Genetics Final Exam
a bivalent contains how many sister chromatids?
2
(T/F) In eukaryotes, different polypeptides can be made from the same gene sequence
True
(T/F) In land snails, coloration is an example of genetic polymorphism due to heterogeneous environments.
True
(T/F) Genomic imprinting occurs during gamete formation.
True.
(T/F) In negative frequency dependent selection, rare individuals have a higher fitness than more common individuals.
True.
in plants the sporophyte stage is
diploid
(T/F) most eukaryotic genes are colinear
false
what structural motif is most commonly used by transcription factors in binding to DNA
helix-turn-helix
which of the following represents the highest level of chromosome condensation?
heterochromatin
sickle-cell anemia in humans is an example of
heterozygous advantage
Mus musculus
mouse
in a genetic cross there are n classes of data. what would the degrees of freedom be for a chi-square test on this data?
n-1
what is the correct order of elements that comprise a functional protein encoding gene in a prokaryote?
regulatory region, promoter, transcribed region, terminator
a gene is inducible and under negative control. which of the following paris will allow expression of this gene?
repressor + inducer
a-helices and b-sheets are examples of what level of protein structure?
secondary structure
the fundamental mendelian process that involves the separation of contrasting genetic elements at the same locus would be called _____.
segregation
genetic variation is ultimately based upon which of the following?
small variations in nucleotide sequence of the DNA
in which cells do erasure and reestablishment of imprinting marks typically not occur
somatic cells
in humans, there are ____ autosomal linkage groups, plus an X and Y chromosomes linkage group.
22
an organism has 46 chromosomes and 8 picograms of DNA in a somatic cell in G2. how many chromosomes are in the first polar body?
23
an organism has 46 chromosomes and 8 picograms of DNA in a somatic cell in g2. how many chromatids are in the second polar body?
23
a map distance of 23.6 between two genes indicates which of the following?
23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes
how many different kinds of genotypes will be expected in a cross of the following genotypes PpCcTtRrZz X PpCcTtRrZz
243
if an organism has 5 pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomal combinations are possible at metaphase I of meiosis
2^5
if an organism has 5 pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomal combinations are possible at metaphase I of meiosis?
2^5
which of the following algebraic expressions would be used to denote a trisomic organism?
2n+1
In a F1 x F1 cross a 1:4:6:4:1 is seem in 5 color classes. How many loci are involved?
3
DNA polymerases are unable to bind to what areas of the chromosome?
3' end of telomeres
the proofreading of the DNA occurs in the ___
3' to 5' direction
your chi square table is 3.84 you would reject the null hypothesis if your chi square calculated was
3.85
what are the odds of rolling a 4 as the sum of two dice?
3/36
the zig-zag and solenoid models are associated with the ___ level of DNA organization
30 nm fiber
according to chargaff's rule, if the DNA of a species contains 20% adenine, what percent of guanine will it contain?
30%
you have calculated the interference value for a given mapping experiment to be 30%. what does this mean?
30% fewer double crossovers occurred than expected.
DNA polymerase III is the main replication enzyme in prokaryotes. what is it in eukaryotes?
DNA pol a
fills in small regions of DNA where the RNA primers were located
DNA polymerase I
responsible for the majority of DNA replication
DNA polymerase III
synthesizes the lagging strand of the DNA
DNA polymerase III
which of the following is an example of a protective enzyme?
DNA polymerase III
a nucleosome is a combination of ___ and ____
DNA, histone proteins
Migration of a random few individuals from one population to a new area to establish a new population is an example of _____.
Founder effect
which of the following is a correct matching of the researcher with their discovery?
Franklin suggested that DNA was a helix with more than one strand and that there were about 10 bases per turn of the DNA
Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero?
Genetic variance.
If a bacteria is placed in an environment that contains both glucose & lactose, the regulation of the lac operon will allow which nutrient to be processed first?
Glucose
The formula p2+2pq+q2=1 is associated with which of the following?
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
a cell with an F factor integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called
Hfr
a cell with an F factor integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called ___
Hfr
which of the following matings would have the highest frequency of chromosomal gene transfer?
Hfr x F-
most imprinted genes are silenced. what is one exception to this rule?
Igf2
what is a disease associated with extra nuclear inheritance?
LHON
Which of the following will alter the frequency of alleles in the population the least?
Mutation
A heterogeneous environment is typically a ______ factor against the fitness of the population.
Negative.
what site does the initiator tRNA bind to on the ribosome
P
The regulation of protein function, not gene expression is called _____ regulation.
Posttranslational
the immediate product of transcription is ____.
RNA
if a nucleotide in a eukaryotic mRNA coding sequence does not appear in the genomic DNA sequence the most likely modification to have occurred is
RNA editing
The square root of the variance is called the _____.
Standard deviation.
What basal transcription factor is most often affected by regulatory transcription factors?
TFIID
In ChiP-Seq, the DNA fragments to be sequenced are around 150 bp in length. What does this size of DNA represent?
The amount of DNA wrapped around a nucleosome.
The degree of relatedness of two members of a pedigree is calculated using _________.
The coefficient of inbreeding.
You extract DNA from an E. coli cell & observe it is hemi-methylated. Which strand of DNA is older?
The methylated strand.
What is true concerning a quantitative trait?
The phenotypic variation for the trait is continuous.
(T/F) Constitutive genes are those that have constant levels of expression.
True
(T/F) in independent assortment with 2 loci, the recombination frequency is expected to be 50%
True
what nRNP holds the eons in place so that they can be connected after the intron is removed?
