FL1 Review

Some examples of +/- punishment and reinforcement

1. positive reinforcement: a mother gives her child candy (addition of wanted stimulus) for doing their homework (desired behaviour) 2. negative reinforcement: a child does their homework (desired behaviour) to stop their mother's nagging (removal of negative stimulus) 3. positive punishment: a child yells at his mother (undesired behaviour), so the mother spanks the child (addition of unwanted stimulus) 4. negative punishment: a child yells at their mother (undesired behaviour), so the mother takes away the child's TV privileges (removal of wanted stimulus)

What is the mnemonic to remember how many sodium and potassium ions the Na+K+ ATPase move in and out of the cell?

321NOKIA, 3Na+ out, 2K+ in, 1 ATP hydroloyzed

How many rings does a steroid have?

4 membered rings

What are ABC transporters?

An ABC transporter is an ATP-Binding Cassette transporter which are integral membrane proteins that actively transport ligands across the membrane.

Difference between independent and dependent variables

An independent variable is the variable that is changed or controlled in a scientific experiment to test the effects on the dependent variable. A dependent variable is the variable being tested and measured in a scientific experiment.

18. What is the relationship between Pp, PMPA, and Pd? A.Pp = PMPA + 3Pd B.Pp = 3PMPA + Pd C.Pp = 3PMPA − 3Pd D.Pp = PMPA − 3Pd picture of equations given in the passage on the opposite side

Ans C, I picked B This is just simple algebra

57. A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? A.5.4 fg only B.5.4 fg and 5.45 fg C.5.4 fg and 5.5 fg D.5.45 fg only

Ans is B DNA replication = semiconservative (one strand is from original DNA and one strand is newly synthesized) inital: all DNA will have 15-N +15-N, genome weight = 5.5fg 1st division: - 15-N (5.5fg) + 14-N (5.4fg) -> 5.45fg - 15-N + 14-N -> 5.45fg 2nd division: - 15-N + 14-N -> 5.45fg - 15-N + 14-N -> 5.45fg - 14-N + 14-N -> 5.4fg - 14-N + 14-N -> 5.4fg All of the DNA will initially have exclusively 15-N nitrogen, so the initial bacteria will have a genome weight of 5.5 fg. The first round of cell division will replace half of the 15-N nitrogen with 14-N nitrogen, so the max mass of both daughter cells' genomes will be 5.45 fg. The second division is a little more complicated, because a daughter cell could conceivable receive either the heavy strand and a new light strand, or the 2nd generation light strand as well as the newly synthesized light strand--that is, either 5.45 fg or 5.4 fg (respectively).

35. Which statement does NOT identify an aspect of the concept of assimilation? A.Assimilation is the influence that cultural changes have on an individual's health. B.Assimilation is the process of cultural adaptation that results from geographic mobility. C.Assimilation occurs when individuals adopt the cultural norms of a dominant culture. D.Assimilation occurs when individuals relinquish the cultural norms of their childhood.

CORRECT - A knowing the definition of assimilation helps with this question

Assume that a circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in which X = Al, Xn+ = Al3+, Y = Cu, and Ym+ = Cu2+. Which of the following reactions will occur? A.2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) → 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) B.3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s) → 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) C.2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) D.3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) → 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s)

C First check the balancing of the equations. B and D can be ruled out. There are 2 hints that tell you the direction of the reaction. One is the reduction potential. According to reaction 2, the reduction potential is positive, which tells us that Cu is more likely to be reduced and thus gain electrons. The other clue is that in table 2, when aluminum and copper were used together in the metal strip experiment, Cu2+ was able to form a solid, meaning it was being reduced and forming Cu, while Al3+ did not form a solid. This tells us that Cu2+ is more likely to be reduced than Al3+.

13. Max attends a party and does not make eye contact with, or approach, his acquaintance, Sam. According to the actor-observer bias, which graph best represents how Max and Sam view this behavior? Ans is a graph (pic on opposite side)

CORRECT A. Max's self judgement should be attributed to external factors = increase in not feeling well while Sam's judgement is attributed to internal factors ( that Max is socially awkward). Actor observor bias is when the actor attributes their behavior to external factors while the observer attributes the actor's behavior to internal factors

6. According to Maintenance Factor 1, mild changes in bodily sensations act as: A.unconditioned stimuli. B.conditioned stimuli. C.unconditioned responses. D.conditioned responses

CORRECT A. The unconditioned stimulus is the stimulus that causes the normal panic attacks. B. The conditioned stimulus are the normal mild changes in bodily sensations that leads to the conditioned response. When they were neutral stimulus, the patient did not have a response to it, but once they associated it with a panic attack it became conditioned to stimulate the conditioned response (the panic attack). c. The unconditioned response is the panic attack when it is caused by an actual panic attack-stimulating stimulus, the normal physiologic response. D. The conditioned response is the panic attacks initiated by the changes in bodily sensations.

23. Which conclusion is best supported by the outcome of Study 2? A.Synchronous activity increases group polarization. B.Synchronous activity increases conformity. C.Asynchronous activity increases cognitive dissonance. D.Asynchronous activity increases social loafing.

CORRECT A. this is a tempting answer, however the synchronous activity didn't really result in group polarization. It is important to understand that group polarization causes a group of individuals to disrupt towards a more risky or a more cautious choice but the individuals are already leaning towards one of the sides. the experiment doesn't really address this-- it would if the individuals were already leaning towards harming the individual who exposed to noise. Another definition of group polarization is when already existing beliefs become even MORE extreme without considering any outside ideals. This does not occur B. the synchronous activity caused all of the individuals to conform to the confederate's suggestion of doing the noise blast. Conformity is also known as peer pressure C. Cognitive dissoance is when uneasy feelings arise when you have two belief systems in contradiction -- in order to relieve dissonance a change in belief system typically has to occur D. Social loafing is when individuals in large groups will slack off

11. Harlequin ichthyosis, a rare genetic disorder, causes the skin to become thick and scaly. Flaking skin behind the eyelids of individuals with this condition is most likely to damage which structure of the eye? A.Choroid B.Cornea C.Lens D.Retina

CORRECT B

58. Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A.Comparative methods B.Ethnographic methods C.Experimental methods D.Survey methods

CORRECT - B Ethnographic involves observation in real-life environment Ethnographic Research: involves observing social interactions in real social settings.

14. In a study, each trial involves administering a drop of lemon juice to the participant's tongue and measuring the participant's level of salivation. As more trials are conducted, the researcher finds that the magnitude of salivation declines. After a certain point, the researcher switches to administering lime juice. This researcher is most likely studying which process? A.Sensory perception B.Habituation and dishabituation C.Stimulus generalization in classical conditioning D.Conditioned responses in classical conditioning

CORRECT B. Habituation is a decrease in response to a repeated stimulus ( this is how touch works, we dont always notice that our skin is touching our clothes because our mechanoreceptors are habituated) . Dishabituation is when you become more responsive to the stimulus again. The key part was that in the question it said "the magnitude of salivation declines" C. This answer choice may be the most popular incorrect choice because the question stem is describing an experiment where participants are given lemon juice and then lime juice. The research could possibly be studying stimulus generalization to see if the participant could discriminate the two juices or if they would perceive it to be the same (generalized feeling of sourness). However, there are no details that suggest this would be classical conditioning because a neutral condition is not associated with the unconditioned stimulus (lemon/lime juice) and the unconditioned response (salivating).

9. Which two processes best summarize maintenance factors 1 and 2, respectively? A.Operant conditioning and top-down processes B.Classical conditioning and affective processes C.Operant conditioning and physiological processes D.Classical conditioning and cognitive processes

CORRECT Based on the passage and the definition of those terms I knew the answer A. Operant conditioning is the reinforcement and shaping of behaviors. It establishes a relationship between a reinforcer and a behavior. This is contrary to classical conditioning which forms a relationship between a stimulus and a response/behavior. Top-down processing is conceptually driven where beliefs and expectations facilitate perception Top-down processs are more error prone but faster. They involve B. Affective processes are emotional C. See rationale A. Physiological processes are not conscious D. Classical conditioning links instincts to biological responses, while operant conditioning links voluntary behaviors to consequences. This is a cognitive process (not affective) because it involves thoughts more than emotions.

8. Interoceptive awareness involves sensitivity to increases in the activity of the: A.reticular activation system. B.autonomic nervous system. C.limbic system. D.somatic nervous system

CORRECT In the passage it said describes what interoceptive awareness does to the body so the answer was pretty straight forward A. Reticular activating system-mediates level of consciousness. Deals with awareness B. Autonomic nervous system - changes that you can't have much control over (automatic). C. limbic system deals with fear and emotion D. Somatic NS involves voluntarily movement

5. Maintenance Factor 1 is most closely related to which approach to psychological disorders? A.Psychodynamic B.Behaviorist C.Trait D.Humanistic

CORRECT they explained maintenance factor 1 and it was classical conditioning so the and was Behaviorist (b).

2. The researchers change the procedure such that instead of placing the objects in a box, the participants have to recall all the objects that they have seen during training. According to the spreading of activation theory, which type of memory error is most likely? A. Making source monitoring errors regarding the location of the training objects B. Poorer memory for the training objects seen at the later points in the experiment C. Selective forgetting of the training objects that were placed in the center of the box D. Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects

CORRECT Thought process: I knew the definition of spreading activation or picked the choice that goes with that the most A. source monitoring is when people recall info but forget where they got the info. This doesn't make sense here because we don't care about the source about the info but more about the information B. This explains primacy effect not spreading activation C. The center vs the periphery of the box wouldn't make a difference D. Spreading activation states that when we remember a memory on the semantic model; closely placed nodes will be fired and may cause false memories. Thats why they are more likely to recall objects from the same category that were not presented to them

1. Compared to the simultaneous condition, the serial condition of the experiment would be more likely to cause: A. a primacy effect. B. a state dependency effect. C. a misinformation effect. D. a dual-coding effect.

