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You​ should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. B. roll him over onto his side to clear the airway. C. move the patient to the ambulance and suction. D. perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs.

B

Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is​ called: A. infiltration. B. subcutaneous emphysema. C. crepitus. D. friction rub.

B

Your​ 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly​ deteriorated, she is now​ unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her​ airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be​ the: A. Trendelenburg position. B. recovery position. C. prone position. D. Fowler position.

B

Your​ patient's initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and​ weak, a blood pressure of​ 90/50 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. Upon​ reassessment, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per​ minute, a blood pressure of​ 110/60 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 20 per minute. Which of the following can you conclude from this​ information? A. The patient will survive. B. The​ patient's condition may be improving. C. The baseline vital signs were inaccurate. D. You can transport the patient to a lower level trauma center.

B

________ is reassessing and recording findings of the reassessment so they can be compared to earlier findings. A. CQI B. Trending C. Averaging D. Analysis

B

What is the first step in giving aerosol medications? A) Contact medical control to receive permission to give the medication. B) Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient. C) Make sure the patient is suffering from asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis. D) Complete the primary assessment and take vital signs.

B) Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.

The EMT, after administering any medication, must do which of the following? A) Reconsider the five rights, reassess the patient, and contact medical control. B) Document the administration, reassess the patient, and report to the receiving facility. C) Wait 5 minutes, repeat the medication if needed, and reassess the patient's vitals. D) Document the route, dose, and time; reassess the patient; and re-administer the medication.

B) Document the administration, reassess the patient, and report to the receiving facility.

Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1

B) 3

Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing? A) Wheezing noises when breathing B) Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life C) Breathing slower than normal D) Breathing faster than normal

B) Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life

Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious, is using increased effort during expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress? A) COPD B) Epiglottitis C) Pertussis D) Pneumonia

B) Epiglottitis

Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) include which of the following? A) Audible rhonchi B) History of pulmonary fibrosis C) History of obstructive sleep apnea D) Audible wheezing

B) History of pulmonary fibrosis

Which of the following instructions should you give to a patient whom you are about to assist with administering epinephrine? A) Insert the mouthpiece and inhale deeply as you depress the canister. B) I am going to inject medication into your thigh. C) Open your mouth and lift your tongue so I can spray this medication under your tongue. D) This is not pleasant tasting, but it is important that you drink all of it.

B) I am going to inject medication into your thigh.

Which of the following observations indicate that your patient may have overused his prescription inhaler? A) Decreased level of consciousness B) Nervousness C) Increased secretions from the airway D) Decreased heart rate

B) Nervousness

Which of the following is often prescribed for a patient with a heart condition? A) Ventolin B) Nitroglycerin C) An epinephrine auto-injector D) Non-aspirin pain relievers such as Tylenol

B) Nitroglycerin

Which of the following is an example of a medication's trade name? A) Epinephrine B) Nitrostat C) 4 dihydroxyphenyl acetate D) Oxygen

B) Nitrostat

Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest? A) Pulseless electrical activity of the heart B) Palpitations C) Dysrhythmia D) Tachycardia

B) Palpitations

Epinephrine delivered by auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following conditions? A) Drug overdose B) Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings C) Chest pain D) Chronic pulmonary diseases .

B) Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings

Which breath sound is the EMT most likely to hear when caring for an adult male with a partial airway obstruction that occurred while eating steak? A) Rhonchi B) Stridor C) Wheezes D) Crackles

B) Stridor

Which of the following is TRUE concerning expiration? A) The chest cavity increases in size. B) The diaphragm moves upward. C) The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. D) The ribs move upward and outward.

B) The diaphragm moves upward.

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited? A) The patient does not currently take aspirin. B) The patient has a history of asthma. C) The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg. D) None of the above

B) The patient has a history of asthma.

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a pulse? A) Ventricular tachycardia B) Ventricular fibrillation C) Bradycardia D) Tachycardia

B) Ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? A) Crowing B) Wheezing C) Stridor D) Snoring

B) Wheezing

You respond to a medical call for a 59-year-old female complaining of tightness in her chest. You place her on a high concentration of oxygen and prepare for a short 5-minute transport to the hospital. The patient tells you she is on nitroglycerin, which she has not taken. Your partner tells you that you can give aspirin per protocol. Should you delay the patient transport to give the medication and why? A) No, any delay will cause the patient more heart damage; each delay weakens the myocardium. B) Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process. C) Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the heart to beat stronger and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will ease the pain. D) No, any delay will cause the patient more stress; she needs to be in a definitive care facility.

B) Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process.

A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have ________ respirations. A) Kussmaul's B) agonal C) central neurologic D) Cheyne-Stokes

B) agonal

The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are called: A) contraindications. B) indications. C) side effects. D) untoward effects.

B) indications

The study of the effects of medications on the body in relation to age and weight is called: A) pharmacology. B) pharmacodynamics. C) measurement and documentation. D) pharmacokinetics.

B) pharmacodynamics

When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around him, this would be considered which of the following? Answer Mental illness Psychotic episode Behavioral emergency Psychosomatic reaction

Behavioral emergency

You have just arrived at an airport terminal where an airport employee has applied an AED to a patient who collapsed inside the gate area. The AED delivers the third shock as you place your equipment on the floor next to the patient. Which of the following should you do next? Answer Have your partner begin CPR. Administer three more shocks. Prepare the patient for transport. Both A & C .

Both A & C

Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed patient? Answer Establish eye and verbal contact. Avoid arguing with the patient. Make it clear that you are in control of the situation, not the patient. Both A and B

Both A and B

Which of the following types of drugs may induce sleep or stupor? Answer Tranquilizers Narcotics Hallucinogens Both A and B

Both A and B

Automatic defibrillation is not appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the following? Answer Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient. The energy delivered by the AED is not appropriate to a smaller patient. Both A and B are correct. Neither A nor B is correct.

Both A and B are correct.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of epinephrine? Answer Pallor Vomiting Bradycardia Chest pain

Bradycardia

Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has been exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following measures should be taken by the EMT? Answer Wipe the powder away with a damp cloth. Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with a solution of baking soda and water. Flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water. Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.

Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.

14) Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? A) Protect and stabilize the patient B) Communicate with other responders on the scene C) Maintain personal health and safety D) Provide emergency care Answer:

C

17) Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath Answer:

C

18) Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? A) Traffic director B) Law enforcement C) All crew members D) Triage officer Answer:

C

19) Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? A) Guardian B) Assistant C) Advocate D) Representative Answer:

C

21) Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? A) Nonjudgmental and fair B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds C) Ability to speak clearly D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations Answer:

C

26) What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in? A) Rural/wilderness settings B) Ambulance services C) Hospitals D) Fire departments Answer:

C

27) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following? A) An education curriculum for EMT courses B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services Answer:

C

29) Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies Answer:

C

30) After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? A) Patient advocacy B) Transfer of care C) Quality improvement D) Continuing education Answer:

C

34) The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following? A) On-line medical direction B) Standards of care C) Standing orders D) Breach of duty Answer:

C

35) Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? A) Standing orders B) On-line medical direction C) Protocols D) Standard operating procedures Answer:

C

38) You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A) subordinate B) employee C) designated agent D) extension Answer:

C

39) A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages? A) Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B) Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. C) Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. D) Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side-by-side to the regular bandages. Answer:

C

4) Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A) Emergency preparedness plan B) Trauma system C) Resource management D) Central deployment Answer:

C

40) You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints? A) It is good practice for the next emergency call. B) It makes the taxpayers happy. C) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS. D) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night. Answer:

C

5) Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA) Answer:

C

9) Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? A) Data display 911 B) Priority dispatch 911 C) Enhanced 911 D) Advanced 911 Answer:

C

A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than​ ________ feet. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 8

C

A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT. A. repeated B. complete C. accurate D. unbiased

C

All of the following can result in upper airway​ obstructions, except​: A. infections. B. burns. C. severe bronchoconstriction. D. facial trauma.

C

Allowing a​ patient's body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the​ following? A. Natural rewarming B. Active rewarming C. Passive rewarming D. Core rewarming

C

An EMT involved in an especially difficult​ call, such as one in which a coworker was​ killed, should be urged​ to: A. begin a course of psychiatric medications. B. conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially. C. seek help from a trained mental health professional. D. discuss the experience freely with coworkers.

C

An approximate normal systolic blood pressure can be calculated for infants and children by using which of the following​ formulas? A. 120 minus 2 times the age in years B. 80 times 2 plus the age in years C. 80 plus 2 times the age in years D. 120 plus 2 times the age in years

C

An artery is a blood vessel that​ only: A. carries deoxygenated blood. B. returns blood to the heart. C. carries blood away from the heart. D. carries oxygenated blood.

C

An​ EMT's assessment differs from an assessment made in the emergency department in which​ way? A. The emergency physician is concerned with scene safety. B. An​ EMT's focus is on life threats first. C. The EMT is working with more limited resources. D. Time is available in the emergency department to make a diagnosis.

C

An​ off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a​ doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is​ true? A. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. B. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. D. The EMT is not negligent because she had a​ doctor's appointment.

C

As an​ EMT, your BEST clue indicating the possibility of internal bleeding may be the presence​ of: A. ​bruising, swelling, or pain over vital organs. B. ​painful, swollen, or deformed extremities. C. mechanism of injury. D. the absence of a​ tender, rigid, or distended abdomen.

C

At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent​ hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger​ zone? A. The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions. B. The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions. C. The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions. D. There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.

C

A​ 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school.​ She's taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the​ ________ in her​ blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain. A. albumin B. white blood cells C. hemoglobin D. plasma

C

A​ child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an​ adult's. A. epiglottis B. cricoid cartilage C. tongue D. trachea

C

Concerning attempted​ suicide, which of the following statements is true​? A. There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. B. Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note. C. All suicide attempts must be taken​ seriously, even if the method seems insincere. D. Attempted suicide is a matter for law​ enforcement, not EMS.

C

For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination​ appropriate? A. A​ 19-year-old female with a history of epilepsy and who is found only responsive to painful stimuli by her roommate B. A​ 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son C. A​ 25-year-old female with a history of asthma and who is complaining of difficulty breathing D. A​ 70-year-old male with dementia whose caretaker called because he​ "didn't seem like himself​ today"

C

For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory​ status? A. ​92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side B. ​24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain C. ​3-year-old child with a fever and cough D. ​50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain

C

Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B​ ________ available to employees free of charge. A. cure B. immunity C. vaccine D. prophylaxis

C

Heat stroke is caused by which of the following​ mechanisms? A. ​Heat-induced swelling of brain tissue B. Blockage of blood flow to the brain C. Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms D. Extreme dilation of all the blood vessels

C

How many pounds are most​ battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely​ lift? A. 200 B. 500 C. 700 D. 300

C

If a hole is created in the chest​ wall, air could escape or be drawn​ in, or if bleeding develops within the​ chest, air and blood can accumulate in the pleural space. This would force the lung​ to: A. work harder with minimal problems. B. increase respirations. C. collapse. D. increase the minute volume.

C

In relation to​ anatomy, the term topography​ means: A. blood pressure fluctuations. B. the study of the skin. C. external landmarks of body structures. D. key elements of the central nervous system.

C

In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented patient care report NOT​ necessary? A. A patient says that someone else called EMS and he does not want any assistance. B. A fully documented patient care report is required for all of the above. C. Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation. D. A patient is treated but not transported.

C

In which of the following circumstances is manual stabilization of the cervical spine ALWAYS​ necessary? A. Penetrating trauma B. Blunt trauma C. Trauma above the level of the clavicles D. Trauma to the lower extremities

C

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse​ palpated? A. Behind the knee B. On the medial side of the upper arm C. At the groin D. On the medial side of the​ ankle, posterior to the tibia

C

In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook​? A. Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision B. Patient with a suspected infectious disease C. Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool D. Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence

C

In which of the following ways does the body produce heat in response to being​ cold? A. Burning fewer calories B. Excreting more urine C. Shivering D. Increasing the respiratory rate

C

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide​ ________. A. a faster response time to the scene B. more efficient breaths C. ​high-quality compressions D. a​ 100% success rate

C

Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Document the order in writing before carrying it out. B. Prepare the medication and then call the hospital back to​ re-confirm the order. C. Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly. D. Administer the medication without delay.

C

Most radiant heat is lost through which part of the​ body? A. Hands and feet B. Buttocks C. Head D. Torso

C

One's "cognitive​ ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the​ following? A. Use fine motor skills B. Adapt to stress C. Think and solve problems D. Control his or her emotions

C

Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of​ metabolism? A. Lactic acid B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbolic acid

C

Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the​ following? A. Sterile saline solution B. Gasoline or kerosene C. Vinegar D. Cold water

C

Regarding drowning in​ adults, which of the following statements is true​? A. Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning. B. Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. C. The colder the​ water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. D. The warmer the​ water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning.

C

Shock is the circulatory​ system's failure to provide sufficient blood and oxygen to all the​ body's tissues. Which of the answers is NOT a major type of​ shock? A. Hemorrhagic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypervolemic D. Hypovolemic

C

Slight movement of the chest during respiration is usually indicative of which of the​ following? A. Normal breathing B. Labored breathing C. Shallow breathing D. Noisy breathing

C

Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds​ (or more) are​ called: A. ​battery-powered stretchers. B. wheeled stretchers. C. bariatric stretchers. D. hydraulic stretchers.

C

Stroke volume depends on a series of​ factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known​ as: A. preload. B. automaticity. C. contractility. D. afterload.

C

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act​ (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following except​: A. safeguard patient confidentiality. B. place patient care reports in a locked box. C. report child abuse. D. All of the above are required by HIPAA.

C

The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the​ EMT? A. Duty to act B. Standard of care C. Scope of practice D. None of the above

C

The ambulance is called for an assaulted patient. While transporting the patient to the​ hospital, the EMT notes the​ patient's jugular veins are flat​ (nondistended). Which of these is most likely the cause of this​ finding? A. Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac B. Closed head injury C. Blood loss D. High blood pressure

C

The​ EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the​ following? A. Legal responsibility B. Scope of practice C. Duty to act D. Standard of care

C

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following​ mechanisms? A. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs B. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta D. None of the above

C

The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins​ is: A. nucleus. B. sodium pump. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.

C

The layer of covering that protects the nervous system is called​ the: A. skull. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. meninges. D. spinal column.

C

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for​ depolarization? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Sodium potassium pump D. Endoplasmic reticulum

C

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is​ called: A. osmosis. B. internal respiration. C. pulmonary​ (external) respiration. D. cellular respiration.

C

The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two​ gases? A. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen

C

The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his​ chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction from the rest of the chest. Which of the following BEST describes this​ finding? A. Flutter segment B. Intercostal retractions C. Paradoxical movement D. Tension pneumothorax

C

The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known​ as: A. clinical thinking. B. differential thinking. C. critical thinking. D. diagnostic thinking.

C

The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is​ called: A. respiration. B. catabolism. C. metabolism. D. depolarization.

C

The process of air moving in and out of the chest is​ called: A. tidal volume. B. inhalation. C. ventilation. D. respiration.

C

The purpose of a constricting band after a venomous snake bite is to impede the flow of which of the​ following? A. Lymph B. Arterial blood C. Venom D. Both A and C

C

The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80​ mg/dL to a high​ of: A. 90 to 100. B. 110 to 130. C. 120 to 140. D. 100 to 120.

C

The respiratory system moves air in and​ out; however, to​ ________ cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. A. defuse B. register C. perfuse D. hyperoxygenate

C

The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is​ ________ psi. A. ​1,000 B. 300 C. 200 D. 500

C

The seat of respiratory control is found in​ the: A. lungs. B. chest. C. medulla oblongata. D. nose.

C

The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any​ lift? A. The​ object, patient​ injury, and communication B. ​Equipment, patient​ injury, and communication C. The​ object, your​ limitations, and communication D. ​Environment, physical​ limitations, and communication

C

There are general rules when dealing with psychiatric emergencies. Which of the following is NOT one of those rules and would be considered​ inappropriate? A. Identify yourself and your role. B. Listen to the patient. You can show you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. C. Never make eye contact with the​ patient, as it will just increase his nervousness. D. Speak slowly and​ clearly, using a calm and reassuring tone.

C

The​ "Stress Triad," or the​ body's response to a stressful​ stimulation, is known as general​ ________ syndrome. A. incident B. reaction C. adaptation D. resistance

C

Today patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving​ to: A. infancy. B. older adulthood. C. adulthood. D. toddler years.

