Final Exam Poli 201

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A government program that is funded by the national government but run and managed by state governments is emblematic of which of the following? a. Dual federalism b. Cooperative federalism c. Enumerated powers d. Reserved powers e. The supremacy clause

b.

In cases where elected officials are attempting to reform policies where people express intense feelings both for and against an issue, the elected officials often choose to do which of the following? a. Not change policy to favor either of the extreme positions b. Try to alter public opinion through agenda setting c. Utilize social media to reach a compromise with people that hold extreme positions d. Change policy in favor of the public opinion that most closely aligns with their political party e. Use polls to determine if a nonopinion on the issue can be formed

NF

One of the most convincing explanations for the persistence of the two-party system in the United States lies in its use of which of the following? a. Single winners chosen by an absolute majority of votes b. Multiple winners chosen by a proportional representation of votes c. Multiple winners chosen by a simple plurality of votes d. Single winners chosen by a proportional representation of votes e. Single winners chosen by a simple plurality of votes

NF

Generating public pressure and awareness may do which of the following? a. Convince policymakers that public opinion overwhelmingly supports the interest group's position b. Mislead the public on environmental issues c. Bypass the legislative process d. Force bureaucrats to answer to congressional committees e. Lobby lawmakers directly

a.

Some argue that the interest group system is most likely to leave out which of the following groups? a. Poor Americans b. Workers in the public sector c. Workers in the private sector d. The agriculture industry e. Small businesses

a.

The four most important functions of a political party are structuring the voting choice in elections, proposing alternative government programs, coordinating the actions of government officials, and which of the following? a. Nominating candidates for election to public office b. Engineering federal budget proposals c. Organizing partisan protests d. Acting as a link between federal and state governments e. Introducing legislation to Congress

a.

Which of the following best describes the right to vote? a. It has been expanded since the writing of the Constitution. b. It has not been extended to those without property. c. It has been given to aliens as long as they are registered to vote. d. It can never be taken away. e. It is taken away if one doesn't vote in five elections.

a.

Which of the following describes states that will see intense campaigning up to the very day of the election? a. Battleground b. Blue c. Large d. Red e. Front-loading

a.

Which of the following groups is more likely than the others to affiliate with the modern Democratic Party? a. Millennials b. White evangelical protestants c. Cuban Americans d. Americans over age 65 e. Wealthy men

a.

Which of the following theories sees political struggle as the pitting of different groups against each other to reach a compromise? a. Pluralism b. Majoritarianism c. Socialism d. Elitism e. Totalitarianism

a.

AARP and AAA have members in every congressional district, a reflection of strength in which of the following areas? a. Leadership b. Size and resources c. Ability to rally the public d. Cohesiveness e. Grassroots tactics

b.

An interest group is an organized group of individuals who share common interests and do which of the following? a. Seek to win elections b. Attempt to influence policymakers c. Aspire to control government d. Wish to overhaul the judicial process e. Try to subvert legislative action

b.

Because there is no single "public," but rather many different publics, surveying public opinion actually means which of the following? a. Focusing on one identifiable opinion among competing opinions b. Describing attitudes typically shared by some portion of the adult population c. Identifying the issue where opinions aggregate d. Polling only influential individuals e. Persuading people to support the policies of the administration in power

b.

How have third parties influenced presidential elections? a. Increasing party identification among the electorate b. Pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates c. Recruiting candidates from the major political parties to run for president d. Encouraging a larger voter turnout on election day e. Distracting and confusing voters about policy agendas

b.

If no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral college votes, the election is decided by which of the following? a. The president b. The House of Representatives c. The Senate d. Votes in the 50 state legislatures e. The U.S. Supreme Court

b.

Since 1960, the greatest growth in unionization has occurred among which of the following groups? a. Military personnel b. Public employees c. Professional athletes d. Private sector employees e. Information technology employees

b.

The National Abortion Rights Action League (NARAL) and the National Rifle Association (NRA) are examples of which of the following? a. Economic interest groups b. Single-interest group c. Public-interest group d. Foreign interest group e. Fringe interest group

b.

The system by which legislative seats are awarded to a party in proportion to the vote that party wins in an election is called what type of representation? a. Majority b. Proportional c. Bipartisan d. Electoral e. Common

b.

The winner-take-all principle can be observed in the United States when which of the following selects the president and the vice president? a. Party elders b. Electoral college c. National committee d. Party-in-government e. Voters in each state

b.

Which of the following best describes the views of African Americans on issues of social welfare, civil liberties, and foreign policy? a. They are more likely to be Republican than whites. b. They are more liberal than whites. c. They are more likely to be politically neutral. d. They are more conservative than whites. e. They are more apolitical than whites.

b.

Members of the electoral college selected by each state equal the number of what? a. House members b. Senators c. House members plus senators d. Voting districts e. Voting districts plus 3

c.