CORRECT - Thought process: Based on the passage explanation of the 2 conditions, A made the most sense to me. A. Primacy effect is remembering entities in the beginning of a sequence with more strength B. State dependency is that performance depends on the state that you were in when you learned the performance. Example: Performing better on an exam drunk because you were drunk when studying. C. The misinformation effect is a type of retroactive interference which involves the difficulty of remembering old information due to acquiring new information. Simply put, the misinformation effect distorts how we remember an experience/event due to the new information after the event. D. Dual coding hypothesis- easier to remember words associated with images than either one alone

30. Which effect is LEAST likely to occur with the process of gentrification? A.Development of affordable housing B.Increased neighborhood stratification C.Displacement of lower-income residents D.Expanded tax base for local government

CORRECT - A

32. Which statement best applies the behaviorist theory to explain the association between age and DMQ scores? Compared to younger participants, older participants: A.have had more experiences in which they have been punished for risky behaviors. B.are less prone to the effects of peer pressure. C.have a more mature prefrontal cortex that inhibits impulsive behavior. D.have a more developed superego that inhibits the impulses of the id

CORRECT - A

50. Research findings indicate higher levels of patient trust and physician attention in race-concordant physician-patient relationships because: A.both the physician and patient belong to the same in-group. B.the physician and patient share similar levels of status. C.of racial hostility present in race-discordant relationships. D.of the lack of role strain experienced by the physician.

CORRECT - A

39. If adults performed the block tapping task as a measure of working memory capacity, they would most likely replicate sequences of what length correctly? A.9 plus or minus 1 B.7 plus or minus 2 C.10 plus or minus 1 D.16 plus or minus 2

CORRECT - B working memory magic # is 7 +/- 2

21. Which statement provides the LEAST likely explanation for why the researchers dropped the highly anxious participants from their sample? A.Ethical committees do not allow research with participants who may have psychological disorders. B.If all the anxious participants get assigned to the stress condition, this may pose a confounding variable. C.Highly anxious participants are not representative of the population and may reduce the generalizability of the findings. D.If all the anxious participants get assigned to the control condition, this may lead to a false rejection of the experimental hypothesis.

CORRECT - A A. it is ethical to conduct research on people with psychological disorders as long as the harm done doesn't exceed the benefit of performing experimentation B. this would contribute to a type I error (a false positive)-- saying that is a statistically significant difference between both groups, in terms of stress causing prosocial behavior, when there really isn't. D. this would be a type II error (a false negative) in which there actually is a difference, but instead we fail to reject the null that stress doesn't lead to prosocial behavior.

17. Which measure would be most useful if the researchers were interested in the degree of sympathetic arousal experienced in the different conditions of Study 1? A.A measure of electrical conductivity of the skin B.A CT scan of the hindbrain C.A PET scan of the parietal cortex D.A measure of melatonin levels

CORRECT - A The question is asking which answer choice will tell you that the participant's SNS. If you want a physiological measurement of anxiety, skin conductance is a way better proxy for it (because it is an indicator of SNS activity that fluctuates with arousal level) than a static scan

37. The study found that Mexican immigrants reported worse physical and mental health statuses than the other Latino immigrant groups. Based on other results reported in the passage, which statement provides the best explanation of this finding? A.Cuban and Puerto Rican immigrants have higher average SES than Mexican immigrants. B.Mexican immigrants have more extensive social support networks than Cuban immigrants. C.Mexican immigrants report greater levels of assimilation than Puerto Rican immigrants. D.Cuban and Puerto Rican immigrants report higher stress levels than Mexican immigrants.

CORRECT - A had to understand the passage and the results from the study. Thought it was pretty straight forward

41. Based on the study, which extrinsic factor most likely accounts for the motivational differences between groups? A.Rewards and losses tied to memory performance for the gaming group B.The presence of animated characters in the visual display for the gaming group C.The opportunity to stop playing the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups D.The opportunity to state they disliked the game for the gaming and non-gaming groups

CORRECT - A rewards and losses are extrinsic

55. If this study were replicated, which hypothesis would most likely be supported? A.Regular employees with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. B.Workplace supervisors with stereotypical views would exclude minority group members, regardless of organizational culture. C.Organizational culture is the primary determinant of whether minority populations are excluded from a workplace. D.The interplay between a supervisor's stereotypical views and an organization that fosters those stereotypes would be more detrimental to minority group members.

CORRECT - Ans D

46. An immigrant teen stops participating in the ethnic customs of his family and instead identifies with the dominant culture of the new country by dressing, speaking, and acting like teens from that culture. In this scenario, the teens of the new country's dominant culture become which type of group for the teen? A.Assimilated group B.Reference group C.Majority group D.Peer group

CORRECT - B

47. Researchers hypothesize that experiencing a certain scent while viewing paintings of flowers will influence the viewers' ratings of attractiveness of the paintings. Researchers dispensed a floral scent in one room with paintings and no scent in another room with paintings. Which statement is accurate regarding the study? A.The study's design is an observational study since viewers were observing paintings and noting their ratings. B.The independent variable is the presence or absence of scent in the rooms. C.The dependent variable is the amount of time viewers spent observing paintings. D.Informing viewers ahead of time whether a scent was absent or present in the room is important for accurate ratings.

CORRECT - B

52. Neighborhood-level socioeconomic inequalities are most likely to affect physician-patient interactions through which phenomenon? A.Status hierarchies rely on socioeconomic differences above other master status characteristics. B.Physical boundaries create social boundaries and closed networks which develop their own cultures. C.Socioeconomic inequalities create role conflict in physicians who are trained to treat all patients equally. D.The physician-patient relationship is not subject to the same external forces that govern other relationships.

CORRECT - B

59. Which term refers to closed status positions that hinder social mobility? A.Class systems B.Caste systems C.Economic systems D.Financial systems

CORRECT - B

45. A researcher wants to gain insight into how a social movement organization presents its beliefs to the general public in an effort to attract new members. Which methodological approach would be most appropriate for this study? A.Observing meetings about the organization's marketing budget B.Conducting a content analysis of the organization's website C.Surveying organization members about their beliefs D.Randomly sampling the general population about social movement organizations

CORRECT - B I picked the website option bc the q says they wanna know how the organization presents its info. Website is a good way to do that

18. Which conclusion is supported by Figure 1? A.Priming stereotypes always has a negative impact on performance. B.Priming a negative stereotype interferes with performance. C.Priming a positive stereotype does not affect performance. D.Priming stereotypes does not affect performance as much as one's self-concept.

CORRECT - B data interpretation from the passage

43. Which type of memory would most likely be activated first during the computer task, before working memory is activated? A.Implicit memory B.Sensory memory C.Short-term memory D.Episodic memory

CORRECT - B A. implicit memory is unconscious and automatic B. Sensory memory is memory that lasts seconds that can be integrated into working/short term memory C. Short-term memory, also known as working memory, lasts 15 to 30 seconds and can be used to assimilate and integrate information into long-term memory D. Episodic memory refers to past life events

49. Because cultural liaisons work closely with physicians and are advocates for patients, which phenomenon are cultural liaisons most likely to experience? A.Network redundancy because of the amount of people with whom they come into contact B.Homogeneity because they will see the same patients over and over C.Role strain because of their collegiality with physicians and their responsibility to patients D.Role conflict because of their status as a non-medical professional in a clinic setting

CORRECT - C

57. A student is investigating the bystander effect and receives permission to conduct the study in the school cafeteria. What is a potential dependent variable that can be measured by the student? A.The time of day that the experiment is carried out B.The number of people present in the cafeteria C.The amount of time a student takes to assist another student in distress D.The temperature in the cafeteria

CORRECT - C FOR THE BYSTANDER EFFECT, TIME IS THE DEPENDENT VARIABLE - its what you are measuring

22. A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: A.necessary, because humans respond differently to different types of stressors. B.necessary, because physical stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict, whereas social stressors cause approach-approach conflict. C.unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. D.unnecessary, because both physical stressors and social stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict.

CORRECT - C Gas says that human response to various stressors is similar. Doesn't matter what the type of stress is

51. What is the advantage of including a specially trained cultural liaison as opposed to training physicians in cultural competency? A.Communicating across racial and cultural lines is difficult and requires a trained specialist to do it effectively. B.Physicians are inherently resistant to cultural training because of their medical biases. C.Adding a cultural liaison creates a triadic group, a more stable arrangement than a dyadic group. D.Larger groups facilitate the transfer of information more effectively than smaller groups.

CORRECT - C Triads are more stable than dyads. Dyads are more intimate

40. Based on the study, which assessment represents a subjective measure of motivation? A.The number of grid sequences participants attempted to solve on the computer task B.The participants' decision to continue playing the game or stop to read a magazine C.Participants' answers on the exit questionnaire D.Participants' time spent not playing the game using the computer mouse

CORRECT - C I looked up what subjective vs objective meant to answer the question but Subjective - has to do with personal feelings Objective - has to do with facts without feelings getting involved

20. The researchers collected data on participants' heart rates and electrical skin conductance at different stages of the experiment. Which pattern would verify that the independent variable had the intended effect? Heart rate and skin conductance are higher: A.for all the participants before they participate in the first phase of the experiment compared to after. B.for the participants who chose to share $120 compared to those who chose to walk away with $30. C.for the participants in the stress group than for the participants in the control group. D.for all the participants before they participate in the second phase of the experiment compared to after.

