Genetics Exam 3

Which type of chromosome provides the basis for sex determination in many sexually reproducing organisms? A) sex chromosomes B) homologous chromosomes C) autosomes D) haploid E) diploid

A) sex chromosomes

How many replication forks depart from an origin of replication? A) two B) four C) three D) None of the choices is correct. E) one

A) two

To investigate how DNA was replicated, Meselson and Stahl used A: 15N and ultracentrifugation B: 32P and ultracentrifugation C: CsCl and radioactive thymine D: 35S and radioactive uracil E: 15N and mice

A: 15N and ultracentrifugation

The polarity of DNA synthesis is A: 5' --> 3' B: 3' --> 5' C: 5' --> 2' D: 2' --> 5' E: none of the choices is correct

A: 5' --> 3'

Which of the following is a possible effect that a transposable element may have on a gene? A: All of the choices are correct B: shifts the reading frame C: diminish the efficiency of splicing D: provide a stop codon

A: All of the choices are correct

An example of a suppressor mutation would be A: An intragenic mutation that restores the inactive protein's structure B: An intergenic mutation that increases the activity of a protein performing a different function as the mutated protein C: A mutation that suppresses cell growth D: An intergenic mutation that activates a transcription factor that increases the expression of a normal protein

A: An intragenic mutation that restores the inactive protein's structure

Assume that a mutation has occurred in E. coli so that it can survive at 25 degrees Celsius, but not at 42 degrees Celsius as most E. coli can. This is an example of a ____________ mutation. A: Conditional B: Deleterious C: Lethal D: Nonsense E: Ochre

A: Conditional

______________ fills in small regions of DNA where the RNA primers were located. A: DNA polymerase I B: Topoisomerase C: DNA polymerase III D: DNA ligase e: DNA primase

A: DNA polymerase I

During DNA replication in E. coli, what is the role of DnaA protien? A: DnaA protein binds to DnaA boxes and bends DNA. B: DnaA protien is a region of DNA recognized by the replisome where replication is initiated C: DnaA protein carries the helicase protein to the open region of DNA where hydrolysis and strand separation will occur D: DnaA protein prevents reannealing of the separated stands so replication can proceed E: DnaA protien is a helicase that uses ATP to hydrolyze hydrogen bonds and separate DNA strands

A: DnaA protein binds to DnaA boxes and bends DNA.

Cells that are no longer growing, such as neurons, are in A: G0 B: telophase C: prophase D: S E: G2

A: G0

The process of meiosis II is similar to that of ___________. A: Mitosis B: Binary fission C: Meiosis I D: None of the answers are correct

A: Mitosis

During which stage or phase of the cell cycle does the cell replicated its chromosomes? A: S B: G1 C: M phase D: G0 E: G2

A: S

Which of the following is not correct concerning the initiation of bacterial replication? A: The strands are initially separated at GC-rich regions of DNA B: It involves a region of the DNA called oriC C: Following initial separation, DNA helicase enzymes continue to unwrap the DNA D: DnaA proteins bind to the DNA to begin separation of the strands

A: The strands are initially separated at GC-rich regions of DNA

The purpose of DNA replication is to produce ________. A: Two daughter strands B: Two template strands C: Two parental strands D: None of the answers are correct

A: Two daughter strands

The purpose of DNA replication is to produce _________. A: Two daughter strands B: Two parental strands C: Two template strands D: All of the above E: none of the answers are correct

A: Two daughter strands

In eukaryotes, DNA polymerase _________ carries the RNA primase. A: alpha B: beta C: gamma D: delta E: epsilon

A: alpha

In ___________ the sister chromatids separate and head towards opposite pole of the cell. A: anaphase B: metaphase C: telophase D: prometaphase E: prophase

A: anaphase

If a mutation aids in the survival of the individual or increases the chances to produce offspring, it would be called a _______ mutation. A: benefical B: neutal C: conditional D: lethal E: deketerious

A: benefical

Using the same information, if this mutation aids in the survival of the individual or increases the chances to produce offspring it would be called a ____________ mutations. A: benefical B: neutral C: lethal D: conditional E: deleterous

A: benefical

During meiosis I, when does homologous chromosome pairing and recombination occur? A: prophase I B: metaphase I C: pro-metaphase I D: telophase I E: anaphase I