Which of the following states holds the nation's first and most famous caucus that requires people to attend a meeting of about two hours in which they indicate their preferences and then try to convince those who are undecided to join their candidate's group? a. Arkansas b. Iowa c. New Hampshire d. New Mexico e. Washington

b.

Which two states do not use a winner-take-all system in the electoral college? a. Maine and Ohio b. Nebraska and Maine c. Nebraska and Delaware d. Michigan and Maine e. Nevada and Nebraska

b.

Who currently elects the members of the electoral college? a. House of Representatives b. People of each state c. Senate d. State legislatures e. State governors

b.

Women could vote in all states with the ratification of which of the following amendment in 1920? a. Fifteenth b. Nineteenth c. Twentieth d. Twenty-First e. Twenty-Second

b.

After winning office in 1828, Andrew Jackson shortened the name of his party to what, signaling that it was a new kind of political party organization? a. Whig Party b. Green Party c. Democratic Party d. Republican Party e. Progressive Party

c.

An interest group's ability to get members to call their representatives quickly or contribute extra money when needed is an example of which of the following? a. The group's camaraderie b. The group's leadership c. The group's cohesiveness d. The group's longevity e. The group's latent interests

c.

Beginning with the 2010 election, corporations were free to run ads directly advocating a candidate's election for the first time since 1907 when Congress first banned using general corporate funds in federal election campaigns. This occurred based on which 2010 U.S. Supreme Court decision? a. Federal Election Commission v. McCain b. Feingold v. McConnell c. Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission d. BCRA v. Fox News e. FEC v. Americans United Trust

c.

During the Roosevelt administration in the 1930s, the Democrats enjoyed political priority after years of Republican rule. This is an example of which of the following? a. A political caucus b. The populist party c. Realignment d. Segregation e. Dealignment

c.

People who become members of interest groups for material incentives are joining for which of the following reasons? a. For a sense of belonging to the group b. For ethical or ideological reasons c. To improve their economic opportunities or gain economic benefits d. To institute change for political, economic, or social impact on the whole society e. Because they have been pressured to do so

c.

The first partisan political division in the United States was between which of the following? a. The Democrats and the Republicans b. The Whigs and the Democrats c. The Federalists and the Anti-Federalists d. The Whigs and the Tories e. The Whigs and the Republicans

c.

What is the general impact of public opinion on government action? a. It strictly determines government action. b. It does not impact government action. c. It sets broad limits on government action. d. It only affects government action on issues that are part of election campaigns. e. It impacts only the highest office holders at the national level.

c.

What most distinguishes political parties from interest groups like the AFL-CIO and the National Association of Manufacturers? a. Political parties focus on multiple issues, whereas each interest group only focuses on one. b. Political parties have more money than interest groups. c. Interest groups do not nominate candidates to run as their avowed representatives. d. Interest groups have no clear political ideology. e. Pluralists do not think interest groups are necessary for democracy to function.

c.

What occurs in straight-ticket voting? a. Voters adjust their support from one party to another. b. Citizens link themselves to a particular political party. c. People vote exclusively for the candidates of one party. d. Substantial groups of voters switch party allegiance. e. Groups of voters grow large enough to change the partisan balance in a district, state, or country.

c.

What role do interest groups play in educating policymakers about political issues? a. Interest groups are never considered a valid source of information because they are so biased. b. So few people are members of interest groups that any communication policymakers receive from such groups is considered insignificant. c. They are an important source of political information. d. They tend to confuse policymakers and often alienate them. e. They serve to overwhelm policymakers with too much information.

c.

Which of the following best exemplifies the free exercise clause of the U.S. Constitution? a. The prosecution of criminals under religious legal jurisprudence b. The establishment of a free public education system c. Separation of church and state d. Protection of hate speech e. The application of civil liberties to the states

c.

Which of the following describes the formation of the modern Republican Party? a. It was formed as a response to the Seneca Falls Convention for women's rights. b. It was formed from a coalition of antislavery factions. c. It was formed as an outgrowth of the Southern Whigs. d. It was formed as the party supporting rum, Romanism, and rebellion. e. It was formed during the era of good feelings.

c.

Which of the following events contributed most to an increase in the number of African American public officials? a. The legal end of segregation in public schools b. The ratification of the Nineteenth Amendment c. The passage of major civil rights legislation in the 1960s d. The refinement of the constitutional requirements for office in the latter 1800s e. The lowering of the legal voting age to 18

c.

Which of the following is true of political endorsements by interest groups? a. They are relatively ineffective today. b. They are not very important because candidates can publicize the fact that their campaign is endorsed by groups but they cannot identify the specific source of the endorsement. c. They are important because the group can publicize its choices in its membership publications. d. They are a violation of campaign finance reform laws. e. They are allowed in local elections but forbidden in races for federal office.

c.

