Hematologic Assessment Study Questions

The nurse is obtaining the health history of a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which factor in this client's history does the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? a. Eating a meat-free diet b. Family history of sickle cell disease c. History of leukemia d. History of bleeding ulcer

ANS: A A diet high in protein and iron helps keep the client's levels of iron within normal limits. Meat is a good source of protein and iron. A bleeding ulcer could cause anemia but would not cause iron deficiency. Sickle cell disease causes sickle cell anemia. Leukemia causes a decrease in white blood cells.

The nurse is administering a prescribed fibrinolytic to a client who is having a myocardial infarction (MI). Which adverse effect does the nurse monitor for? a. Bleeding b. Orthostatic hypotension c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Nausea and vomiting

ANS: A A fibrinolytic lyses any clots in the body, thus causing an increased risk for bleeding. Fibrinolytic therapy does not place the client at risk for hypotension, thrombosis, or nausea and vomiting.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a bone marrow aspiration. The client begins to bleed from the aspiration site. Which action does the nurse perform? a. Apply external pressure to the site. b. Elevate the extremities. c. Cover the site with a dressing. d. Immobilize the leg.

ANS: A All these options could be done after a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. However, the most important action when bleeding occurs is to apply external pressure to the site until hemostasis is ensured. The other measures could then be carried out.

The nurse assesses the client who underwent partial removal of the stomach a year ago for the manifestations of a. anemia. b. high white blood cell count. c. low platelet count. d. shortened bleeding times.

ANS: A Anemia may also occur following partial or total gastrectomy or removal of the terminal portion of the ileum because of the consequent reduction in absorption of vitamin B12.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a decreased serum iron level. Which intervention does the nurse prioritize for this client? a. Dietary consult b. Family assessment c. Cardiac assessment d. Administration of vitamin K

ANS: A Diets can alter cell quality and affect blood clotting. Diets low in iron can cause anemia and decrease the function of all red blood cells. The question does not say that the hemoglobin is low enough to affect the cardiac function. Family assessment may be important in finding out any genetic or family lifestyle causes of the low serum iron level. However, the first intervention that the nurse can provide is to have the client's dietary habits evaluated and changed so that iron levels can increase. Vitamin K is involved with clotting, not with iron stores.

The nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient during a physical assessment. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse? a. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node b. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node c. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes d. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

ANS: A Enlarged and nontender nodes are suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Firm nodes are an expected finding in an area of infection. The superficial lymph nodes are usually not palpable in adults, but if they are palpable, they are normally 0.5 to 1 cm and nontender.

The manifestation the nurse would question the client about that is characteristically associated with anemia is a. fatigue. b. pruritus. c. rash. d. ruddy skin color.

ANS: A Fatigue is one of the most common manifestations of anemia. Other frequent complaints include paleness, weakness, bleeding disorders with petechiae, epistaxis, and bleeding gums, or recurrent infections and fever. A rash or pruritus could indicate an allergic manifestation.

The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old male client. Which blood value indicates that the client is experiencing normal changes associated with aging? a. Hemoglobin 13.0 g/dL b. Platelet count 100000/mm3 c. Prothrombin time (PT) 14 seconds d. White blood cell (WBC) count 5000/mm3

ANS: A Hemoglobin levels in men and women fall after middle age. Therefore, this client's hemoglobin value would be considered part of the aging process. Platelet counts and blood-clotting times are not age related

The nurse is assessing a client with numerous areas of bruising. Which question does the nurse ask to determine the cause of this finding? a. Do you take aspirin? b. How often do you exercise? c. Are you a vegetarian? d. How often do you take Tylenol?

ANS: A Platelet aggregation is essential for blood clotting. An inability to clot blood when an injury occurs can result in bleeding, which would cause bruising. Aspirin is a drug that interferes with platelet aggregation and has the ability to "plug" an extrinsic event, such as trauma. Vitamin K found in green vegetables enhances clotting factors, which would improve the ability to stop bleeding associated with an extrinsic event. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) and exercise do not inhibit clotting factors.

A client has severe anemia and is being treated with transfusion therapy. The nurse should be alert for a complication of transfusion such as a. flank pain. b. hearing loss. c. liver damage. d. sore throat.