A: prophase I

The general purpose of the synaptonemal complex is to __________. A: provide a link between homologous chromosomes in meiosis B: to enable the reformation of the cell wall during cytokinesis C: to separate the sister chromatids during anaphase D: to independently assort the chromosomes during metaphase of meiosis E: none of the answers are correct

A: provide a link between homologous chromosomes in meiosis

Which of the following is not an example of euploidy? A: the genome of a Down syndrome patient B: diploid C: polyploid D: tetrapliod E: triploid

A: the genome of a Down syndrome patient

"Leading strands" and "lagging strands" exist because A: there is no known enzymes that replicated in the 3' --> 5' direction B: replication DNA is composed of parallel double helixes C: there is so much primase in the cell that it must be used D: there is not enough DNA polymerase II to copy the other strand E: the newly made DNA uses ribose, not deoxyribose

A: there is no known enzymes that replicated in the 3' --> 5' direction

The wild-type eye color of Drosophila is red. A single-base mutation occurs that produces a white eye color. Which of the following is correct regarding this mutation? A: this mutation probably alters a protein function B: individuals with white eyes are called reversions C: it would be an example of a silent mutation D: all of the answers are correct

A: this mutation probably alters a protein function

Replacing a thymine nucleotide with a guanine is an example of a A: transversion B: translocation C: reversion or reverse mutation D: transition E: forward mutation

A: transversion

A genomic condition that may be responsible for some forms of Fragile- X syndrome, as well as Huntington disease, involves A: various lengths of trinucleotide repeats B: multiple breakpoints fairly evenly dispersed along the X chromosome C: single translocations in the X chromosome D: plasmids inserted into the FMR-1 gene E: multiple inversions in the X chromosome

A: various lengths of trinucleotide repeats

Synaptonemal complex forms during A: zygonema B: diplonema C: pachynema D: leptonema E: diakinesis

A: zygonema

A variation in chromosome number such that the total number of chromosomes is not an exact multiple of a set.

Aneuploidy

The polarity of DNA synthesis is A) 2' --> 5'. B) 5' --> 3'. C) 5' --> 2'. D) None of the choices is correct. E) 3' --> 5'.

B) 5' --> 3'.

Which of the following sex chromosome aneuploidies is not usually seen in live births? A) None of the choices is correct. B) YO C) XXY D) XXX E) XO

B) YO

In general, which of the following usually has a greater chance of lethality than the others? A) duplication B) deletion C) translocation D) inversion E) All have an equal chance.

B) deletion

The step in DNA replication in which the replication proteins open up the double helix and prepare for complementary base pairing is called A) elongation. B) initiation. C) translocation. D) termination. E) translation.

B) initiation.

Mitosis results in _______ chromosome number, whereas meiosis results in _______ chromosome number. A) no change in, no change in B) no change in, a reduction by half in C) a reduction by half in, no change in D) no change in, a doubling of E) a doubling of, no change in

B) no change in, a reduction by half in

During mitosis, if the chromosomes in a diploid tissue fail to separate after replication, the resulting daughter cells will be A) triploid. B) tetraploid. C) tetrasomic. D) monoploid. E) trisomic

B) tetraploid.

Certain DNA elements can move from chromosome to chromosome. These elements are known generally as a(n) A) deletion. B) transposable element. C) translocation. D) inversion. E) duplication.

B) transposable element.

Bacteria have how many origins of replication? A: 0 B: 1 C: 2 D: 4 E: more than 4

B: 1

During interphase of the cell cycle, A: the nuclear membrane disappears B: DNA content essentially doubles C: DNA recombines D: RNA replicates E: sister chromatids move to opposite poles

B: DNA content essentially doubles

The main enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA in bacteria is A: DNA polymerase (beta) B: DNA polymerase (3) C: DNA polymerase (alpha) D: DNA polymerase (1) E: DNA polymerase (2)

B: DNA polymerase (3)

__________ fills in small regions of DNA where the RNA primers were located. A: DNA primase B: DNA polymerase I C: DNA ligase D: Topoisomerase E: DNA polymerase III

B: DNA polymerase I

Which statement is correct? A: Ligase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands. B: DNA polymerase proofreads DNA, correcting mismatched nucleotide. C: Primase removes short RNA primers and replaces them with DNA. D: DNA polmerase unwinds the DNA at replication forks. E: Replication forks form as the sugar phosphate backbone is sealed.