CORRECT - C easy

19. The experiment was replicated with the addition of another variable: when playing the trust game, the participants were told either that the other player was a student at their university or was a student at a rival university. Based on the findings in the passage and research on in-group and out-group dynamics, which outcome is most likely? Graphical answer (pic other side)

CORRECT - C had to understand the study done in the passage as well as know how in/out groups affect group dynamics The demonstration that subjects in the stress group had a higher likelihood of trust than the control group will still hold true. When adding in/out group dynamics -- someone is more likely to trust someone that is in their in group than their outgroup. When you take both of these facts into account and perfrom graph analysis. Graph C will reign true

28. Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? A.More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25. B.The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30. C.Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. D.More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

CORRECT - C needed to know the difference between mean and median

48. After initially learning to ride a bike, riding a bike becomes easy for an individual. Each time the individual rides a bike thereafter, what type of memory is being used? A.Semantic B.Episodic C.Explicit D.Procedural

CORRECT - D

24. Damage to which nervous system structure is most likely to cause problems in the participants' ability to perform the synchronous behaviors in studies 1 and 2? A.Hippocampus B.Hypothalamus C.Cochlea D.Cerebellum

CORRECT - D A. hippocampus is for memory formation B. hypothalamus endocrine functions and 4F's (fleeing, feeding, fighting fornication) C. Cochlea can be eliminated because it is not a part of the NS D. cerebellum = balance and coordinated motor tasks (think cereBELLUM = a ballerina dancing)

42. Suppose squares 1, 2, 3, and 4, moving from left to right at the top of the grid light up and some participants think "top row lights up first," to remember the sequence. Which process is most likely being used to enhance working memory capacity? A.Divided attention B.Priming C.Automatic processing D.Chunking

CORRECT - D knew the definition of all the options A. Divided attention is multitasking B. Priming is related to implicit memory that can be used in influence responses. C. Automatic processing does not require conscious involvement D. Chunking is taking large, complex pieces of information and seperating it into sizeable factoids that are easy to recall to form a larger picture

47. When a 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to pulverized blackboard chalk, the following reaction takes place. CaCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) CaSO4(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) At 25°C, the reaction is spontaneous and has: A.negative ΔG° and positive ΔS°. B.negative ΔG° and negative ΔS°. C.positive ΔG° and negative ΔS°. D.positive ΔG° and positive ΔS°

Correct - A Spon = Delta G neg and entropy + The reason entropy increases is because it goes from a solid and liquid to a solid liquid and gas. The products are more dispersed/spread out energy therefore entropy is positive

36. A researcher suggests that the benefits of bilingualism are related to the idea that the structure of language affects the perceptions of its speakers. This researcher is referring to which concept? A.Weber's Law B.The nativist hypothesis C.Schacter-Singer theory D.Linguistic relativity

CORRECT - D A. Weber's law is the ratio between the difference in stimulus to the original stimulus intensity B. The nativist hypothesis is concerned with the critical time period of language learning that occurs in early childhood C. Schater-singer theory deals with emotion. Specifically in this process: physiological response + cognitive -> emotion D. Linguistic relativiely refers to how language influences thought.

34. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which group of participants are most likely dealing with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation? Adolescents Young adults Adults A.I only B.III only C.I and II only D.II and III only

CORRECT - b knowing erikson's stages helped figure this question out

26. Based on the findings in the passage, engaging in synchronous behaviors is most likely to lead to an increase in: A.egocentricism. B.observational learning. C.obedience. D.social facilitation.

CORRECT - c interpretation of results which states that synchrony can increase compliance which indicates that it may also increase obedience

15. Which explanation of the results of Study 1 presents the most appropriate application of the optimal arousal theory? Reminding participants of: A.their membership in a stereotyped group leads to optimal arousal, which results in varying levels of performance depending on ability. B.their membership in a stereotyped group leads to fluctuating arousal and results in poor performance. C.a negative stereotype associated with their identity increases arousal beyond what is optimal and leads to poor performance. D.a positive stereotype associated with them eliminates arousal completely, which results in optimal performance

CORRECT - choice C Optimal arousal theory is where we perform best at an optimal level of arousal. Too much arousal or too little will impede perfomance

16. If the participants in Study 1 differed in the degree to which their ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concept, which outcome would be most likely? Participants whose ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concepts would: A.be more affected by the gender stereotypes regarding their math performance. B.not be affected by the negative stereotype regarding women's math ability. C.be more affected by the positive stereotype regarding Asian Americans' math ability. D.perform the same regardless of which condition they were placed in

CORRECT - choice C We see that Asian Americans, who were primed on the Asian stereotype of being good at math caused them to perform better. As a result, if being Asian was a cental part of your self concept, then you would be more likely to perform better -- answer choice C. The question stem doesn't really address gender, so it is not very much of a direct answer for A, hency why it is wrong.

56. Based on the passage, which conclusion is best supported? A.Gender discrimination is more likely to occur than racial discrimination. B.Race and gender discrimination manifest in similar ways. C.The incidence of race and gender discrimination is equivalent. D.Minority women are especially subject to discrimination.

CORRECT B

46. Gamma decay occurs when a nucleus emits: A.a photon. B.a proton. C.a neutron. D.an electron.

Correct - A

42. The radioactive decay described in the passage results in the formation of which two atoms? A.N and S B.B and Si C.B and S D.N and Si

Correct - A In B- decay, the atom has a neutron turn into a proton, emitting an electron. All you have to do is look for the atom to the right of the current atom, since that would be the addition of a proton (and the element is defined by the number of protons it has).

39. Which type of bond is formed by glycogen synthase upon release of UDP? A.α-1,4-Glycosidic bond B.α-1,6-Glycosidic bond C.β-1,4-Glycosidic bond D.β-1,6-Glycosidic bond

Correct - A The linear branches of glycogen are a-1,4-linkages, and the branches are a-1,6-linkages. B. The a-1,6 glycosyl branches in glycogen are done by a branching enzyme, which is a type of transferase (not a synthase). C. b-glycosidic bonds are not found in glycogen.

24. Which amino acid was incorporated into Compound 1 as a future site of covalent attachment to HA prior to mineralization? A.Ser B.Ala C.Tyr D.Thr

Correct - A The question is asking which amino acid is involved with covalent attatchment of HA. The passage tells us that this is region 4 that gets phosphorylated. By looking at the strucure, we can see the phosphorylation happens on serine. Phosphorylated AA: Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine (all have -OH in R group). Usually occurs via esterification so PO4 comes in and H2O leaves as it binds to the carbon adjacent to the -OH.

3. According to the developed chromatography plate shown below, what is the approximate Rf value of aspartic acid? A.0.20 B.0.50 C.5 D.10 (image opposite side)

Correct - A Rf=Distance Traveled/Solvent Front 2/10 = 0.2 10: Solvent Front 2: Aspartic Acid

7. If Reaction 2 (Figure 4) is repeated with HCl and the compound shown below, which of the following compounds is NOT a direct product (without rearrangement)? All the pictures on the opposite side

Correct - Ans A The question stem is asking about a direct product and states that a direct product is one that is formed without molecular rearrangement A. The elimination rxn can only remove a H from the top facing carbon (Carbon-2), this structure shows the H being removed from Carbon-3. This is not possible as it is 2 bonds away from the OH group which is being removed. Only a hydrgeon on Carbon 2 or Carbon 6 can be removed. (adjacent carbons) B. elimination rxn C and D. Sn1 rxn

1. In the chromatography of the reaction mixture, water absorbed on cellulose functioned as the stationary phase. What was the principal factor determining the migration of individual components in the sample? A.Hydrogen bonding B.Solute concentration C.Stationary phase concentration D.Thickness of paper

Correct - Ans A This is talking about paper chromatography where the stationary phase is polar and mobile phase is non polar. So, polar molecules will hydrogen bond with the stationary phase and elute slower while the non polar molecules elutes faster

8. If a solution containing the compounds shown in Figure 4, is injected into a gas-liquid chromatograph, the first peak observed in the gc trace is attributable to which compound? A.2-Methyl-2-butanol B.2-Methyl-2-butene C.2-Chloro-2-methylbutane D.2-Bromo-2-methylbutane

Correct - Ans B Gas chromatography separates compounds by boiling point and polarity. Compounds with lower boiling points will elute first, and will therefore be one of the early peaks in a GC trace. A. Exhibits hydrogen bonding and will be one of the last peaks due to higher BP. B. Lowest MW of all answer choices and exhibits weakest intermolecular forces. C. Similar structure as (D), but MW is higher due to chlorine. D. Similar structure as (C), but MW is greater due to bromine.

27. The graph below shows the relationship between the predominant form of iron as a function of solution pH and applied potential. Based on the graph, which of the following statements is true? (picture opposite side) A.At a potential of -0.4 V, as pH increases, Fe2+ is reduced and precipitates as Fe(OH)3. B.At a potential of -0.44 V, the equilibrium between Fe and Fe2+ is independent of solution pH below pH 6. C.At pH = 1, as the potential is changed from -0.2 to +0.8, Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+. D.At pH = 8 and V = -0.1 V, Fe(OH)2 is the predominant form of iron.