C

Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. A​ 50-year-old patient passed out and cut his lip. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to urgent care instead. The patient agrees and signs a refusal form. The patient dies from sudden cardiac arrest at home the following day. Which of the following statements is​ true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. B. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. C. The EMTs may be negligent if there is evidence of proximate cause. D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the​ patient's medical condition.

C

Under what circumstance should a reassessment NOT be​ performed? A. The patient has​ life-threatening injuries. B. The patient does not receive a secondary assessment. C. Ongoing lifesaving interventions are required. D. The patient is being transported to a hospital close to his home.

C

Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen​ with: A. nitrogen. B. humidified air. C. inhaled air. D. carbon monoxide.

C

Vital signs should be reassessed every​ ________ minutes for a stable patient. A. 5 B. 20 C. 15 D. 10

C

Water that is found in the space between cells and blood vessels is​ called: A. hydrostatic. B. intravascular. C. interstitial. D. intracellular.

C

What are the three ways to take blood​ pressure? A. ​Auscultation, palpation, and osculation B. ​Sphygmomanometer, blood pressure​ monitor, and heart monitor C. ​Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor D. ​Sphygmomanometer, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

C

What device is used to perform​ mouth-to-mask ventilation? A. ​Bag-valve mask B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pocket face mask D. Stoma

C

What does distention refer to when describing your​ patient's abdomen? A. Harder than normal B. Softer than normal C. Larger than normal D. Having a​ sunken-in appearance

C

What is the reason for giving an epinephrine​ auto-injector in a​ life-threatening allergic​ reaction? A. It will help dilate the​ patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages. B. It will help raise the​ patient's blood pressure and slow the heart rate. C. It will help constrict the​ patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages. D. It will constrict the​ patient's airway passages and blood vessels.

C

What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial​ changes, second only to infancy or​ adolescence? A. Preschool age B. Middle adulthood C. Late adulthood D. Toddler

C

What is the​ EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Identification of hazardous materials B. Patient care C. Personal safety D. Safety of bystanders

C

What is the​ inferior-most portion of the​ sternum? A. Manubrium B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Body

C

What is the​ large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the​ pelvis? A. Ischium B. Acetabulum C. Ilium D. Pubis

C

What medication is given when a patient suffers from a medical or traumatic condition called​ hypoxia? A. Oral glucose B. Aspirin C. Oxygen D. Epinephrine

C

What reference provides important information regarding hazardous​ materials, emergency​ care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or​ release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification​ numbers; and should be standard issue​ on-board all ambulances and rescue​ units? A. Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide B. Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan C. Emergency Response Guidebook D. Safety Data Sheets

C

What should you NOT do when using a stair​ chair? A. Lean forward from the hips. B. Keep your back straight. C. Lean forward from the waist. D. Flex your knees.

C

What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism​? A. Electrolytes and carbohydrates B. Exercise and water C. Oxygen and glucose D. Carbolic acid and air

C

What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to​ burn? A. ​Non-urgent move B. No attempt to move C. Emergency move D. Urgent move

C

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the​ lungs? A. Skeletal B. Striated C. Smooth D. Voluntary

C

What​ substances, when​ dissolved, separate into charged​ particles? A. ATP B. Ions C. Electrolytes D. Cations

C

When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around​ him, this would be considered which of the​ following? A. Psychotic episode B. Mental illness C. Behavioral emergency D. Psychosomatic reaction

C

When carbon dioxide is not​ exchanged, the net result is high carbon​ dioxide, a condition called​ ________, within the body. A. hyperemia B. hyperglycemia C. hypercapnia D. hyperthermia

C

When dealing with a psychiatric​ emergency, which one of the following would generally be inappropriate behavior on your​ part? A. Act in a calm​ manner, giving the patient time to gain control of his emotions. B. Let the patient know that you are listening to what he is​ saying, and explain things to the patient honestly. C. Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible. D. Stay alert for sudden changes in behavior.

C

When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be​ unresponsive, not​ breathing, and without a​ pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your​ partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the​ patient's son experiencing in response to his​ father's death? A. Denial B. Depression C. Anger D. Acceptance

C

When suctioning the​ airway, suction should never be applied for longer than​ ________ seconds. A. 45 B. 60 C. 10 D. 30

C

When the lung collapses without injury or any other​ cause, it is called which of the​ following? A. Spontaneous pulmonary embolism B. COPD C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Spontaneous pertussis

C

When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed​ TB, a(n)​ ________ mask should be worn by the EMT. A. ​B-50 B. surgical C. ​N-95 D. nonrebreather

C

When the​ body's water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial​ space, it is​ called: A. hydrostatic. B. dehydration. C. edema. D. hypovolemia.

C

When using the memory aid​ OPQRST, which of the following questions would help you find out about​ P? A. Do you have any past medical​ history? B. Are you having any​ pain? C. Does anything make the pain better or​ worse? D. What is your primary​ complaint?

C

When ventilating a child with inadequate​ respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be​ delivered? A. 15 per minute B. 12 per minute C. 20 per minute D. 24 per minute

C

Which chamber of the heart is the​ strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the​ body? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

C

Which component of blood is responsible for forming clotting factors to stop​ bleeding? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma

C

Which hormone helps the body control​ stress, regulate​ metabolism, and influence an immune​ response? A. Immunoglobulin B. Epinephrine C. Cortisol D. Serotonin

C

Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate​ (ATP)? A. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. B. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. C. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the​ cell's engine responsible for all cell function. D. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the​ cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

C

Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the​ chest? A. Dysrhythmia B. Tachycardia C. Palpitations D. Pulseless electrical activity of the heart

C

Which of the following BEST describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its​ limits? A. Late frostbite B. Immersion foot C. Early frostnip D. Deep frostnip

C

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless​ VT? A. ​Shock, pulse​ check, shock, pulse​ check, shock, pulse check B. ​Shock, shock,​ shock, shock C. ​Shock, 2 minutes of​ CPR, analyze, shock again D. ​Shock, shock,​ shock, pulse​ check, 2 minutes of​ CPR, shock,​ shock, shock

C

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of​ shock? A. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event B. Delayed capillary refill C. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion D. Hypotension

C

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for​ AED? A. Taking disciplinary action for patient care errors B. Replacing continuing education C. Improving patient outcomes in the community D. Eliminating the need for medical directionQ

C

Which of the following BEST explains the reason for minimizing​ scene-time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant​ hemorrhage? A. The clock for the​ "golden hour" of trauma begins at the time of your arrival. B. There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock. C. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival. D. It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the​ patient's care.

C

Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake​ bite? A. Immobilizing the bitten extremity B. Having the patient lie still C. Application of ice D. Constricting bands above and below the bite

C

Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute​ volume? A. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement. B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. C. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas. D. The rate does not decrease minute​ volume; it actually increases.

C

Which of the following distinguishes decompensated shock from compensated stage of​ shock? A. Tachycardia B. Delayed capillary refill time C. Low blood pressure D. Altered mental status

C

Which of the following does NOT need to be documented regarding a patient refusal of​ treatment? A. That you advised the patient to call back if he changed his mind B. ​Patient's mental status C. Any insulting remarks the patient made to you D. That you informed the patient of the consequences of refusing care

C

Which of the following information on a patient care report is NOT considered run​ data? A. Other EMS units on the scene B. Time of arrival at the receiving facility C. Chief complaint D. Location of the call

C

Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma​ attack? A. Albuterol B. Ventolin C. Beclomethasone D. Proventil

C

Which of the following is NOT a cause of unequal​ pupils? A. Artificial eye B. Eye injury C. Fright D. Stroke

C

Which of the following is NOT a classification of localized cold​ injury? A. Frostnip B. Frostbite C. Hypothermia D. All of the above

C

Which of the following is NOT a common psychosocial challenge of late​ adulthood? A. Financial burdens B. Concern about death and dying C. ​Self-destructive behaviors D. Issues of​ self-worth

C

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is​ "no shock​ advised?" A. The​ patient's heart has no electrical​ activity; he is​ "flat line," or in asystole. B. The​ patient's heart rhythm is normal. C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. D. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.

C

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure​ (CHF)? A. Wet sounding breath sounds B. Increased heart rate C. Low blood pressure D. Productive cough

C

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate statement for the EMT to make on a patient care​ report? A. The patient had wheezes that were audible without using a stethoscope. B. The patient has a history of asthma. C. The patient was having an asthma attack. D. The patient complains of difficulty breathing.

C

Which of the following is NOT an objective element of documented patient​ information? A. ​Patient's blood pressure B. ​Patient's age C. ​Patient's complaint of nausea D. Position in which the patient was found

C

Which of the following is NOT indicated in the management of a patient in​ shock? A. Delaying a detailed exam until en route to the hospital B. ​On-scene spinal​ precautions, if indicated C. ​High-speed ambulance transportation D. Minimizing​ on-scene time

C

Which of the following is NOT part of a medical radio​ report? A. Estimated time of arrival B. ​Patient's response to medical care provided C. Address at which the patient was located D. Unit identification

C

Which of the following is NOT performed during the​ "Airway" phase of the primary​ assessment? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. ​Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver C. Obtaining the respiratory rate D. Suctioning

C

Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory​ problems? A. Decreased heart rate B. Trapped air in the lungs C. Tremors D. Sleepiness

C

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway​ (NPA)? A. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. B. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the​ patient's head to keep the airway open. C. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. D. All of the above

C

Which of the following is an example of a​ medication's trade​ name? A. 4 dihydroxyphenyl acetate B. Oxygen C. Nitrostat D. Epinephrine

C

Which of the following is another term for​ trauma? A. Illness B. Medical problem C. Injury D. Suffering

C

Which of the following is often prescribed for a patient with a heart​ condition? A. Ventolin B. Epinephrine​ auto-injector C. Nitroglycerin D. ​Non-aspirin pain relievers such as Tylenol

C

Which of the following is one advantage of using​ heuristics? A. It provides a more accurate diagnosis. B. It slows the process of diagnosis. C. It speeds up the process of diagnosis. D. It allows you to treat the patient during diagnosis.

C

Which of the following is part of the​ body's compensatory response to blood​ loss? A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases. B. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases. C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases. D. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.

C

Which of the following is the MOST effective way of controlling external​ bleeding? A. Running cold water over the wound B. Using an ice pack C. Using direct pressure with a dressing D. Elevating the affected part

C

Which of the following is the MOST sensitive indicator of​ hypoperfusion? A. Dilation of the pupils B. Increased heart rate C. Altered mental status D. Delayed capillary refill

C

Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker​ medication? A. Causes​ vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure B. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction C. Slows the heart rate D. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium

C

Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be​ met? A. Scaffolding B. Moro reflex C. Bonding D. Trust

C

Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately​ life-threatening conditions? A. Obtaining a detailed medical history B. Use of intuition C. Systematic approach to assessment D. Thorough scene​ size-up

C

Which of the following is the most significant way in which the body cools​ itself? A. Radiation B. Respiration C. Perspiration D. Vasoconstriction

C

Which of the following is the primary function of the​ stomach? A. Absorption of water from food products B. Production of bile C. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions D. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

C

Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes over​ it? A. Hydrodynamic cooling B. Condensation C. Convection D. Exposure

C

Which of the following is typical of angina​ pectoris? A. Does not respond to nitroglycerin B. Does not present following stress C. Often subsides with rest D. Lasts 10 to 30 seconds

C

Which of the following methods should be used to have a patient rate the amount of pain he is​ having? A. Use the memory aid AVPU. B. Use the memory aid DCAP. C. Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1​ (least) to 10​ (worst). D. Ask the patient to state whether the pain is​ mild, moderate,​ severe, or unbearable.

C

Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral​ emergency? A. Severe clinical depression B. Suicidal ideology C. Hypoglycemia D. Acute alcohol intoxication

C

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator​ applied? A. A​ 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash B. A​ 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress C. A​ 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic D. A​ 67-year-old man with​ severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin

C

Which of the following pieces of legislation applies to use of information on a patient care​ report? A. EMTALA​ (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor​ Act) B. COBRA​ (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation​ Act) C. HIPAA​ (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability​ Act) D. FERPA​ (Family Educational Rights and Privacy​ Act)

C

Which of the following should NOT be done during​ defibrillation? A. Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact B. Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact C. Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia D. Performing CPR while the AED is being attached

C

Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric​ emergency? A. Your actions B. Description of the​ patient's behavior C. Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill D. Your observations of the​ patient's surroundings at the scene

C

Which of the following should the EMT keep in mind when evaluating a patient for a possible behavioral​ emergency? A. The EMT must determine the cause of the behavior before making a transport decision B. The behavior should be evaluated outside of the situation at hand C. The behavior should be evaluated based on the situation at hand D. Uncommon emotional reactions should always be considered a behavioral emergency

C

Which of the following signifies a failure in the​ patient's compensatory response to blood​ loss? A. ​Pale, cool skin B. Tachypnea C. Hypotension D. Tachycardia

C

Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT​ true? A. Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles. B. Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion. C. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole. D. Heart attacks present differently among women and men.

C

Which of the following statements is true concerning​ oxygen? A. Never give oxygen to a chronic obstructed pulmonary disease​ (COPD) patient. B. Always document the need for oxygen by pulse oximetry before giving it to the patient. C. Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it. D. Only withhold oxygen to anyone who is allergic to it.

C

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is true​? A. It is generally relieved by​ over-the-counter medications. B. It results in death of a smaller portion of myocardium than does a heart attack. C. It can be brought on by exertion or stress. D. It generally lasts 30 to 60 minutes.

C

Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain​ one-way blood​ flow? A. Arterioles B. Arteries C. Veins D. Capillaries

C

Which of the following will deliver a medium velocity​ impact? A. Ice pick B. Bullet from an assault rifle C. Bullet from a handgun D. Butcher knife

C

Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting​ tuberculosis? A. Uranium mine workers B. Current and former smokers C. Healthcare practitioners D. Immunosuppressed patients

C

Why is it important to not give the name or Social Security number of your patient over the ambulance radio when contacting medical​ control? A. Someone may know the patient and tell the​ patient's friends. B. Someone may steal the​ patient's identity. C. It is illegal. D. It is unnecessary.

C

Why is it important to remove constricting items such as rings before thawing a frozen​ extremity? A. To prevent damage to the property such as rings and watches B. Because thawing leaves clots behind in the veins C. Because thawed areas often swell D. All of the above

C

With regard to anatomical​ locations, which of the following is NOT​ true? A. The foot is distal to the knee. B. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. C. The mouth is proximal to the nose. D. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

C

You and your EMT partner respond to a local shipping warehouse for a worker who was hit by a falling crate. Upon​ arrival, you find the man lying on the concrete floor of the​ facility, alert and oriented but unable to move or even feel his legs below the waist. Based on the mechanism of injury and the​ symptoms, which of the​ patient's body systems would you suspect has been​ impaired? A. Endocrine system B. Cardiopulmonary system C. Nervous system D. Immune system

C

You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations. You should​ FIRST: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. ventilate with a​ bag-valve mask. C. open her airway with a​ jaw-thrust maneuver. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

C

You are assessing an​ 82-year-old female that has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your pulse oximeter shows her oxygen saturation to be​ 82% even though she appears to be breathing adequately. In order to ensure an accurate reading you​ should: A. try a different pulse oximeter. B. place the probe on the​ patient's earlobe. C. warm the​ patient's hands and try again. D. place the probe on the​ patient's toe.

C

You are assessing a​ 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hear the patient gurgling. What is your next​ action? A. Quickly check the pulse. B. Insert an airway adjunct. C. Suction the airway. D. Apply supplemental oxygen.

C

You are assessing a​ 6-month-old female patient​ who, according to the​ parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of​ development, the patient should be able to do which of the​ following? A. Sit alone on the floor B. Respond to the word​ "no" C. Sit upright in a high chair D. Sleep

C

You are called for a patient who was discovered unconscious in his bed this morning. You immediately complete a primary assessment and determine that he is breathing and has a good pulse. What should you do​ next? A. Begin transport immediately. B. Try to locate all of his medications. C. Complete a rapid physical exam. D. Ask the family what happened.

C

You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate​ this? A. Interrupt less urgent radio traffic to get your message across. B. Speak loudly to convey the urgency of the message. C. Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission. D. Use the​ phrase, "Attention,​ attention, I have priority​ traffic."