B: DNA polymerase proofreads DNA, correcting mismatched nucleotide.

_________ removes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork. DNA ligase A: Topoisomerase B: DNA primase C: DNA polymerase I D: DNA polymerase III

B: DNA primase

Dideoxy nucleotides are used in which of the following techniques? A: gene cloning B: DNA sequencing C: bacterial transformation D: PCR E: restriction enzyme digestion

B: DNA sequencing

During which of the following stages of the cell cycle would a chromosome consist of only a single chromatid? A: mitotic metaphase B: G1 C: mitotic prophase D: all the choices are correct E: G2

B: G1

The chemical colchicine prevents the formation of microtubles. It is commonly used in certain experimental procedures to cause changes in cellular chromosomes. Which of the following changes is it likely to be used to create? A: Induction of mutant aneuploid individuals B: Induction of mutant polyploid individuals C: Prevention of nondisjuction in cell cultures D: Induction of chromosomal duplications in experiments cell lines E: Induction of chromosomal deletions n experimental cell lines

B: Induction of mutant polyploid individuals

During ______________ of the cell cycle the sister chromatids are formed. A: G2 phase B: S phase C: G1 phase D: prophase E: cytokinesis

B: S phase

In the following sequence of DNA, the italicized base has been mutated. What type of mutation is this? 5'- GATCTCCGAATT- 3' original strand 5'- GATCTCCCAATT- 3' mutated strand A: Transition B: Transverion C: Missense D: Nonsense

B: Transverion

Which of the following stops the replication of DNA in prokaryotes? A: DNA ligase B: Tus protiens C: Okazaki fragments D: The end of the chromose

B: Tus protiens

The term mutation refers to A: only changes in the DNA that result in phenotype B: a heritable change in the DNA of a cell C: any change in the cell that changes its survival chances D: only changes in the DNA that result in novel proteins E: any changes in the DNA of a cell

B: a heritable change in the DNA of a cell

Non-disjunction is the most likely to cause A: a reciprocal translocation B: aneuploidy C: polyploidy D: a Robertsonian translocation E: a deletion of a small part of a chromosome

B: aneuploidy

Cell division in prokaryotic cells is called ________, while in eukaryotic cells it is called ________. A: mitosis; binary fission B: binary fission; mitosis C: meiosis; mitosis D: binary fission; binary fission

B: binary fission; mitosis

The first generation of replication in the Meselson and Stahl experiment disapproved which theory of the replication? A: Semiconservative B: conservative C: dispersive D: nonconservative E: none- it took more than one generation to disprove the theory

B: conservative

Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the *indicates the centromere and each letter indicates a gene) before ABCD*EFGH after ABCD*EFEFGH A: inversion B: duplication C: deficiency D: translocation

B: duplication

The term __________ refers to genectic differences between members of the same species. A: chromosomal variation B: genetic variation C: chromosomal deletions D: polyploidy E: interaspecies variation

B: genetic variation

How can telomerase replicated the ends of chromosomes without a template on the DNA being replicated? A: it carries its own DNA template B: it carries its own RNA template C: it simply connects the two ends of the chromosome D: it forms a loop and copies the DNA in the loop E: This statement is false-telomerase, like all other DNA polymerase have a template on the strand is being copied

B: it carries its own RNA template

In humans, which sex is considered to the heterogametic sex? A: female B: male C: both D: Neither normal male nor normal female. Only certain people with abnormal chromosome numbers are hertogametic sex.