U5
what gene is encoded in the Xic
Xist
the c-terminus of a polypeptide always contain
a carboxyl group
a mutation in TFIIIE could result in
a failure of the RNA polymerase to maintain an open complex
a mutation in the TFIIIE could result in
a failure of the RNA polymerase to maintain an open complex
two curly-winged Drosophila are mated and produce 973 curly and 464 wild-type offspring. what is the genetic basis for these results?
a lethal allele
what is a component of a single nucleotide?
a phosphate group
interrupted mating is defined as
a process by which conjugation is stopped using a blender
which pattern in Neurospora is typical of first division segregation?
aaaa++++ or ++++aaaa
Robertsonian translocations usually occur between what types of chromosomes?
acrocentric
robertsonian translocation usually occur between what types of chromosomes?
acrocentric
robertsonian translocations usually occur between what types of chromosomes?
acrocentric
cells are treated with a drug that blocks purine synthesis. which bases would not be made in those treated cells?
adenine and guanine
a tRNA's anticodon is 5'GGC3'. what amino acid is attached to it?
alanine
assume that a black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 5 black offspring. when the albino crossed with a second black guinea pig, 4 black and 3 albino offspring were produced. what genetic explanation would apply to these data?
albino = recessive; black = dominant
an individual with type a blood and an individual with type b blood mate and have offspring. what blood type is not possible for their offspring?
all blood types are possible
which of the following are necessary characteristics of an organism in order to easily construct a genetic linage map?
all of the answers are correct - short generation times; produces large numbers of offspring; & easily crossed
which of the following best describes the double-helix of DNA
all of the answers are correct - it has directionality, the strands are arranged in an anti-parallel arrangement, the strands are complementary
variations in chromosome structure are important for which of the following reason(s)?
all of the answers are correct -- evolution of new species; may result in the production of abnormal offspring; may alter the phenotype of an organism
which of the following rarely has an effect on the phenotype of the individual who carries it
balanced translocation
who originally identified a highly condensed structure in the interphase of nuclei
barr
the interaction of two genes to produce a phenotype was first described by ______
bateson and punnett
why do positively charged amino acids appear more often than usual in histone proteins?
because histones and DNA have opposite charges, which improves the compaction of DNA into nucleosomes
in the ABO blood system
both a & b are true -- the a allele is dominant to the o allele and the type o phenotype is the universal donor in ABO blood transfusion
assume that genes c and d are located on the same chromosome. on one chromosome alleles c and d are found, while the homologue contains alleles c and d. which of the following would be an example of a recombination event?
both alleles c and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and d together one chromosome
inversion loops can occur in which of the following?
both paracentric inversions and pericentric inversions
the chromosomal theory of inheritance was first proposed by
boveri and sutton
although there are several different types of plasmids they all
can confer some kind of selective growth advantage depending on environmental conditions
a histidine, methionine auxotroph
cannot synthesize histidine and methionine
where do kinetochores attach to chromosomes
centromeres
which of the following statistical tests is used to determine if two genes are lined or assorting independently?
chi-square test
heteroplasmy is associated with inheritance patterns involving
chloroplasts
in human blood groups, the fact that an individual can have an ab blood type is an example of ____.
codominance
which of the following assists the alignment of sister chromatids during metaphase
cohesin
temperature-sensitive alleles are examples of ______.
conditional lethal alleles
utilizes a physical connection between two bacteria
conjugation
utilizes a sex pilus to transfer the genetic material
conjugation
which of the following mechanisms of genetic transfer was first observed by lederberg and tatum (1946) in e. coli?
conjugation
which of the following best describes the mechanism of DNA replication in which both parental strands remain together following replication?
conservative
areas of the chromosome that remain highly condensed are called ___
constitutive heterochromatin
what is the purpose of phosphorylating the carboxy terminal domain
convert from initiation to the elongation stage
the use of bacteriophages to map bacterial genes is called
cotransduction
(T/F) a 2:2:2:2 pattern in an ordered octad ascus is an indication of first-division segregation
false
(T/F) a corn stalk is an example of a diploid gametophyte
false
(T/F) a cross over in a pericentric inversion results in an acentric fragment
false
(T/F) a good experiment is designed to prove a hypothesis
false
(T/F) a nucleoside consists of only a five-carbon sugar and a phosphate group
false
(T/F) acquired antibiotic resistance between two different species is an example of vertical gene transfer
false
(T/F) all mature polypeptides contain a methionine at the n-terminus
false
(T/F) complementation experiments are used to determine if two observed mutations that are associated with the same trait are actually in the same gene
false
(T/F) cotransduction establishes the general order of genes on a bacterial chromosome, while conjugation is more specific and thus may be used to establish precise distances
false
(T/F) cross fertilization is the typical mode of reproduction for pea plants
false
(T/F) for mapping to work, a chromosome has to be 100 map units long
false
(T/F) if a snail has a Dd genotype, it must have a right handed shell
false
(T/F) if you get a very large chi square value, there is no way the null hypothesis is true
false
(T/F) in an epistatic interaction, the genes must be located on the same chromosome
false
(T/F) it is impossible to get a dd that is right handed
false
(T/F) male-pattern baldness is sex-linked trait in humans
false
(T/F) mendel had extensive training in biology and heredity prior to his groundbreaking work
false
(T/F) polyploid plants tend to produce fewer fruits and flowers, be smaller in size, and not adapt as well to extreme environmental conditions as normal varieties
false
(T/F) the anticodon on the mRNA recognizes the codon on the tRNA
false
(T/F) the structure of the ribosome is uniform throughout a eukaryotic cell
false
(T/F) when you cross two yellow coated mice the ratio is 2 agouti: 1 yellow
false
Popper's idea
falsification
crossing over is more likely to occur between genes that are ____ on a chromosome.