C

You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his​ stomach, is having respiratory​ distress, and is wheezing. After you administer​ oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to assist with administration of his​ Epi-Pen®. You will monitor the success of your interventions during​ the: A. secondary assessment. B. primary assessment. C. reassessment. D. focused exam.

C

You are dispatched to a local​ fast-food restaurant for a​ "nature unknown" call. You arrive​ on-scene and find a​ 47-year-old male in front of the counter repeatedly singing​ "Happy Birthday" to himself. Police are​ on-scene and the scene is safe. Which of the following would be considered appropriate​ care? A. Quickly approach the patient and take charge. Tell him he has to come with you to be evaluated. B. Have the police take​ charge, restrain the​ patient, and have him brought into your ambulance. C. Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can. D. Have your partner join you in approaching the patient and explain to him that he has to stop singing or you will have him arrested.

C

You are dispatched to a suicide attempt. You arrive to find a​ 16-year-old, who is extremely agitated and pacing up and down in the living room of his house.​ Apparently, he had threatened to go​ out, get a​ gun, and shoot himself. The parents called it in as an attempted suicide. The scene is safe and there are apparently no weapons accessible to the patient. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate in caring for this​ patient? A. Do not take any action that may be considered threatening by the patient. To do so may bring about hostile behavior directed against you or others. B. Do not isolate yourself from your partner or other sources of help. C. Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route. D. Always be on the watch for weapons.

C

You are en route to the hospital with a​ 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most​ privacy? A. Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury B. Using the handheld radio C. Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone D. Using the ambulance radio but not using the​ patient's name

C

You are enjoying some time at the beach on your day off when you hear a swimmer crying for help. As you spot the swimmer about 30 feet from​ shore, she cries out again but appears to be getting weaker. Although there is no lifeguard on​ duty, there is a rowboat and a ring buoy available. Assuming you do NOT know how to swim or consider yourself a poor​ swimmer, which of the following should you do​ first? A. Row the boat out to the swimmer. B. Use the buoy to float out to the swimmer. C. Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer. D. Find someone who can swim to try to swim out and save the swimmer.

C

You are on the scene of a patient who is the victim of an assault. The scene is safe. You find a​ 22-year-old male patient responsive to painful stimuli only. His blood pressure is​ 180/80, pulse is​ 60, respirations are​ 12, and his oxygen saturation is​ 95% on room air. How would you classify this​ patient? A. Unstable. The patient is hypertensive. B. Stable. The​ patient's pulse,​ respirations, and oxygen saturation are within normal limits. C. Unstable. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli only. D. Stable. The patient does not have hypotension.

C

You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two​ middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene​ size-up? A. Law enforcement B. One or two additional ambulances C. Hazardous material​ clean-up crew D. Gas company

C

You are on the scene of an​ "unknown medical" call. The patient is a​ 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your​ questions, he screams that he is going to​ "cut your tongue​ out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you​ do? A. Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. B. Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C. Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. D. Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the​ house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment.

C

You are performing a rapid trauma assessment on an unresponsive​ 30-year-old male. As you evaluate his​ head, which of the following should you check​ for? A. Unequal facial muscles B. Whether the patient can follow your finger with his eyes C. Crepitation D. Function of the cranial nerves

C

You are transporting a city councilman to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is​ swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92 per​ minute, a respiratory rate of 20 per​ minute, and a blood pressure of​ 132/88 mmHg. Which of the following should NOT be included in the radio​ report? A. Vital signs B. How the injury occurred C. Notification that extra security is needed for a VIP D. The appearance of the shoulder

C

You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road. Your​ patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be​ 190/110. The​ patient's blood pressure on scene was​ 130/80. You​ should: A. ignore the blood pressure reading. B. apply the automatic cuff to the other arm. C. ​re-measure the blood pressure manually. D. have the driver increase truck speed.

C

You are transporting a​ 30-year-old male who has been shot in the chest. He is suffering from a sucking chest wound and has a decreased level of consciousness. How often should you perform a​ reassessment? A. Every 30 minutes B. Every 15 minutes C. Every 5 minutes D. Every 10 minutes

C

You are treating a​ 32-year-old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance. What is the BEST way to communicate with this​ patient? A. Speak very loudly in case he has a little hearing. B. Call for an interpreter to meet you at the hospital. C. Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak. D. Use hand gestures to act out what you are trying to say.

C

You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You​ should: A. begin chest compressions. B. listen for heart sounds. C. attempt to find the carotid pulse. D. apply the pulse oximeter.

C

You are ventilating an​ 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask​ seal, you​ should: A. use an infant mask over the nose. B. remove the dentures. C. leave the dentures in place. D. tape the dentures in place.

C

You have a long transport of a patient who may have sustained a spinal injury. The patient has been stable throughout your transport. During one of your​ reassessments, your patient tells you that he is losing the feeling in his feet and toes and his fingers are tingling. At this point you​ should: A. call medical direction for orders. B. spinal immobilize him. C. reassess him every 5 minutes. D. remove him from the long spine board.

C

You have just administered nitroglycerin to a​ 68-year-old patient. Within a few​ minutes, she complains of feeling faint and​ lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the BEST sequence of​ actions? A. Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin. B. Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the​ patient's blood pressure. C. Lower the head of the stretcher and take the​ patient's blood pressure. D. Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin.

C

You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest​ compressions? A. Clothing drag B. ​Non-urgent move C. Emergency move D. Rapid move

C

You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her​ family, "Everything will be​ okay." Making false reassurances is​ considered: A. caring and supportive. B. ambiguous and uncertain. C. naive and uncompassionate. D. professional and discreet.

C

You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be​ unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described​ as: A. supine. B. anterior. C. prone. D. posterior.

C

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle crash to find a​ middle-aged man on a long spine board being cared for by first responding firefighters. He appears to be bleeding from his head and he is unconscious. You should check the car​ for: A. a deployed​ passenger-side air bag. B. personal items too valuable to leave​ on-scene. C. a bent steering wheel or starred windshield. D. insurance information or identification.

C

You respond to the scene of a​ two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The​ driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is​ unresponsive, in critical​ condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which​ technique? A. Take extra care to protect the​ passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury. B. Carefully move the patient using full​ c-spine precautions. C. Move the patient out of the car as quickly as​ possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. D. Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in.

C

You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this​ condition? A. Chest pain that is not relieved with nitroglycerin B. Chest pain that is not relieved with rest C. Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin D. Chest pain that radiates to the leg

C

Your elderly patient reports having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and he​ hasn't eaten for several hours. Which of the following is more important to your assessment of this​ patient? A. Asking him if he is able to walk B. Finding out if he has any chest pain C. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements D. Determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed

C

Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm. B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. Use a​ bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. D. Apply a cervical collar.

C

Your patient is a​ 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a​ friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for​ treatment? A. Get consent from the​ patient's 15-year-old​ sister, who is at the scene. B. Act on implied consent. C. Call the​ patient's mother at work. D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

C

Your patient is a​ 15-year-old female complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following is NOT appropriate during the focused​ exam? A. Listening to her breath sounds B. Looking at her nail beds C. Checking her pupils for reactivity to light D. Looking at the use of her neck muscles

C

Your patient is a​ 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your​ reassessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your priority be with this​ patient? A. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. B. Notify the receiving facility that the patient has developed arterial bleeding. C. Control the bleeding. D. Check the​ patient's blood pressure.

C

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this​ patient? A. Massage the feet briskly. B. Have the patient sit with his feet lower than the rest of his body. C. Gradually rewarm both feet. D. Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings.

C

Your patient is a​ 42-year-old woman who fell two feet from a ladder and is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following are you unable to determine from the information​ given? A. Airway status B. Chief complaint C. Transport priority D. General impression

C

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing​ high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first​ action? A. Stop CPR and check for a pulse. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. C. Apply the AED. D. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment.

C

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old female who complains of​ "twisting her​ ankle" when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is NOT​ appropriate? A. Providing emotional​ support, if necessary B. Secondary assessment C. Detailed physical exam D. Questioning about any other complaints or areas of pain

C

Your patient is a​ 6-year-old child who has fallen down while running on a sidewalk. She has abrasions on both knees and the palms of both​ hands, which are oozing blood. This is an example of bleeding from which of the following types of​ vessels? A. Lymphatic vessels B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Veins

C

Your patient is a​ 72-year-old female who has​ "twisted her​ ankle" coming down some steps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right​ ankle, but she jokes about her​ "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Determine the presence of a carotid pulse. C. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle. D. Take immediate manual control of the​ patient's cervical spine.

C

Your patient is a​ middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of​ problem? A. Anaphylaxis B. Choking C. Cardiac D. Digestive

C

Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive​ behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible​ on-scene. This behavior is known​ as: A. chemical delirium. B. sensory excitement. C. excited delirium. D. intoxication reaction.

C

Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to the hospital should state your patient​ is: A. flushed. B. mottled. C. jaundiced. D. cyanotic.

C

Your patient is the​ 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next​ step? A. Perform a tertiary assessment. B. Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient. C. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. D. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance.

C

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have​ rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a​ 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter​ on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal​ column? A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine

C

Your​ 4-month-old patient is reported to be irritable and lethargic after feeding poorly for two days. One method for assessing the​ patient's level of hydration is to gently palpate the soft spots on the surface of the skull. These soft spots are also known as​ the: A. carpals. B. mandibles. C. fontanelles. D. acromion process.

C

Your​ 76-year-old female patient is having trouble breathing. When you auscultate her​ lungs, you hear crackles​ (rales) and you are concerned that she may have pulmonary edema. Her oxygen saturation is​ 92%, so you place her on​ 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. Her breathing gets a little easier with the oxygen. You decide to expedite transport since she is anxious about her condition.​ Later, as you are completing your​ reassessment, you see that her respirations have slowed to 8 times per minute and she is barely staying awake. What should you do​ next? A. Ask your partner to pull over and wait for ALS backup. B. Assist her with using her​ metered-dose inhaler. C. Begin ventilating her with a​ bag-valve mask. D. Shake her to keep her awake.

C

Your​ 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their​ health, except​: A. ​sleep-wake cycle disrupted. B. blood volume decreases. C. increased metabolism. D. deterioration of respiratory system.

C

​Normally, respiratory drive is triggered by changing levels​ of: A. oxygen. B. glucose. C. carbon dioxide. D. pH.

C

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child? A) 28 breaths/min B) 40 breaths/min C) 16 breaths/min D) 32 breaths/min

C) 16 breaths/min

Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a medication? A) An unintended action of the drug B) The way in which a drug causes its effects C) A reason why you should avoid giving a medication to a patient D) A reason why you should give a medication to a patient

C) A reason why you should avoid giving a medication to a patient

Which of the following may be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? A) Breathing through the nose, not the mouth B) Very deep, rapid respirations C) Agonal respirations D) Accessory respirations

C) Agonal respirations

Which of the following is a prescribed medication used in an inhaled form for the emergency treatment of respiratory problems? A) Furosemide B) Pronestyl C) Albuterol D) Primatene mist

C) Albuterol

Which of the following devices is used by patients with respiratory problems to assist with the delivery of medication from an inhaler to the lungs? A) A Pulmo-Aide B) A small-volume nebulizer C) An AeroChamber D) An oxygen-powered nebulizer

C) An AeroChamber

Why do EMTs give aspirin to the patient on the ambulance? A) Aspirin reduces the heart's ability to beat fast and works to prevent rapid heart rate. B) Aspirin reduces the pain level in patients who are in pain. C) Aspirin reduces the blood's ability to clot and works to prevent clot formation in patients suffering chest pain. D) It is given to calm the patient by reducing the pain because stress is the real killer.

C) Aspirin reduces the blood's ability to clot and works to prevent clot formation in patients suffering chest pain.

Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack? A) Proventil B) Ventolin C) Beclomethasone D) Albuterol

C) Beclomethasone

Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST option? A) Use a nasal cannula to administer supplemental oxygen. B) Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her. C) Begin transport immediately and contact medical control for advice. D) Wait for the patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. .

C) Begin transport immediately and contact medical control for advice.

Which of the following is the way in which the heart muscle receives oxygen? A) Blood from the pulmonary vein enters capillaries in the myocardium. B) Blood surrounds the heart in the pericardial sac. C) Blood from the aorta enters the coronary arteries. D) Blood from the left ventricle enters capillaries in the myocardium.

C) Blood from the aorta enters the coronary arteries.

Which of the following would be the result of an obstruction in a branch of the pulmonary artery? A) Blood is not pumped to the brain. B) Blood cannot return from the lungs. C) Blood is not pumped to the lungs. D) Blood cannot return from the brain to the heart.

C) Blood is not pumped to the lungs.

Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the heart? A) Myocardial infarction B) Cardiac dysrhythmia C) Cardiac compromise D) Congestive heart failure

C) Cardiac compromise

You are treating a 68-year-old female with difficulty breathing and you want to apply CPAP. How many centimeters of water would you start your treatment with? A) 2-5 centimeters B) 5-10 centimeters C) Follow local protocol D) Minimum setting and titrate to effect

C) Follow local protocol

What is the indication for giving an epinephrine auto-injector in a life-threatening allergic reaction? A) It will help raise the patient's blood pressure and slow the heart rate. B) It will constrict the patient's airway passages and blood vessels. C) It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages. D) It will help dilate the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.

C) It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.

Nitroglycerin (Nitro) is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is supplied in what two ways? A) Pills and injectable B) Aerosol and spray C) Pills and spray D) Ointment and pills

C) Pills and spray

Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of a 52-year-old male with difficulty breathing and a history of emphysema? A) Activated charcoal B) Nitroglycerin C) Proventil D) Oral glucose

C) Proventil

Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient? A) The breath is delivered easily. B) Pulse rate slows down. C) Pulse rate increases. D) You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.

C) Pulse rate increases.

Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication administration? A) The medication is injected under the skin. B) The medication is breathed into the lungs, such as from an inhaler. C) The medication is placed under the tongue. D) The medication is swallowed whole, not chewed.

C) The medication is placed under the tongue.

Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering? A) As needed until respiratory status improves B) Two sprays C) The number of sprays directed by medical control D) One spray

C) The number of sprays directed by medical control

Your patient is a 49-year-old male with a history of heart problems. Assuming he has a bottle of nitroglycerin tablets with him, under which of the following circumstances could you administer the nitroglycerin to the patient? A) The patient is complaining of dyspnea and has a blood pressure of no greater than 100 mmHg systolic. B) The patient's personal physician is on the scene and has advised you to administer the nitroglycerin. C) The patient complains of chest pain and has a blood pressure of 132/90 mmHg. D) The patient has taken at least three tablets on his own without relief.

C) The patient complains of chest pain and has a blood pressure of 132/90 mmHg.

What condition must be present before you give oral glucose? A) The patient must have a history of diabetes. B) The patient, if conscious, must be able to swallow; if unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue. C) The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes. D) The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes.

C) The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes.

Your patient is a 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be documented? A) The chemical name of the medication B) The expiration date of the medication C) The patient's response to the medication D) All of the above

C) The patient's response to the medication

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? A) The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. B) The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. C) The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed. D) The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.

C) The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed.

What are the names given to each medication listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia? A) Official, chemical, and generic B) Manufacturers, general, and governmental C) Trade, chemical, and generic D) Trade, brand, and generic

C) Trade, chemical, and generic

A serious negative interaction for giving Nitrostat is a drug interaction with what medications? A) Nitroglycerin, Ventolin, and epinephrine B) Sildenafil, vardenafil, and epinephrine C) Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction D) Oral glucose, Viagra, and aspirin

C) Viagra, Levitra, or medication for erectile dysfunction

When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack? A) While breathing in B) In between breaths C) While breathing out D) All of the above

C) While breathing out

You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective? A) You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. B) Patient's pulse returns to normal. C) You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute. D) Patient's skin color remains the same.

C) You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.

A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is called: A) angina. B) asystole. C) aneurysm. D) angioplasty.

C) aneurysm

You are called to the school where a 16-year-old female has trouble breathing from a possible allergic reaction. You arrive and find the patient wheezing, with cool clammy skin, and holding an epinephrine auto-injector. After you assess the patient and contact medical control, you are advised to give the medication. When you give the patient the epinephrine auto-injector she develops symptoms of anxiety: dizziness, headache, nausea, nervousness, paleness, sweating, tremors, vomiting, and weakness. These symptoms are considered: A) contraindications. B) untoward effects. C) side effects. D) indications.