Correct - B easy interpretation of the graph

33. What are the hybridization states of the carbon atoms involved in the conversion of trans to cis retinal? A.sp B.sp2 C.sp3 D.sp3d

Correct - B cis-trans isomers are different because of their orientation around a double bond. Double bonds are created using a sigma and pi bond, which requires sp2 hybridization. Remember: sp3 is single bond sp2 is a double bonds sp is triple bonds. Choice D = octahedral

25. Compound 1 was designed to exhibit pH-dependent self-assembly. What feature(s) of the molecule is(are) responsible for the pH dependence of aggregation (Equation 1)? A.Thiol side chains that can hydrogen bond B.Long alkyl tail that exhibits predominantly London forces C.Side chains whose net charge responds to pH D.Covalent linkages that reversibly hydrolyze

Correct - C A. Thiol side chains are relevant for disulfide bonding, which is a covalent bond and not an intermolecular force (such as hydrogen bonding) B. London forces are dependent on random changes in electron density and are not dependent on protonation state C. Equation 1 clearly shows that aggregation depends on pH, as the question also implies. the structure shown in figure 1 has an aspartate residue which gets protonated at low pH and this can be connected back to the equation that says the aggregation will occur at pH 4. only answer choice that describes this mechanism is choice C

34. Which reaction is catalyzed by LipA? A.ATP hydrolysis B.Peptide bond cleavage C.Hydrolysis of triacylglycerides D.Transfer of carboxyl groups

Correct - C LipA enzyme, look at the root name. LipA is a lipase lip is root of lipide therefore, lipase is an ezyme that cleaves a lipid. The 1st sentence of the passage also states that the abbreviation stands for "lysosomal lipase"

32. The source of the phosphate groups that are added to rhodopsin is: A.arrestin. B.rhodopsin kinase. C.ATP. D.all-trans-retinol.

Correct - C Kinase functions by CATALYZING the transfer of a Pi from ATP to a Protein, etc. They do not get phosphorylated themselves.

2. What assumption is being made if scientists conclude that aspartic acid was formed by the prebiological synthesis in the passage? A.Aspartic acid is unstable at temperatures below 150°C. B.All of the malic acid underwent the dehydration reaction to form fumaric/maleic acid. C.Compound A and cyanide were available on primitive Earth. D.The reaction between ammonia and fumaric acid was catalyzed by the presence of water.

Correct - C Only way for Compound A to react to eventually form Amino Acids on Earth was if CN- was present. Scheme I shows Compound A + CN --> Intermediate that evnetually goes to AA

26. Why is the velocity of blood flow slower in capillaries than in arteries? A.Capillary walls are more elastic than arterial walls. B.Capillaries have less resistance to blood flow than arteries. C.The total cross-sectional area of capillaries exceeds that of arteries. D.Blood pressure is higher in the capillaries than in arteries.

Correct - C arteries tend to be thicker, and have less open cross sectional area than the rest of the circulatory system so it can be inferred that they will have a higher velocity because of this reduced cross sectional area. working backwards with this logic will allow you to conclude that because flow= velocity times cross-sec area, arteries will have a higher velocity to keep up with the lower cross-sec area If the area of the capillary is larger, the velocity of flow would be slower, Q=Av (continuity equation)

31. The environment of the retinal binding site is most likely: A.hydrophilic. B.positively charged. C.negatively charged. D.hydrophobic.

Correct - D Retinal is derived from all-trans-retinol AKA Vitamin A. Remember that Vitamin A is one of the lipid-soluble vitamins, so it has to be largely hydrophobic. Or just look at the structure and you should realize that its just a bunch of hydrocarbons hence retinal is hydrophobic.

17. What is the energy of the photons emitted by the LED at a frequency of 610 THz? (Note: h = 6.6 × 10-34 J·s) A.9.2 × 10-12 J B.1.6 × 10-16 J C.1.1 × 10-18 J D.4.0 × 10-19 J

Correct - D Tera=1.0x10^12 E=hf Energy of a photon (E)= hf . E= (6.6 x 10 ^-34) * ( 610 x10 ^12)= 4.0 x 10 ^-19 J Note: sometimes the equation is written E=hv where v is still frequency.

37. By what factor is the proton concentration increased in the experiments shown in Figure 1B from those shown in Figure 1A? A.2 B.10 C.200 D.1000

Correct - D The question is asking about the proton concentration change between experiment 1 B and 1A. The figures tell us that there was a change from pH4 to pH7 in the experiment. The pH changes by 3. Because pH is a logarithmic scale, this is really a 10 ^3 change or 1000 fold change pH = -log[H+] and 3 pH units is 10^3 = 1000

15. Knowing that the speed of light in the vitreous humor is 2.1 × 108 m/s, what is the index of refraction of the vitreous humor? (Note: The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m/s.) A.0.7 B.1.4 C.2.1 D.3.0

Correct - ans B index of refraction: n= c/v. C = velocity of light in VACUMM. V = velocity of light in MEDIUM. N IS ALWAYS GREATER 1. A helpful hint is if you notice that the answer choices do not contain units -- which should direct you toward division -> just know what is divided by what. the index of refraction n = c/v. (3.0 X 10 ^8) /(2.2 X10^8) = 1.4

8. Based on the information in the passage, a mature AT1 mRNA is most likely to contain a sequence coding for which genetic factor(s)? A.Signal sequence B.Introns C.Promoter D.Nuclear localization signal

Got is Correct (A) but was debating btw A and D The passage says that AT1 is plasma membane embedded protein. These proteins enter the membrane domain by docking at the rough ER using signal sequences. Nuclear localization signals are used to enter the nucleus , this is not likley for AT1

29. The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by: A.passive flow due to a pressure difference. B.passive flow resulting from a countercurrent exchange system. C.active transport of water, followed by movement of electrolytes along a resulting concentration gradient. D.active transport of electrolytes, followed by passive flow of water along the resulting osmolarity gradient.

Got is correct (A) but was confused Direction and rate of filtration is determined by Starling's Forces, which accounts for hydrostatic and oncotic pressure differentials btwn glomerulus & Bownman's Capsule in the kidneys.

11. If a man with a mutant copy of Ace2 has a child with a woman that is heterozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele, what is the probability that the child will be a female and homozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele? A.0 B.0.25 C.0.75 D.1

Got it Correct (B) I did it by writing out the cross btw the affected male and the unaffected female but a faster way to think about this is: The affected male has a 50% chance of passing it to his offsprings and a cross btw a male and female always gives you 50/50 chance of M/F offspring. So, the probability that the child is a carrier is 1/2 and the probability that the child is female is 1/2. The probability of both happening is 1/2 * 1/2 or 1/4 aka 0.25 (picture shows how I did it)

What is one side effect of hyperglycemia?

Hyperglycemia, or increased blood sugar, and decreased glucose uptake by cells leads to increased appetite. Thus, it is not likely that people with diabete mellitus will have a decrease in appetite.

7. For Patient 2, panic attacks act as: A.discriminatory stimuli. B.signaling stimuli. C.positive punishers. D.negative punishers.

INCORRECT At first I thought the answer was going to be btw C/D but then I overthought about it and picked A. Ans is C A. Discrimination in stimuli is the ability to discern between different stimuli in conditioning. This is not relevant in this passage because there are no conflicting stimuli being discrimated between. B. Signaling stimulus: neutral stimuli (do not produce a reflexive response) that have the potential to be used as conditioning stimuli. Not relevant for this question stem. C. POSITIVE PUNISHMENT: adding a (undesirable) stimulus to decrease something (not going to meetings anymore). Adding anxiety (via panic attacks) = Positive -- Decreasing Attendance to meetings = Punishment -> Positive Punishment D. negative would be removing a (desirable) stimulus

21. What is the work generated by a healthy adult who circulates 9 L of blood through the brachial artery in 10 min? A.2 kJ B.12 kJ C.20 kJ D.120 kJ

Incorrect - ans D picked A

33. Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ measure? A.A positive correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores B.A negative correlation between the DMQ scores and the CG scores C.A positive correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ D.A negative correlation between participants' scores on two different administrations of the DMQ

INCORRECT - I chose C ans in A I chose the answer that's reliable not valid B. This would mean that the DMQ, CG, or both measures are invalid C. This would help with reliability not validity D. This would mean the measure is not reliable.

17. Which approach does NOT measure the activity of the Na+K+ATPase? A.Measuring the rate of ATP hydrolysis B.Measuring the free energy of the ion transport C.Measuring the rate of ADP production D.Measuring the change in ion concentration within the liposome

INCORRECT - and B chose D A. Na+K+ ATPase uses active transport through the hydrolysis of ATP. B. An enzyme does not change the thermodynamics of a reaction. the free energy wouldn't tell you anything about the activity-- it would only tell you how favorable (in terms of spontaneity) the process is. C. Measuring ADP production would be a measure of Na+K+ ATPase since Na+K+ ATPase uses active transport through the hydrolysis of ATP (ATP -> ADP) D. Na+K+ ATPase uses active transport to pump 2 K+ ions into the cell and 3+ Na ions out. Therefore measuring changes in ion concentration would be an effective measure for Na+K+ ATPase activity I got the question wrong bc I didnt recognize that the main word in choice B was the "free energy" part not the ion transport part

44. Based on the findings in the study, which conclusion about ADHD is most likely? A.Immediate performance feedback reduces impulsive responding in children with ADHD. B.Exposure to a gaming element increases impulsive responding in children with ADHD. C.Gaming elements on working memory tasks place high demands on divided attention and inhibit focus. D.Low levels of intrinsic motivation in children with ADHD are minimally enhanced with external reinforcers.

INCORRECT - ans A chose D I was confused about this question but I should have made the connection that the gaming group people for immediate feedback which is why they were so motivated

1. Based on the data presented in the passage, which statement best describes the HSP110ΔE9 allele? A.Cancer-promoting and dominant to HSP110WT B.Cancer-promoting and recessive to HSP110WT C.Cancer-suppressing and dominant to HSP110WT D.Cancer-suppressing and recessive to HSP110WT

INCORRECT - ans C chose A Understood the passage wrong. The mutation isn't the one causing death but the mutation kicks in when there's cancer and tried to kill the cell Table 2 shows that the allele is dominant to the WT one and the graph shows that when the mutation is there, the volume of tumor is less meaning that its suppressing the tumor more than the WT one

54. Which interpretation of the research findings is consistent with the conflict theory perspective? Status hierarchies facilitate: A.efficiency in the organization, whereas discrimination is a byproduct of these structures. B.the preservation of structural power while being maintained by practices of discrimination. C.effective social interactions, whereas discrimination is a subjective quality of those interactions. D.the necessary operation of the workplace while removing ineffective members by practices of discrimination.