Which of the following statements about those individuals elected to political office in the United States today is most accurate? a. The individuals elected to political offices accurately reflect the diverse population in the United States. b. Those elected to political offices are evenly divided between men and women. c. Representatives today are overwhelmingly white and male. d. Individuals elected today are younger than candidates elected in the 1800s. e. Elected officials are overwhelmingly Protestant.

c.

A free rider is which of the following? a. An interest group member b. A participant in a social movement c. Someone granted free passage to Washington DC to demonstrate d. Someone who benefits from the actions of a group without joining it e. A civil rights activist

d.

A political party is a group of individuals who do which of the following? a. Answer strictly to designated party leaders b. Agree on all policy issues c. Obtain positions of official power d. Organize to win elections and operate the government e. Pay monthly dues to an ideological organization

d.

In the case of an independent candidate, or a candidate representing a minor party, the most serious problem is to convince voters of which of the following? a. That voting is their patriotic duty b. Of the importance of foreign policy issues c. Of the importance of domestic policy issues d. To reject the major-party candidates e. That pluralism is fundamentally flawed

d.

James Madison believed that having multiple organizations in the political system would result in which of the following? a. Conflict between the organizations that would divide the American republic b. Smaller states having the power to check large states c. Undermining of effective government because of limitations in the political process d. Prevention of the formation of oppressive majorities, thereby protecting rights of political minorities e. Control of the government by the organization with the greatest monetary influence

d.

The best example of the generational effect is which of the following? a. Individuals who are in their early twenties tend to have a more liberal attitude toward social issues. b. Candidate Hillary Clinton received significant support from women in the 2016 presidential campaign. c. Many individuals remember where they were the night Barack Obama was first elected. d. Individuals who came of age during the Watergate scandal have a cynical attitude toward government. e. Individuals with a high economic status tend to be more politically involved.

d.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between income and voting? a. The lower one's income, the more likely you are to vote. b. The lower one's income, the more likely you are to be politically knowledgeable. c. Income appears to have no effect on voting participation. d. The higher one's income, the more likely you are to vote. e. The higher one's income, the less you are expected to vote.

d.

Which of the following lays out the party's core beliefs and policy proposals? a. Agenda b. Charter c. Constitution d. Party platform e. White paper

d.

Direct techniques used by interest groups include which of the following? a. Using YouTube, Twitter, and Facebook to generate influence b. Using public relations firms to polish their image with the public c. Building alliances with other groups to increase their collective effectiveness d. Using constituents to lobby Congress on behalf of an issue e. Staging demonstrations, marches, and boycotts

e.

Generally speaking, groups that work toward a common or national good are considered which of the following? a. Organized labor b. Material incentive groups c. Ideological groups d. Solidary incentive groups e. Public-interest groups

e.

In 1965, which of the following laws was passed by Congress that effectively ended strategies that had discriminated against African Americans at the polls? a. Civil Rights Act b. Equal Voting law c. Federal Rights Act d. Motor Voter law e. Voting Rights Act

e.

The party-column ballot encourages which of the following? a. Low voter turnout b. Incumbency advantage c. Increased political donations d. Decreased political donations e. Straight-ticket voting

e.

Which of the following caused the era of dual federalism to end? a. The federal government tried to impose a national income tax. b. President Hayes ordered federal troops to remain in the South for at least two more decades. c. The Supreme Court upheld legislation that outlawed child labor. d. The United States entered World War I, and national security became paramount. e. Citizens looked to the federal government to address problems created by the Great Depression.

e.

Which of the following did the early Supreme Court generally do under Chief Justice John Marshall? a. It preserved states' rights. b. It lessened trade powers between the states. c. It issued conflicting decisions about the balance between national and state power. d. It remained silent about federalism issues. e. It increased national power.

e.

Which of the following is the power to coin money, create naturalization laws, admit new states, and declare war? a. Implied b. Inferred c. Inherent d. Reserved e. Enumerated

e.

Which of the following is true of federal and state laws with regard to third parties? a. They have encouraged third parties to get candidates on the ballot. b. They let third parties get fewer signatures to place their candidates on the ballot than major parties. c. The two major parties have a clear advantage because the laws have fewer obstacles for them. d. The federal laws have made it easy for third- or minor-party candidates to get federal matching funds. e. All of these are correct.

e.

Which of the following was a major outcome of the Voting Rights Act of 1965? a. The elimination of discriminatory voter registration tests b. The establishment of federal voter registrars c. The establishment of federally administered voter registration procedures d. Limitations on the abilities of counties in the South to change voter registration procedures without federal approval e. All of the above.

e.

A poll indicating that 92 percent of adults believe an education beyond high school is crucial for success in today's job market represents which of the following types of opinion? a. Consensus b. Divisive c. Elite d. Minority e. Nonopinion

a.