C) side effects.

Nitroglycerin is given via the _______________ route. A) parenteral B) lingual C) sublingual D) enteral .

C) sublingual

When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called a: A) side effect. B) contraindication. C) untoward effect. D) indication.

C) untoward effect.

Which of the following would be an acceptable substitute for the administration of commercially prepared oral glucose solution? Answer Having the patient drink a glass of milk Diet soda Having the patient eat something high in protein, such as a deli sandwich Cake icing

Cake icing

You have just arrived on the scene of an agricultural business and see three men coming out of a building, choking and holding their heads. One of the men tells you there are two workers still inside. What should you do next? Answer Call for properly trained assistance and stay a safe distance away from the scene. Cover your nose and mouth with a wet towel and check on the status of the two workers inside the building. Get the assistance of the men who made it out of the building to prevent delay in finding the workers inside. Evaluate the three men and administer high-concentration oxygen, then help them get a safe distance away from the scene

Call for properly trained assistance and stay a safe distance away from the scene.

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral emergency? Answer Find out if the patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment. Calm and reassure the patient. Establish control of the situation by a show of force. Quickly perform a head-to-toe exam and transport without delay.

Calm and reassure the patient.

Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis? Answer Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the skin, causing dehydration of tissue. Blood vessels constrict, capillaries become leaky, and bronchoconstriction occurs. Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords. Bronchodilation occurs, blood vessels dilate, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation? Answer Tar Carbon monoxide Cyanide Carbon

Carbon

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults? Answer Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure. Ventricular fibrillation is common in children. Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults. Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Which of the following is the immediate toxic effect of alcohol? Answer Central nervous system stimulation Damage to the liver Central nervous system depression Irreversible damage to the kidneys

Central nervous system depression

Which of the following is LEAST often seen in carbon monoxide poisoning? Answer Nausea Cherry red lips Confusion Headache

Cherry red lips

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of stroke? Answer Chest pain Vomiting Sudden impairment of vision Seizure

Chest pain

Your patient is a 22-year-old male who has ingested a large amount of alcohol and is vomiting. He is conscious but uncooperative. He allows you to examine him but refuses transport to the hospital. Which of the following is the best action? Answer Contact medical control for further advice. Stay with the patient until he has stopped vomiting. Find a relative or neighbor to come over and stay with the patient. Obtain a witnessed refusal.

Contact medical control for further advice.

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate action? Answer Transport immediately. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. .

Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.

Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action? Answer Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities. Continue supportive care en route to the hospital. Contact medical control. Immediately administer a second auto-injector.

Contact medical control.

Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is spitting and coughing after swallowing some gasoline while siphoning from a gas tank. Which of the following should you do first? Answer Administer syrup of ipecac. Insert a Combitube or another blind intubation device, if you are trained to do so. Have the patient drink a glass of milk. Contact medical control.

Contact medical control.

You are managing a patient who has been stung by a bee and has had an allergic reaction to bee stings in the past. The patient has some localized redness and swelling in the area of the bee sting but is not having difficulty breathing. Of the following, which would be performed first for this patient? Answer Continue the focused assessment. Perform a head-to-toe exam. Advise him to take an oral antihistamine, such as Benadryl. Assist him with his epinephrine auto-injector.

Continue the focused assessment.

Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation? Answer Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact Performing CPR while the AED is being attached

Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia

When assessing a patient for a possible stroke, which of the following three functions should be tested by the EMT? Answer Memory, ability to speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes Ability to walk, control of facial muscles, and balance Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds Ability to walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds, and ability to name common objects .

Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds

22) Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds B) Awareness of problems with color vision C) Ability to dominate the patient D) Control of personal habits Answer:

D

23) Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? A) Distance education B) EMT training program C) Recertification D) Continuing education Answer:

D

24) During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? A) The state requires the training. B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam. C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued. D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research. Answer:

D

33) Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? A) EMS supervisor B) EMT C) Director of quality assurance D) Medical Director Answer:

D

36) A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): A) on-line protocol. B) standard of care. C) direct medical order. D) standing order. Answer:

D

37) You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him? A) Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B) The physician does not trust EMTs. C) The patient's nitroglycerin might be expired. D) The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient. Answer:

D

A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells is​ called: A. erythrocythemia. B. polycythemia. C. leukemia. D. anemia.

D

A description of a​ patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment is known as which of the​ following? A. Red flag B. Critical thinking C. Clinical decision D. Diagnosis

D

A disruption of the balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to​ regulating: A. waste removal and urine. B. oxygenation and perfusion. C. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues. D. blood pressure and cell hydration.

D

A major tornado has hit the neighboring​ town, knocking down power lines and injuring several people. What will provide the best chance to give your patient report to the receiving​ facility? A. Landline at the​ patient's house B. Portable radio at the residence C. Cell phone at the scene D. Ambulance mobile radio

D

A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of​ oxygen? A. ​16-21 B. ​90-100 C. ​24-44 D. ​80-100

D

A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following​ methods? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Blood pressure monitor D. Any of the above

D

A patient breathing in room air should be receiving​ ________ percent oxygen. A. 16 B. 5 C. 100 D. 21

D

A patient whose mental status can be described as​ "verbal" is able​ to: A. talk spontaneously and respond to the​ EMT's questions. B. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles. C. tell you his or her​ name, his or her​ location, and what day it is. D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

D

A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the​ following? A. Bradycardic B. Dyscardic C. Normocardic D. Tachycardic

D

Albuterol and epinephrine both have bronchodilation properties that improve the amount of oxygen that a person can inhale and absorb.​ However, Albuterol is administered only for​ asthma, whereas epinephrine is administered for both asthma and anaphylaxis. Why is​ epinephrine, and not​ Albuterol, the first choice for​ anaphylaxis? A. Albuterol drops the blood pressure too low. B. Albuterol slows down the heart rate too much. C. Albuterol makes the heart rate increase too much. D. Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor.

D

All of the following are general rules in dealing with a psychiatric patient except​: A. make eye contact with the patient. B. listen to the​ patient, showing you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. C. speak slowly and​ clearly, and use a calm and reassuring tone. D. do not be​ judgmental; instead, show​ pity, as he needs to know that you understand him.

D

All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental​ well-being, except​: A. following a regular walking regimen. B. eating a balanced diet. C. spending more time relaxing with friends and family. D. drinking moderate amounts of caffeine and alcohol.

D

An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the​ EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the​ body's response to​ stress? A. Response stage B. Exhaustion stage C. Resistance stage D. Alarm reaction stage

D

An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these​ patients? A. A trauma patient who is covered in​ dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris B. A patient with a​ difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration C. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest D. A patient who is actively coughing

D

An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria except which​ one? A. Observable B. Verifiable C. Measurable D. Biased

D

An oxygen saturation of​ 97% is considered which of the​ following? A. Hypoxia B. Severe hypoxia C. Significant hypoxia D. Normal

D

As an​ EMT, it is important that you be able to do all of the following except​: A. deal with a wide variety of emotions and behaviors. B. ensure your safety and that of others at the scene. C. control your own emotions when dealing with patients who say upsetting things to you. D. provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems.

D

At which of the following locations could you palpate a​ malleolus? A. Elbow B. Spinal column C. Wrist D. Ankle

D

At which of the following points should you begin your scene​ size-up? A. When you arrive on the​ scene, but before exiting the ambulance B. When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence C. After exiting the​ ambulance, but before making patient contact D. As you approach the scene in the ambulance

D

A​ 59-year-old male has suffered a severe laceration from a circular saw while cutting wood in his garage. Upon your​ arrival, you find the patient sitting on the floor in a pool of blood. He is extremely pale. Based on your knowledge of​ pathophysiology, you would expect his body to try to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following​ ways, ​except: A. increased respirations. B. sweaty skin. C. increased pulse. D. constricted pupils.

D

A​ ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A. tracheostomy mask B. nasal cannula C. regulator D. partial rebreather mask

D

Bronchodilator inhalers have several common side​ effects, which​ include: A. decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate. B. vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. C. bronchodilation and decreased heart rate. D. jitteriness and increased heart rate.

D

Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using​ cold, the following guidelines and statements are true except​: A. it will reduce pain. B. it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual techniques. C. it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes. D. it should be applied directly to the​ skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound.

D

Critical Incident Stress Debriefings​ (CISDs): A. have been replaced with​ "defusings." B. must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective. C. are always recommended. D. are now less common than they once were.

D

Due to the high risk of an unstable work​ environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using​ ________ in addition to standard PPE. A. ​N-95 masks B. face shields C. Level B hazmat suits D. ​heavy-duty gloves

D

During an emergency​ move, which of the following techniques should be​ used, whenever​ possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal​ injury? A. Roll the patient over. B. Pull the patient from the​ feet, not the shoulders. C. Move the patient​ sideways, alternating between moving the​ shoulders, then the hips. D. Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body.

D

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult​ patient, where should the pulse be​ checked? A. At the brachial artery B. At the femoral artery C. At the carotid artery D. At the radial artery

D

EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Elevated temperature and sometimes alcohol or drug intoxication may be present. The patient will soon cease​ struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is​ called: A. excited psychosis. B. bipolar disorder. C. psychotic delirium. D. excited or agitated delirium.

D

Epinephrine delivered by​ auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following​ conditions? A. Chest pain B. Chronic pulmonary diseases C. Drug overdose D. Severe allergies to​ peanut, shellfish,​ penicillin, or bee stings

D

Expert clinicians may use different approaches of thinking through​ problems, but which of the following will they have in​ common? A. Organization of data in their head B. Knowledge that one strategy works for everyone C. Dislike of ambiguity D. Strong foundation of knowledge

D

Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the​ cell? A. Electrolytes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. ATP

D

How does nitroglycerin decrease the level of chest pain that a patient​ experiences? A. It constricts the blood​ vessels, forcing more blood into the heart muscle. B. It dilates the blood​ vessels, allowing more blood flow to wash away the toxic lactic acid. C. It constricts the blood​ vessels, forcing the toxic lactic acid out of the heart. D. It dilates the blood​ vessels, allowing more blood to enter the heart muscle.

D

How often should a​ patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after he has had his pulse restored with CPR and the use of an​ AED? A. Every 10 minutes B. Every 2 minutes C. Every 15 minutes D. Every 5 minutes

D

If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be​ resuscitated, which of the following is the best​ decision? A. Consult with the​ patient's physician. B. Have the​ patient's family put their wishes in writing. C. Withhold resuscitative measures. D. Begin resuscitative measures.

D

If you do not have a commercial tourniquet​ available, what common device found on the ambulance can be used as a​ substitute? A. Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage B. Use a rope​ tie-down to make a tourniquet C. Air or vacuum splint D. Blood pressure cuff

D

In cases of extreme​ hypothermia, you will find the patient​ unconscious, with no discernible vital​ signs, and skin cold to your touch with stiff joints as if they appear dead. What is the emergency care for these​ patients? A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B. Check distal​ CSM, apply warming packs to the​ extremities, and transport the patient. C. Call the coroner as indications are the patient is cold and​ deceased, which is a definitive sign of death. D. Assess the carotid pulse for 30 to 45​ seconds; if there is no​ pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED.

D

In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed​ inhaler? A. The inhaler belongs to another family​ member, not the patient. B. Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. C. Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. D. Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

D

It is important​ that, as an EMS​ provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional​ asphyxia? A. Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser. B. Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him. C. Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus. D. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

D

Limiting time spent at a scene can be especially important if the mechanism of injury suggests that the patient could go into shock. In order to keep the time at the scene to a​ minimum, which of the following assessments or treatments should not be performed on the​ scene? A. Rapid trauma exam B. Immobilization C. ABCs with spinal precautions D. Splinting swollen extremities

D

Physiology is the study​ of: A. exercise and nutrition. B. body structures. C. muscles and movement. D. body systems.

D

Production of energy occurs in what part of the​ cell? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Potassium pump D. Mitochondria

D

Recording and documenting your​ patient's first set of vital signs is very important​ because, when combined with​ reassessments, it allows you to do which of the​ following? A. Make an accurate diagnosis of the​ patient's illness. B. Compare your​ patient's condition with other​ patients' conditions. C. Fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form. D. Discover trends and changes in the​ patient's condition.

D

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the​ ________ blood pressure. A. diastolic B. central venous C. mean arterial D. systolic

D

The QI manager calls your partner into his office after your shift. He pulls out his EMS report on a call he ran last month on a​ 45-year-old driver of a​ single-vehicle motor vehicle collision. There were several empty beer cans in the​ patient's vehicle and the EMT detected an odor of alcoholic beverages on the​ patient's breath. The QI​ manager, however, critiques your partner about calling the patient an alcoholic and giving opinions in the report. He tells your partner to never write opinions in the EMS report. Your partner is confused because he is sure the patient was​ drunk, and he was actually arrested for suspicion of driving while intoxicated. Your partner believes his assessment is supported by facts and not just his opinion. How can you help your partner understand the QI​ manager's concerns? A. The QI manager is afraid the patient will sue the EMS service for libel. B. Calling the patient an alcoholic is not​ polite, even if it is true. C. The patient is assumed to be innocent until proven guilty. He is not an alcoholic until he is convicted of drinking and driving by a court of law. D. Documenting that the patient is an alcoholic gives an incorrect opinion of the patient that is not supported by​ facts, and could negatively influence other medical providers.

D

The epinephrine​ auto-injector is given via the​ ________ route. A. enteral B. oral C. digestive D. parenteral

D

The inside of a​ person's thigh is also known as its​ ________ aspect. A. lateral B. axillary C. inferior D. medial

D

The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the characteristic sounds produced is​ called: A. articulation. B. pulsation. C. palpation. D. auscultation.

D

The most common form of a hemostatic agent is​ hemostatic: A. powders. B. tourniquet. C. granules. D. dressings.

D

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is​ called: A. oxygenation. B. external respiration. C. dehydration. D. internal respiration.

D

The net result of respiratory challenges is low​ oxygen, also called​ ________, within the body. A. anoxia B. hypoglycemia C. anorexia D. hypoxia

D

The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is​ called: A. physiology. B. anatomy. C. psychology. D. pathophysiology.

D

The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the​ patient's body? A. ​Head, neck,​ chest, and groin B. ​Chest, back,​ neck, and armpits C. ​Head, neck,​ chest, and back D. Lateral​ chest, neck,​ armpits, and groin

D

The term lateral is best defined​ as: A. under the arms. B. to the back of. C. toward the middle of. D. to the side.

D

The trachea branches off at the​ ________ and forms two mainstem bronchi. A. pleura B. alveoli C. bronchioles D. carina

D

The two major portions of the skull are​ the: A. manubrium and mandible. B. frontal bone and ilium. C. atlas and axis. D. cranium and face.

D

The​ EMT, after administering any​ medication, must do which of the​ following? A. Reconsider the five​ rights, reassess the​ patient, and contact medical control. B. Document the​ route, dose, and​ time; reassess the​ patient; and​ re-administer the medication. C. Wait 5​ minutes, repeat the medication if​ needed, and reassess the​ patient's vitals. D. Document the​ administration, reassess the​ patient, and report to the receiving facility.

D

The​ high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known​ as: A. rales. B. rhonchi. C. gurgling. D. stridor.

D

To assess skin temperature for a possibly hypothermic​ patient, the EMT should place the back of his hand against which part of the​ patient's body? A. Cheek B. Inner wrist C. Forehead D. Abdomen

D

To calculate the minute​ volume, you need to multiply what two​ measurements? A. Tidal volume and dead space air B. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate C. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate

D

To determine blood​ pressure, the EMT should position the cuff over the upper arm and place the stethoscope over the brachial artery.​ Next, she should inflate the​ cuff, then slowly deflate the​ cuff, listening for clicks or tapping sounds while remembering the number at the first sound. What is the next step in taking a blood​ pressure? A. ​Re-inflate the cuff on the​ patient's arm and repeat the process to verify the reading. B. Dump all the pressure and record the number as the diastolic pressure. C. Remove the cuff from the​ patient's arm, place it on the opposite​ arm, and repeat the process to verify the reading. D. Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping​ stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure.