far apart
what do both the rho-dependent and rho-independent mechanisms of termination have in common?
formation of a stem-loop structure
the researchers who initially used x-ray diffraction to gather information on the DNA molecule was ___
franklin
given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere) before A B C D * E F G H after A B C D * E F E F G H
gene duplication
the production of gene families, such as the global genes is the result of ___
gene duplications
what sequences are not considered to be regulatory elements?
general transcription factors
which of the following categories of genes is typically NOT encoded in cpDNA?
genes encoding nuclear proteins
which of the following categories of genes is typically not encoded in cpDNA?
genes encoding nuclear proteins
differentially methylated domains (DMDs) are associated with which of the following?
genomic imprinting
who was the first to discover the process of natural transformation
griffith
algae and fungi spend the majority of their life cycle in the ____ condition
haploid
in a punter square diagram, the outside of the box represents the
haploid gametes
sickle-cell anemia in humans is an example of _________.
heterozygous advantage
in many organisms, one set of chromosomes comes from the maternal parent, while the other set comes from the paternal parent. similar chromosomes in these sets are said to be _____
homologues
a testcross is always performed between the individual that is heterozygous for the genes to be mapped and an individual who is _____
homozygous recessive for the genes
the transfer of genetic material from two unrelated species is called
horizontal gene transfer
Drosophila females are capable of storing sperm and using it to fertilize eggs long after mating. how might this present a problem for a geneticist?
in order to design a specific cross, females must be prevented from mating with any other strain of males
in eukaryotic organisms, the processing of the 45S rRNA into 5.8S, 18S, and 28S rRNA occurs where?
in the nucleolus
a heterozygote possesses a phenotype that is intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes. that is most likely an example of ____.
incomplete dominance
a heterozygous possesses a phenotype that is intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes. this is most likely an example of
incomplete dominance
what strategy did bender use to perform intragenic mapping?
infection of a cell with two different viruses that had mutations in the same gene could result in a wild type virus by recombination
in a given mapping experiment you expect that incidence of double crossovers is 3.5%, but you only observe 2.5%. this can be explained by _____.
interference
given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere) before A B C D * E F G H after A C D * E F G H
intersistial deficiency
a loss of an internal piece of a chromosome is called a
interstitial deficiency
what is the usual outcome for the recipient cell in a F+ x F- matings?
it becomes F+
chemicals such as quinolones are anti-bacterial. how does it kill bacteria?
it inhibits DNA gyrase
which of the following is false regarding mtDNA?
it is a linear chromosome
which of the following is correct regarding a prophage?
it is copied along with the bacterial chromosomes during replication
what is one of the criteria that all genetic material must meet?
it must be able to be copied
what is the usual outcome for the recipient cell in a Hfr x F- mating
it remains F-
what encodes the toxin paramecia in paramecia aurelia
kappa particles
which of the following is not correctly matched to its aneuploid condition?
kleinfelter syndrome - XO
in the biological sciences, the hypothesis is usually rejected if the p value is
less than 0.05
another name for a chromosome is a ______, since it contains genes that are often inherited together
linkage group
which human cells exhibit endopolyploidy?
liver cells
which RNA encodes the sequence of amino acids for a functional protein
mRNA
the inheritance of leaf pigmentation in the four-o'clock plant Mirabilis jalapa is an example of _____
maternal inheritance
the inheritance of leaf pigmentation in the four-o'clock plant mirabillis jalapa is an example of
maternal inheritance
what type of inheritance is observed with extranuclear DNA
maternal inheritance
which of the following were key reasons for mender's success in elucidating his genetic laws?
mendel carefully established true breeding lines and used them in hybridization experiments carried out over multiple generations
during which phase the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?
metaphase
interphase of the cell cycle includes all of the following, except ____
metaphase
what is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene
methylation
the unit of genetic distance derived from bacterial conjugation studies are called
minutes
which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical
sister chromatids
in haploid fungi, which of the following is used to calculate the distance between the centromere and the gene of interest?
spores that have undergone second division segregation
what typically stops the process of translation
stop codons
in single factor crosses between two true breeding strains of tree frog, a scientist discovers that plain green tree frogs and tree frogs with a red 'racing stripe' always produce offspring that have red racing stripes. why?
stripes are dominant to plain green coloration
(T/F) during conjugation, one strand of the F factor DNA remains in the donor cell and one strand is transferred to the recipient cell
true
(T/F) heterozygotes for tay sachs do not show neurological systems
true
(T/F) homologous genes within a species are called paralogs
true
(T/F) housekeeping genes are unmethylated and active in most cells
true
(T/F) human birth weight is an example of stabilizing selection
true
(T/F) if a snail has a DD genotype, it must have a right handed shell
true
(T/F) in bacteria, the frequency of cotransduction is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes
true
(T/F) the centromere is not included in the inverted region in a paracentric inversion
true
(T/F) the genetic code is universal in nuclear DNA from bacteria to mammals
true
(T/F) the lower the calculated chi square value, the better fit of the null hypothesis to the data.
true
(T/F) the odds of getting 10 heads in a row with a single coin is 1/2 raised to the 10th power
true
(T/F) the odds of rolling either a 2 or 12 as the sum of two dice is 2/36
true
(T/F) the yellow coat allele in the mouse is a recessive lethal in utero
true
(T/F) when DNA melts, UV absorbances goes up
true
expression of ___ would inhibit x-inactivation
tsix
the purpose of DNA replication is to produce
two daughter strands
edwards and patau syndrome are examples of
aneuploidy
which diseases are associated with imprinting?
angelman syndrome
cytokinesis in _____ resembles the pulling of a drawstring in a bag
animal cells
how might the ability of pea plants to self fertilize be a problem for genetic experiments?
anthers must be removed from self fertile plants to control fertilization.
the fact that the helixes of the DNA strand are arranged in opposite directions gives DNA its characteristics
antiparallel
how many origins of replication are there in bacteria?