A university uses an admissions policy that gives special consideration to traditionally disadvantaged groups to overcome the present effects of past discrimination. The university is applying which of the following? a. Affirmative action b. Legislative mandate c. Civil liberties d. Strict scrutiny e. De jure integration

a.

In 1620, the first colonists in New England came to the New World in search of a. religious freedom b. gold and precious minerals c. fertile farmlands d. social freedom e. none of the above

a.

In what case did the Court rule that the section of DOMA that limited spousal recognition under federal law to a man and a woman is unconstitutional? a. United States v. Windsor b. United States v. Spyer c. United States v. Roth d. United States v. Newby e. United States v. Nixon

a.

The Constitution has remained largely intact for over 200 years because of which of the following? a. The principles set forth in the Constitution are flexible enough to meet new events and concerns. b. The principles set forth in the Constitution are impractical to amend. c. The principles set forth in the Constitution can only be changed in certain parts. d. The principles set forth in the Constitution are unchallenged principles of the Founding Fathers. e. The principles set forth in the Constitution are mandated to remain unchanged.

a.

The Supreme Court first declared that the courts have the power to overturn government acts that conflict with the Constitution in which of the following cases? a. Marbury v. Madison b. McCullough v. Maryland c. Gideon v. Wainwright d. Dred Scott v. Sandford e. Hamilton v. Burr

a.

The Twenty-Fourth Amendment, ratified in 1964, did which of the following? a. Banned poll taxes in primary and general elections for national office b. Empowered the attorney general to register potential voters c. Gave women the right to vote d. Banned racial discrimination in the rental and sale of most housing e. Gave state courts the lawful refusal to follow a Supreme Court order

a.

The collective attitude of the citizens on a given issue is known as what? a. Public opinion b. Gerrymandering c. Public discord d. Incumbency e. Political reform

a.

The comprehensive set of beliefs about the nature of people and the role of government is known as which of the following? a. Ideology b. Value system c. Political science d. Political socialization e. Political culture

a.

The concept in which the Constitution provides the fundamental structure of government and describes what the national government can and cannot do is called which of the following? a. Limited government b. Popular sovereignty c. Representative democracy d. Majority rule e. Majoritarianism

a.

The contemporary political "gender gap" refers to the tendency of women to do which of the following? a. Identify more with the Democratic Party than men do b. Vote less than men do c. Favor female candidates for office over male candidates d. Pay less attention to politics than men do e. Vote more for Republican candidates than men do

a.

The framers of the Constitution chose to form what type of government? a. Republic b. Limited constitutional monarchy c. Totalitarian regime d. Authoritarian regime e. Oligarchical regime

a.

The power of the Supreme Court to declare actions of the other branches of government to be unconstitutional is known as which of the following? a. Judicial review b. Judicial activism c. Legislative ratification d. The supremacy doctrine e. The Madisonian model

a.

What did the Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution abolish? a. Slavery b. Segregation laws which had come before it c. Restrictions on due process d. Slavery in new states or territories e. Restrictions on the right to vote

a.

What is the basis for power and legitimacy in American government? a. Consent of the governed b. Universal suffrage c. One man, one vote d. Rights to life and liberty e. Majority rule

a.

What legal principle holds that evidence collected during a search found to be unconstitutional cannot be used in trial? a. Exclusionary rule b. Incorporation clause c. Fifth Amendment d. Full faith and credit clause e. Seventh Amendment

a.

When students at a public elementary school are almost all Latino because most of the residents in the neighborhood are Latino, this is an illustration of what type of segregation? a. De facto b. De jure c. Forced d. Affirmative e. Strict

a.

Which of the following describes voters who exhibit high degrees of religiosity and attend services regularly, regardless of church affiliation? a. More likely to vote Republican b. More likely to vote Democratic c. More likely to vote for Independent and third-party candidates d. Less likely to vote at all e. Similar to the overall population in their political preferences

a.

Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power? a. The power to tax b. The power to declare war c. The power to regulate interstate commerce d. The power to negotiate treaties e. The power to print money

a.

Which of the following is true regarding the civil rights legislation that was passed by Congress after the Civil War? a. Much of it was very ineffective and parts were declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. b. It played a major role in creating equality for African Americans. c. It was accepted by the American public. d. It prevented African Americans from being extended equal public accommodations. e. All of the above.

a.

Which of the following was one of the main actions of the Second Continental Congress? a. Establishing an army and appointing a commander-in-chief b. Signing a treaty with Britain prohibiting trade with France c. Signing a treaty with France to declare war on Great Britain d. Creating a unitary government in America e. Establishing a document with ambitious designs to join with Great Britain in a war against Spain

a.

During the time of the Constitutional Convention, why was federalism an appealing compromise? a. It prevented cities and states from being dominated by a single group or faction. b. It maintained state traditions while creating a strong national government to handle common problems. c. It allowed politicians to avoid issues of slavery and women's suffrage. d. It permitted states to nullify actions of the national government. e. It made the national government the focal point of dissatisfaction.

b.