D

What BEST defines the immediate sense of the​ patient's degree of​ distress, formulated from the​ patient's immediate​ environment, appearance, and chief​ complaint? A. Scene​ size-up B. Secondary assessment C. Primary assessment D. General impression

D

What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy​? A. Wasting B. Changing C. Absence D. Enlargement

D

What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by​ bacteria, viruses, or​ fungi? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pulmonary embolism C. Asthma D. Pneumonia

D

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to​ hemorrhage? A. Decreased production of carbon dioxide B. Decrease in pulse rate C. Decreased ability to fight infection D. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

D

What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system​ measure? A. Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide B. High oxygen and high carbon dioxide C. High oxygen and low carbon dioxide D. Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

D

What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation​ precautions? A. ​Harm-reduction strategy B. ​Infection-control plan C. ​Exposure-control plan D. Personal protective equipment

D

What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital​ environment? A. Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms. B. Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. C. Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season. D. Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients.

D

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the​ heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

D

What is a​ positive, healthy way to help deal with​ stress? A. Adding workload to a busy regular schedule B. Caffeine to​ "get up and​ go" C. Drinking alcohol to​ "unwind" D. Regular physical exercise

D

What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology​? A. The terms are synonymous. B. Anatomy is the study of body components and​ systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. C. Anatomy is the study of physical body​ structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. D. Anatomy is the study of body​ structures, and physiology is the study of body function.

D

What is the first medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty​ breathing? A. Nitroglycerin B. Aspirin C. Albuterol D. Oxygen

D

What is the first step in giving aerosol​ medications? A. Make sure the patient is suffering from​ asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis. B. Complete the primary assessment and take vital signs. C. Contact medical control to receive permission to give the medication. D. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.

D

What is the likely impact of power stretchers on​ EMS? A. Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services. B. There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS. C. There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers. D. There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs.

D

What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a​ track-like system over a traditional stair​ chair? A. There is no benefit of a​ track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair. B. A stair chair with a​ track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. C. Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a​ track-like system. D. A stair chair with a​ track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs.

D

What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket​ mask? A. ​21% B. ​16% C. ​100% D. ​50%

D

What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of​ breath? A. Dissolved mucus in the airways B. Decreased heart rate C. Increased contraction of the diaphragm D. Relaxation of the bronchioles

D

What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory​ depression? A. Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. B. High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. C. The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen. D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

D

What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of​ air? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Hoarseness D. Snoring

D

What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and​ functions? A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

D

What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient​ breathes? A. Tracheostomy B. Cricothyrotomy C. Laryngectomy D. Stoma

D

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain​? A. Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems B. Respiratory and endocrine systems C. Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

D

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the​ lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Vena cavae D. Pulmonary artery

D

When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays​ fear, anger, or​ grief, this is best described as which of the​ following? A. Catharsis B. ​Post-traumatic stress disorder C. Neurosis D. Stress reaction

D

When a person has an exaggerated response to a body​ invader, the person is said to​ have: A. hyposensitivity. B. antibody reaction. C. histamine dump. D. hypersensitivity.

D

When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm​ water, you should change the water when the temperature falls below​ ________ degrees°F. A. 115 to 120 B. 80 to 90 C. 85 to 95 D. 100 to 105

D

When assessing a​ 14-year-old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle​ accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming from his left forearm. This observation is known as which of the​ following? A. Symptom B. Clue C. Indication D. Sign

D

When checking breath sounds in a trauma​ patient, what should the EMT assess for​ first? A. Amount of dead space air and residual air B. Rate and tidal volume C. Wheezing and stridor D. Presence and equality

D

When covering a​ patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any​ kind, which of the following is the primary​ risk? A. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses B. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma C. Interfering with patient communication D. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway

D

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory​ failure? A. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. B. When the respiratory challenge​ continues, the systems fail with the demand for​ oxygen, pupils​ dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. C. When the patient who is short of​ breath, with noisy​ respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. D. When the respiratory challenge​ continues, the systems cannot keep up with the​ demand, and skin color and mental status change.

D

When giving a radio report to the​ hospital, which of the following would be the first​ patient-specific information​ provided? A. The patient has taken nitroglycerin. B. The patient is having a heart attack. C. The patient is complaining of chest pain. D. The patient is a​ 55-year-old male.

D

When lifting a​ patient, a basic principle is​ to: A. lift with your lower back. B. extend your arms to maximize your lift. C. rush your lift to minimize your lift time. D. know your lifting limits.

D

When resuscitating a hypothermic patient in cardiac​ arrest, resuscitation attempts must continue until the patient​ has: A. developed rigor mortis. B. been ventilated for at least 30 minutes with an oropharyngeal airway​ (OPA) in place. C. been defibrillated a total of nine times. D. been rewarmed.

D

When submerged in​ water, biological death may be delayed if the water temperature is below ​________degrees°F. A. 50 B. 32 C. 98.6 D. 70

D

When you begin interviewing your​ patient, he tells you that he has not felt well for several​ months, ever since he had his gallbladder removed. He goes on to tell you that he cannot get his wife to schedule a​ doctor's appointment for him and when she remembers to​ call, the office is always closed. Which of the following is the best way to​ proceed? A. Begin your assessment of his vital signs. B. Try to call his doctor to schedule an appointment. C. Ask him for a list of his medications. D. Ask him why he decided to call 911 today.

D

When you place your finger in an​ infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is an example of which​ reflex? A. Rooting B. Sucking C. Moro D. Palmar

D

When you startle a​ 4-month-old, he throws his arms​ out, spreads his​ fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as​ the: A. startle reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. scaffolding reflex. D. Moro reflex.

D

Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient​ assessment? A. Ongoing assessment B. At the​ patient's side C. At primary assessment D. At secondary assessment

D

Where might you find a​ patient's medical alert identification​ jewelry? A. Ankle bracelet B. Necklace C. Bracelet D. All of the above

D

Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a​ two-story fall and landed square on his​ feet? A. ​Patient's lower back B. ​Patient's femur C. ​Patient's ankles D. All of the above

D

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the​ environment? A. Adipose tissue B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

D

Which of the following BEST defines inadequate​ breathing? A. Wheezing noises when breathing B. Breathing slower than normal C. Breathing faster than normal D. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life

D

Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a​ medication? A. The way in which a drug causes its effects B. A reason why you should give a medication to a patient C. An unintended action of the drug D. A reason why you should a never giving a medication to a patient

D

Which of the following BEST describes a portable​ radio? A. A​ two-way radio at a fixed site B. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distances C. A​ two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle D. A​ two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

D

Which of the following BEST describes an EMS​ provider's "sixth​ sense"? A. Scene safety B. Diagnostic ability C. General impression D. Clinical judgment

D

Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the​ body's cellular​ level? A. Osmosis B. Hydrostatic pressure C. Circulation D. Perfusion

D

Which of the following BEST describes the function of​ blood? A. It​ clots, flows,​ transports, protects, and excretes on a daily basis. B. It is a​ life-giving liquid that supports all the​ body's functions to maintain hypoperfusion. C. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients to maintain lack of perfusion. D. It transports gases along with​ nutrients, aids in​ excretion, and provides protection and regulation.

D

Which of the following BEST describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a​ chair? A. Stand next to the chair. B. Sit on the floor at the​ patient's feet. C. Stand behind the​ patient's chair. D. Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient.

D

Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and​ dying? A. Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies B. Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened C. Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God D. Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members

D

Which of the following body systems primarily produces​ hormones? A. Cardiovascular B. Exocrine C. Gastrointestinal D. Endocrine

D

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a​ pulse? A. Ventricular dysrhythmia B. Bradycardia C. Tachycardia D. Ventricular fibrillation

D

Which of the following circumstances may result in​ hypoperfusion? A. Blood vessels are dilated. B. There is external bleeding. C. The heart is damaged. D. All of the above

D

Which of the following describes skepticism about one thing causing​ another? A. Representativeness B. Confirmation bias C. Availability D. Illusory correlation

D

Which of the following describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal​ report? A. Changes in the​ patient's condition can be communicated. B. Additional information that was not given in the radio report can be provided. C. Patient treatment can be based on this information. D. All of the above

D

Which of the following describes the midline of the​ body? A. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion B. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion C. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus D. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

D

Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become​ violent? A. Tense body posture or clenched fists B. Loud voice and rapid pacing C. Profane language D. Crying

D

Which of the following does NOT make infants and children more prone to​ hypothermia? A. Little body fat B. Large body surface area C. Small muscle mass D. Inefficient metabolism

D

Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any​ patient? A. Your physical limitations B. Communications C. The weight of the patient D. All of the above

D

Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for​ suicide? A. Recent emotional trauma B. Sudden improvement in depression C. Alcohol and drug abuse D. All of the above

D

Which of the following findings is generally NOT used to assess an​ adult's circulation? A. Evaluation for bleeding B. ​Patient's skin​ color, temperature, and condition C. ​Patient's distal pulse rate D. ​Patient's capillary refill time

D

Which of the following findings would be helpful in differentiating between a closed head injury and a behavioral​ emergency? A. Combativeness B. Irrational behavior C. Confusion D. Unequal pupils

D

Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime​ scene? A. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived​ on-scene B. Your experience as an EMT C. What route you took when responding to the scene D. How you gained access to the scene

D

Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger​ zone? A. Presence of hazardous materials B. Wind direction C. Fire D. Amount of equipment needed

D

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a rapid trauma​ assessment? A. To assess the extent of injuries B. To provide a basis for care during transport C. To detect injuries that may become life threatening D. To focus care on specific injuries

D

Which of the following is NOT a reason for routine review of patient care reports in a quality improvement​ program? A. Assess conformity to patient care standards B. Review poor patient care C. Review excellent patient care D. Satisfy requirements of the shift supervisor

D

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a​ patient? A. Restraining the patient​ face-up B. Placing a surgical mask over the​ patient's face to prevent spitting C. Securing all four limbs with approved restraint devices D. ​Hog-tying the patient

D

Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene​ size-up? A. Need for additional resources B. Potential hazards to the EMS crew C. Mechanism of injury D. Chief complaint

D

Which of the following is NOT part of the general​ impression? A. Position in which the patient is found B. ​Patient's age and race C. ​Patient's facial expression D. ​Patient's past medical history

D

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper​ extremities? A. Carpals B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Calcaneus

D

Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an​ EMT? A. Proximate causation existed. B. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care. C. The EMT had a duty to act. D. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

D

Which of the following is NOT the purpose of making airway management the highest priority of patient care when managing the patient in​ shock? A. It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. B. It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit. C. It allows for oxygenation of the lungs. D. It allows the bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways to be reversed.

D

Which of the following is a benefit of using​ small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory​ problems? A. The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. B. They will work even when the​ patient's ventilations are inadequate. C. Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler. D. They allow greater exposure of the​ patient's lungs to the medication.

D

Which of the following is a characteristic of venous​ bleeding? A. It cannot lead to​ life-threatening amounts of blood loss. B. It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression. C. It often requires the use of a tourniquet. D. It can be​ profuse, but is generally easily controlled.

D

Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by​ auto-injector? A. Dilation of coronary arteries B. Decrease in blood pressure C. Constriction of coronary arteries D. Constriction of blood vessels

D

Which of the following is a function of the​ skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Regulation of body temperature C. Balancing water in the body D. All of the above

D

Which of the following is a known cause of inaccurate oxygen saturation​ readings? A. Jaundiced nail beds B. Fever C. Hypotension D. Carbon monoxide inhalation

D

Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at​ rest? A. 24 breaths per minute B. 10 breaths per minute C. 22 breaths per minute D. 12 breaths per minute

D

Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care​ report? A. Embarrassment B. Negative impact on patient care C. Loss of credibility D. All of the above

D

Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric​ patient? A. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth. B. The breath is delivered easily. C. Pulse rate slows down. D. Pulse rate increases.

D

Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate​ airway? A. Regular chest movements B. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales C. Typical skin coloration D. Nasal flaring

D

Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey​ bee? A. Leave stingers in place. B. Elevate the affected site above the level of the heart to reduce swelling. C. Soak the affected area in warm water. D. Remove jewelry from any affected limbs.

D

Which of the following is an indicator that a​ patient's nervous system has been​ impaired? A. General weakness B. Changes in pupil dilation C. Hearing disturbances D. All of the above

D

Which of the following is another name for the​ squat-lift position? A. ​Weight-lifter technique B. Power grip C. Direct carry D. Power lift

D

Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed​ patient? A. Establish eye and verbal contact. B. Avoid arguing with the patient. C. Make it clear that you are in control of the​ situation, not the patient. D. Both A and B

D

Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba​ dive? A. Nitrogen narcosis B. Pulmonary embolism C. ​"Squeeze" injuries of the ear and sinuses D. Decompression sickness

D

Which of the following is completed first during the primary​ assessment? A. Assessing mental status B. Opening the airway C. Determining transport priority D. Forming a general impression

D

Which of the following is directly related to the endocrine​ system? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Pancreas

D

Which of the following is often associated with​ water-related emergencies? A. Alcohol use B. Cardiac arrest C. Hypothermia D. All of the above

D

Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed​ inhaler? A. Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray. B. Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. C. Do not use the​ patient's inhaler, because you do not know how the medication has been stored. D. Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.

D

Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of early​ shock? A. Constriction of the peripheral blood vessels B. Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels C. Increased respirations of the patient D. The​ body's attempts at compensation for blood loss

D

Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive​ infant? A. Shaking the child B. Rubbing the sternum with your knuckles C. Pinching the earlobe D. Flicking the soles of the feet

D

Which of the following is the correct position of an​ EMT's feet when​ lifting? A. Two feet apart B. As close together as possible C. As wide apart as possible D. ​Shoulder-width apart

D

Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and​ long-term problems with an​ EMT's health and​ well-being? A. Distress B. Hyperstress C. Megastress D. Eustress

D

Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the​ heart? A. Congestive heart failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Cardiac dysrhythmia D. Cardiac compromise

D

Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will​ encounter? A. Excessive sweating B. High blood pressure C. Vomiting D. Hemorrhage

D

Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external​ bleeding? A. To prevent the spread of infectious diseases B. To make​ clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call C. To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood D. To prevent hypoperfusion

D

Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the​ lungs? A. Dyspnea B. Pedal edema C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD) D. Pulmonary edema

D

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the​ face? A. Maxillae B. Manubrium C. Zygoma D. Mandible

D

Which of the following is the primary cause of​ COPD? A. Infection B. Congenital diseases C. Air pollution D. Cigarette smoking

D

Which of the following is the proper position for maintaining the airway in a child with a decreased level of​ consciousness? A. Using a cervical collar to keep the chin elevated B. Flexing the neck to place the chin on the chest C. Hyperextension of the neck D. Placing the head and neck in a neutral position

D

Which of the following is the term used to describe an​ infant's reaction to his​ environment? A. Personality B. Bonding C. Attitude D. Temperament

D

Which of the following is true concerning the primary​ assessment? A. Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. B. External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. C. The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. D. The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

D

Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal​ injury? A. Portable stretcher B. Basket stretcher C. Scoop stretcher D. Long backboard

D

Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle​ collision? A. Electrocution B. Other emergency vehicles C. Hazardous materials D. All of the above

D

Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the​ heart? A. Mild chest discomfort B. ​Nausea, with or without vomiting C. ​Severe, crushing pain in the chest D. All of the above

D

Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large​ vein? A. Air embolism B. Hypoperfusion C. Transmission of bloodborne illnesses D. All of the above

D

Which of the following medical conditions may be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral​ emergency? A. Mental illness B. Stroke C. Hypoglycemia D. All of the above

D

Which of the following medications is most likely to be administered to a chest pain patient with a blood pressure of​ 88/50 and no difficulty​ breathing? A. Albuterol B. Nitroglycerin C. Oxygen D. Aspirin

D

Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the​ "fight or​ flight" response experienced in response to a​ stressor? A. Central nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Peripheral nervous system D. Sympathetic nervous system

D

Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or​ sores? A. Rubella B. Pertussis C. Meningitis D. Staphylococcus

D

Which of the following patients is a high priority for​ transport? A. Pediatric patient with abrasions to both knees from a fall B. High school student with dizziness after giving blood C. Adult female with knee pain D. Adult male with difficulty breathing

D

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental​ oxygen? A. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration B. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is​ 93% on room air C. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

D

Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding​ air? A. Core temperature B. Wind chill index C. Shell temperature D. Ambient temperature

D

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be​ "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the​ defibrillator? A. Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the​ patient's knees B. The EMT performing​ bag-valve-mask ventilations C. The provider who is ventilating the​ patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so the provider does not directly touch the patient D. None of the above

D

Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle​ collision? A. Portable radio B. Nonslip footwear C. Flashlight D. Reflective outer clothing

D

Which of the following should NOT be included in a patient care​ report? A. Chief complaint B. ​Patient's subjective statements C. Pertinent negative findings D. Radio codes

D

Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient​ information? A. Medications B. Description of the surroundings C. Signs D. Symptoms

D

Which of the following should increase the​ EMT's suspicion of internal​ bleeding? A. Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen B. Fall from a height three or more times the​ patient's height C. ​High-speed motor vehicle collision D. All of the above

D

Which of the following should you do when reaching for​ something? A. Avoid twisting. B. Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body. C. Keep your back in a​ locked-in position. D. All of the above

D

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in​ adults? A. Nasal flaring B. Grunting respirations C. ​See-sawing of the chest and abdomen D. All of the above

D

Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the​ EMT? A. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician. B. An EMT begins care of a​ patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic. C. An EMT who is​ off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help. D. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency​ department, leaves the patient in the waiting​ room, but does not advise the ED staff.