B: male

What type of bond is formed between the hydroxyl group of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA? A: ionic bond B: phospodiester bond C: hydrogen bond D: glycosidic bond E: ester linkage

B: phospodiester bond

Assume that in the organism under study the DNA polymerase has an error rate of 1 mistake in every 10^6 bases copied. However, the overall mutation rate is much lower. This is most likely because A: the polymerase is more careful in replicating regions where genes exist B: repair mechanism correct errors made by the polymerase C: the DNA polymerase has no proofreading function D: not all mutation can be detected easily E: mutations do not occur if mutagens are not present

B: repair mechanism correct errors made by the polymerase

Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical? A: homologous chromosomes B: sister chromatids C: X and Y chromosomes D: all of the answers are identical

B: sister chromatids

DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides A: to both ends of the RNA primer B: to the 3' end of the RNA primer C: in the place of the primer RNA after it is removed D: to the internal sites in the DNA template E: to the 5' end of the RNA primer

B: to the 3' end of the RNA primer

Translocations and inversions may cause which of the following? A) TRNE B) Anticipation C) Position effect D) Genome mutations E) All of the answers are correct

C) Position effect

Which of the following is used to identify a specific DNA sequence in a library? A) Eastern blotting B) Western blotting C) Southern blotting D) Northern blotting

C) Southern blotting

What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction? A) The DNA strands separate B) The DNA polymerase copies the template DNA C) The primers bind to the ends of the template DNA D) The reaction stops E) All of the answers are correct

C) The primers bind to the ends of the template DNA

Crossing over involves the breakage and reunion of DNA molecules from A) homologous sister chromatids. B) heterologous nonsister chromatids. C) homologous nonsister chromatids. D) None of the choices is correct. E) heterologous sister chromatids.

C) homologous nonsister chromatids.

Bacterial DNA has how many origins of replication per chromosome? A: 10 B: 0 C: 1 D: Depends on the size of the DNA

C: 1

The first round of replication in the Meselson and Stahl experiment disproved which theory of replication? A: Semiconservative B: Dispersive C: Conservative D: None—it took more than one round to disprove the theory

C: Conservative

The first several nucleotides put in during DNA synthesis are A: Ribonucleotides with thymine instead of uracil B: Deoxyribonucleotides C: Deoxyribonucleotides with uracil instead of thymine D: Ribonucleotide with deoxyribose instead of ribose E: Riboucleotides

C: Deoxyribonucleotides with uracil instead of thymine

Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical? A: Homologous chromosomes B: X and Y chromosomes C: Sister chromatids D: All of the answers are identical

C: Sister chromatids

Familial Down Syndrome is a result of which of the following? A: Gene duplication B: Deficiency C: Translocation D: Inversion

C: Translocation

If this mutation aids in the survival of the individual or increases the chances to produce offspring, it would be called a _______ mutation. A: good B: lethal C: beneficial D: conditional E: deleterious

C: beneficial

In E. coli, which terms accurately reflect the nature of replication of the chromosome? A: unidirectional and fixed point of initiation B: multirepliconic C: bidirectional and fixed point of initiation D: bidirectional and multirepliconic E: unidirectional and reciprocal

C: bidirectional and fixed point of initiation

Contact points between nonsister chromatids that mark the locations of DNA-strand excange are called A: centrosome B: kinentochore C: chiasmata D: synaptonemal complex E: metaphase plate

C: chiasmata

Which of the following adds material to the genome? A: inversions B: none of the choices is correct C: duplication D: deletions E: translocation

C: duplication

The heritable disorder Fragile X syndrome, a major cause of mental retardation, is cause by A: X-rays B: production of enzymes that break the phosphate backbone C: duplication of multiple three-nucleotide repeats D: UV light E: presence of an extra X chromosome in the sperm or egg

C: duplication of multiple three-nucleotide repeats

Trisomy-18, in which individuals have three copies of chromosome 18 in an example of a ___________ mutation. A: chromosome B: single-gene C: genome D: all of the answers are correct

C: genome

During sexual reproduction, each parent contributes one set of chromosomes. Members of a pair of chromosomes (one from each parent) are called ________. A: sister chromatids B: sex chromosomes C: homologs D: karyotypes

C: homologs

What type of aneuploidy is responsible for Turner syndrome in humans? A: Monosomy B: trisomy 13 C: monosomy XO D: trisomy 18 E: trisomy 21

C: monosomy XO

An inversion heterozygote contains which of the following? A: two homologous chromosomes with inversions B: two normal chromosomes C: one normal chromosomes and one chromosome with an inversion D: none of the answers are correct

C: one normal chromosomes and one chromosome with an inversion

In E. coli, replication begins at which chromosome site? A: the replication fork B: TBP C: oriC D: ter E: all of these