INCORRECT - chose A, ans B The give away for the answer should be the word "power" bc conflict theory has to do with power/inequality

27. Which type of design is LEAST appropriate for research on residential segregation? A.Ethnographic methods B.Experimental methods C.Quantitative methods D.Survey methods

INCORRECT - chose A, ans B I think I read the question wrong because ethnographic would honestly make the most sense out of all the other choices The ans is B bc it would be unethical and impractical to design an experimental study for residential segregation

53. The research in the passage is best described as a: A.qualitative study. B.quantitative study. C.mixed-methods study. D.case study.

INCORRECT - chose A, ans C The research design employs both a quantitative component (the statistical analysis of the total claims) and a qualitative component (the in-depth analysis of a subset of cases). Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology

38. Sociologists describe the health benefits of social support as resulting from all of the following EXCEPT: A.friends and family members that help patients adhere to medical treatment. B.friends and family members that help patients to reduce harmful behaviors. C.social relationships that help individuals to cope with stressful events. D.social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom

INCORRECT - chose A, ans is D I didn't understand the question properly. The important part of the question stem was the "health benefits" part. All the choices except for D are associated with improving health or reducing harm.

31. On average, adults are found to be more risk averse than adolescents. Based on group polarization, how would testing condition affect adults' scores on the DMQ? Adults would have: A.lower scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. B.higher scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. C.lower scores on the DMQ in small groups but higher scores on the DMQ in large groups. D.higher scores on the DMQ in small groups but lower scores on the DMQ in large groups

INCORRECT - chose B ans A I picked the opposite because I wasn't thinking properly. Thinking about it now, it makes sense that if adults are more risk averse then group polarization would make them even more risk averse which means that their DMQ scores would be lower meaning they picked lower risk (the passage describes what DMQ means)

26. What is the most likely location of P-gp within the plasma membrane? A.Associated with lipids on the cytoplasmic side only B.Associated with lipids on tterm-84he extracellular side only C.Peripheral to the plasma membrane D.Within a lipid raft

INCORRECT - chose B ans D Given that P-gp is an ABC ATPase, meaning a transport protein, A, B, and C can be eliminated because transport proteins are transmembrane. ATPases associated with the membrane in general are transmembrane, such as the ATPase in ETC. We also know that P-gp is associated with cholesterol for activity from figure 1. Lipid rafts are full of cholesterol to keep the lipid raft afloat, so this answer is probable. In the passage it states "It has been shown that P-gp exhibits ATPase activity and is localized in cholesterol-rich domains within the membrane"

3. A man with a CRC mutation that results in the synthesis of HSP110ΔE9 and a woman that does not carry this mutation in any of her tissues have a child. What is the percent chance that the child will inherit the CRC mutation? A.0% B.25% C.50% D.100%

INCORRECT - chose C ans A Still struggle with probability and genetics but this one was a easy give away in the passage. The passage tells you that people with the mutation have it in cancerous cells only. Since colorectal cancer is a somatic cancer and doesn't affect germ cells, this mutation is not genetically passed down.

36. In the example of the alcoholic in the passage, the presence of alcohol caused death because the alcohol: A.denatured the cP-450. B.inhibited the cP-450. C.decreased the concentration of cP-450. D.increased the concentration of cP-450

INCORRECT - chose C ans B Paragraph 4 states that alcohol acts as a competitive inhibitor of barbiturate metabolism. Out of all the choices, alcohol inhibiting the cP-450 allows you to assume that alcohol is a competitive inhibitor

25. A researcher suggests that the effect of the testing condition on the affiliation ratings is caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to performing a repetitive behavior. Is this explanation likely to be supported? A.Yes, because studies show that increased sympathetic nervous system arousal can affect how people feel about others. B.Yes, because the design used in Study 1 allows researchers to establish the effect of sympathetic nervous system arousal on affiliation ratings. C.No, because performing repetitive behaviors is more likely to increase parasympathetic nervous system activity. D.No, because both of the conditions involve repetitive behaviors, but participants' ratings differ under the two conditions.

INCORRECT - chose C ans D I wasn't confused about what the question was asking. the question stem is saying: Someone says that performing repetitive behavior increases sympathetic nervous system activity, and that increase is the reason behind the difference in ratings of whether the person felt closer to the experimenter or not

10. Data on the role of Maintenance Factor 1 on PD is LEAST likely to come from which type of research? A.Correlational studies B.Case studies C.Longitudinal studies D.Experimental studies

INCORRECT - chose C ans D The way I thought about this one was that because it's called maintenance factor 1, there is an element of time involved in studying the phenomenon. So a longitudinal study would make sense to detect how levels interoceptive awareness contribute to the maintenance of PD over time. As far as doing an experimental study on maintenance factor 1, how would the researchers create "mild changes in bodily sensations" in the participants systematically? They couldn't have administered some type of drug to raise heart rate for example because that would create a whole slew of confounding variables in its own right. I think it's normal to manipulate physiological states in more biology-oriented studies which would then measure some physical change, but there are a lot of technical/methodological limitations involved with doing so in a psychological study on humans.

2. Based on the passage, in MSI CRC primary tumor cells, the size of the deletion in the HSP110 T17 microsatellite is inversely correlated with: A.the amount of HSP110ΔE9 protein expressed. B.the number of mature HSP110WT transcripts synthesized. C.the frequency of the omission of HSP110 Exon 9 during splicing. D.the extent of premature translation termination in Exon 10.

INCORRECT - chose D ans B A. As deletion size, increases, the percent of HSP110E9 mRNA also increases, this would be a direct relationship B. As deletion size increases, the percentage of mutant HSPalso increases. This means that the percentage of WT transcipts syntheized decreases. This would be an inverse relationship C. The larger deletions would cause the frequency of omission of Exon 9 to increase, not an inverse relationship D. As deletion size increases, the more Exon 9 is omitted from the final sequence, this causes more premature STOP codon with exon 10. Would not be inverse relationship

29. Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals? A.Social support analysis B.Social network analysis C.Social stratification analysis D.Social reproduction analysis

INCORRECT -chose D ans B I was going to pick b but second guessed and picked B A. Social support is the perception and actuality that one is cared for, has assistance available from other people, and that one is part of a supportive social network. There are 4 types of social support: emotional, appraisal, instrumental, informational B. Social network = mapping of social relationships among individuals C. Social stratification is the seperation between social classes (strata) D. Social reproduction refers to rich parents having rich kids and poor parents having poor kids

4. The children from the experiment in the passage participate in a separate study using Piaget's water conservation task. They are shown two identical beakers, containing equal amounts of water. The water from one of the containers is poured into a thinner and taller beaker. Which prediction is most likely to be confirmed? A.All three age groups will state that the water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. B.The majority of the 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker. C.The majority of the 9- and 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity. D.The majority of the 7-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker.

INCORRECT ans is B chose D I knew the stage was concrete operations. The age for that is 8-11 (conservation, empathy). Making choice B the correct answer. choice D, 7 y/o are most likely to still be within the pre-operational stage which identifies as egocentrism. I would have gotten this right if I wasn't rushing through and read the choices a little carefully

12. Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way? A.Chemically B.Mechanically C.Electrically D.Synapticall

INCORRECT chose A ans is B I picked chemically without really thinking about it Vibrations reach the basilar membrane, and the stereocilia on the hair cells start to sway back-and-forth within the endolymph. This swaying causes the opening of the ion channels, which causes a receptor potential. So this swaying is considered "mechanical"

16. The intensity of the radiation emitted by the oxygen sensor is directly proportional to the: A.propagation speed of the radiation. B.wavelength of the radiation. C.polarization of photons emitted. D.number of photons emitted.

Incorrect - ans D picked A Changing the frequency in the photoelectric effect affects the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. Changing the intensity will affect the number of electrons (photons). E= fh (energy of a photon equation)

3. The findings described in the passage suggest that memory for locations: A. is comparable to adults by nine years of age. B. is influenced by categorical knowledge. C. becomes more accurate with age. D. relies solely on recall of distances.

INCORRECT chose A but Ans is B Notice the y-axis is referring to central placement ERRORS. That means as the bars go higher up, the adults are making more errors, so their accuracy is actually decreasing. Since their is differences observed in performance between adults and children, and the passage referred to the role of categorical bias, you can jump to the conclusion that the results were influenced by categorical knowledge via categorical bias. Look at the first sentence of the 3rd paragraph where they say "The researchers were interested in whether the participants showed categorical bias, which was measured by central placement error."

49. Normally, a hypothalamic factor stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In a patient with Addison's disease, the secretion of the hypothalamic factor will: A.be lower than normal. B.be higher than normal. C.be unchanged. D.increase before disease onset and decrease thereafter.

Incorrect - Ans B chose C The secretion is higher than normal because normal secretion would be in part regulated due to negative feedback by the adrenal cortex secretions, left unregulated ACTH will be higher Most Hypothalmic Controlled Hormones are regulated by negative feedback

45. In the above figure, an object O is at a distance of three focal lengths from the center of a convex lens. What is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object? A.1/3 B.1/2 C.2/3 D.3/2 Image on the other side

Incorrect - Ans B picked C I didn't understand the question (they were looking for magnification), didnt know the equations either

30. The production of a variety of opsins functions to: A.increase sensitivity to low light. B.enable the detection of different colors. C.ensure fast recovery of 11-cis-retinal after exposure. D.increase refractive index of the eye lens.