D

Which of the following situations is most likely to result in hidden or unsuspected​ injury? A. Collisions that occur at night B. Deformity of the interior compartment of the vehicle C. A vehicle without air bags D. Seat belt use by the vehicle occupants

D

Which of the following situations will NOT require additional resources at the​ scene? A. A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected B. A​ 300-pound woman complaining of back pain C. A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine D. A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home

D

Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as​ "the twilight​ years"? A. Adolescence B. Middle adulthood C. Early adulthood D. Late adulthood

D

Which of the following statements about​ HIV/AIDS is​ true? A. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B. B. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate. C. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS. D. HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate.

D

Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true​? A. The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization. B. A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. C. Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. D. It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true​? A. It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect. B. If a​ patient's pulse rate changes following nitroglycerin​ administration, it indicates an allergic reaction. C. An increase in blood pressure should be expected. D. The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

D

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the​ stomach? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Duodenum D. Esophagus

D

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during​ swallowing? A. Diaphragm B. Cricoid cartilage C. Pharynx D. Epiglottis

D

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal​ system? A. Acetabulum B. Tendons C. Ligaments D. Fat

D

Which of the following techniques is used when formulating the general​ impression? A. Detecting odors B. Listening for unusual sounds C. Looking for visual clues D. All of the above

D

Which of the following terms describes the heart​ muscle's ability to generate its own electrical​ impulses? A. Irritability B. Conductivity C. Contractility D. Automaticity

D

Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in​ shock? A. Elevating the​ patient's legs 8 to 10 inches B. Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures C. Applying​ high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed D. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the​ patient's fear and anxiety

D

Which of the following would most likely be seen just prior to respiratory​ arrest? A. Very​ deep, rapid respirations B. Breathing through the​ nose, not the mouth C. Accessory respirations D. Agonal respirations

D

Which urgent move should be performed for a patient seated in a​ vehicle? A. Rapid immobilization B. Rapid takedown C. Rapid takeout D. Rapid extrication

D

While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an​ emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to​ diagnosis? A. The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient. B. Due to the limited time spent with the​ patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis. C. The EMT always forms a field diagnosis within the first few minutes of the call to formulate treatment as quickly as possible. D. The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the​ patient's presentation.

D

While on the scene with an elderly chest pain​ call, you notice that your partner gets on one knee when talking to the seated patient. What is the best reason for an EMT to kneel down beside the​ patient? A. The EMT is kneeling to protect himself. B. The younger EMT is acknowledging that the older patient is his elder. C. The EMT can examine the​ patient's chest better. D. The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient.

D

While performing a detailed physical exam on a patient involved in a fall from 30​ feet, the patient​ (who had previously been responding to your​ questions) stops responding. What should you do​ next? A. Call medical control for orders. B. Continue the detailed physical assessment. C. Start CPR. D. Repeat the primary assessment.

D

While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain​ cancer, the patient​ says, "I know​ I'm going to​ die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high​ school." What stage of death and dying describes this​ patient's current​ condition? A. Depression B. Anger C. Denial D. Bargaining

D

While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the​ patient's vacation​ home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime​ scene? A. Moving the patient B. Using the bathroom C. Using the​ patient's phone D. All of the above

D

Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal​ respiration? A. The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. B. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the​ bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be​ restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability.`

D

Why should EMTs study​ pharmacology? A. As an​ EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency​ situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope. B. An EMT must know the​ manufacturer, sources,​ characteristics, and effects of every medication that has been prescribed to the patient. C. An EMT must know the​ sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe. D. As an​ EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency​ situations; many of these may be​ lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm.

D

Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when​ communicating? A. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. B. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional. C. They should only be avoided in verbal​ communications, where they can be​ misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. D. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient.

D

With regard to medical​ terminology, a prefix ​is: A. the foundation of a word or term. B. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. C. the combination of any two or more whole words. D. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.

D

You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart​ attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should​ be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his​ concerns? A. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation. B. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias. C. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring. D. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.

D

You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of​ "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia​? A. A patient with plegia is potentially​ contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. B. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an​ EMT-Paramedic level of​ care, and it may change the level of response. C. There is actually no need to clarify the word. D. Without a clarifying​ prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter.

D

You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a​ middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You​ should: A. leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people. B. have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance. C. enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care. D. wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.

D

You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a​ bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You​ should: A. reduce the concentration of oxygen. B. begin chest compressions. C. increase the concentration of oxygen. D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

D

You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed. You should​ FIRST: A. expose his chest. B. feel for a pulse. C. open his airway. D. ask him if he is okay.

D

You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your​ well-being as an​ EMT? A. Take personal protective equipment​ (PPE) precautions. B. Request additional resources. C. Utilize​ DOT-approved reflective safety clothing. D. Ensure scene safety.

D

You are assessing a patient that has been involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask​ him? A. Have you been in a crash​ before? B. How much fuel is in your​ car? C. Why were you in such a​ hurry? D. How fast was the vehicle​ going?

D

You are assessing a​ 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of​ life? A. Junior school age B. Middle school age C. Adolescent D. School age

D

You are assessing a​ 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on​ this, how would you report this​ patient's pulse? A. Pulse 20 and weak B. Pulse​ 40, weak, and irregular C. Pulse​ 20, weak, and regular D. Pulse 40 and weak

D

You are called to a kindergarten class where a boy has fallen while climbing on playground equipment. The teacher saw him fall and hit his stomach on a step. He is sobbing and holding his abdomen. As you assess​ him, you find his skin cool and​ clammy, his pulse is​ 132, respiratory is 28. Why is the boy acting this​ way? A. He possibly has wet his pants and does not want anyone to know. B. He is embarrassed and is afraid that the other students will make fun of him. C. He is really upset and wants his mother. D. He possibly has internal injuries and is in shock.

D

You are called to care for a child who has fallen out of a​ third-story window. You arrive to find the child in his​ mother's arms. As you​ approach, you notice the​ child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin​ as: A. flushed. B. jaundiced. C. cyanotic. D. mottling.

D

You are dispatched to a local bar for the report of an unresponsive female patient found in the bathroom. As you approach the​ scene, you notice a large crowd outside the front door holding beer bottles. The group has pulled the patient outside. As you approach the​ scene, people from the group start​ yelling, "Do​ something! She's not​ breathing." What concerns you the most about this​ scene? A. The crowd stating the patient is not breathing B. The fact that the patient has been moved from where she was found C. The possibility that the patient may be intoxicated D. The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you

D

You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a​ 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information​ and, when questioned by​ you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important in dealing with this​ situation, which step is the MOST​ important? A. Vital signs and SAMPLE history B. Primary assessment C. Secondary assessment D. Scene​ size-up

D

You are on a​ stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and that he has a burning sensation in his fingers. You notice that the​ patient's cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the​ patient? A. Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game. B. Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing. C. Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures. D. Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures.

D

You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the​ situation? A. Yellow crime scene tape B. Flares C. Flashing lights on the ambulance D. Reflective triangles

D

You are on the scene where a​ 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor​ blade, and tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should NOT be​ done? A. Keep bystanders away from the patient. B. Use Body Substance Isolation​ (BSI). C. Call law enforcement for assistance. D. Take the razor blade away from her by force.

D

You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental to your patient. Which of the following should you​ do? A. Call a different hospital for orders. B. Carry out the order but document that you disagreed with it. C. Contact your supervisor for advice. D. Politely question the physician.

D

You are on the scene with a​ 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the​ hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. B. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness. C. Inform the patient that he is having a​ "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. D. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.

D

You are providing care to a​ 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking CialisSuperscript ®® for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the​ ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you​ do? A. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. B. You should tell her. As his​ spouse, she is legally entitled to know his medical information. C. You should not tell her. There is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. D. You should not tell her. By​ law, your conversation with your patient is confidential.

D

You are responding to an unresponsive​ 65-year-old male patient. The patient has snoring​ respirations, a scalp​ laceration, and an obvious fracture of the left ankle. What is the best initial course of​ action? A. Bandage the scalp wound. B. Splint the ankle to avoid lacerating any nerves or arteries. C. Perform a complete primary and secondary assessment to make sure you know exactly what is wrong before treating the patient. D. Place an oral airway in the patient.

D

You are the first on the scene of a​ 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply​ kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of​ high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open​ airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Perform​ bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads. B. Contact medical direction before taking any action. C. Perform​ one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive. D. Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

D

You are transporting a victim of domestic​ violence, a​ 25-year-old female, who was struck on the head several times with a baseball bat. On the​ scene, she was responsive to verbal stimuli and was bleeding profusely from an open head wound. During transport the patient becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Secondary assessment B. Vital signs and SAMPLE history C. Detailed physical exam D. Primary assessment

D

You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight​ loss, loss of​ appetite, weakness, night​ sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and​ symptoms? A. Pneumonia B. Hepatitis B C. AIDS D. Tuberculosis

D

You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the​ patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the BEST​ response? A. ​"If you're stressed out like​ this, it's going to hurt a lot​ more." B. ​"Relax, this is not a painful​ procedure." C. ​"It doesn't​ matter, we have to do it​ anyway." D. ​"I will do my​ best, but it may hurt while we put the splint​ on."

D

You are treating an elderly male patient in the back of your ambulance. En​ route, the patient becomes unresponsive. Upon​ arrival, the ED nurse asks you several questions about his condition. What should you​ do? A. You should not disclose the information because HIPAA laws only allow you to provide the information to the emergency department physician. B. You should disclose the​ information, as it is not protected by law. C. You should not disclose the information to the nurse because it is protected confidential information and the patient did not sign a release authorizing you to discuss his condition. D. You should answer her questions because you may legally share the​ patient's medical condition with other pertinent health care providers.

D

You are​ on-scene with a​ 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure​ 68/42, pulse​ 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life​ threats, what is your next​ intervention? A. Insert an oral airway. B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by​ bag-valve mask. C. Apply the AED. D. Package the patient for rapid transport.

D

You arrive on scene to find an unresponsive homeless man lying in the alleyway clutching a wine bottle. He is wearing a​ long-sleeved shirt, but does not have pants on. His skin feels cold to the touch. The​ week's temperatures have not been above 50 degrees F. Which of the following should be done​ first? A. Apply the AED B. Ensure an open airway C. Begin passive rewarming D. Check a carotid pulse

D

You arrive on the scene of a​ 55-year-old male patient. The​ patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal​ form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you​ do? A. Respect his legal right to not have any​ treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help. B. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service. C. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing​ care, and if you intervened to help him​ now, you would be breaking the law. D. Provide emergency care under implied consent.

D

You have been called to a private residence where a​ 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be​ "acting strangely" and possibly​ "on something." Upon your​ arrival, the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door. The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present. Your knowledge of​ life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age. A. Preoccupation with body image B. ​Self-destructive behaviors such as​ tobacco, alcohol, and drug use C. Depression and suicide D. All of the above

D

You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a​ 1-month-old female patient that tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your​ arrival, the baby is​ awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient and place your finger in her​ hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as​ the: A. sucking reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. Moro reflex. D. palmar reflex.

D

You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you​ arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the​ driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of​ suspicion? A. Fractures of the lower extremities B. Chest injury C. Abdominal injuries D. Neck injury

D

You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple​ long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the​ following? A. Call the ALS unit and wait to take further action. B. Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam. C. Perform a detailed physical exam. D. Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.

D

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a​ 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are cervical spine precautions​ necessary? A. The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps. B. The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water. C. The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine. D. The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water.

D

You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the​ scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her​ first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an​ EMT? A. Legal B. Medical C. Financial D. Ethical

D

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person​ "not acting​ right." You find a​ 38-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started​ "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure​ 90/60, pulse​ 136, and respiratory rate 24. The​ patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. Which is the best treatment for the​ patient? A. Have the patient sip water slowly to replace what he has lost. B. Cool the patient with tepid water. C. Have the patient drink at least 1 liter of water to replace what he has lost. D. Apply​ high-concentration oxygen and rapidly transport to the nearest medical facility.

D

You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive​ on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without​ thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize​ that, in your hurry to save a​ life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When​ practical, your next action should be A. If your hands had no open​ wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of​ infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. B. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. C. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential​ line-of-duty injury. D. Wash your hands and report the exposure.

D

You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a​ 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute. The patient is alert and oriented to​ time, place,​ person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is​ 118/72 and pulse is 110. The​ patient's mother states she is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine​ auto-injector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Which of the following is the best treatment​ plan? A. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. B. Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom. C. Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine​ auto-injector. D. Monitor the patient for shock and transport.

D

You respond to the scene of a​ 14-year-old patient. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next​ action? A. Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature. B. Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately. C. Actively rewarm the patient. D. Passively rewarm the patient.

D

You suspect that a​ 6-year-old female patient with multiple bruises and a broken wrist was abused. The stepmother states the patient fell down the stairs. The patient is crying and sheepishly nods in agreement with the​ stepmother's statements. How should you document this situation in the patient​ report? A. Document only the actual exam findings. Do not document anything that was said. B. Document what was said as well as your opinion that the child was too afraid to tell the truth. C. Document who you suspect caused the injuries in the narrative so law enforcement has a record of the incident. D. Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and child exactly in quotations.

D

Your partner is assessing a​ 55-year-old man who was found sitting on the tailgate of his truck after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. You should​ FIRST: A. lay the patient down in the truck bed. B. instruct the patient to stand up. C. assist the patient to the stretcher. D. manually immobilize the cervical spine.

D

Your patient has a decreased level of consciousness. There is no evidence of​ trauma, and the patient has a long list of medical problems. Of the​ following, which would most likely help the EMT determine why this patient has a decreased level of​ consciousness? A. Last oral intake B. Pulse and respiratory rate C. List of allergies D. List of medications

D

Your patient has a heart rate of​ 82, a respiratory rate of​ 16, and a blood pressure of​ 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least​ every: A. 10 minutes. B. 5 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. 15 minutes.

D

Your patient is an​ 18-year-old female whom you believe may have had a miscarriage and is bleeding heavily. You have completed your primary and secondary assessments and now you need to reassess her to see if the bleeding has stopped. You​ should: A. ask her to check herself to see if she is still bleeding. B. take another set of vital signs to see if her blood pressure has dropped. C. wait and let the hospital staff reassess the bleeding. D. in a reassuring​ tone, explain what you need to do.

D

Your patient is an​ 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is​ "drowning in his own​ lungs." The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his​ "heart is​ shot." The​ patient's cardiac output is likely diminished​ because: A. the pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased​ (afterload is​ increased). B. less blood fills his heart with each contraction​ (preload is​ diminished). C. the​ heart's force of contraction is reduced​ (contractility is​ diminished). D. All of the above are true.

D

Your patient is a​ 15-year-old female who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this​ situation? A. Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. B. Transport the​ patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. C. Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport. D. Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

D

Your patient is a​ 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Contact medical control. B. Check the​ patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Assist the patient with his inhaler. D. Assist the​ patient's ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

D

Your patient is a​ 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with​ him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first​ consideration? A. Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone. B. Quickly check the​ patient's carotid pulse. C. Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. D. Stay a safe distance away.

