General Part 2

1914 (Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum altitude you should be flying at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298? A) 8300 ft B) 13000 ft C) 11100 ft

11100 ft

1917 (Refer to figure 47.) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum enroute altitude at TROTS intersection is A) 11500 ft B) 10000 ft C) 7100 ft

11500 ft

2472 (Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is 'far below' glidepath? A) 10 B) 11 C) 12

12

2733 (Refer to figure 89) What is the ARTCC discrete frequenct on the V208, 53 NM north of the PGA VOR? A) 127.55 B) 122.4 C) 122.1

127.55

1965 (Refer to figure 210.) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6? A) 270 ft MSL B) 173 ft MSL C) 200 ft AGL

173 ft MSL

2478 (Refer to figures 176, 176A, and 177) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the THRE for RWY 36L? A) 25 ft B) 15 ft C) 18 ft

25 ft

2575 During descent from FL 290, you fail to reset the altimeter to the local setting of 30.26". During approach to the minimums, this oversight results in a missed approach because the altimeter reads A) 340 feet below true altitude B) 340 feet above true altitude C) 260 feet above the pressure altitude

340 feet below true altitude

1939 (Refer to figure 160.) What is TDZE for RWY 16Lon Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field? A) 363 ft MSL B) 369 ft MSL C) 374 ft MSL

369 ft MSL

1958 (Refer to figure 196.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4? A) 46 ft MSL B) 70 ft MSL C) 44 ft MSL

44 ft MSL

1913 (Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520? A) 60 NM from DBS VORTAC B) 60 NM from JAC VOR/DME C) 35 NM from DBS VORTAC

60 NM from DBS VORTAC

1951 (Refer to figure 185.) WHat is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX? A) 9825 ft B) 6000 ft C) 5997 ft

6000 ft

1915 (Refer to figure 47.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is A) 6400 ft B) 7000 ft C) 6500 ft

7000 ft

2849 (Refer to figure 242) What is the distance from FEHXE to the threshold of the runway? A) 13.9 NM B) 8.6 NM C) 5.3 NM

A) 13.9 NM

2740 To ensure proper airspace protection while holding above 6000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use? A) 230 knots B) 200 knots C) 210 knots

A) 230 knots

2758 What are the primary benefits of satellite-based navigation (RNAV)? A) GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight B) Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized and more effective C) Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required

A) GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight

2793 ATC has cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which roll correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn? A) Increased angle of bank B) No roll correction in necessary C) Decrease angle of bank

A) Increased angle of bank

2743 You are flying in the clouds with freezing temperatures. Where would you expect ice to accumulate first? A) On a small thin protuberance B) Fuselage or windscreen C) Wing leading edges

A) On a small thin protuberance

2832 What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from the end route to the terminal area for IFR operations? A) Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures B) To require VFR traffic to participate in arrival and departure procedures C) Contains uncontrolled airspace t allow lower visibility requirements for landing

A) Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures

2798 (Refer to figure 193) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Alice International airport? Position the aircraft on the taxiway near the FBO, tune the VOR receiver to 114.5 Mhz, and set the OBS to 272 A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4 with a FROM indication B) The OBS must center within plus or minus 6 with a FROM indication C) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4 with a TO indication

A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4 with a FROM indication

2741 (Refer to figure 185.) In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color? A) To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport B) To indicate required reporting points in low visibility conditions C) To indicate available HSI alignment locations

A) To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport

2819 When holding at a VOR above 14000 feet, when should timing be started? A) When over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later B) 45 seconds after the turn begins C) When the VOR needle indicates 180 from the outbound course

A) When over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

2765 (Refer to figure 254, the top sign) The "No Entry" sign identifies A) a paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited B) an area that does not continue beyond the intersection C) the exit boundary for the runway protected area

A) a paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

2826 ATC clears you to descend, but does not include "at pilot's discretion." You should A) descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft B) descend at 1000 fpm C) descend at 500 fpm

A) descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft

2922 Failure to maintain a heading may be a result of A) fixation during cross-check B) rapid aircraft deceleration C) errors in power setting

A) fixation during cross-check

2828 At a constant indicated altitude and constant power, the outside air temperature becomes warmer than standard. The true airspeed will A) increase B) decrease C) remain constant