In a federal political system, how is authority distributed? a. It is always vested in a bicameral legislature. b. It is divided between the central government and regional or subdivisional governments. c. It is bestowed upon the central government, with no power being granted to the regional governments. d. It is concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government. e. It is exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states.

b.

In the case of Mapp v. Ohio the U.S. Supreme Court a. overturned the Miranda ruling. b. decided evidence must be obtained "in good faith." c. established the good faith exception to the exclusionary rule. d. established the right to counsel in felony cases. e. extended the exclusionary rule to states.

b.

Informal methods of changing the U.S. Constitution include which of the following? a. Decisions of state courts, judicial activism, and presidential action b. Congressional legislation, judicial review, and presidential action c. Acts of international legislatures, stare decisis, and presidential action d. Stare decisis, referendums, and judicial review e. Ad hoc juries, judicial review, and bureaucratic action

b.

One formal method of proposing an amendment to the Constitution is a. the process of judicial review b. a two-thirds vote in each chamber of Congress c. the drafting of Congressional legislation d. a national convention called by Congress at the unanimous request of state legislatures. e. an executive order given by the President of the United States.

b.

The Constitution would not have been ratified in several important states if the Federalists had not assured the states of which of the following? a. A ban on the importation of slaves would be a focus of the first Congress. b. Amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect individual liberties against incursions by the national government. c. Amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect the rights of states against incursions by the national government. d. An amendment to prohibit the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor would be passed. e. Slaves that had escaped to free states would not have to be returned to their owners in slave states.

b.

The Virginia Plan included which of the following? a. It called for a bicameral legislature. b. It worked to the advantage of the small states. c. It provided for the direct election of the president by the people. d. It settled all of the controversies. e. It called for Supreme Court justices to select the president.

b.

The case of Gideon v. Wainwright affirmed that the state must provide which of the following to criminal defendants? a. Trial by a jury of peers b. Legal counsel c. Information about their constitutional rights d. Opportunity to confront their accuser e. A sentence without cruel and unusual punishment

b.

The landmark Supreme Court case involving the issue of prayer in public schools is: a. Gibbons v. Ogden b. Engel v. Vitale c. Lemon v. Kurtzman d. Gideon v. Wainwright e. Brown v. Board of Education

b.

The process by which people acquire political beliefs and attitudes is called what? a. Opinion leadership b. Political socialization c. Agenda setting d. Peer grouping e. Consensus building

b.

The set of ideas, values, and ways of thinking about government and politics that are shared by all citizens is known as which of the following? a. Politics b. Political culture c. Political socialization d. Socialism e. A social contract

b.

The theory that individuals form communities by mutual consent, giving up some of their individual liberty in order to gain the protection of government, is known as which of the following? a. Divine right b. Social contract c. A Leviathan d. Communitarianism e. Elitism

b.

The verdict of Plessy v. Ferguson directly resulted in which of the following? a. The integration of public schools in the South b. The development of a system of legalized racial segregation c. The end of racial segregation d. A constitutional amendment granting Congress more power to deal authoritatively with racial problems e. A complex system of busing to alleviate the effects of past racism

b.

Theoretically, the colonies were governed by England, but the colonists were able to exercise a large measure of self-government for which of the following reasons? a. The British crown had little interest in any activities in the colonies. b. The distance between the mother country and the colonies allowed more freedom. c. The British were more concerned with colonies elsewhere. d. Colonial representatives in Parliament had lobbied for more freedom. e. The British had not issued a charter to each of the colonies, thus allowing greater individual rights.

b.

What are the first ten amendments to the Constitution collectively known as? a. Articles of Confederation b. Bill of Rights c. Code of Rights d. Magna Carta e. Rules of law

b.

What did the white primary in southern states allow? a. All races to participate in elections on an equal basis b. Whites to exclude African Americans from voting in Democratic Party primaries c. Voters to select ballots for each party based on different skin colors d. African Americans the opportunity to vote for the first time e. Whites to exclude African Americans from voting in the general elections

b.

What was the ruling of the U.S. Supreme Court in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954)? a. Ethnic minorities have no rights to equal treatment by the government. b. Public school segregation of races violates the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. c. The national government does not have the power to force any type of action on local school boards. d. Separation of races for a reason such as education is not a violation of the Constitution. e. African Americans could not be denied the right to a college education.

b.

Which of the following best describes the meaning of the First Amendment's free exercise clause? a. People can believe and practice their religious beliefs without any restriction. b. People can believe whatever they want, but they cannot practice beliefs that are harmful to the public welfare. c. People cannot hold religious beliefs that are harmful to the public. d. Every religious belief is welcome, and every religious practice is to be respected by all. e. Parents can refuse to vaccinate their children based on religious grounds.

b.