Incorrect - Ans B picked D In the article, "..opsin based receptors are expressed in specialized cone cells and have maximum absorptions at 420 nm, 530 nm, and 560 nm.." - cone is the clue for colors!! passage detail error

13. Which of the following will decrease the percentage ionization of 1.0 M acetic acid, CH3CO2H(aq)? A.Chlorinating the CH3 group B.Diluting the solution C.Adding concentrated HCl(aq) D.Adding a drop of basic indicator

Incorrect - Ans C chose B Ionization refers to the molecule being broken up. Ex: HCl breaking up into H+ and Cl-. So, here they are asking what will make it less likely for acetic acid to break up. a. Chlorine is a highly electronegative element. (You can tell because it's in the top right corner of the periodic table.) So adding a chlorine to this molecule stabilizes it. The reason it stabilizes it is because the Cl pulls electrons toward it (electronegative), that results in spreading the electron density out better (similar to conjugation in a benzene ring or carboxylic acid stabilizing effects). Spreading out electron density in this case means a more stable conjugate base of the acetic acid. So if you imagine pulling the acidic H+ off of acetic acid, you'd see a negative O-, which would represent its conjugate base. An electronegative Cl atom would pull the electron density away from the negative O- of that conjugate base. That spreading out of electron density is STABILIZING the conjugate base. A more stable conjugate base always means a STRONGER acid. So by stabilizing the conjugate base of this molecule (spreading out electron density), we're increasing its acidity. A stronger acid results in higher percentage ionization, not lower. B. diluting it with water will favor ionization (right shift) C. The question is asking which of the following will decrease the percentage ionization of acetic acid CH3CO2H. This is essentially a Le Chatliers question. The reaction would be CH3COOH ---> CH3Coo- + H+ . If you add HCL, there will be more H+ available and the reaction would shift to the left, decreasing the ionization of the reactant D. adding a base will increase ionization (right shift)

41. Addition of laforin to the reaction mixtures used to generate the data in Figure 2 will result in: A.a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 14C decay. B.an increase in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 14C decay. C.a decrease in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay. D.an increase in the intensity of the band representing WT without glucosidase when visualized with 32P decay.

Incorrect - Ans C picked A In the passage it says that laforin is a PHOSPHATASE A and B. Even if the phosphatase cleaves off a phosphate group under these conditions, we wouldn't be able to visualize any differences because only the carbon is radioactively labeled. We shouldn't see a difference in how carbon is visualized in this lane because phosphatases don't interact with carbon. C. If you look at the experimental procedure, they are measuring the radioactivity of the starch and not the individual sugars. This is evidenced by that fact that with glucosidase, a glycogen-degrading enzyme, there is no band in any of the assays. Thus, if the sugar is degraded, the signal is decreased. Since laforin is explained in the passage to be a carbohydrate-degrading enzyme, it is presumably going to have a similar effect. D. Phosphatases cleave OFF phosphatases, so we wouldn't expect to see more phosphate incorporated into the sugar. Instead, we would expect to see less.

20. What fraction of a 15O sample decays in 10 min? A.1/8 B.9/16 C.3/4 D.31/32

Incorrect - ans D picked C A. 1/8 is less than half so this can't be it B and C. 9/16 = 3/4 which is the same as answer C D. The half life of O-15 is 2 minutes. After 10 minutes, 5 half lives will have occured. What is left of the sample would be (1/2)^5 = 1/32. The portion of the sample that has decayed would be 31/32

29. The term "ideal gas" refers to a gas for which certain assumptions have been made. Which of the following is such an assumption? A.The law PV = nRT2 is strictly obeyed. B.Intermolecular molecular forces are infinitely large. C.Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible. D.One gram-mole occupies a volume of 22.4 L at 25°C and one atmosphere pressure.

Incorrect - Ans C picked D The ideal gas law assumes: 1) no molecular volume 2) kinetic energy & temperature are proportional 3) all collisions are elastic 4) no attractive or repulsive interactions 5) pressure produced by combined force of collisions A. PV = nRT. not T squared B. Ideal gas obeys to no intermolecular forces, not that they are infintely large. Ideal gas molecules also have negligible volume (although all the gas molecules can occupy a large volume). Ideal gas law also states that collisions are elastic and motion is random. D.Would have to be 0C or 273K. Not 25C this is not ideal gas temperature. STP is 0 degrees C and standard state is 25. this is standard state. gas law refers to STP

58. Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf? A.1/4 B.3/8 C.1/2 D.5/8

Incorrect - Ans D chose A It is best to view this problem has having two seperate parts: the first requires multiplication and the second addition. It is important to remember that multiplication is used when two seperate events lead to the same result. In simplier terms, multiplication is used when 2 or more events are both needed/dependent on each other for an outcome to happen ( x AND y = z). Addition is used when one event can occur in two different ways. In other terms, addition occurs when an outcome can happen one way or another way ( x OR y = z). Firstly, the question states that the two genes are "unlinked" meaning that these genes (K and M) act indendently and are paired by chance. You can start by creating two punnet squares: one that relates (Kk) x (Kk) and the other that relates (Mm) x (mm). The question states that "the dominant K is necessary for hearing," so the kk recessive must be needed for deafness. Also, the question states that "the dominant M causes deafness". From your squares, you should get that the chance of a kk recessive is (1/4) and the chance of getting a Mm is (1/2). Multiply (1/2) by (1/4) to get (1/8), which is the probability that the offspring is deaf due to the combination of K and M genes. This is the probabilty of two seperate events (from two unlinked, independent genes) leading to the same outcome (deafness), therefore multiplication is used. Now, for the second part of the problem. Note that the question also states that, "the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present." This means that the dominant M leads to deafness all on its own, even without the kk recessive being present. Note that from our punnet sqaure, we know that Mm occurs 50% of the time (1/2). To account for the one event (Mm, which can independently lead to deafness) that occurs in two different ways -- one on its own (1/2) or another with kk (1/8) -- use addition. The total probablity of deaf offspring is (1/8) + (1/2) = (5/8). A shorter way to do it is by looking at the M allele and after doing the punnett square you know that it gives you 50% so you know the answer will be more than 50% bc you have to take K allele into account too. This leads you to eliminating A, B and C answer choices.

43. Compared to normal glycogen, the amount of what type of bond is decreased in Lafora bodies? A.Phosphomonoester B.Phosphodiester C.α-1,4-Glycosidic bond D.α-1,6-Glycosidic bond

Incorrect - Ans D picked A The question is asking what bond is decreased in Lafora bodies. Lafora bodies lack branching enzymes. Glycogen branches at alpha 1, 6 glycosidic bond. Pay attention to the term "sparsely branched" in paragraph 2

28. Which of the following types of orbitals of the central atom are involved in bonding in octahedral compounds? A.sp B.sp3 C.p D.d2 sp3

Incorrect - Ans D picked C Linear = sp Trigonal planar = sp2 tetrahedral = sp3 trigonal bipyramidal = dsp3 octahedral (6 atoms) = d2sp3

44. Each of the following equations shows the dissociation of an acid in water. Which of the reactions occurs to the LEAST extent? A.HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl− B.HPO42− + H2O → H3O+ + PO43− C.H2SO4 + H2O → H3O+ + HSO4− D.H3PO4 + H2O → H3O+ + H2PO4−

Incorrect - ans B chose A A. HCl is a strong acid so it will dissociate to a great extent is water. B.Essentially, question = which acid is the weakest? And the answer is HPO4 2- HCl and H2SO4 are strong acids; becuase of the negative charge on the HPO4^2- , it is unlikely to want to donate a proton. Also, HPO4 can carry up to 3 protons. As acids give up successive proton, they are less likely to dissociate.

19. What percentage of standard atmospheric pressure is the pulse pressure of a healthy adult? A.10% B.6% C.2% D.1%

Incorrect - ans B picked C Need to know that 1 atm = 760 mmHg

22. Compared to micellular Compound 1, Compound 2 is structurally more rigid as a result of what type of interaction? A.Intermolecular hydrogen bonding B.Intermolecular covalent bonding C.Intramolecular hydrogen bonding D.Intramolecular covalent bonding

Incorrect - ans B; picked D I knew it was covalent bond bc of the disulfide bonds but I was wrong about the inter/intramolecular part. In the passage it states that, "Compound 1 contained 5 regions...(2) residues that could be cross-linked for additional structural integrity..." This wording indicates two residues that can cross link would be cysteine forming a disulfide bridge; disulfide bridges are a COVALENT bond between two thiol groups (-SH). We know that it is between multiple molecules from what is states in the general info section. Also, a teller of this in the passage was that it says, "Molecules of Compound 1 spontaneously self-assemble into cylindrical micelles..." the cylindrical micelles it refers to are Compound 1 (mic) in equation 1. Disulfide bonds are usually formed from the oxidation of sulfhydryl (−SH) groups. The fact that an oxidation causes this and a reduction returns compound 2 to compound 1 indicates that the solid formed is made of multiple molecules of compound 1.

4. Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dehydration of malic acid to fumaric acid and maleic acid? A.The reaction occurs most readily with tertiary alcohols. B.The reaction involves the loss of a water molecule. C.The reaction has a carbocation intermediate. D.The reaction is stereospecific.