A) increase

2939 To maintain a constant airspeed when entering a standard rate turn you should A) increase power B) increase back pressure C) release control pressure

A) increase power

2799 When requesting to deviate around weather while flying on an IFR clearance, A) radar limitations may affect ATC's ability to accommodate your request B) on board datalink weather may be used for tactical weather avoidance C) ATC weather radar always provides the best source of information

A) radar limitations may affect ATC's ability to accommodate your request

2825 A VFR-on-top clearance allows the pilot to A) select an altitude in lieu of an assigned altitude B) fly direct without the use of NAVAIDs C)proceed VFR in Class A airspace

A) select an altitude in lieu of an assigned altitude

1967 (Refer to figure 210.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for appraoch and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? A) HIRL and VASI B) ALSF2 and HIRL C) REIL and VASI

ALSF2 and HIRL

2679 There are two types of emergency conditions. Which one prepresents an 'urgency' condition? A) After deviating for weather, you are concerned you will not have enough fuel to reach your destination B) ATIS broadcasts that birds are in the vicinity of the airport C) The aircraft's primary electrical system has failed and you are using standby instruments

After deviating for weather, you are concerned you will not have enough fuel to reach your destination

2434 Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice? A) Leading edge of the wing B) Propeller C) Air temperature probe

Air temperature probe

2346 Which is true concerning airplane structural icing? A) Wing leading edge is a better ice collector than the tailplanes B) Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector tha the wings C) Ice accumulation on wing leading edge is usually not a good indicator of possible tailplane icing

Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector tha the wings

2609 Which NOTAMs are included in the FAA Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)? A) All permanent NOTAMs B) All current NOTAMs C) All FDC NOTAM (N) and FDC NOTAMs

All permanent NOTAMs

2783 If an aircraft is equipped with an installed GPS device, who may update the database? A) Only a company mechanic or repair technician B) A pilot C) Only the operator or manufacturer

B) A pilot

2771 What action should be taken if you encounter an in-flight anomaly with an installed GPS during enroute navigation? A) Do nothing B) Inform ATC immediately C) Inform ATC after landing

B) Inform ATC immediately

2891 (Refer to figure 254) Which answer refers to illustration C? A) No entry sign B) Protected ILS critical area C) Runway hold short

B) Protected ILS critical area

2810 (Refer to figure 196) You are taking off on runway 04 behind a departing B-737. Which wind conditions would prolong wake turbulence? A) Winds variable at 15 knots B) Winds 180/5 C) Winds 140/5

B) Winds 180/5

2930 ATC issues an amendment to your IFR clearance. You read back should include A) the term 'roger' to acknowledge your acceptance and receipt B) any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification C) updated estimate to your next position report

B) any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification

2909 If you suspect hyperventilation, you should A) take shallow and fast breaths B) breath at a normal rate and depth C) take deep breaths faster than normal

B) breath at a normal rate and depth

2914 While on glideslope for an ILS approach, a tailwind shears to a headwind. This is A) preferable because the aircraft will experience an increase in performance B) extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind C) no problem because the aircraft will remain on glideslope

B) extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind

2910 When making an approach to landing, you are slightly above glidepath when the indications of the 2-bar VASI show the A) near bar red and far bar white B) far bar change from red to white C) far bar red and near bar white

B) far bar change from red to white

2777 ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are at 21000 feet MSL. How should you report it? A) level at two one thousand B) level at two one zero C) level at twenty one thousands

B) level at two one zero

2797 You are inbound to your destination for landing. You listen to ATIS and notice that it has not been updated in over an hour. You decide that A) because conditions are VFR, the ATIS will not be updated until conditions become IFR B)since it has been nearly an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now C) the tower is closed and you will need to call ATC to get an updated ATIS

B)since it has been nearly an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now

2853 What should be done if signs of hyperventilation are suspected? A) Increase breathing rate with long quick breaths B) Increase breathing rate with short breaths C) Breathe at normal rate

C) Breathe at normal rate

2886 (Refer to figure 252.) Due to a runway closer at your destination airport, you divert to your alternate OSH. What minimums apply to the ILS RWY 36 approach at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH)? A) Ceiling 2140 ft MSL B) Ceiling 1608 ft MSL C) Ceiling 1008 ft MSL