ANS: A Reactions to blood products include fever, chills, back or flank pain, shock, wheezing, headache, vomiting, or urticaria (hives).

The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. Do you take salicylates? b. Are you taking any oral contraceptives? c. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs? d. How long have you taken antihypertensive drugs?

ANS: A Salicylates interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Antiseizure drugs may cause anemia, but not clotting disorders or bleeding. Oral contraceptives increase a person's clotting risk. Antihypertensives do not usually cause problems with decreased clotting.

A nurse is explaining the purpose of a bone marrow biopsy (BMB) to a client. The information the nurse provides is that a bone marrow biopsy is done to evaluate a. blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia or leukemia. b. hemoglobin and hematocrit production. c. specific parts of the white cell differentiation. d. total numbers and types of different lymphocytes.

ANS: A Several blood dyscrasias can be identified through a BMB, including aplastic anemia, leukemia, pernicious anemia, and thrombocytopenia. The biopsy reveals the number, size, and shape of the RBCs, WBCs, and platelet precursors.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has a splenectomy. Which statement does the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? a. Avoid crowds and people who are sick. b. Do not eat raw fruits or vegetables. c. Avoid environmental allergens. d. Do not play contact sports.

ANS: A The spleen is the major site of B-lymphocyte maturation and antibody production. Those who undergo splenectomies for any reason have a decreased antibody-mediated immune response and are particularly susceptible to viral infections. Eating raw fruits and vegetables places the client at risk for bacterial infections. The body responds to environmental allergens with an unspecific inflammatory process. The client is not at risk for bleeding or injury due to contact sports.

The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Avoid intramuscular injections. b. Encourage increased oral fluids. c. Check temperature every 4 hours. d. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.

ANS: A Thrombocytopenia is a decreased number of platelets, which places the patient at high risk for bleeding. Neutropenic patients are at high risk for infection and sepsis and should be monitored frequently for signs of infection. Encouraging fluid intake and iron-rich food intake is not indicated in a patient with thrombocytopenia.

The nurse is assessing a client whose warfarin (Coumadin) therapy was discontinued 3 weeks ago. Which laboratory test result indicates that the client's warfarin therapy is no longer therapeutic? a. International normalized ratio (INR) 0.9 b. Reticulocyte count 1% c. Serum ferritin level 350 ng/mL d. Total white blood cell (WBC) count 9000/mm3

ANS: A Warfarin therapy increases the INR. Normal INR ranges between 0.7 and 1.8. Therapeutic warfarin levels, depending on the indication of the disorder, should maintain the INR between 1.5 and 3.0. When the effects of warfarin are no longer present, the INR returns to normal levels. Warfarin therapy does not affect white blood cell count, serum ferritin level, or reticulocyte count.

A client is having a bone marrow biopsy and is extremely anxious. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess client fears and coping mechanisms. b. Reassure the client this is a common test. c. Sedate the client prior to the procedure. d. Tell the client he or she will be asleep.

ANS: A Assessing the client's specific fears and coping mechanisms helps guide the nurse in providing holistic care that best meets the client's needs. Reassurance will be helpful but is not the best option. Sedation is usually used. The client may or may not be totally asleep during the procedure.

The health care provider tells the nurse that a client is to be started on a platelet inhibitor. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach the client? a. Clopidogrel (Plavix) b. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) c. Reteplase (Retavase) d. Warfarin (Coumadin)

ANS: A Clopidogrel is a platelet inhibitor. Enoxaparin is an indirect thrombin inhibitor. Reteplase is a fibrinolytic agent. Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist.

A client is receiving rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and asks the nurse to explain how it works. What response by the nurse is best? a. It inhibits thrombin. b. It inhibits fibrinogen. c. It thins your blood. d. It works against vitamin K.

ANS: A Rivaroxaban is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It does not work on fibrinogen or vitamin K. It is not a "blood thinner," although many clients call anticoagulants by this name.

A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What action is best? a. Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. b. Have the client open the hand widely. c. Look at the roof of the client's mouth. d. Palpate for areas of mild swelling.