Which of the following best describes the transfer of political attitudes and beliefs? a. It is more likely to occur from children to parents. b. It is more likely to occur from parents to children. c. It is just as likely to occur from children to parents as it is to occur from parents to children. d. It is exceptionally rare in families. e. It never occurs from children to parents.

b.

Which of the following is true with regard to the Great Compromise? a. It was advanced by delegates from Georgia. b. It proposed a bicameral legislature with equal representation in the Senate. c. It was presented too late to be considered. d. It was proposed by Delaware. e. It proposed a unicameral legislature in which each state would have one vote.

b.

Which part of the First Amendment prevents Congress from supporting one religion as the nation's official religion? a. Establishment b. Free exercise c. Full faith and credit d. Impartiality e. Elastic

b.

While many point to slavery as the reason the Civil War was fought, many others believe it was really a battle over which of the following? a. Property rights and excessive taxation b. National government supremacy versus the rights of the states c. Whether to align with England or France d. Instilling term limits at all levels of government e. Expanding U.S. borders and the resulting immigration

b.

________ refers to the preeminent institution in which decisions are made that resolve conflicts or allocates benefits and privileges. a. Bureaucracy b. Government c. Democracy d. Politics e. Socialization

b.

American women are more likely to support which of the following? a. Capital punishment b. Restrictions on access to abortions c. Social welfare programs d. Military interventions abroad e. Legislation restricting the rights of homosexuals

c.

An American who supports the creation of election districts that are likely to vote for minority candidates for public office and wants more restrictions on business is likely to be of what political ideology? a. Libertarianism b. Conservatism c. Liberalism d. Majoritarianism e. Socialism

c.

As it relates to the states, what does the full faith and credit clause mean? a. It prosecutes individuals who have broken other states' laws. b. It returns persons fleeing justice back to their home state. c. It honors the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states. d. It extends to citizens of other states the privileges and immunities of its own citizens. e. It prosecutes individuals who have broken other states' laws and honor the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states.

c.

As originally written, the Bill of Rights limited the activities of which level(s) of government? a. Both national and state b. Neither national nor state c. National government, but not state d. State government but not national e. National, state, and local government

c.

Civil liberties are understood to be which of the following? a. Equal economic treatment under the law b. Equality of opportunity and equality of outcome for all individuals c. Limits on government power to interfere with personal freedoms d. Equal educational opportunity under the law e. Absolute freedom for all individuals

c.

During the constitutional deliberations, Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison, to sway public opinion, wrote 85 essays known as which of the following? a. The Antifederalist Papers b. Common Sense c. The Federalist Papers d. The Mayflower Compact e. The Pluralist Papers

c.

North Korea is known for its lack of freedom of speech, press, and assembly. The needs of the ruler and regime are paramount, and dissent often means imprisonment or death. These are the characteristics of which of the following? a. Democratic republic b. Majoritarian democracy c. Totalitarianism d. Republic e. Direct democracy

c.

One of the reasons the U.S. Constitution is relatively short is which of the following? a. The framers weren't sure what should be included. b. There were so many arguments that many things could not be included. c. The framers only wanted the Constitution to be a framework for the new government. d. The framers expected a new constitutional convention every forty to fifty years. e. President Washington vetoed a number of articles that would have otherwise been part of the Constitution.

c.

States were granted extra representation based on the number of slaves they held under which of the following? a. The slavery population clause b. The equal population clause c. The three-fifths compromise d. The five-eighths compromise e. The census clause

c.

The Articles of Confederation did which of the following? a. Provided for a bicameral legislature b. Established a strong executive branch c. Allowed the states to retain most of their power d. Created a way to raise taxes to fund an army e. Ended slavery

c.

The Constitutional Convention of 1787 was brought about by which of the following? a. Publication of the Treaty of Paris b. A request by President Washington c. The failure of the Articles of Confederation d. The publication of the Declaration of Independence e. The end of the Revolutionary War

c.

The Mayflower Compact was written in order to ensure that American colonists lived under which of the following? a. Rule by the Crown b. Rule by Parliament c. Rule of law based on the consent of the governed d. Roberts' Rules of Order e. Judeo-Christian ethics

c.

The concept of separation of powers was included in the Constitution to prevent which of the following? a. Disputes between the federal and state governments b. The imposition of export taxes c. A major dispute over power between the House and the Senate d. Disputes over power between Congress and the president e. Tyranny by either the majority or the minority

c.

The protest movement of debt-ridden farmers facing foreclosures on their homes and farms was known as which of the following? a. The Boston Tea Party b. The Boston Massacre c. Shays' Rebellion d. Bloody Thursday e. The Farmers' Rebellion

c.

What did the USA PATRIOT Act do? a. It gave government increased power over who is allowed to run for office. b. It empowered the president to ban social media sites like Twitter, Facebook, and Instagram in an attempt to maintain public order. c. It expanded the government's ability to tap phones and monitor Internet traffic. d. It extended the requirement that one be a "native-born American" to run for president, to all federal elective offices. e. It created a universal gun owner registration list.

c.