Incorrect - ans D chose A In the passage, it said "the dehydration results in fumaric acid and its cis isomer" This should tell me that the reaction is NOT stereospecific making choice D wrong. I got it wrong bc idk what stereospecificity was. Also if the rxn goes through a carbocation intermediate - it can no longer be stereospecific Stereospecific - only one stereoisomer is formed over the other. Ex: cis OR trans Stereoselective - one stereoisomer Is PREFERENTIALLY/MORE READILY formed over the other. Ex: Wedge/Dashed Regioselective - when a rxn selectively generates 1 constitutional isomer rather than the other. But the other isomer(s) are still formed selective => preference specific => absolute regio => overall structure stereo => arrangement in space

23. Which amino acid residues were incorporated into Compound 1 to promote the adhesion of cells on the scaffold surfaces? A. Arg and Gly B. Cys and Gly C. Cys and Asp D. Asp and Arg

Incorrect - ans D chose C Didn't understand the passage properly aspartate and arginine can be identified the furthest right as part of region 5 (residues with affinity for cells) Although Cys are abundant, they're on the left side of the compound and act as the "cross linked section" they are not apart of the binding process as they do not fall under region 5

31. Enzymes alter the rate of chemical reactions by all of the following methods EXCEPT: A.co-localizing substrates. B.altering local pH. C.altering substrate shape. D.altering substrate primary structure.

Incorrect - chose B ans D An enzyme wouldn't change the primary structure of a protein. Even though a peptide can be cleaved in a enzyme ( with something like a protease), it isnt the enzyme itself that does the cleaving and changes the primary structure but some other molecule such as water For local pH, it's talking about changes in the microenvironment because enzyme side chains can interact with anything that it's near. Enzymes can alter local pH by having basic/acidic residues donate/abstract protons to reagents/substrates in the biochemical reaction.

43. Based on Figure 1 and the passage, which of the following cells are most important in the exchange of O2 between the blood and the surrounding tissues? A.Pericytes B.Endothelial cells C.Smooth-muscle cells D.Fibroblasts

Incorrect - chose D ans B The passage states "ECs define the lumen of capillaries." Capillaries are the main site of O2 exchange

What is MMR (mismatch repair system) used for?

MMR is only used for DNA replication -- not transcription.

What is the difference between mismatch repair and nucleotide excision repair?

Mismatch repair is focused on repairing single mismatches, while nucleotide excision repair repairs larger mutations such as a Thymine dimer

Btw NAD+ and NADH, which one is the reduced and the oxidized form?

NAD+ is the oxidized form and NADH is the reduced form

9. What is the product of the reaction of Compound 1 (shown below) with HBr by the pathway shown in Figure 3? A.(R)-1-bromo-1-deuteriohexane B.(S)-1-bromo-1-deuteriohexane C.(S)-1-bromo-1-deuteriopentane D.(R)-1-bromo-1-deuteriopentane (picture opposite side)

Picture shows that its a primary alcohol so that means it would be SN2 rxn. SN2 PRODUCT IS INVERTED. MEANING IF THE ORIGINAL IS R IT WILL BE S. This compound originally is R (OH (1) --> pentane (2) --> D(3)) so the product will be S R - clockwise S - counterclockwise

49. Which of the following diagrams does NOT illustrate a function of an automobile catalytic converter? choices are images (on the back)

Skipped - Ans C Passage states the answer to this question A. Second to last paragraph: "exhaust gases are passed through beads of a solid catalyst...aids in the conversions of...hydrocarbons to carbon dioxide and water" Here the CH4 is a hydrocarbon and it's product aligns. B. Second to last paragraph "exhaust gases are passed through beads of a solid catalyst...aids in the conversions of...carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide" This reaction is seen in this answer therefore its wrong C. When looking at the second to last paragraph this is the only reaction not written out in the passage to be catalyzed; therefore it is your answer D. "exhaust gases are passed through beads of a solid catalyst...aids in the conversions of...nitric acid to nitrogen gas" This is the reaction written for option D therefore wrong.

48. Which of the following is the overall reaction for the decomposition of H2O2 that is shown in reactions 3 and 4? A.2H2O2(aq) + IO−(aq) → 2H2O(l) + I−(aq) + O2(g) B.2H2O2(aq) + 2I−(aq) → 2H2O(l) + I2(g) + O2(g) C.H2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + O2(g) D.2H2O2(aq) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g)

Skipped - Ans D add reaction 3 and 4 together, canceling out reactants with products and vice versa will give you the correct answer

53. When a strip of Zn is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, H2(g) evolves. If a strip of Al is placed in a beaker containing 0.1 M HCl, does H2(g) evolve? A.Yes; Al is reduced and H+(aq) is oxidized. B.Yes; Al is oxidized and H+(aq) is reduced. C.No; Al is reduced and Cl-(aq) is oxidized D.No; Al is oxidized and H2O(l) is produced

Skipped - B A. Al is NOT reduced but oxidized. Here is the reason: From the question stem, it says that H2 (g) is made--this means that zinc is oxidized and HCl has a GREATER E° value than zinc. Remember a bigger E° value means that element/compund will be reduced. Looking at Table 1, we see that when Zn2+ and Al(s) reacts, we get a new solid, Zinc. Which means that zn2+ was reduced and has a higher E° value than Al. Now we have two conclusions, HCl has higher E° value than Zn. And Zn has higher E° value than Al. So that means that Al has the lowest E° value than that of both HCl and Zn. This would conclude that Al will be oxidized by HCl because it has a lower E° value than HCl. Hopefully this helps! B. Experiment 1 is essentially testing which metal solids (X(s)) are the best reducing agents. When X(s) is placed in the beaker containing Ym+(aq) and a solid forms, that means that X(s) has reduced Ym+(aq) to Y(s). Y(s) is the solid that is observed in the beaker. In table 1, we can see that they tested multiple X(s) (TOP ROW) with multiple Ym+(aq) (LEFT COLUMN). The reducing capability of X(s) is related to the amount of times it produced a new solid when being tested with various Ym+(aq). The question tells us that Zn(s) was able to reduce H+ to H2 and is essentially asking if Al(s) can do the same thing, i.e. is Al as good of a reducing agent as Zn. We can see from the table that Al(s) is able to produce a new solid 4/4 times and Zn(s) is able to produce a new solid 3/4 times. Thus, Al(s) is a better reducing agent than Zn(s) and if Zn can reduce H+ to H2, Al sure as hell can too. Alternative/simpler answer: when looking at the table, we see when Al(s) is mixed with Zn, a new solid forms. That means Zn's reduction potential is greater than Al's. We already know H's reduction potential is greater than Zn. So H > Zn > Al, which means if we place Al(s) into HCl, then of course it will be oxidized

52. A student can most effectively increase the current passing through the circuit in Figure 2 by doing which of the following? A.Using electrical wire with a smaller diameter B.Increasing the temperature of the electrical wire C.Decreasing the concentrations of Xn+(aq) and Ym+(aq) D.Replacing the lightbulb with one that has a resistance of 0.2 Ω

Skipped - D V=IR A. R=p(L/A) decrease diameter--> increase Resistance --> (I=V/R) decrease I B. temperature and resistance are directly related!! D. When voltage is held constant, a decrease in resistance will result in an incurease in current (V=IR --> I=V/R)

50. Which of the following most likely will occur if a homogeneous catalyst CANNOT be separated from the products at the end of a reaction? A.The catalyst will become heterogeneous. B.The products will be contaminated. C.The reaction will not occur. D.The reaction rate will speed up.

Skipped - ans B In the passage it says that homogeneous catalysts exists in the same phase as the reactant molecules. So, if the catalyst (Enzyme) can't be separated from the reactants at the end of a rxn that means the rxn will be contaminated because of the catalyst

51. How will the rate of a catalyzed reaction be affected if the solid catalyst is finely ground before it is added to the reaction mixture? A.The rate will be faster because a greater mass of catalyst will be present. B.The rate will be faster because a greater surface area of catalyst will be exposed. C.The rate will be slower because the fine catalyst particles will interfere with product formation. D.The rate will remain the same because the mass of catalyst will be the same.

Skipped - ans B A. When you finely grind something, you don't change the mass so this is wrong B. An increased surface area will allow more of the substrate to interact with the catalyst. When you finely ground something, you're increasing the surface area of that compound

What happens during RBC maturation (synthesis)?

The RBC's will expel their nucleus and other organelles through a process called eryhropoesis to make more room for hemoglobin

Where are splice donors and acceptor sites found?

They are found on introns

Do viruses contain DNA?

They can have double stranded DNA, yes

What is the difference between validity, reliability, generalizable, and standardized?

Validity--does the test/research method actually measure what we want to measure? The MCAT would be considered a valid test if it predicts medical school preparedness/success. Reliability--if a single individual will tend to score similarly every time he/she takes the test, then it's reliable. If someone takes 3 MCAT exams, without any extra preparation in between and he/she scores a similar score every time, then the test is reliable. This is also true for research methods (for example, does a single rat complete a maze task in roughly the same amount of time every time). Reliability can be limited by the "practice effect", which is the tendency of subjects to do better on a task the more often they do it because of the practice. Generalizable--how good can the results of a particular research be applied to a large group of people. For example, a good clinical trial is one that can be generalized to the whole population that has that disease. If we have a clinical trial for a new drug used to treat macular degeneration, then the results of that study should be able to be applied to everyone else that has macular degeneration. This can also apply to tests--is the result of an MCAT exam indicative of any single person's future success in medical school? If so, then you'd say that the MCAT is a generalizable exam that can be used to assess anyone's medical school success. Standardized--is every single test/trial administered the same exact way to all people who take it?

when is gluconeogenesis high?

When glucose (carbs) is low, gluconeogenesis gets stimulated to build up glucose levels

How can an increase in glucocorticoids (cortisol) lead to muscle weakness?

Would increase muscle weakness b/c increase in cortisol --> increase glucose by gluconeogenesis (glucogenic amino acids) so would degrade amino acids in muscles.