ANS: A To assess pallor in dark-skinned people, assess the conjunctiva of the eye or the mucous membranes. Looking at the roof of the mouth can reveal jaundice. Opening the hand widely is not related to pallor, nor is palpating for mild swelling.

The nurse is teaching a client who is receiving sodium warfarin (Coumadin). Which topics does the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Foods high in vitamin K b. Using acetaminophen (Tylenol) for minor pain c. Daily exercise and weight management d. Use of a safety razor and soft toothbrush e. Blood testing regimen

ANS: A, B, D, E The client on warfarin will need to know which foods are high in vitamin K because vitamin K intake must be consistent to avoid interfering with the anticoagulant properties of warfarin. Clients should not take aspirin or NSAIDs for minor pain owing to their anticoagulant properties. Clients must use safety razors and soft toothbrushes to avoid bleeding episodes. The client on warfarin needs regular blood tests for prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Daily exercise and weight management are not specifically important to this client.

A student nurse learns that the spleen has several functions. What functions do they include? (Select all that apply.) a. Breaks down hemoglobin b. Destroys old or defective red blood cells (RBCs) c. Forms vitamin K for clotting d. Stores extra iron in ferritin e. Stores platelets not circulating

ANS: A, B, E Functions of the spleen include breaking down hemoglobin released from RBCs, destroying old or defective RBCs, and storing the platelets that are not in circulation. Forming vitamin K for clotting and storing extra iron in ferritin are functions of the liver.

An older client asks the nurse why "people my age" have weaker immune systems than younger people. What responses by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Bone marrow produces fewer blood cells. b. You may have decreased levels of circulating platelets. c. You have lower levels of plasma proteins in the blood. d. Lymphocytes become more reactive to antigens. e. Spleen function declines after age 60.

ANS: A, C The aging adult has bone marrow that produces fewer cells and decreased blood volume with fewer plasma proteins. Platelet numbers remain unchanged, lymphocytes become less reactive, and spleen function stays the same.

The nurse is monitoring a client with liver failure. Which assessments does the nurse perform when monitoring for bleeding in this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Gums b. Lung sounds c. Urine d. Stool e. Hair

ANS: A, C, D The liver is the site for production of clotting factors. Without these factors, the client is at risk for bleeding. Common areas of bleeding include the gums and mucous membranes, bladder, and gastrointestinal tract. Lung sounds and hair are part of the assessment but are not essential in the presence of liver failure and hematologic abnormalities.

A client presents to the ambulatory care center seeking treatment for allergies. When questioning the client the nurse would inquire about (Select all that apply) a. a history of desensitization shots and their effectiveness. b. presence of fatigue headaches or weakness. c. previous anaphylactic reactions to food. d. seasonal variation in manifestations. e. triggers known to cause manifestations.

ANS: A, C, D, E All four options are related to allergies. The client with allergies would most likely complain of rhinitis, sinusitis, urticaria, and pruritus, and not fatigue, headache, or weakness.

A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test? a. ABO blood typing b. Bone marrow biopsy c. Abdominal ultrasound d. Complete blood count (CBC)

ANS: B A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. The other procedures do not require a signed consent by the patient or guardian.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes an aPTT level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication? a. Aspirin b. Heparin c. Warfarin d. Erythropoietin

ANS: B Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) assesses intrinsic coagulation by measuring factors I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII. aPTT is increased (prolonged) in heparin administration. aPTT is used to monitor whether heparin is at a therapeutic level (needs to be greater than the normal range of 25 to 35 sec). Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are most commonly used to test for therapeutic levels of warfarin (Coumadin). Aspirin affects platelet function. Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production.

The nurse is completing the preoperative checklist on a client. The client states "I take an aspirin every day for my heart." How does the nurse respond? a. "I will call your doctor and request a prescription for pain medication." b. "I need to call the surgeon and reschedule your surgery." c. "I'll give you the prescribed Tylenol to minimize any headache before surgery." d. "I need to administer vitamin K to prevent bleeding during the procedure."

ANS: B Aspirin and other salicylates interfere with platelet aggregation—the first step in the blood-clotting cascade—and decrease the ability of the blood to form a platelet plug. These effects last for longer than 1 week after just one dose of aspirin. The client may need to have the surgery rescheduled. Vitamin K, prescribed pain medication, and Tylenol cannot reduce the anticlotting effects of aspirin.