C) Ceiling 1008 ft MSL

2770 During the preflight of a rental aircraft for flight into IMC, you notice it is equipped with a heated windshield. How would you determine if the aircraft is approved for flight into known icing conditions? A) Ask the owner B) Check the operator approved operating specifications C) Check the Aircraft Flight Manual or the approved Pilot's Operating Handbook

C) Check the Aircraft Flight Manual or the approved Pilot's Operating Handbook

2787 (Refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 2 correspond? A) E B) H C) D

C) D

2816 (Refer to figure 169) What lighting equipment installed for RWY 33 at ADS is designed to help identify the runway, which is surrounded by a preponderance of other lights? A) HIRL B) PAPI C) REIL

C) REIL

2879 The En Route Low Altitude Chart depicts what type of airspace? A) Class A and Special Use Airspace B) Class A, B, C, D and Special Use Airspace C) The limits of controlled airspace

C) The limits of controlled airspace

2834 When operating VFR-on-Top on an IFR flight plan, the pilot A) is relieved of see and avoid responsibilities B) will maintain the appropriate IFR altitudes C) is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements

C) is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements

2818 A displaced threshold will A) reduce takeoff distance available B) extend available landing distances C) reduce available landing distance

C) reduce available landing distance

2855 You are flying toward a VOR with a TO indication. After crossing the VOR, your CDI indicates a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. After flying for several minutes on your present heading, the CDI still shows a half-scale deflection. You should A) turn toward the left to get back on course B) ignore the half-scale deflection, remain on present heading, and expect the CDI to center momentarily C) turn toward the right to get back on course

C) turn toward the right to get back on course

2340 How can you be sure the wing is free of critical ice? A) Inspect with a light source like a flashlight if the wing is painted white B) Visually inspect the wing surface paying special attention to the leading edge C) Conduct a tactile inspection (touch the surface) as well as a visual inspection

Conduct a tactile inspection (touch the surface) as well as a visual inspection

2321 While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of ratation on an entirely different axis. This is known as A) autokinesis B) Coriolis illusion C) the leans

Coriolis illusion

2616 Your flight may be completed after dark. How could your vision be affected? A) Degraded by hypoxia B) Negatively affected by hyperventillation C) Not affected by higher cabin pressure altitude

Degraded by hypoxia

2640 In an aircraft equipped with a Multi-function Display, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the A) Error Evident Display B) Automatic Standby Component C) Faildown or Standby Instrument

Faildown or Standby Instrument

2429 Which of the following is true about icing characteristics? A) Ice on the front and back of the airplane wing is easy to see from the pilot's position B) Ice is virtually undetectable when clear and may appear wet C) Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing

Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing

2342 What types of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5C OAT? A) Ice that builds on the propeller spinner and builds forward but does not extend backward to the blades B) Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots C) Ice that appears wet or visibly moist

Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots

2140 What purpose does the ILS critical area boundary sign serve? A) Identifies the exit boundary for the ILS critical area B) Identifies the exit boudary for the runway protected area C) Identifies an area where aircraft are prohibited from entering

Identifies the exit boundary for the ILS critical area

2722 While descending in icing conditions for an instrument approach procedure, you extend the flaps to the apprach position. While the flaps are in transit, you begin to notice vibrations and pulsing in the elevator control. What is the best procedure to follow? A) Maintain the approach setting and increase engine power and airspeed B) Immediately retract the flaps to their previous setting and increase airspeed as appropriate C) Apply full flap and aggressive nose down elevator pressure to avert a subsequent wing stall

Immediately retract the flaps to their previous setting and increase airspeed as appropriate

2375 What airspace is designed to separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic? A) MOCA B) MOA C) MEA

MOA

2455 Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify? A) On the wing leading edge B) On the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy C) On the trailing edge of the wing

On the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy

1916 (Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection? A) One VOR receiver and DME B) Two VOR receivers C) One VOR reeiver

One VOR receiver

2737 (Refer to figure 247) What does the start symbol (*) next to the Riverside tower frequency indicate? A) Part-time tower operations B) Tower operations are affected by daylight savings C) Pilot controlled lighting available