C: oriC

During DNA replication, enzymes join the base's nucleotide to the preceding nucleotide by a(n) _____________ bond, A: none of the choices are correct B: electrostatic C: phosphodiester D: ionic E: hydrogen

C: phosphodiester

Translocations and inversions may cause which of the following? A: TNRE B: anticipation C: position effect D: genome mutations E: all of the answers are possible

C: position effect

Translocations and inversions may cause which of the following? A: TRNE B: aticipation C: position effect D: variation in chromosome number E: all of the answers are correct

C: position effect

Skin cells and nerve cells represent __________ cells, while a sperm cell is an example of a ________ cell. A: Germ; somatic B: somatic; somatic C: somatic; germ D: germ; germ

C: somatic; germ

In _____________ the nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes. A: anaphase B: prophase C: telophase D: prometaphase E: metaphase

C: telophase

The group of enzymes able to relax supercoils in DNA is called A: helicases B: ligases C: topoisomerases D: telomeres E: primases

C: topoisomerases

In eukaryotic cells, a series of stages through which a cell progresses in order to divide

Cell cycle

A cellular structure from which microtubules emanate

Centrosome

Which of the following is correct regarding the Ames test? A) If more than 5 colonies are observed on the plate with the suspected reagent, it means that it is tested as positive. B) The reason why rat liver extract is added is because it is required for the growth of Salmonella. C) A reagent negative in this test can never be a mutagen. D) A reagent positive in this test means that it is a potential carcinogen. E) All the plates used in this test should contain histidine.

D) A reagent positive in this test means that it is a potential carcinogen.

The molecule of heredity in E.coli is A) RNA. B) carbohydrate. C) None of the choices is correct. D) DNA. E) protein.

D) DNA

Which of the following statements is not true concerning DNA replication in prokaryotes? A) DNA replication is RNA dependent. B) DNA replication is semiconservative. C) DNA replication is semidiscontinuous. D) DNA replication requires only one enzyme. E) There is one origin of replication.

D) DNA replication requires only one enzyme.

Which of the following events occurs during mitosis but not during meiosis? A) pairing of homologous chromosomes B) crossing-over between homologous chromosomes C) segregation of sister chromatids D) None of the choices is correct E) alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate

D) None of the choices is correct

Anticipation is associated with which of the following? A) Nonsense mutations B) Up-promoter mutations C) Intergenic suppressors D) TRNE mutations E) None of the answers are correct

D) TRNE mutations

Which of the following stops the replication of DNA in prokaryotes? A) The end of the chromosome B) Okazaki fragments C) DNA ligase D) Tus proteins

D) Tus proteins

If a geneticist were to closely examine the make-up of a single autosomal chromosome from one of your cells, that chromosome would be found to be A) a mosaic of genes derived from your mother and father. B) a mosaic of genes derived from just two of your grandparents— either your two grandfathers or your two grandmothers. C) a mosaic of genes derived from all four of your grandparents. D) a mosaic of genes derived from just two of your grandparents— either your maternal grandparents or your paternal grandparents. E) derived entirely from genes from just one of your grandparents.

D) a mosaic of genes derived from just two of your grandparents— either your maternal grandparents or your paternal grandparents.

In terms of evolution, what might be the outcome of repeated duplications in a species' genome? A) semisterility B) tetraploidy C) trisomic D) gene families E) All of the choices are correct.

D) gene families

Which of the following is not involved in ensuring the accuracy of a cell's genetic information? A) repair enzymes B) origin C) precision of replication machinery D) restriction endonucleases E) DNA polymerase proofreading mechanism

D) restriction endonucleases

Which of the following algebraic expressions would be used to denote a trisomic organism? A: 2n + 2 B: 3n C: 2n - 1 D: 2n + 1

D: 2n + 1

Based on what we learned in class, the condition known as cri-du-chat syndrome in humans should have a genetic constitution designated as ___________. A: heteroplasmy B: triploidy C: trisomy D: 46, 5p- E: 45, X

D: 46, 5p-

Which of the following is a restriction placed on DNA polymerase? A:DNA polymerases must begin synthesis using an RNA primer. B:DNA polymerase can attach new nucleotides only in the 5' to 3' direction. C: DNA polymerases must have a template strand to copy from. D: All of the above are restrictions of DNA polymerase.