1
attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments, forming a continuous DNA strand
DNA ligand
in the Igf2 gene, which allele is imprinted? which is expressed?
paternal, paternal
which trait is an example of sex influenced inheritance
pattern baldness
which molecules are not part of the closed promoter complex?
single-stranded dna
(T/F) crossing over occurs in pachytene
true
a man has a color blind mother. he marries a genotypically normal woman. what is the probability that his first son will be colorblind?
0%
A population has colorblind males at 0.02, what is expected frequency of colorblind females?
0.0004
albinism, lack of pigmentation in man, results from an autosomal recessive gene (a). two parents with normal pigmentation have an eldest albino child. what is the probability that their next 3 children yet to be born will homozygous for the normal allele?
0.015625
in a population in HWE, the incidence of the recessive phenotype is 0.16. what is the frequency of the recessive allele?
0.4
how many barr bodies would an individual with a xxy genotype possess?
1
unique sequences make up approximately what percent of the human genome?
40%
which base is not found in DNA
uracil
you cross true breeding lizards that are either green or albino and discover that all the offspring are striped green and white. which of the most likely result if you cross two striped lizards?
1 green: 2 striped: 1 albino
a gene map has A----20---B---10--C. What is the possibility of producing an aBc gamete in a female triple heterozygote?
1%
what is the correct order for the steps in transduction
1) phage infects cell 2) host DNA digested into fragments 3) some phage accidentally carry host DNA fragment 4) phage infects new cell 5) phage transported DNA recombines with chromosome of new cell
polydactyly is expressed when an individual has extra fingers and/or toes. assume that a man with six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot marries a woman with a normal number of digits. having extra digits is caused by a dominant allele. the couple has a son with normal hands and feet, but the couple's second child has extra digits. what is the probability that their next child will have polydactyly?
1/2
in four-o'clock plants, red flower color is dominant to white flower color. however, heterozygous plants have a pink color. if a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a white flowered plant, what will be the phenotypic ratios of their offspring?
1/2 pink, 1/2 white
in a cross between two strains that are true breeding for purple and white flowers, the F2 phenotypic ratio would be _____ if the flower color phenotype exhibits incomplete dominance.
1/4 purple; 1/4 white; and 1/2 lavender
albinism, lack of pigmentation in man, results from an autosomal recessive gene (a). two parents with normal pigmentation have an eldest albino child. what is the probability that their second child will be a boy genotypical homozygous for the normal allele
1/8
without interference an investigator expected 50 crossovers, but interference was 80%, so how many DCO did she see?
10
loop domains are responsible for what level of condensation of the bacterial chromosome?
10 fold
a piece of double stranded DNA has 100 base pairs. how many purines are in this molecule
100
the origins of replication in eukaryotic chromosomes are spaced about every ___ base pairs
100,000
the DNA of a bacterial cell must be compacted about ___ fold to fit within the confines of the cell
1000
the DNA of a bacterial cell must be compacted about ___ fold to fit within the confines of the cell.
1000
a protein called actin consists of 376 amino acids. the mRNA for actin must be longer than
1128 nucleotides
while mapping two genes in Drosophila you observe 30 recombinants among 200 total offspring. what is the distance between these genes?
15 map units
given pascal's triangle what are the odds of getting AT LEAST 1 boy in a family with 4 children? 1 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 4 6 4 1 1 5 10 10 5 1
15/16
about how many bases of DNA wrap around a histone complex?
150
how many different kinds of gametes will be expected by an individual with the following genotype PpCcTtRr?
16
which types of phenotypic ratios are likely to occur in crosses when dealing with a single gene pair for which all the genotypic combinations are of equal viability?
1:2:1, 3:1
I do a chi square analysis of the offspring from my cross of a black mouse and albino mouse. if the black mouse was heterozygous I should have expected a 1:1 ratio, and I got 6 albino and 2 black mice. what is my chi square value?
2
what is the minimal number of tRNAs that can be used to recognize all of the codons for threonine?
2
adenine and thymine form __ hydrogen bonds between them, while cytosine and guanine form __ bonds.
2, 3
albinism, lack of pigmentation in man, results from an autosomal recessive gene (a). two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child and a normal pigmented child. what is the probability that the normal pigmented child is heterozygous for albinism?
2/3
digesting chromatin with a high concentration of DNAse I would yield fragments of what approximate size?
200
a piece of double stranded DNA is 50% C and 1000 base pairs. how many H bonds holds the helix together?
3000
a gene map has A----20---B---10--C. What is the possibility of producing an ABC gamete in a female triple heterozygote
36%
spock is a F1 hybrid with the vulcan alleles dominant to the earth alleles. given the autosomal map F---10---E---20--M where F is the stunning finger grip, E is the inner eye lid, and M is the spock mind meld. if he marries an earth woman what are the odds that their first child will be like spock for all three traits?