Part-time tower operations

Which is true concerning aircraft icing? A) Small almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing upper surface cuase the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations B) Small amounts of ice on the wing surface usually result in correspondingly less performance degradation than large amounts C) Ice accumulation on the wing leading edge that conforms to the wing contour generally result in little performance degradation

Small almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing upper surface cuase the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations

2430 What is true regarding ice accumulation on a wing surface? A) A thin layer of ice on a wing upper surface will result in little performaance degradation if the ice is relatively smooth B) Small, visually imperceptable amounts of ice on a wing surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation C) Frost, snow, and rime ice is easily detectable on a white upper wing surface while clear ice is difficult to detect

Small, visually imperceptable amounts of ice on a wing surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation

2526 Which is true concerning the use of a primary flight display (PFD)? A) The PFD supports the same control and performance, or primary and supporting methods of attitude instrument flying as conventional instruments. B) The use of a PFD as poosed to conventional instruments, fundamentally changes the way a pilot scans instruemtns during attitude instrument flying. C) When using a PFD the pilot's scan can be narrowly focused to include only flight attitude indications and autopilot management.

The PFD supports the same control and performance, or primary and supporting methods of attitude instrument flying as conventional instruments.

2361 Regarding supercooled large droplets (SLD), which statement is true? A) They can be present at high altitude even without precipitation B) They can not be present when the outside air temperature is above 0 C C) They are unlikely in freezing drizzle due to the small size of water droplets

They can be present at high altitude even without precipitation

2706 You are enroute at 8000 MSL on an IFR flight plan. What is the most appropriate source for obtaining the altimeter setting? A) Set the altimeter to 29.92" B) Set the altimeter using the GPS altitude C) Use the setting obtained from a reporting station within 100 NM of your aircraft

Use the setting obtained from a reporting station within 100 NM of your aircraft

2738 (Refer to figure 34.) You are flying outbound on V54 from the TXK VOR. Which waypoint will have unreliable navigation reception? A) WASHO at 4000 ft B) HOSES at 3000 ft C) PROVO at 4500 ft

WASHO at 4000 ft

1980 (Refer to figure 230.) The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A) Baldwin Municipal Airport B) White Cloud VOR/DME C) DEANI intersection

White Cloud VOR/DME

2554 In an aircraft equipped with Electronic Flight Displays (EFD's), a failure is usually signified by A) a bold red "X" over the display B) yellow "X" with a sigle tone C) continuous red flashing label with beeping tones

a bold red "X" over the display

2332 When using deicing boots, the pilot should A) wite for a 1/4 to 1/2 inch layer of ice to form before cycling the boots to avoid ice bridging B) activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing, and in accordance with the manufacturer's guidance C) deactivate the deicing system immediately after exiting the knwon icing conditions

activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing, and in accordance with the manufacturer's guidance

2445 (Refer to figure 254.) While clearing an active runway, you see the top sign. You know A) this sign designates a military aircraft operational area B) aircraft are prohibited C) vehicles are not allowed past that sign

aircraft are prohibited

2697 When ATC clears you for a descent, you should A) maintain a 1000 fpm during the descent B) begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft C) begin the descent at less than 500fpm to allow aircraft sequencing

begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft

2576 Since software and databases in new avionics software are continually updated, that requires you the user to A) continually learn systems functions, capabilities, and limitations B) ensure the unit is certified and installed properly C) review specifications and common errors

continually learn systems functions, capabilities, and limitations

2517 Pilots of newer aircraft often use Electronic Flight Displays (EFDs). When an EFD ails in IFR conditions, the pilot should A) reset the display in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and continue the flight B) continue the flight with backup/standby flight references C) abort the flight and proceed to VFR conditions

continue the flight with backup/standby flight references

2540 You are at a towered airport. You should state your position on the airport when A) visibility is less than 1 mile B) parallel runways are in use C) departing from a runway intersection

departing from a runway intersection

2041 Within aircraft movement areas, 'destination signs' identify the A) runway on which an aircraft is located B) direction to specified destinations C) entrance to the runway froma taxiway

direction to specified destinations

2027 When exiting the runway, the 'runway exit' sign indicates the A) designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection B) direction to turn to exit runway onto named taxiway C) direction to the take-off runway

direction to turn to exit runway onto named taxiway

2452 Pilot fatigue is a hazard because A) there may be a tendency to rush too much B) fatigue can impair pilot judgement C) you may be tempted to neglect tasks

fatigue can impair pilot judgement

2525 In an aircraft equipped with electronic instrumentation and displays, you have three important learnign challenges; A) how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft B) what the system will do when selected and modal actioins C) when and how to program the control head and what it may accomplish

how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft

2407 Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface? A) ice or frost formation on a wing's upper surface will have no effect on takeoff performance as long as formations are distributed sparsely B) ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off C) small ice or frost formation on a wing's upper surface is not as serious as large accumulation of ice on the wing's leading edge

ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off

2359 During or after flight in icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows flap deployment and was not evident prior to flap deployment is most likely due to A) incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment B) aerodynamic wing stall due to increased angle of attack as a result of flap deployment C) aerodynamic instability due to ice build up forward of the ailerons but aft of the deicer boots

incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment

2385 Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will A) increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases B) decrease as the airspeed decreases or the temperature increases C) remain the same until leaving icing conditions

increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases

2475 Autopilot during cruise flight in icing conditions should be A) continuous while monitoring the system for abnormal trim, trim rate, or airplane attitude B) periodically disengaged and the airplane manually controlled C) periodically disengaged and immediately reengaged with the altitude hold function

periodically disengaged and the airplane manually controlled

2662 Complacency is a risk to pilots operating aircraft with full glass cockpits because they A) eliminate the usage of checklists B) provide greater situational awareness C) are infallible

provide greater situational awareness

2673 When below the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see A) red over red B) white over white C) red over white

red over red

2331 Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by A) decreasing engine power and maintaining a nose low pitch attitude to dampen the rolling tendency of the wing tips B) if flaps are extended, retracting the flaps to decrease angle of attack at a given airspeed and maintaining a level pitch attitude C) reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and, if in a turn, rolling wings level

reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and, if in a turn, rolling wings level

2334 If you experience icing during an approach, you should A) retract flaps as necessary and disengage autopilot B) fly the aircraft by hand to the Final Approach Fix, and then engage the autopilot C) extend maximum flaps and keep the autopilot engaged

retract flaps as necessary and disengage autopilot

2523 An engaged function of an autopilot means A) the autopilot will maintain the mode that is engaged B) the autopilot will intercept the mode that is engaged C) the autopilot will capture the mode that is engaged

the autopilot will maintain the mode that is engaged

2082 The 'runway threshold marking' indicates A) a blast pad or ramp which can be used for takeoffs or landings B) the beginning of a runway available for landing when the threshold is displaced C) the intended aim point for landing on a precision runway

the beginning of a runway available for landing when the threshold is displaced

2342 For pneumatic deicer boot systems, it is generally reommended that A) the deicer boots not be activated until visible ice is detected on the wing leading endge to prevent 'ice bridging' B) the system be deactivated as soon as the aircraft exits icing conditions to preclude non-uniform airflow over the wing C) the deicing system activation be continued for a period after exiting icing conditions so that the wing will be as clean as possible

the deicing system activation be continued for a period after exiting icing conditions so that the wing will be as clean as possible

2461 (Refer to figure 254.) While clearing the runway after landing, pilots contact ground control after passing A) the solid lines of the middle sign B) the dashed lines of the middle sign C) the top sign

the solid lines of the middle sign

2561 (Refer to figure 158) Winds are reported as 330 at 5 knots. You are given instructions to taxi to runway 04 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner on rwy 29. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices? A) the northerly wind should rapidly blow the vortices to the southeast B) the upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway C) the downwind vortex would tend to remain over your runway

the upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway

2335 On initial climbout after takeoff, with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions, In this situation it is recommended that A) the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged B) the airspeed (AS) mode be disengaged C) the autopilot be set to maintain a specific pitch attitude

the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged

2366 The term Airport means an area of land or water that is A) scheduled for use as an airport B) used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes taxiways and other ground movement areas C) used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aicraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any

used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aicraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any

2377 The snesory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the A) visual system B) vestibular system C) postural system

vestibular system

2629 (Refer to figure 259, illustration E.) This sign indicates A) your taxiway location B) direction to the runway C) direction to taxiway from runway

your taxiway location