D: All of the above are restrictions of DNA polymerase.

_________ attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments, forming a continuous DNA strand. A:DNA polymerase I B:Topoisomerase C: DNA polymerase III D: DNA ligase E: DNA primase

D: DNA ligase

____________ manufactures a 10-12 base segment of RNA. A: DNA ligase B: DNA polymerase I C: Topoisomerse D: DNA primase E: DNA polmerase III

D: DNA primase

The base-pair error rate remains low during replication partially because A: mispaired bases cause a cell to die before replication is complete B: UV light radiation corrects any base mispairs C: bases that are mispaired can excise themselves D: DNA repair mechanisms can fix the mispaired bases E: none of these; base-pairing errors are not possible

D: DNA repair mechanisms can fix the mispaired bases

The process of crossing over starts to occur durring which of the following? A: Diakinesis B: Diplotene C: Zygotene D: Pachytene E: Leptoene

D: Pachytene

Which of the following represents the correct order of the stages of mitosis? A: Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase B: Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase C: Telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase D: Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase E: metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase

D: Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Anticipation is associated with which type of mutation? A: Nonsense mutations B: Intergenic suppressors C: Up-promoter mutations D: TNRE mutations E: None of the answers are correct

D: TNRE mutations

Which of the following stops the replication of DNA in prokaryotes? A: Okazaki fragments B: DNA ligase C: The end of the chromosome D: Tus proteins

D: Tus proteins

Which of the following sex chromosome aneuploidies is not usually seen in live births? A: XXY B: XO C: None of the choices is correct D: YO E: XXX

D: YO

What is required for DNA polymerase to initiate DNA strand synthesis? A: a short DNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase B: DNA polymerase initiates DNA strand synthesis without requiring any additional enzymes C: ATP and a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase topoisomerase D: a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase E: ATP and a short DNA primer synthesized by the enzyme topoisomerase

D: a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase

Variations in chromosome structure are important for which of the following reason(s)? A: evolution of news species B: may result in the production of abnormal offspring C: may alter the phenotype of an organism D: all of the answers are correct

D: all of the answers are correct

A mutagen is A: a deaminated base. B: a DNA polymerase without a 5' to 3' exonuclease. C: a depurinated base. D: an agent that can alter the structure of DNA and cause mutations.

D: an agent that can alter the structure of DNA and cause mutations.

Because DNA strands are antiparallel, replication proceeds A: continuously on both strands for a time and then discontinuously B: discontinuously on both strands C: discontinuously using amino acids D: continuously on one strand and discontinuously on the other E: continuously on both strands

D: continuously on one strand and discontinuously on the other

A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in proteins is likely to be the following: A: transition B: nonsense C: missense D: frameshift E: transversion

D: frameshift

A photographic representation of the chromosomes of an organism is called a ____________. A: allel variation B: chromosomal spreading C: chromosomal picture D: karyotype E: none of the above

D: karyotype

In a eukaryotic genome, DNA replication starts at A: a single origin of replication B: sites near the nucleolus C: one replication fork per chromosome D: multiple sites along the length of each chromosome E: nuleosomes

D: multiple sites along the length of each chromosome

The Ames test for mutagenicity is useful to identify potential carcinogens because A: liver enzymes alter the bacteria so they will behave like mammal cells B: bacteria do not get cancer they can survive lethal carcinogens C: bacteria thrive on substances that could cause cancer in humans D: mutagens that affect bacterial DNA are likely to cause human mutation E: the same genes that cause cancer in humans can be mutated in bacteria.

D: mutagens that affect bacterial DNA are likely to cause human mutation

In meiosis, beginning in pre-meiotic interphase, the cell replicates its chromosomes ____________ and divides them _____________. A: once, once B: twice, twice C: twice, once D: once, twice E: twice, three times

D: once, twice

A region of a chromosome on spanning the centromere is broken and reattached in the reverse direction. This is an example of which type of chromosomal defect? A: paracentric inversion B: dicenteric inversion C: pericentric translocation D: pericentric inversion E: dicentric translocation

D: pericentric inversion

A karyotype is a(n) _____________. A: organelle of eukarotic cells B: stage of prophase I in meiosis C: division of the cytoplasmic material following mitosis D: photographic representation of the chromosomes of a cell E: none of the answers are correct