36%
a species is found to have 40 chromosomes in its secondary polar body with 4.0 pg of DNA. how many tetrads are in prophase I. how many tetrads are found in prophase I?
40
an organism has 10 chromosomes in a sperm and 2 pico grams of DNA. how many chromatids are in the primary spermatocyte?
40
an organism has 40 chromosomes and 20 picograms of DNA in a somatic cell in G2. how many chromatids are moving to each pole in mitosis?
40
an organism has 46 chromosomes and 8 picograms of DNA in a somatic cell in G2. how many chromatids are in the first polar body?
46
a first division segregation (FDS) in the ordered octad ascus that has not had a crossover event has which of the following arrangements of the spores?
4:4
the common goldfish carassius auratus has 100 chromosomes and is tetraploid. the goldfish therefore has ___ sets of chromosomes containing ___ chromosomes each.
4; 25
if the frequency of color blind x chromosomes is 0.05, what is the frequency of color blind males?
5%
DNA polymerases add new nucleotides in what directions?
5' to 3'
the greatest map distance that can be detected between any single pair of loci is
50
a woman is heterozygous for the recessive x-linked gene for Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. what proportion of her daughters will be carriers for the trait if their fathers is not affected?
50%
tightly curled or wooly hair is caused by a dominant gene in humans. if a heterozygous curly-haired person marries a person with straight hair, what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have straight hair?
50% straight
if a Punnett square is used to visualize a three-factor cross, how many boxes would be inside of the square?
64
you have calculated the coefficient of coincidence value for a given mapping experiment to be 30%. what does this mean?
70% fewer double crossovers occurred than expected
a recessive allele in tigers causes the white tiger. if two normally pigmented tigers are mated and produce a white offspring, what percentage of their remaining offspring would be expected to have normal pigmentation?
75%
using mender's flower color (purple is dominant, white is recessive), if a two heterozygous plants are crossed, what is the probability that the first two offspring will have purple flowers?
9/16
in the ABO blood system, which is universal receiver?
AB
the idea that the adenine and thymine bases of the DNA interact in some manner was first proposed by
Chargaff
Genomic imprinting is a result of...
DNA methylation.
the ___ was labeled using the radioisotope 32P in the hershey-chase experiments
DNA
Which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes?
Disruptive selection.
which of the following does not inactivate an x chromosome?
Drosophila
(T/F) A higher rate of oncogene expression usually suppresses cell division.
False
(T/F) Epigenetic changes are maintained only by cis epigenetic mechanisms.
False
at the molecular level, type a and type b blood differ in which of the following characteristics?
all of the answers are correct -- the antigens present on the surface of the red blood cells; the type of sugar found in each type; and the antibodies that are generated against the other type of blood
which of the following is correct concerning F factors?
all of the answers are correct -- another term for a plasmid, it stands for fertility factor, it allows conjugation to occur, F+ bacteria act as donor strains in conjugation
during conjugation, one gene (A) is found to transfer to the recipient bacteria 26 minutes following the start of conjugation, while a second gene (M) is found to transfer 37 minutes following the start of conjugation. a third gene (T) transfers 45 minutes following the start of conjugation. Based on this information, which of the following is true?
all of the answers are correct -- genes a and m have genetic distance of 11 minutes, genes a and t have a genetic distance of 19 minutes, genes m and t have a genetic distance of 8 minutes
which of the following is/are correct concerning mitotic nondisjunction?
all of the answers are correct -- it is a relatively rare event; it may result in the loss of some chromosomes in some cells; an example is a bilateral gynandromorph; it usually does not effect all of the cells of the organism
which of the following is true regarding animal mtDNA
all of the answers are correct -- it is around 17,000 bp in length, it is a circular chromosome, multiple copies exist in each mitochondria, it mostly contains rRNA and tRNA genes
cpDNA contains which of the following types of genes
all of the answers are correct -- rRNA, tRNA, genes for photosynthetic pathways
which of the following is true regarding conjugation?
all of the answers are correct -- the bacteria must be in physical contact, most bacterial species have the ability to conjugate, strains called donor strains can transfer genetic information, donor strains can convert non-donor strains into donor strains
an Alu sequence is an example of what?
all of the answers are correct -- transposable element, retroelement, highly repetitive DNA
which of the following is true regarding conjugation
all of the answers are correct -- the bacteria must be in physical contact, most bacterial species have the ability to conjugate, strains called donor strains can transfer genetic information, donor strains can convert non-donor strains into donor strains
Which of the following represents a mechanism of genetic transfer in bacteria?
all of the answers are correct -- transformation, transduction, conjugation
which of the following is correct regarding natural selection?
all of the answers are correct --- it is based on competition for resources; beneficial traits are passed on to the next generation; it enables a species to become better adapted to its environment; & it may drastically change a species over time
at the molecular level, which of the following best explains heterozygous advantage and over dominance?
all of the answers are possibilities --- a heterozygous individual can produce more varieties of homodimer proteins; the alleles produce two different proteins with slightly different functions; the proteins produced by the alleles may provide a broader range of environmental tolerance, such as temperature ranges; & infectious organisms may recognize only a specific functional protein.
a woman who is heterozygous for pattern baldness marries a man who is non bald. which of the following would be true of their offspring?
all of the females would be non bald, 1/2 of the males would be bald.
pedigrees for human genetic traits are important because:
all of these -- humans tend to have small numbers of offspring; matings between humans cannot be established by experimenters; and knowledge about family history can help determine probabilities for individuals
which of the following conditions must be correct for transformation to occur?