What is the constitutional protection that ensures unqualified religious freedom? a. Freedom of association b. Symbolic speech c. Free exercise clause d. Clear and present danger test e. Elastic clause

c.

What is the notification that police must give a person being arrested that she or he has a right to remain silent and a right to legal counsel commonly known as? a. Taking the fifth b. First amendment protection c. Miranda rights d. Gideon's Trumpet e. Griswald rights

c.

What was the purpose of the poll tax used in many southern states? a. To prevent northern immigrants from moving to the South and voting in local elections b. To determine who was intelligent enough to vote c. To dissuade African Americans and poor whites from voting d. To force individuals to buy property in order to be eligible to vote e. To raise funds for voter registration among the minority community

c.

Which of the following is a requirement in federal legislation that forces state and local governments to comply with certain rules? a. A waiver b. An earmark c. A federal mandate d. A national agenda e. A leverage package

c.

Which of the following is an exception to the exclusionary rule supported by the Supreme Court? a. Probable cause does not need to be established in civil matters. b. Potential death penalty cases may disregard all standard evidence rules. c. Good faith exceptions may be made for officers utilizing the incorrect search warrant form. d. The homes of witnesses to a crime may be searched without a warrant. e. Good intention exceptions may be made for veteran officers in felony matters.

c.

Which of the following is the best description of the political value known as liberty? a. Freedom to do whatever you want b. Available only in the United States c. The greatest freedom of the individual consistent with the freedom of other individuals d. Incompatible with government authority e. A uniquely American value

c.

Which of the following statements regarding the Gibbons v. Ogden case is true? a. The national government lost the power to regulate intrastate commerce. b. State governments won the right to control navigation in interstate waters. c. The power to regulate interstate commerce was determined to be an exclusive national power of the federal government. d. The ruling provided the national government with decreasing power over economic affairs throughout the land. e. The Supreme Court found that commerce was defined as the exchange of goods and not navigation or transport of people.

c.

Why was the ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland significant? a. It established the Court's power of judicial review. b. It permitted the Court to nationalize banking. c. It established the doctrine of implied powers. d. It expanded the power of Congress to use the commerce clause. e. It increased the powers reserved to the states and the people.

c.

By August 1920, with effective lobbying by suffragist groups, three-quarters of the states ratified which amendment, guaranteeing women the right to vote in the November 1920 presidential election? a. Thirteenth b. Fourteenth c. Fifteenth d. Nineteenth e. Twenty-First

d.

Contrary to the Southern states' intention, which of the following was a result of the Civil War? a. An increase in the political power of individual states b. The expansion of voting rights to all citizens, including blacks and women c. A resurgence of Southern manufacturing and Northern agriculture d. An increase in the political power of the national government e. Thousands of banks failing and widespread unemployment

d.

In a federal system, which of the following powers are held jointly by the national and state governments? a. Cooperative powers b. Statutory powers c. Reserved powers d. Concurrent powers e. Inherent powers

d.

In a unitary system of government, the ultimate government authority is located on which of the following levels? a. The state or provincial level b. The local or municipal level c. The regional level d. The national or central level e. The state or provincial level and the local or municipal level

d.

Originally, the Constitutional Convention's purpose was to do which of the following? a. Adopt a new constitution b. File a formal tax protest with Great Britain c. Raise money for a national army to stop Shays' Rebellion d. Revise the Articles of Confederation e. Overturn articles amended by the Second Continental Congress

d.

To accurately represent the target population, a small sample should be which of the following? a. Randomly selected b. Representative of the whole group c. Representative in terms of demographic traits (age, region, religion, race, etc.) d. Representative in terms of opinions e. All of these are correct.

e.

The Bill of Rights guarantees rights of the people to peaceably assemble, but the Supreme Court has allowed local governments to do which of the following? a. Regulate the size of any and all assemblies, on public or private property b. Limit the duration and loudness of demonstrations, allowing officials to eliminate business disruptions c. Prohibit demonstrations by religious or hate groups d. Require permits for parades and demonstrations, allowing officials to control traffic or prevent demonstrations from turning into riots e. Prohibit demonstrations staged in religious enclaves

d.

The Declaration of Independence reflects the philosophy of John Locke, who argued that a. government must pledge its allegiance to God before it can claim legitimacy. b. government cannot interfere with the reality that life is nasty, brutish, and short. c. government must be divided into executive, legislative, and judicial branches in order to be effective. d. all people possess certain natural rights, and it is the duty of the government to protect those rights. e. people possess only those rights that government grants to them.

d.

The Lemon test includes determining whether a law does which of the following? a. The government or individuals face harm. b. The government has a compelling state interest. c. Government involvement meets the standards of rational basis review. d. Government involvement advances a particular religion. e. The government has the ability to tax religious property.

d.