D: photographic representation of the chromosomes of a cell

Crossing over between homologous chromosomes occurs at which of the following stages of meiosis? A: prophase II B: S phase C: metaphase I D: prophase I E: anaphase I

D: prophase I

GGGCCATTCGAACGTCCGGAAAATGCCCCTGAATGAAAATTTTGGCCC. The primer used for replication in vitro is CCCGGTAAGCTT. Where it the 5; end for the template and primer, respectively? A: left, left B: right, right C: left, right D: right, left

D: right, left

Which of the following terms accurately describes the replication of DNA in vivtro? A: dispersive B: nonreciprocal C: conservative D: semidiscontinuous

D: semidiscontinuous

Which type of mutation are possible thanks to the redundant nature of the genetic code? A: splice site B: frameshift C: missense D: silent E: nonsense

D: silent

Eukaryotic chromosomes have evolved special structures at the ends of chromosomes to ensure the replication of the two ends of linear chromosomes. These structures are called A: ligase B: capping proteins C: methylases D: teleomers E: single-stranded binding proteins

D: teleomers

What type of mutation is seen here? Wild type: 5'-TAC AAA ATA CAG GGG-3' Mutation: 5'-TAC AAG ATAT CAG GGG-3' A: nonsense B: transverion C: insertion D: transition E: deletion

D: transition

The complementary sequence of 5' AATTCGCTTA 3' is A) 3' AATTCGCTTA 5'. B) 5' TAACGCTTAA 3'. C) 5' AATTCGCTTA 3'. D) 3' TAAGCGAATT 5'. E) 5' TAAGCGAATT 3'.

E) 5' TAAGCGAATT 3'.

Variations in chromosome structure are important for which of the following reason(s)? A) Evolution of new species B) May result in the production of abnormal offspring C) May alter the phenotype of an organism D) Maybe beneficial E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

Which of the following are considered chromosomal rearrangements? A) deletions B) translocations C) duplications D) inversions E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

During which of the following stages of the cell cycle would a chromosome consist of only a single chromatid? A) mitotic prophase B) mitotic metaphase C) G2 D) All the choices are correct. E) G1

E) G1

A loss of an internal piece of a chromosome is called a __________. A) Gene duplication B) Terminal deficiency C) Reciprocal translocation D) Gene mutation. E) Interstitial deletion

E) Interstitial deletion

Nondisjunction can occur at either the first or second division of meiosis. XXY individuals could arise from nondisjunction at the ______ meiotic division in the ______. A) first, mother B) first, father C) second, father D) second, mother E) More than one of the choices could give rise to XXY individuals.

E) More than one of the choices could give rise to XXY individuals.

Cells said to be in the G0 stage A) are dead. B) are replicating their chromosomes. C) are about to enter the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. D) have two chromatids per chromosome. E) are in an extended G1 phase and no longer cycling.

E) are in an extended G1 phase and no longer cycling.

In eukaryotic cells, replication proceeds from ____ origin(s) of replication. A) no B) one C) two D) several E) many

E) many

If a man shows the permutation allele for Fragile X syndrome, what is the probability that he will pass it on to his son? A: 75% B: 50% C: 25% D: 100% E: 0%

E: 0%

If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism? A: 64 B: 8 C: 16 D: 128 E: 32

E: 32

A chromosome contains the following gene order (with the dot representing the centromere): ABCD*EFGH Which of the following rearrangements represents a paracentric inversion? A: ABCD*GEFH B: AFDE*CBGH C: AFGH* BCDE D: ABC* DEFGH E: ACBD*EFGH

E: ACBD*EFGHDurr

Heterozygous carries of chromosome inversions or translocation A: will be viable and completely fertile because no geens were deleted B: may or may not exhibit phenotypic abnormalities C: have a small risk of infertility due to complications during meiosisi D: both A and B are correct E: Both B and C are correct

E: Both B and C are correct

Okazaki fragments are small pieces of A: enzymes B: protiens C: RNA D: sushi E: DNA

E: DNA

What enzyme(s) is/are responsible for removal of RNA primers and joining of Okazaki fragments? A: DNA ligase B: DNA polymerase III and DNA ligase C: DNA polymerase III D: DNA polymerase I E: DNA polymerase I and DNA ligase