all of these answers are correct -- temperature, ionic conditions, correct nutrient balance
which of the following describes an organism with two complete sets of chromosomes from two different species?
allotetraploid
competence factors do which of the following?
allow DNA in the environment to bind to the cell surface
select the amino acid that has been activated by ammoniacyl-tRNA-synthetase
amino acid AMP
why do amphibians have so much more DNA than humans?
amphibians have more repetitive sequences than do humans
phenylketonuria in humans is an example of _____
an environmental-influenced trait
the sister chromatids separate and head towards opposite poles of the cell
anaphase
if you have true breeding strains that differ only in a single character, how could you determine which trait for that character is dominant?
create a monohybrid for that character and see which trait is present
the visual proof that chromosomes exchange pieces of information during crossing over was provided by
creighton and mcclintock
the pyrimidine bases are
cytosine, thymine, and uracil
human genetic diseases such as cri-du-chat, angelman syndrome and prayer-willi syndrome are the result of which of the following?
deficiencies
the process of interrupted mating may be used to do which of the following
determine the relative position of bacterial genes
the process of interrupted mating may be used to do which of the following?
determine the relative position of bacterial genes
you have isolated what appears to be alien DNA. while studying its replication, you performed the exact experiment meselson and stahl did. after three generation, the DNA is subjected to a CsCl gradient and only one band appears. what type of replication does this DNA undergo?
dispersive
Lakatos' idea
don't throw out a theory until you have a better one
what is responsible for binding the initiator tRNA in eukaryotes
elF2
a modification that occurs to a nuclear gene that alters gene expression without modifying the DNA sequence is called ___ inheritance
epigenetic
which inheritance pattern is common to oogenesis, spermatogenesis, and embryogenesis
epigenetic inheritance
in a dihybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals, you expect a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the offspring, but observe a ratio of 9:7. what is the most likely explanation?
epistatic interactions of the two genes
which region of DNA contains the coding information for a protein in a eukaryote
exons
sex-influenced inheritance differs from sex-limited inheritance in which of the following ways?
expression of the phenotype occurs only in one sex in sex-limited inheritance, but not in sex-influenced inheritance
a barr body is an example of what
facultative heterochromatin
(T/F) 61 different tRNAs are required for translation both in vivo and in vitro
false
(T/F) RecA inhibits recombination
false
where is extra nuclear DNA located in mammalian cells
mitochondria
where is extranuclear DNA located in mammalian cells
mitochondria
the process of meiosis II is similar to that of ____
mitosis
experimental evidence that crossing over occurs between the x chromosomes of female Drosophila was provided by
morgan
experimental evidence that crossing over occurs between the x chromosomes of female Drosophila was provided by _____
morgan
the first person to experimentally determine that a trait is located on a specific chromosome was _____
morgan and bridges
the first person to experimentally determine that a trait is located on a specific chromosomes was ____.
morgan and bridges
in the gene that affects snail coiling, the ____ is responsible for the phenotype of the offspring.
mother's genotype
the failure of chromosomes to separate during anaphase is called
nondisjunction
suppose you performed a triplet binding assay with the triplet 5'-UAA-3'. what radio labeled amino acids do you expect to find bound to the filter?
none
which of the following is primarily responsible for the maternal effect?
nurse cells
the middle gene of a three gene mapping experiment can be determined by examining the genotypes of which of the following?
offspring that exhibit double crossover events
the holozyme is formed when the core enzyme associates with
omega
the chi-square test involves a statistical comparison between measured (observed) and predicted (expected) values. one generally determines degrees of freedom as ____.
one less than the number of classes being compared.
an inversion heterozygote contains which of the following?
one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion
if a geneticist describes a trait as being 70% penetrant, what would they mean?
only 70% of the individuals who carry the trait express the trait
in fungi, the structure in which the position of the four spores in the ascus is an indication of their relationship to each other as they were produced during meiosis is called an ______.
ordered tetrad
the site on a plasmid that is digested, producing a single strand of DNA, to allow conjugation to occur is called the
origin of transfer
for a certain trait a heterozygous individual has a selective advantage than a homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive individual. this is called _____
over dominance
which of the following is not a mechanism used by bacteria to condense their DNA?
packaging the DNA with histone proteins
Kuhn's idea
paradigms and revolutions
in a mapping experiment with three genes, which phenotype should occur most often in the F2 offspring?
parental phenotypes
if the sperm cell contributes mitochondria to the oocyte, it is called
paternal leakage
given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere) before A B C D * E F G H after A B G F E * D C H
pericentric inversion
the backbone of the DNA molecule is formed by
phosphodiester bonds
small circular pieces of DNA that are not associated with the bacterial chromosome are called
plasmids
what modifications act to stabilize eukaryotic mRNA
polyadenylation
the polytene chromosomes of Drosophila are an example of _____
polyploidy
what types of amino acids are most responsible for the binding of DNA to histones
positively charged amino acids
where does the process of transcription initiate
promoter
avery used the enzyme ___ to remove the proteins from the cell extracts
protease
the general purpose of the synaptonemal complex is to _____
provide a link between homologous chromosomes in meiosis
what is thought to be the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts
purple bacteria for mitochondria, cyanobacteria for chloroplasts
what enables the splicing of group I and II introns
ribozymes
what direction would you turn z-DNA to introduce negative super coils
right
during this phase of the cell cycle the sister chromatids are formed.
s phase
replication of chromatin DNA occurs during
s phase
you capture several interesting insects from a population in your yard. by inbreeding, you develop true breeding strains that differ only in the shape of their wings - one strain has round wings while the other strain has oval wings. how might you demonstrate that mender's principles apply to your insects?