What are Jim Crow laws? a. Laws that established slavery and contract law regulating the slave trade b. Laws that justified slavery and set specific codes for the behavior of slaves c. Laws that the North enforced in the South during the Reconstruction era d. Laws that were enacted by southern whites in the late nineteenth century to establish segregation policies e. Laws that sought to end segregation by bringing the races into closer contact with one another

d.

What does it mean when a state government passes a law that forbids texting while operating a vehicle? a. It is employing concurrent powers according to the Tenth Amendment. b. It is delegating enumerated powers to the national government. c. It is implementing inherent powers. d. It is exercising police powers. e. It is reserved for Congress to decide.

d.

What does the incorporation doctrine do? a. It provides for congressional oversight into multinational corporations. b. It allows companies to incorporate through government application. c. It provides for government oversight to corporations doing business with the government. d. It is the view that the provisions of the Bill of Rights are extended to individuals for protection against action by states. e. It holds the view that most of the protections of the Bill of Rights apply to foreign government activities through the Fourteenth Amendment.

d.

What preemptive power is rooted in the Constitution that allows Congress to impose national priorities on states through national legislation? a. The necessary and proper clause b. The elastic clause c. The full faith and credit clause d. The supremacy clause e. The establishment clause

d.

Which 1868 amendment's passage allowed the potential for the application of the Bill of Rights to the states which adds several restrictions on what the states can do? a. Eleventh b. Twelfth c. Thirteenth d. Fourteenth e. Fifteenth

d.

Which amendment forbade the states from denying any person "equal protection under the law"? a. Tenth b. Twelfth c. Thirteenth d. Fourteenth e. Fifteenth

d.

Which of the following did the Fifteenth Amendment do? a. Outlaw slavery b. Provide equal protection under the law c. Give 18-year-olds the right to vote d. State that the right to vote shall not be abridged on account of race e. Give women the right to vote

d.

A poll that indicates 20 percent of respondents approve of the U.S. military assisting in issues of regional violence in Africa, 17 percent disapprove, and a majority do not know enough to answer exemplifies which of the following? a. Consensus opinion b. Negative opinion c. Fluctuating opinion d. Unresolved opinion e. Nonopinion

e.

As a political document, the Mayflower Compact a. was a detailed constitution governing the settlement. b. was a compact between the signers and the King of England. c. was a constitution of general principles. d. established a pluralist political system for the settlement. e. was a political agreement reflecting the 17th century ideas of a social contract.

e.

As a political value, how is equality defined? a. All people should make the same amount of money. b. All people should be in a position to succeed economically. c. All people should have equal access to their elected representatives. d. All people have access to the courts to enforce their rights. e. All people are of equal worth.

e.

As parental and school influences wane in adulthood, which of the following emerges as a more important socialization agent? a. Families b. Political parties c. Historical references d. The current presidents e. Adult peer groups and mass media

e.

The assignment in the Constitution of lawmaking, law-enforcing, and law-interpreting functions to the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, respectively, is known as which of the following? a. The supremacy clause b. Inherent powers c. Direct democracy d. The implied powers clause e. Separation of powers

e.

What is the doctrine of dual federalism? a. The function of government is determined by the people. b. The federal government has more functions than the state governments. c. The state governments have more functions than the federal government. d. The state and federal governments have identical functions. e. The state and federal governments have separate functions.

e.

Where can the right to privacy be found in the Constitution? a. Article X b. The Preamble c. Article I, Section 8 d. First Amendment e. Not explicitly referenced in the Constitution

e.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Bill of Rights? a. The rights guaranteed in the Bill of Rights change over time, depending on interpretation by the Supreme Court. b. The rights guaranteed to all citizens in the Bill of Rights are self-executing and have required little interpretation. c. The Bill of Rights has always been equally applied to both the national and state governments. d. The Bill of Rights consists of additions to the civil liberties initially discussed in the Constitution. e. The Bill of Rights narrowly defines basic freedoms, requiring great consideration by the Supreme Court in interpreting them.

e.

Which of the following was true of the Federalists? a. They supported the new Constitution. b. They were mostly rural people from the lower classes. c. They did not attend the Constitutional Convention. d. They supported the status quo. e. They were worried that the national government would be too powerful.

e.

Why didn't the Framers of the Constitution create a direct democracy? a. It wasn't the best way to deal with manipulative politicians. b. Direct democracy had never been tried before. c. The people had expressed support for a government similar to a monarchy. d. They were worried about the accuracy of ballot-counting mechanisms. e. They believed that the rights of the minority would be suppressed by the majority.

e.

1. The necessary and proper clause of Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution is also known as which one of the following? a. The supremacy clause b. The confederal system c. The commerce clause d. The unitary system e. The elastic clause

e. or known as the necessary and proper clause


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