36. The data in Figure 1 show that: A.the unfolding of LipA proteins is a non-reversible process. B.exposure to high temperature eliminates any variant protein activity. C.variation in the flexible regions of LipA decreases the temperature sensitivity of activity. D.wild-type LipA loses all activity when first heated to 50°C.

correct - C

10. Acetic acid and ethanol react to form an ester product as shown below. (pic opposite side) In determining which reactant loses the -OH group, which of the following isotopic substitutions would be most useful? A.Replace the acidic H of acetic acid with D. B.Replace the alcoholic H of ethanol with D. C.Replace the carbonyl oxygen of acetic acid with O-18. D.Replace the hydroxyl oxygen of ethanol with O-18.

correct - D A and B. Switching the H's for D's wouldn't do anything becuase both H's end up forming water and would give you no indication of -OH movement. This is why A and B can be eliminated immediately. C. Remember that the carbonyl oxygen is the one that is double bonded to the carbon and is not likely to be a good leaving group in this reaction. So if you want to determine which -OH group ends up leaving, as the question states, you need to label the O on either the ethanol or the O on the R group of acetic acid as these are the only -OH groups present. This allows us to eliminate C since it is not a reactive -OH group and pick D as the right answer. D. The O on the ethanol is either going to bond with the acetic acid to form the ester at the carbonyl carbon, or its going to leave the ethanol as water. Knowing OChem we know that it will attack the carbonyl carbon though. Regardless, by labeling this Oxygen we can see if it forms the ester bond and attacks and is retained in the final structure, or we can see if it leaves and becomes water.

35. Compared to the wild-type LipA, what is the change in net charge in variant XI at pH 7? A.+4 B.+3 C.−3 D.−4

correct - D The easiest way to tackle this problem is to write the difference in charges between the WT and variant substitutions. Looking at table 1, we can see the amino acids that were modified. The nomenclature is X123Y, where X is the original amino acid, 123 is the amino acid number, and Y is the new, substituted amino acid in the variant. R33G: R is +1, G is 0, so the difference is -1 K112D: +1-->-1 = -2 M134D: 0-->-1= -1 Y139C: 0 I157M: 0 The total difference is -4. The relevant amino acids in this question are arginine (to glycine), lysine (to aspartic acid), methionine (to aspartic acid), tyrosine (to cysteine), and isoleucine (to methionine). Arginine is +1, lysine is +1, and aspartic acid is -1. The other amino acids involved in this question are neutrally changed.

14. When the current in the micro-robot's circuit increases and the resistance of the circuit remains constant, the voltage of the circuit: A.decreases. B.increases. C.is constant. D.is zero.

correct - ans B V= IR. If the current increases and the resistance stays the same, the voltage has to increase....(because current and voltage are directly proportional to one another and resistance has an inverse relationship with current)

12. Which statement correctly describes how enzymes affect chemical reactions? Stabilization of: A.the substrate changes the free energy of the reaction. B.the transition state changes the free energy of the reaction. C.the substrate changes the activation energy of the reaction. D.the transition state changes the activation energy of the reaction.

correct - ans D

What kind of bond forms between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3rd carbon of the pentose sugar?

covalent bonds

Where is the stop codon located?

in the mRNA and will signal for the termination of translation

54. During the production of insulin, the translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in which of the following locations? A.Nucleus B.Ribosomes C.Endomembrane system D.Cytoplasm

incorrect - Ans C chose D In eukaryotes the organelles of the endomembrane system include: the nuclear membrane, the endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vesicles, endosomes, among others. A. Nucleus is site of replication and transcription, not anything to do with post-translational processing B. Ribosomes is what translates the proteins - cleavage doesn't happen during translation, it happens after C. Endomembrane system includes the golgi which is involved in post-translational processing D. Cytoplasm is the site of protein translation, however the specific site for post-translational processing is the golgi

11. A person, whose eye has a lens-to-retina distance of 2.0 cm, can only clearly see objects that are closer than 1.0 m away. What is the strength S of the person's eye lens? (Note: Use the thin lens formula 1/O+1/I=S1/O+1/I=S.) A.-50 D B.-10 D C.51 D D.55 D

incorrect - and C chose A messed up on simple math Optics Equation 1/O+1/I=S The Lens to retina distance is considered the image distance. Note the units Diopters, which is m^-1!

53. Exercise promotes the insulin-independent uptake of glucose in working skeletal muscles. Given this, regular exercise would most likely reduce blood glucose levels in patients with which type(s) of diabetes? A.Type 1 only B.Type 2 only C.Both Type 1 and Type 2 D.Neither Type 1 nor Type 2

incorrect - ans C chose D A. Type 1 is when there is no insulin to begin with so yes but type 2 provides insulin but the receptors don't take it up so technically there's no insulin C. Both type 1 and type 2 leads to impaired insulin so by exercising increasing insulin independent transport, it would help both type 1 and type 2

5. What type of functional group is formed when aspartic acid reacts with another amino acid to form a peptide bond? A.An amine group B.An aldehyde group C.An amide group D.A carboxyl group

incorrect - ans C chose D To answer this question you have to know that Peptide bond formation occurs via dehydration between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another. Asp acid has a carboxylate group so if it reacts with another amino acid's amino group, it will form an amide which is a peptide bond. Every amino acid makes a peptide bond.

40. In addition to glucose, what other monosaccharide is part of the UDP-glucose structure? A.Xylose B.Fructose C.Ribose D.Arabinose

incorrect - ans C picked B A. This is a 5-carbon sugar that ribose is often derived from. B. 5C sugar C. Ribose is the 5-carbon sugar in nucleosides and nucleotides. Even without knowing this, there is a picture of UDP glucose provided (Figure 1). Looking at it you can see that there is a glucose on the left, then 2 phophate groups, and then a pentose sugar connecting to something else (you dont need to know that this is uridine for this question). The pentose sugar has -OH groups on both the 2C and the 3C, meaning this is a ribose. D. Another 5C sugar not present in nucleic acids

6. If 2-pentanol replaces 1-pentanol in the reaction shown in Figure 3, the rate of substitution is less because: A.the C-O bond in 2-pentanol is stronger than the C-O bond in 1-pentanol. B.there is a competing elimination reaction that slows the rate of substitution. C.there is more steric hindrance at the oxygen atom in 2-pentanol than in 1-pentanol, making protonation less likely. D.there is more steric hindrance at the 2-position of 2-pentanol than at the 1-position of 1-pentanol

incorrect - ans D chose C I knew it had to do with steric hindrance but I picked the wrong reason why. Steric hindrance is not at the oxygen atom. Steric hindrance refers to the "business" of the position/what is attached to the central carbon atom at that position. Steric hindrance does slow the reaction rate due to there being more "stuff" in the way of the nucleophile's path to attacking the electrophile

38. Which structure represents a phosphorylated subunit of glycogen as described in the passage? choices are all pictures on the opposite side

incorrect - ans D picked A In the passage, it states " ...phosphate groups covalently linked to the C2 and C3 positions as monoester"

39. No drowsiness was initially felt by the alcoholic because the previous abuse of alcohol had: A.denatured the cP-450. B.inhibited the cP-450. C.reduced the cP-450. D.induced the cP-450

incorrect - chose C ans D A. There's no evidence in the passage that would suggest that cp-450 was denatured B. Although alcohol does inhibit cp450, it states that the drinker was sober and it shouldn't be assumed that he was drinking recently. The passage also states "and then drank an alcoholic beverage". Also, if cp450 was inhibited, he should have felt drowsy since the benzos would not have been broken down. C. Alcohol does not affect cp450 levels, it only inhibits it. D. Because cp450 was present due to his alcoholism, the benzos were metabolized. chronic alcoholism would cause elevated levels of cp-450 because it is induced in response to toxins. The already high presence of cp-450 would cause the sleeping pill to be metabolized fast and then not at all after the alcoholic consumed the drink. This is stated in paragraph 3.

46. Which of the following best describes the bond that would form between the following two nucleotides if they were located adjacent to each other as shown in a single strand of DNA? (image with ans opposite side) A. A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the phosphate of the adenine B. A bond between an oxygen in the thymine base and a nitrogen in the adenine base C. A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the sugar of the adenine D. A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and the sugar of the thymine

incorrect - chose C ans D first image is what we were given

38. The lung cells of heavy smokers would be expected to have greatly increased concentrations of cP-450 and: A.DNA sequences that code for cP-450. B.mRNA sequences that code for cP-450. C.rRNA that process cP-450. D.tRNA that are specific for cysteine.

incorrect - chose D ans B this was more of a discrete fact type of question. mRNA's relation to protein levels is a fact you have to know

48. The aldosterone deficiency associated with Addison's disease will cause a decrease in the serum levels of all of the following ions EXCEPT: A.Na+ ions. B.Cl- ions. C.K+ ions. D.HCO3- ions.

incorrect - chose D ans C Serum levels are changed when ions are reabsorbed . Excretion means leaving the filtrate into urine. The passage states that aldostrone causes excretion of K+. So in this case the DEFICIENCY of aldosterone means that K+ will NOT be secreted into the filtrate which will keep K+ ion levels the same in serum

What is clathrin?

protein that plays a major role in the formation of coated vesicles

What is chemiosmosis?

the process of H+ moving through the ATP synthase after the electron transport chain and does not directly involve any form of NAD+/NADH. When they use the term "chemiosmosis" they are reffering to the activity of ATP synthase performing oxidative phosphorylation

What are heat shock proteins?

they are chaperone proteins that help with protein folding

What do transcription factors do?

they bind DNA and subsequently recite RNA polymerase

What are CAMS (cell adhesion molecules?

they facilitate the binding to other surfaces Ex: Cadherins, integrins and selectins