D

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She has been walking around at an outdoor fair on a​ hot, sunny day. She is disoriented to​ time; has​ hot, dry​ skin; and appears to be generally weak. Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of treatment for this​ patient? A. Get as much ice as possible from the food vendors at the​ fair, place the patient in a large container of​ ice, and apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Give oxygen by nonrebreather​ mask, have the patient sip a sports drink or electrolyte​ solution, remove heavy​ clothing, and place cold packs on her​ neck, armpits, and groin. C. Have the patient drink an electrolyte solution or sports drink and apply cold packs to her​ neck, armpits, and groin. D. Give oxygen by nonrebreather​ mask, remove heavy​ clothing, and place cold packs on her​ neck, armpits, and groin.

D

Your patient is a​ 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of severe difficulty breathing. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather​ mask? A. Obtain a history of the present illness. B. Check the​ patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Listen to the​ patient's breath sounds. D. None of the above

D

Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an​ AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done​ next? A. Remove the AED and assist the​ patient's ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask and supplemental​ oxygen, and keep​ re-assessing the pulse. B. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the​ patient's respiratory status. C. Apply a nonrebreather mask with​ high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse. D. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.

D

Your trauma patient is​ anxious, tachycardic,​ pale, and hypotensive. Which of these signs indicates failure of the​ body's compensatory​ mechanisms? A. Anxiousness B. Pallor C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension

D

​________ blood returns to the right side of the heart. A. Red B. Anemic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

D

When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered? A) 15 per minute B) 12 per minute C) 24 per minute D) 20 per minute

D) 20 per minute

While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ________ breaths per minute. A) 16 B) 20 C) 24 D) 30

D) 30

Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult? A) 20 breaths/min B) 12 breaths/min C) 16 breaths/min D) 8 breaths/min

D) 8 breaths/min

Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate breathing? A) A patient with cyanosis B) A patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard C) A patient with agonal respirations D) A patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

D) A patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart? A) Mild chest discomfort B) Severe, crushing pain in the chest C) Nausea, with or without vomiting D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following should you anticipate when giving nitroglycerin to a patient? A) A drop in the patient's blood pressure B) A patient complaint of headache C) A change in the level of pain experienced by the patient D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? A) See-sawing of the chest and abdomen B) Grunting respirations C) Nasal flaring D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following is a complete list of the medications an EMT can assist the patient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical Director? A) Prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, prescribed nitroglycerin, and prescribed epinephrine auto-injectors B) Any over-the-counter medication, oral glucose, and oxygen C) Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto injectors. D) Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors

D) Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors

Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next? A) Contact medical control. B) Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. C) Assist the patient with his inhaler. D) Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

D) Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

Which of the following is the primary cause of COPD? A) Air pollution B) Congenital diseases C) Infection D) Cigarette smoking

D) Cigarette smoking

Which of the following is NOT a sign of difficulty breathing? A) Inability to speak full sentences B) Coughing C) Decreased level of consciousness D) Curling up in the fetal position

D) Curling up in the fetal position

Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? A) Intercostal muscles contract B) Chest cavity increases in size C) Diaphragm lowers D) Diaphragm relaxes .

D) Diaphragm relaxes

What are the actions of nitroglycerin on the human body? A) It reduces the pain in the myocardium and lowers blood pressure. B) It causes the dilation of coronary blood pressure and reduces pain in the myocardium. C) It causes the constriction of bronchioles and reduces pain in the myocardium. D) It causes the dilation of coronary blood vessels that supply the heart muscle.

D) It causes the dilation of coronary blood vessels that supply the heart muscle.

In which of the following circumstances is medical control necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A) Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. B) Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. C) The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient. D) Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

D) Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen? A) Never give oxygen to a chronic obstructed pulmonary disease patient. B) Always document the need for oxygen by pulse oximetry before giving it to the patient. C) Only withhold oxygen to anyone who is allergic to it. D) Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it.

D) Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it.

Your patient is a 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of severe difficulty breathing. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather mask? A) Listen to the patient's breath sounds. B) Obtain a history of the present illness. C) Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. D) None of the above

D) None of the above

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen? A) A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive B) An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration C) A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100 percent on room air D) None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

D) None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath? A) Decreased heart rate B) Dissolved mucus in the airways C) Increased contraction of the diaphragm D) Relaxation of the bronchioles

D) Relaxation of the bronchioles

Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first? A) Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B) Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C) Check the patient's pulse. D) Remove the patient's pillow.

D) Remove the patient's pillow.

Which of the following BEST describes the five rights? A) In date, right medication, right order, right dose, right time B) Right patient, right medication, in date, right dose, right route C) Right decision, right medication, right order, right dose, right place D) Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route

D) Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route

When the lung collapses without injury or any other cause, it is called which of the following? A) COPD B) Spontaneous pertussis C) Spontaneous pulmonary embolism D) Spontaneous pneumothorax

D) Spontaneous pneumothorax

When you hear wheezes while auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause? A) There is an upper airway obstruction. B) There is mucus in the air passages. C) There is fluid in the lungs. D) The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.

D) The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.

Bronchodilator inhalers have several common side effects, which include: A) decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate. B) bronchodilation and increased heart rate. C) vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. D) jitteriness and increased heart rate. .

D) jitteriness and increased heart rate.

The epinephrine auto-injector is given via the _______________ route. A) oral B) enteral C) digestive D) parenteral

D) parenteral

Why might you consider contacting medical direction before applying a tourniquet in the case of uncontrollable bleeding from an AV fistula? Answer Damage to the fistula may occur. The patient may be in danger of losing the limb. Medical direction should be contacted before any use of tourniquets. Hemodialysis anticoagulants may make bleeding more severe.

Damage to the fistula may occur.

Your patient is a 35-year-old female with abdominal pain. Which of the following findings CANNOT be attributed to the patient experiencing pain? Answer Slight increase in blood pressure Shallow respirations Increased heart rate Decreased level of consciousness

Decreased level of consciousness

Which of the following is the basis for applying an AED only to patients who are not breathing and who do NOT have a pulse? Answer Defibrillators recognize ventricular tachycardia, which may be accompanied by a pulse. Defibrillators recognize ventricular fibrillation, which may be accompanied by a pulse. Defibrillators will shock asystole, which may occur in patients who are conscious. None of the above

Defibrillators recognize ventricular tachycardia, which may be accompanied by a pulse.

Gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is an example of which of the following types of drugs? Answer Hallucinogen Stimulant Volatile spirit Depressant

Depressant

Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain? Answer Determining the possible need for immediate surgery Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport Determining the cause of the pain Determining the presence of shock

Determining the presence of shock

Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction? Answer Constriction No change Spasm Dilation

Dilation

Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting? Answer How did the patient behave during the seizure? Did the patient lose control of his bladder? Does the patient have a family history of seizures? What was the patient doing before the seizure?

Does the patient have a family history of seizures?

Barbiturates may be referred to as which of the following? Answer Downers Meth Acid Uppers

Downers

Which of the following BEST describes the EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care? Answer Early notification Early advanced cardiac life support Early defibrillation Early CPR

Early defibrillation

Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She has just experienced a seizure, although she has no previous history of seizures other than hypertension associated with the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure? Answer Trauma Hypoglycemia Eclampsia Any of the above

Eclampsia

Which of the following groups is the most susceptible to the effects of a poison? Answer Pre-teens Adolescents Elderly All of the above are equally susceptible.

Elderly

You have responded to a call about a "psychiatric patient" to find a 24-year-old woman talking to herself in her home. She is rocking back and forth and you can see from a distance that she is perspiring profusely. You also see an empty medication bottle on the floor. She does not acknowledge your presence. When you attempt to speak to her, she continues to talk to herself as if you were not there. Which of the following should be included in your actions at the scene? Answer Distract her so your partner can look around the house. Look through the house with your partner to try to find some clues to the patient's problem. Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for its arrival. Shake the patient's shoulder to check for responsiveness to physical stimuli. .

Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for its arrival.

Which of the following is a trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector? Answer Autodrenalin® AllerPen® Anajector® Epi-Pen®

Epi-Pen®

During your primary assessment you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following? Answer Failing respiratory system Problems with the RAS due to hypertension The need for suctioning of the airway The need to complete a secondary assessment

Failing respiratory system

Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, you should suspect which of the following as the likely cause of the patient's presentation? Answer Failure to take her insulin A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness Failure to intake sufficient sugar Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy

Failure to intake sufficient sugar

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults? Answer Failure to take prescribed medication Withdrawal from alcohol Fever Head trauma

Failure to take prescribed medication

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia? Answer Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake Flushed, hot, dry skin and a "fruity" odor of the breath Cool, moist skin, agitated behavior, and increased heart rate Sudden onset of altered mental status

Flushed, hot, dry skin and a "fruity" odor of the breath

You respond, along with fire department medical responders, to a 48-year-old female having a syncope episode in the bathroom. You find the patient sitting on the commode vomiting into the trashcan. The vomitus appears to look like coffee grounds and has a foul smell. The patient is pale and has been weak for the past few days. She has: Answer peritonitis. abdominal aortic aneurysm. hernia. GI bleeding.

GI bleeding.

The drug Ecstasy is classified as what type of drug? Answer Depressant Hallucinogen Barbiturate Tranquilizer

Hallucinogen

The term poison is BEST described as any substance that can do which of the following? Answer Increase cellular activity Deactivate nerve transmission Depress the body's respirations Harm the body

Harm the body

Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation? Answer Have a female EMT attend to the patient. Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport.

Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

Your patient is a 3-year-old male with a stoma who has swallowed a household cleaner. Medical direction gives you an order for milk to dilute the stomach contents. Which of the following is the correct way of carrying out this order? Answer Administer one glass of milk through the stoma. Have the patient drink one glass of milk. Have the patient drink a glass of milk while you plug the stoma to prevent leakage. Refuse the order and explain why.

Have the patient drink one glass of milk.

Once you encounter uncontrolled bleeding from an AV fistula, which of the following methods would you consider using to control bleeding in addition to direct pressure and elevation? Answer Internal wound management Tourniquet Hemostatic dressings Pressure points

Hemostatic dressings

Your patient is a 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, he is sweating profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is most likely responsible for the patient's condition? Answer Heroin Ecstasy LSD PCP .

Heroin

Which of the following is the most important means of managing a patient who has inhaled a poison, after the airway has been established? Answer Hyperventilation High concentrations of oxygen Monitoring pulse oximetry Administering a specific antidote .

High concentrations of oxygen

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a patient? Answer Hog-tying the patient Placing a surgical mask over the patient's face to prevent spitting Restraining the patient face-up Securing all four limbs with leather restraints

Hog-tying the patient

Which of the following does a physician NOT take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector? Answer The patient's medical history The severity of previous allergic reactions How far the patient lives from medical attention The patient's known allergies

How far the patient lives from medical attention

A 14-year-old female is found unconscious in the bathroom just before lunch. Several girls say they saw her shoot up earlier in the day and the school resource officer has found a syringe in her backpack. The patient has cool and clammy skin, snoring respirations, and she vomited before she slumped to the floor. What might be the cause of her altered mental status? Answer Fainting spell Hypoglycemia Hypotension due to pregnancy Injectable illegal drugs

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral emergency? Answer Acute alcohol intoxication Hypoglycemia Suicidal ideology Severe clinical depression

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior? Answer Hypoxia Allergic reaction Gastroenteritis All of the above .

Hypoxia

Which of the following is NOT true concerning a patient's reaction to toxic gas exposure? Answer If the patient is treated immediately, there will be no long-term effects. Signs and symptoms may be delayed. The patient may present without respiratory difficulty. Signs and symptoms may be immediate and severe.

If the patient is treated immediately, there will be no long-term effects.

Your patient states that he is having an allergic reaction to a bee sting. He denies difficulty breathing, has normal vital signs, and has no evidence of hives. He has no signs of distress. Which of the following should you do for this patient? Answer Administer oral antihistamines, such as Benadryl. Immediately administer oxygen. Continue with your secondary assessment. All of the above

Immediately administer oxygen.

Your patient is a 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is appropriate? Answer Test the patient's sensation with a series of pinpricks, beginning at the feet and working upward. Keep the patient in a supine position. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients. Administer oral glucose and then assess the patient's blood sugar.

Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients.

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for AED? Answer Taking disciplinary action for patient care errors Eliminating the need for medical direction Replacing continuing education Improving patient outcomes in the community .

Improving patient outcomes in the community

Which of the following is NOT an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition? Answer Increased blood pressure Increased heart rate Increased dyspnea Both B and C

Increased dyspnea

Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic reactions? Answer Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens. Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth. Allergens do not affect infants. None of the above

Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.

Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs by which of the following routes? Answer Absorption Inhalation Radiation Aspiration

Inhalation

Which of the following traumatic conditions may account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral emergency? Answer A fractured lumbar vertebra 10 percent BSA partial thickness burn A fractured tibia Internal hemorrhage

Internal hemorrhage

Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia? Answer Intoxication Respiratory distress Heart attack All of the above

Intoxication

Your patient is a 2-year-old conscious male who has swallowed a small quantity of bleach. Which of the following findings should you evaluate the patient for? Answer Dilated pupils Irregular pulse Irritation in and around the mouth Respiratory depression

Irritation in and around the mouth

A hormone called insulin is secreted by the: Answer Islets of Langerhans in the liver. gallbladder found in the pancreas. Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. None of the above

Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is true? Answer It can be brought on by exertion or stress. It is generally relieved by over-the-counter medications. It results in death of a smaller portion of myocardium than does a heart attack. It generally lasts 30 to 60 minutes.

It can be brought on by exertion or stress.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies? Answer It dilates blood vessels throughout the body. It dilates only the coronary arteries. It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract. It slows down the heart.

It dilates blood vessels throughout the body.

Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is NOT true? Answer It has an immediate action. It can cause a patient to aspirate stomach contents into the lungs. It removes only about one-third of stomach contents. It is contraindicated if activated charcoal has been given.

It has an immediate action.

Which of the following is an action of insulin? Answer It increases the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream. It increases the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell. It increases the circulating level of glucose in the blood. It blocks the uptake of sugar by the body's cells.

It increases the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.

Regarding activated charcoal, which of the following is NOT true? Answer Ingestion of strong acids or alkalis is a contraindication to its use. It is an antidote to many poisons. It can reduce the amount of poison absorbed by the gastrointestinal system. It does not work on all poisons

It is an antidote to many poisons.

Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain? Answer It is only felt in hollow organs. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it. It is caused by psychological stress. It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky."

It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain? Answer It is often described as "crampy" or "colicky." It arises from solid organs. It is usually intermittent in nature. It is generally localized to a particular area.

It is generally localized to a particular area.

Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true? Answer Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization. A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation

It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is NOT true? Answer Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others. It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. Differences in culture may initially appear to be abnormal behaviors to the EMT. Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause.

It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility.

Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia? Answer Its onset is more sudden. Its onset is more gradual. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.

Its onset is more gradual.

Which of the following structures is technically not located in the abdominal cavity? Answer Kidneys Liver Spleen Stomach

Kidneys

Your patient is a 40-year-old female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus; has cool, dry skin; a heart rate of 116; respirations of 24; and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting this patient? Answer Supine with the knees bent Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent Sitting up at a 90-degree angle Sitting up at a 45-degree angle

Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent

The epinephrine contained in an auto-injector is in which of the following forms? Answer Gel Topical ointment Liquid Fine powder

Liquid

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure? Answer Productive cough Wet sounding breath sounds Increased heart rate Low blood pressure

Low blood pressure

Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis? Answer Low blood pressure due to vasodilation High blood pressure due to tachycardia High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction Low blood pressure due to bradycardia

Low blood pressure due to vasodilation

Which of the following is the correct position of transport for a stroke patient with left-sided paralysis, a decreased level of consciousness, and an inability to maintain his or her airway? Answer Supine Lying on the right side Semi-sitting Lying on the left side

Lying on the left side

Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? Answer Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you." Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him. Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior. Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs. .

Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you."

Which of the following substances may be ordered by medical control to dilute a poison? Answer Milk of magnesia or magnesium citrate Milk or water Milk or milk of magnesia Water with syrup of ipecac

Milk or water

Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you do? Answer Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue.

Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

How frequently does the majority of peritoneal dialysis require treatment? Answer Three to five times a week Once a day Multiple treatments a day Once a week .

Multiple treatments a day

Which of the following is NOT a cause of parietal pain? Answer Muscle spasm Bleeding into the abdominal cavity Inflammation Infection

Muscle spasm

Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the following? Answer Influenza Extreme diarrhea with dehydration Myocardial infarction All of the above

Myocardial infarction

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen? Answer Angina pectoris Myocardial infarction Cardiac arrest Heart failure .