set up a monohybrid cross and determine if your F2 results are predicted by a 3:1 ratio based on the law of segregation
dosage compensation offsets the problems associated with differences in the number of ___ chromosomes in many species
sex
Klinefelter and turner syndromes are examples of which of the following
sex chromosome aneuploidy
hen feathering in chickens show what type of inheritance?
sex limited
if an allele is dominant in one sex and recessive in another, it is an example of ______.
sex-influenced inheritance
if a gene is located on the x chromosome, but not the Y, it is said to be an example of _____.
sex-linkage
in conjugation the DNA that will be transferred from the donor cell to the recipient cell is
single-stranded
an anticodon is located on ____
tRNA
what disease is thought to confer heterozygote advantage with respect to tuberculosis?
tay sachs
which type of chromosome has the shortest p arm of the arm
telocentric
the nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes
telophase
the coat characteristics of siamese cats & himalayan rabbits, where proteins in the extremities function differently than in other parts of the body is an example of ______.
temperature-sensitive allele
what types of mutants were essential to the discovery of new replication enzymes?
temperature-sensitive mutation
what types of mutants were essential to the discovery of new replication enzymes
temperature-sensitive mutations
RF1 and RF2 are active during
termination
which of the following is NOT part of the structure of the nucleosome core particle?
the DNA is wrapped around the core slightly over two complete turns
which of the following is not part of the structure of the nucleosome core particle
the DNA is wrapped around the core slightly over two complete turns
gene duplications may be caused by which of the following?
the crossing over of misaligned chromosomes
Aristotle
the father of biology
an R loop experiment was performed on two different mRNA's. the first showed one R loop, while the second showed two R loops separated by a region of double-stranded DNA. what is the composition of these two mRNA's?
the first contains no introns and the second one intron
in the first polar body, we find what?
the haploid number of dyads
the primary structure of a protein is directly associated with
the linear sequence of the amino acids
the primary structure of a protein is directly associated with ___
the linear sequence of the amino acids
you extract DNA from E. coli cell and observe it is hemi-methylated. which strand of DNA is older?
the methylated strand
what is unusual about the 5' cap found on almost all eukaryotic mRNAs?
the nucleotide added is a guanine methylated at N7 and the bond is created between the phosphate group on the guanine and the phosphate on the terminal nucleotide
which of the following is not true regarding bacterial genetics?
the patterns of inheritance in bacteria may be studied using the same mechanisms as eukaryotic organisms
what is characteristic of T2 bacteriophage?
the phages injects its DNA into the host cell
in formation of plaques by bacteriophages which of the following statements is true?
the plaque is the result of a single virus that has replicated in many bacterial cells in a localized area
the peptide transferase is a component of
the ribosome
RNA is complementary to
the template strand of DNA
trisomy 8 usually leads to early miscarriage of a fetus. however, adult individuals have been found with cells that have three copies of chromosome 8 in them. how can this be?
the trisomic 8 adults likely have a mosaic region with trisomy 8
how did bateson and punters work with comb morphology in chickens differ from the dihybrid work of mendel?
their F2 offspring displayed 4 unique phenotypes, not the four combinations of two phenotypes expected in a mendelian cross.
what was the conclusion of the hershey-chase experiments?
their results suggested that the DNA is the genetic material
which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic cell?
they have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm
in a double-helix DNA strand, the adenine on one strand forms a hydrogen bond with a(n) ___ on the other strand
thymine
prevents supercoiling ahead of the replication fork
topoisomerase
a gene that undergoes rho-dependent termination has a mutation in the rut site. how will this influence transcriptional activity?
transcription will continue until another termination sequence, either Rho dependent or independent is reached.
can occur either as a lytic or lysogenic cycle
transduction
first observed by lederberg and zinder (1952) in salmonella typhimurium
transduction
uses a bacteriophage as an intermediary for the genetic information
transduction
in a conjugation experiment not all of the cells receiving two genes will demonstrate an altered phenotype for both genes. what is the most likely explanation of this phenomenon?
transferred genes must undergo recombination for genotypic conversion of the recipient cell and there is a possibility that only one gene will be recombined into the recipients chromosome
frederick griffith is responsible for discovering what process?
transformation
uses competent cells
transformation
when a bacteria assimilates genetic material (DNA) directly from the environment
transformation
which of the following is inhibited by DNAse
transformation
which of the following mechanisms refer to when a bacteria assimilates genetic material (DNA) directly from the environment?
transformation
familial down syndrome is a result of which of the following?
translocation
which of the following types of plants would usually be a seedless variety?
triploid
(T/F) a 12:3:1 ratio could be the result of epistasis
true
(T/F) a chimera can be one physical individual, but could be the fusion of two different genetic individuals
true
(T/F) a minute is the basic unit of map distance in bacteria
true
(T/F) a purine on one strand of the DNA is always paired with a pyrimidine on the other strand
true
(T/F) both chloroplasts and mitochondria are dependent on nuclear gene products
true
(T/F) cock feathering is found only in male birds
true
the majority of the non repetitive genes in an organism are found in which of the following?
unique sequences
lesion-replicating polymerases are ____
used to replicate damaged DNA
the fact that the type r and s strains of streptococcus pneumoniae that griffith worked with possessed small differences in capsule structure satisfies which of the following criteria for genetic material?
variation
epistasis is ______
when one gene can mask the expression of a second gene
the coat color of calico cats is a result of
x-inactivation
the lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of
x-inactivation
what gene is most responsible for x-inactivation
xist
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
yeast
if you performed a dihybrid cross and found that your results were significantly different from the 9:3:3:1 ratio, what would you suspect?
you picked two genes that are linked and thus do not assort independently
an alpha of 0.05 in statistics means
you stand a 5% chance of rejecting a true hypothesis by chance
what are the odds of getting 2 boys & 1 girl in a family of 3 children?