E: DNA polymerase I and DNA ligase

_______________ synthesizes the lagging strand of the DNA A: DNA ligase B: DNA primase C: Topoisomerse D: DNA polymerase I E: DNA polymerase III

E: DNA polymerase III

What is the one difference between DNA replication in bacteria versus eukaryotes? A: Bacterial chromosomes are replicated bidirectionally, while eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated in on direction. B: Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication and replicate bi-directionally, while bacteria have only one origin of replication and replicate unidirectionally. C: Eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated bidirectionally, while bacterial chromosomes are replicated in one direction. D: The process is identical in bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication E: Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication, while bacteria have only one origin of replication.

E: Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication, while bacteria have only one origin of replication.

Certain kinds of cells (e.g., some cells in the eyes and bones) mature and differentiate into a state in which they have a specialized function but do not divide or progress through the cell cycle. These cells are "stuck" in which stage? A: M phase B: G1 C: S D: G0

E: G0

Which of the following is/are correct concerning mitotic nondisjunction? A: it is a relatively rare event B: it may result in the loss of some chromosomes in some cells C: it may result in a significant effect in the daughter cells of this mitotic event. D: it usually does not effect all of the cells of the organism E: all of the answers are correct

E: all of the answers are correct

The step in DNA replication which the proteins connect the correct sequence of nucleotides into a continuous new strand is called A: Translocation B: initiation C: termination D: translation E: elongation

E: elongation

Which of the following is known to increase the incidence of the most common form of Down syndrome? A: X- rays B: diet deficient in folic acid C: chemical mutagens in the diet D: background radiation from the environment E: increases in maternal age

E: increases in maternal age

Eukaryote have how many origins of DNA repliaction? A: 0 B: 1 C: 2 D: 4 E: more than four

E: more than four

Nondisjunction can occur at either the first or the second division of meiosis. XYY individuals would most likely arise from nondisjunction at the ______ meiotic division in the __________. A: second, mother B: first, father C: second, father D: first, mother E: more than one of the choices could give rise to XYY individuals.

E: more than one of the choices could give rise to XYY individuals.

Assume that a transition mutation results in an amino acid substitution in the resulting polypeptide. What level of protein structure might be affected as a result? A: tertiary structure B: secondary structure C: quaternary structure D: all levels might be affected by a single amino acid substitution E: primary structure

E: primary structure

Which of the following terms accurately describes the replication of DNA in vivo? A: conservative B: dispersive C: nonreciprocal D: nonlinear E: semiconservative

E: semiconservative

Which type of chromosome provides the basis for sex determination in many sexually reproducing organisms? A: haploid B: autosomes C: homologous chromosomes D: diploid E: sex chromosomes

E: sex chromosomes

What is the outcome of synapsis, a significant event in meiosis? A: side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes B: dyad formation C: monad movement to opposite poles D: chiasma segregation E: side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes

E: side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes

Structure located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called A: telomerase B: permissve mutations C: recessive mutations D: centromers E: telomeres

E: telomeres

Mitosis is a process of cell division that results in A: four identical daughter cells B: four unique daughter cells C: three identical daughter cells D: two unique daughter cell E: two identical daughter cells

E: two identical daughter cells

Describes an organism in which the chromosome number is an exact multiple of chromosome set.

Euplodiy

The production of gametes

Gametogenesis

Down syndrome can result form A: three copies of chromosome 21 B: A,B= B, and C are all correct C: both A and B D: a translocation of a part of chromosome 21 E: a reciprocal translocation between any two autosomes

Idk this was unanswered!

A base substitution that leads to a change in the amino acid sequence of the encoded polypeptide

Missense mutation

An agent that causes alterations in the structure of DNA

Mutagen

Short segments of DNA that are synthesized in the lagging strand during DNA replication.

Okazaki fragments

The protein that binds to both of the single strands of DNA during DNA replication and prevents them from re-forming a double helix.

SSBP

The production of sperms

Spermatogenesis

A type of mutation that involves an increased in the number of tandemly repeated trinucleotide sequences.

TNRE

A group of cellular proteins that attach to the centromere during mitosis and meiosis.

keinectochore