Myocardial infarction

OxyContin is an example of which of the following types of drugs? Answer Narcotic Antidepressant Appetite suppressant Barbiturate

Narcotic

Which of the following is a common sign and symptom in poisonings of all types? Answer Nausea and vomiting Dizziness and palpitations Headache and diaphoresis Pain and diaphoresis .

Nausea and vomiting

Which of the following communication strategies should be used in dealing with a patient with a behavioral emergency? Answer Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure. Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. Show deep sympathy for the patient's predicament and let him know he can't control the things that are happening to him. None of the above

None of the above

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator? Answer The EMT performing bag-valve-mask ventilations The provider who is ventilating the patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so the provider does not directly touch the patient Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the patient's knees None of the above

None of the above

You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? Answer Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector. Administer the epinephrine, just in case. Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice. None of the above

None of the above

Which of the following medications does NOT interfere with the blood-clotting process? Answer Omeprazole Warfarin Heparin Clopidogrel .

Omeprazole

Most epinephrine auto-injectors, except the Twinject, contain how many doses of epinephrine? Answer Two Three One None of the above

One

For the reticular activating system to work correctly, what three substances are needed? Answer Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

Patients with a history of chronic anemia may present with which of the following signs and symptoms? Answer Bluish discoloration of the skin and shortness of breath Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion Flushed appearance and shortness of breath Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion

Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion

Which of the following MOST affects the extent of damage a poison does to the body? Answer Patient's race, age, and medications taken Patient's genetics, height, and medications taken Patient's nutritional status, genetics, and strength of the immune system Patient's age, weight, and general health

Patient's age, weight, and general health

Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients? Answer Presacral swelling Crackles Congestive heart failure Pedal edema

Pedal edema

When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority? Answer Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place Calming the patient down Performing a scene size-up

Performing a scene size-up

Patients who dialyze at home are at high risk for what type of infection? Answer Peritonitis Decubitus ulcers Cellulitis Fistula infection

Peritonitis

When responding to an attempted suicide, which of the following is the EMT's primary concern? Answer Personal safety Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal Managing the patient's airway

Personal safety

Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine auto-injector? Answer Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container. Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of. Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department.

Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.

Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, heart rate of 112 beats per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient? Answer Encourage the patient's family to administer his insulin. Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the patient's cheek and gums. Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the patient's tongue. Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

By which of the following actions does carbon monoxide have its toxic effects? Answer Causes red blood cells to clump together Prevents the blood from clotting Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen Prevents red blood cells from releasing carbon dioxide

Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen

Which of the following is the best initial intervention for a patient who has inhaled a poison? Answer Provide plenty of fresh air and monitor pulse oximetry readings. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear the airway, followed by high-concentration oxygen. Transport in a position of comfort and provide oxygen for patients with a decreased level of consciousness. Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen.

Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen.

Your patient is a 17-year-old with a history of asthma. She is complaining of pain in her lower abdomen. Assessment reveals that her breath sounds are clear and equal, she has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? Answer Provide high-concentration oxygen. Assist the patient in the administration of her metered-dose inhaler. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to rebreathe some of her carbon dioxide. All of the above

Provide high-concentration oxygen.

Your patient is a 7-year-old girl who was prescribed an antibiotic for an ear infection. After 4 days on the antibiotic, the patient is experiencing hives and itching on her face, throat, and neck. Which of the following should you do? Answer Advise the parents that these symptoms are related to the ear infection and the antibiotic will take care of these symptoms if taken as directed. Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital. Advise the parents to call the pediatrician for a different antibiotic. Immediately administer Epi-Pen Jr.®

Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital.

Which of the following is the BEST defense for an EMT when facing allegations of misconduct from a mentally ill patient? Answer Hiring a background investigator to discredit the accuser Having a clean employment record and lack of a criminal background Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness Making sure you and your partner get your stories straight before talking to anyone

Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness

Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs? Answer Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Pulmonary edema Pedal edema Dyspnea

Pulmonary edema

Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following situations? Answer Pulseless electrical activity Pulseless bradycardia Asystole Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following is NOT a way in which poisons can access the body? Answer Injection Inhalation Radiation Absorption

Radiation

Your patient is a 34-year-old male complaining of pain "in his right side." He is pale and diaphoretic with a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/80 mmHg. The patient is very agitated and anxious. Which approach is most appropriate? Answer Try to determine the cause of his pain. Tell the patient that you cannot transport him unless he calms down and lies still. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. Reassure him that you will make him as comfortable as possible and get him to the hospital for additional care.

Reassure him that you will make him as comfortable as possible and get him to the hospital for additional care.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male who has taken an overdose of several different medications and has consumed some household cleaning agents as well. On your arrival, the patient only responds to painful stimuli, and has a heart rate of 90 beats per minute with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. Medical control orders you to give the patient two to three glasses of milk to drink to dilute the contents of the stomach. Which of the following actions should you do? Answer Assist the patient in drinking only one glass of milk to reduce the risk of aspiration. Ask medical control if you can substitute water for the milk since water will not damage the lungs if aspirated. Refuse the order and explain why. Assist the patient in drinking as much of the two to three glasses of milk as he can.

Refuse the order and explain why.

Which of the following pathologies make patients at high risk for acute renal failure? Answer Polycystic kidney disease Shock Uncontrolled diabetes Hypertension

Shock

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless VT? Answer Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check Shock, shock, shock, shock

Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again

Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication? Answer Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure Slows the heart rate Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium Increases the strength of myocardial contraction

Slows the heart rate

Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration? Answer Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone. Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse. Stay a safe distance away.

Stay a safe distance away.

When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following? Answer Neurosis Stress reaction Post-traumatic stress disorder Catharsis

Stress reaction

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following? Answer Transient ischemic attack Stroke Aphasia Seizure

Stroke

If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would most likely occur? Answer Bradycardia Stronger and faster heartbeat No reaction if administered inadvertently Relief of shortness of breath

Stronger and faster heartbeat

Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor falls and blows to the head? Answer Subdural hematoma Concussion Intracerebral hematoma Skull fracture

Subdural hematoma

Which of the following is the most critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped convulsing? Answer Suction A cervical collar A glucometer A bite block

Suction

Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis? Answer Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing. Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs. Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen.

Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.

You are on the scene where a 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor blade, and tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should NOT be done? Answer Use BSI. Keep bystanders away from the patient. Call law enforcement for assistance. Take the razor blade away from her by force.

Take the razor blade away from her by force.

You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of action? Answer Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance. Initiate CPR and continue transporting.

Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock? Answer The EMT at the patient's head The EMT operating the defibrillator The EMT managing the airway The EMT doing chest compressions

The EMT operating the defibrillator

Which of the following is NOT true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients? Answer The elderly person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. The elderly have a decreased ability to perceive pain. Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint. The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious.

The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious.

By definition, a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following? Answer The stomach and intestines Localized areas of tissue A specific organ system The entire body

The entire body

Your patient is a conscious 4-year-old female who has ingested a medication prescribed for her grandfather. To determine appropriate treatment, which of the following information is NOT necessary to provide to medical control? Answer The patient's weight and the amount of medication taken The patient's vital signs and the time the medication was taken Any home remedies attempted by the patient's family The grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication

The grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication

Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT true? Answer Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion. Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles. Heart attacks present differently among women and men. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole.

The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole.

Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her wishes? Answer The patient's personal physician gives you permission. A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient. The patient is a threat to himself or others. The patient's insurance company agrees to pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

The patient is a threat to himself or others.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised"? Answer The patient's heart has no electrical activity; he is "flat line," or in asystole. The patient's heart rhythm is normal. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. .

The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

You are treating a 61-year-old who is a chronic alcohol abuser. He is complaining of "snakes slithering around his ankles," and he tells you that he had only two drinks tonight. You notice that he is sweating, trembling, and anxious. Before you can complete your assessment, he begins to have a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation? Answer The patient could not find an alcoholic beverage and drank antifreeze instead. The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal. The patient drank mouthwash instead of beverage alcohol. The patient is suffering from acute alcohol poisoning.

The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true? Answer An increase in blood pressure should be expected. The patient may complain of a headache following administration. If it is fresh it will have no noticeable taste. It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect.

The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector? Answer The patient possesses an epinephrine auto-injector. The patient has been exposed to a known allergen. The patient is suffering from hypotension following exposure to a substance to which he is allergic. The patient is suffering from respiratory distress following exposure to a substance to which he is allergic.

The patient possesses an epinephrine auto-injector.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has most likely occurred? Answer The patient suffered a cerebral vascular accident. The patient is suffering from aphasia. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack

The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

When restraining a patient, which of the following is NOT a consideration? Answer The number of people available to carry out the required actions The patient's size and strength The patient's informed consent How to position the patient

The patient's informed consent

Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true? Answer The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector before exposure to the substance. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before

The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction.

Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true? Answer They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide. They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is truly depressed. They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious. They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die.

They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide.

Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true? Answer It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan. This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement

This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.

How many times a week do the majority of American hemodialysis patients receive treatment? Answer Five Three Seven One

Three

Which of the following describes any substance produced by a living organism that is poisonous to human beings? Answer Antibody Acid Toxin Antigen

Toxin

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? Answer Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are. Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation. Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent.

Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement.

ich of the following is the EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest pain? Answer Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack. Provide automatic external defibrillation. Make an interpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm. Determine the cause of the patient's chest pain.

Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack.

Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? Answer Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis.

Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.

How many dose(s) of medication does the Twinject epinephrine auto-injector contain? Answer Four Three Two One

Two

Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? Answer A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body A seizure that occurs without a known cause A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Which of the following findings would be helpful in differentiating between a closed head injury and a behavioral emergency? Answer Irrational behavior Unequal pupils Confusion Combativeness

Unequal pupils

What is one of the most common diseases to affect the renal and urinary system? Answer Urinary tract infections Acute renal failure End-stage renal disease Kidney stones

Urinary tract infections

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient? Answer Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications Lack of exercise Vomiting after eating a meal Overeating

Vomiting after eating a meal

Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in anaphylaxis? Answer Decreased heart rate Vasoconstriction Bronchoconstriction All of the above

Vasoconstriction

Cleaning fluid, glue, and model cement are common examples of which of the following? Answer Hallucinogens Narcotics Volatile chemicals Aromatic spirits

Volatile chemicals

Your patient is an 18-year-old male who fell into a neighbor's swimming pool but was pulled out by bystanders. The neighbors report that the patient wandered into their yard and that he said he had a "funny numb feeling" in his head and his chest hurt before stumbling into the pool. As you are performing CPR, you notice that the mucous membranes in his mouth and nose are swollen. Which of the following would account for the patient's behavior and current condition? Answer Volatile chemicals GHB Methamphetamine Carbon monoxide poisoning

Volatile chemicals

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a stroke? Answer Weakness on one side of the body Projectile vomiting Sudden onset of bizarre behavior Sudden, severe headache

Weakness on one side of the body

Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction? Answer Clear, adequate air movement Fine, wet crackles or rales Coarse-sounding rhonchi Wheezing

Wheezing

For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members? Answer When was the last time you had something to eat? Do you have a fruity taste in your mouth? Do you have a family history of diabetes? What kind of insulin do you take?

When was the last time you had something to eat?

Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? Answer Description of the patient's behavior Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill Your observations of the patient's surroundings at the scene Your actions

Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill

Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. Which of the following questions is LEAST pertinent to the care of this patient? Answer How much do you weigh? Who do these sleeping pills belong to? Over what period of time did you take the pills? Has anyone tried to treat you with anything?

Who do these sleeping pills belong to?

Your patient is a 7-year-old male who ate an unknown type of mushroom on a dare by his friends. You should ask all of the following questions EXCEPT which one? Answer When did you eat the mushroom? Are there any more of the mushrooms? Why did you eat the mushroom? How much did you eat?

Why did you eat the mushroom?

Within what period of time should the EMT expect most anaphylaxis patients to respond to the administration of subcutaneous epinephrine? Answer Within 15 to 30 seconds Within 2 minutes Within 20 minutes Within 10 minutes

Within 2 minutes

Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely? Answer You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction. You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard. You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.

You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.

Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following? Answer Infants Adults Adolescents Young children

Young children

Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse include all of the following EXCEPT: Answer decreased level of responsiveness. confusion. nausea and vomiting. an acetone or ketone odor to the breath.

an acetone or ketone odor to the breath.

You are dispatched to an unconscious hemodialysis patient. On arrival to the dialysis clinic, the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You secure the ABCs, begin ventilation, and initiate chest compressions. However, the patient's cardiac arrest rhythm is continuously unresponsive to defibrillations with your AED. The best approach is to: Answer call online medical control to terminate the code. The probability of survival is too low to continue resuscitation efforts. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient's dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure. run a "no-electricity" code in which compressions and ventilation are continued. No additional defibrillations are necessary. continue defibrillating as the monitor recommends. The myocardium becomes increasingly responsive to successive defibrillations

begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient's dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure.

You encounter a patient who has been having diffuse abdominal pain for one week. The patient has a pulse rate of 86, a blood pressure of 140/90, and a respiratory rate of 20. However, the patient appears pale, and complains of generalized weakness and shortness of breath during everyday activities. You suspect the patient is experiencing: Answer anxiety disorder. chronic anemia. sickle cell anemia. acute anemia.

chronic anemia.

The "Opiate Triad" includes all of the following EXCEPT: Answer hypertension. pinpoint pupils. coma. respiratory depression. .

hypertension.

Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are _________ and _________. Answer blood clots; COPD high cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms heart failure; stroke hypertension; diabetes

hypertension; diabetes

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: Answer diabetic coma. hypoglycemia. hyperglycemia. diabetic ketoacidosis.

hypoglycemia.

The medications that transplant patients need to take for the rest of their lives to prevent organ rejection also often lead to high susceptibility of: Answer infection. renal failure. ulcers. congestive heart failure.

infection

The most frequently transplanted organ is the: Answer liver. heart. kidney. pancreas.

kidney

Management of the suicidal patient includes all of the following EXCEPT: Answer physical examination. leaving the patient. SAMPLE history. communication.

leaving the patient.

Volatile chemicals are agents that are able to change easily from a ________ form to a ________ form. Answer solid; vapor solid; liquid gas; liquid liquid; gas

liquid; gas

There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a: Answer tonic-clonic seizure. generalized seizure. postictal seizure. partial seizure. .

partial seizure.

Most organs of the abdomen are enclosed within the: Answer extraperitoneal. peritoneum. retroperitoneal. midline.

peritoneum

A patient with a medical history of sickle cell anemia is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient is breathing 26 times a minute in short, shallow respirations. However, the patient's oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is 100 percent on room air. The best approach regarding supplemental oxygen is to: Answer do nothing; no supplemental oxygen is necessary. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. place the patient on a nasal cannula. place the patient on a simple face mask.

place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.

You respond to a 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating the: Answer aura phase. clonic phase. postictal phase. tonic phase.

postictal phase.

A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the electrolyte: Answer phosphorous. potassium. sodium. calcium.

potassium

As an EMT, it is important that you be able to do all of the following EXCEPT Answer control your own emotions when dealing with patients who say upsetting things to you. provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems. ensure your safety and that of others at the scene. deal with a wide variety of emotions and behaviors

provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems.

Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of _________, which is a similar presentation to _________. Answer pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure shortness of breath; pneumonia chest pain; acute myocardial infarction neurological disturbances; stroke

pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure

Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as: Answer receptive aphasia. disorientation to time. unresponsive to verbal stimuli. expressive aphasia.

receptive aphasia.

Because of abnormally shaped hemoglobin, sickle cell anemia patients may occasionally experience _________, causing a blockage of small blood vessels. Answer sludging aggregation clotting clumping

sludging

When a chemical substance is taken for reasons other than therapeutic use, this action is called: Answer tolerance. psychological dependence. substance abuse. addiction.

substance abuse.

Peritoneal dialysis allows patients to dialyze at home through: Answer a dialysis machine. the abdomen. an AV fistula. the urethra.

the abdomen.

The sensation felt when palpating an arterial-venous fistula or shunt is known as a: Answer bruit. frill. thrill. fluttering.

thrill

Hemodialysis is used to help the kidneys filter ________ and remove excess ________. Answer electrolytes; hormones urine; poisons blood; cholesterol toxins; fluids

toxins; fluids

Pain that originates in an organ, such as the intestines, is called ________ pain. Answer visceral referred acute parietal

visceral


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