3/8
In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool?
300
(T/F) In cancer cells regions of both hypermethylation and hypomethylation can be found in cells.
False
(T/F) Methylation of DNA bases is one way that regulatory transcription factors may influence gene expression.
False
(T/F) QTL stands for quantitative trait loci and is an example of monogenic inheritance.
False
(T/F) Traits that fall into discrete categories are called continuous traits.
False
In this equation p2+2pq+q2 = 1, what does the term 2pq represent?
The genotype frequency of heterozygous individuals.
A heritability value of 0.997 indicates which of the following?
The majority of the phenotypic variation has a genetic basis.
For a quantitative trait, the total variance of the population is due to which of the following?
The sum of the genetic and environmental variances.
A deletion in an operon removes the promoter. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon?
The transcript will not be produced.
(T/F) Double stranded RNA is more potent than Antisense RNA in silencing mRNA.
True
(T/F) Migration of breeding individuals from one population to another is evolution.
True
(T/F) Realized heritability may be determined from artificial selection experiments.
True
(T/F) Repressor proteins are responsible for negative transcriptional regulation.
True
(T/F) The fact that quantitative traits may be based on a polygenic basis was first discovered in studies of DDT resistance in Drosophila.
True
(T/F) Transcription factors are proteins that influence the ability of the RNA polymerase to transcribe a gene.
True
(T/F) When cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, HSP90 is released.
True
Lakatos
a new theory has to explain the old facts, as well as lead to new predictions
why did deCODE select Iceland for its ambitious research project?
a relatively low degree of genetic diversity
a SNP would be best described as ____.
a single nucleotide difference between two DNA sequences.
which of the following is true regarding a balanced polymorphism?
all of the answers are correct --- the population (or species) occupies a heterogeneous environment; the homozygous condition for the alleles is not advantageous to the organism; the frequency of alleles is not changing over time; an example in humans is sickle-cell anemia.
heterosis is ____.
an increased vigor of hybrids resulting from the crossing of inbred strains.
Escherichia coli
bacterium
the prevalence of the allele for sickle cell anemia in some populations is an example of?
balancing selection
an early event in mitosis is the migration of two ____ around the periphery of the nucleus to establish the poles of the subsequent mitotic process
centrosomes
the physical structure that is formed when two chromatids cross over is called a
chiasma
studies of x-linked inheritance and sex chromosomes provided the evidence for which of the following?
chromosomal theory of inheritance
Boveri
chromosome inheritance
which of the following is not a step to calculate a coefficient of inbreeding?
determine the mutation rate
Karl Popper
experiments need to be designed to falsify hypotheses
(T/F) DNA that contains instructions for two or more structural genes produces monocistronic mRNA.
false
(T/F) Linnaeus believed in the evolution of species
false
(T/F) a genome is the complete diploid DNA specific to an organism
false
(T/F) experiments were done in the 1920s that proved DNA was the genetic material
false
(T/F) in the lac operon, the operator is an example of a trans-effect genetic regulation
false
(T/F) in the lac operon, the operator site is recognized by an activator protein
false
(T/F) most humans have 48 chromosomes
false
(T/F) the larger a population is, the more important genetic drift becomes
false
(T/F) the process of mating between genetically unrelated individuals is called inbreeding
false
(T/F) there are DNA replications just before Meiosis II
false
(T/F) william harvey was a preformationist
false
(T/F) you calculated a chi square value in a problem and it is zero. therefore, its ok to reject the null hypothesis of no difference
false
in plants, the haploid generation is called the _____ and the diploid generation is called the _____.
gametophyte; sporophyte
Pisum sativum
garden pea
cytokinesis in plants is characterized by:
golgi-derived vesicles coalesce at the middle of the cell, forming a cell plate whose contents form a new cell wall
which of the following represents the correct order of events during prophase I?
leptotene - zygotene - pachytene - diplotene - diakinesis
what activates CREB?
phosphorylation
an activator is present and results in the increase in transcription of the target gene. this is an example of _____.
positive control
the process of binary fission is primarily used for asexual reproduction in _____
prokaryotes
the chromosomes start to condense
prophase
Correns
rediscovered Mendel's work
Caenorhabditis elegans
round worm
Thomas Kuhn
science advances because the old ones die
a particular gene has a mutation in its NFR that causes it to bind abnormally tightly to histones. what effect would you expect this mutation has on the expression of this gene
the expression of the gene would be abnormally low or absent.
if CAP could not bind to its CAP site, then what would be the result? assume lactose is present in each scenario
transcription would be difficult to activate in the absence of glucose
(T/F) The regulation of the CAP complex using cAMP is an example of inducible genetic regulation.
true
(T/F) a single type miRNA can inhibit the translation of several mRNAs
true
(T/F) in ground finches beak size changes is driven by directional selection
true
(T/F) in mice a diet rich in folic acid increases DNA methylation
true
(T/F) sickle cell is caused by a single amino acid change
true
(T/F) the binding of polyA binding protein enhances mRNA stability
true
(T/F) the higher the chi square value, the worse the data fits expectations
true
(T/F) there is not evolution in hardy weinberg equilibrium
true