Several employees report allergic manifestations. The occupational health nurse would focus an investigation on the workplace's a. food service vendor. b. heating and cooling systems. c. lighting. d. water supply.

ANS: B Exposure to allergens at work may trigger reactions. Ask about the heating and cooling systems if airborne allergens are suspected.

A client has a hematocrit (Hct) of 30%. The nurse interprets this to mean a. 30% of the blood will be plasma and plasma products. b. bleeding disorders are possible. c. the blood is viscous and concentrated. d. the individual has fewer red blood cells than normal.

ANS: B Hematocrit measures the percent volume of red cells in whole blood. The normal value in adult women is 37% to 45%.

The nurse should anticipate an elevated hemoglobin level in a a. 40-year-old woman with congestive heart failure. b. client who lives in Colorado. c. client with iron deficiency anemia. d. dehydrated elderly client being given IV fluids.

ANS: B Hemoglobin levels are frequently elevated in people who live in high altitudes (above 10,000 feet). The other three clients would not show an elevated hemoglobin level.

In evaluating a young woman the following laboratory result the nurse recognizes as abnormal is a. hemoglobin 13 g/dl. b. platelet count 20000/mm3. c. red blood cell count 5 million/mm3. d. white blood cell count 6000/mm3.

ANS: B Normal platelet count is 150,000/mm3.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. How does the nurse evaluate the therapeutic effect of the therapy? a. Evaluate platelets. b. Monitor the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). c. Assess bleeding time. d. Monitor fibrin degradation products.

ANS: B The PTT assesses the intrinsic clotting cascade. Heparin therapy is monitored by the PTT. Platelets are monitored by the platelet count laboratory value, bleeding time evaluates vascular and platelet activity during hemostasis, and fibrin degradation products help assess for fibrinolysis.

A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding? a. Have you had a recent weight loss? b. Do you have any history of lung disease? c. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools? d. What is your dietary intake of meats and protein?

ANS: B The hemoglobin and hematocrit results indicate polycythemia, which can be associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The other questions would be appropriate for patients who are anemic.

The nurse is teaching a client who has undergone a bone marrow biopsy. Which instruction does the nurse give the client? a. Wear protective gear when playing contact sports. b. Monitor the biopsy site for bruising. c. Remain in bed for at least 12 hours. d. Use a heating pad for pain at the biopsy site.

ANS: B The most important instruction is to have the client monitor the area for external or internal bleeding. Activities such as contact sports should be avoided, and an ice pack can be used to limit bruising.

The nurse is planning care for a client who has a platelet count of 30000/mm3. Which intervention does the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Oxygen by nasal cannula b. Bleeding Precautions c. Isolation Precautions d. Vital signs every 4 hours

ANS: B The normal platelet count ranges between 150,000 and 400,000/mm3. This client is at extreme risk for bleeding. Although it is necessary to notify the provider, the nurse would first protect the client by instituting Bleeding Precautions. The other interventions are not related to the low platelet count.

The nurse helps to ambulate a client who has anemia. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client is not tolerating the activity? a. Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg b. Heart rate of 110 beats/min c. Pulse oximetry reading of 95% d. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min

ANS: B The red blood cells contain thousands of hemoglobin molecules. The most important feature of hemoglobin is its ability to combine loosely with oxygen. A low hemoglobin level can cause decreased oxygenation to the tissues, thus causing a compensatory increase in heart rate. The other options are close to normal range and are not indicative of not tolerating this activity.

A client is having a bone marrow biopsy today. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer pain medication first. b. Ensure valid consent is on the chart. c. Have the client shower in the morning. d. Premedicate the client with sedatives.

ANS: B A bone marrow biopsy is an invasive procedure that requires informed consent. Pain medication and sedation are important components of care for this client but do not take priority. The client may or may not need or be able to shower.

A nursing student learns that many drugs can impair the immune system. Which drugs does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Amphotericin B (Fungizone) c. Ibuprofen (Motrin) d. Metformin (Glucophage) e. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

ANS: B, C, E Amphotericin B, ibuprofen, and nitrofurantoin all can disrupt the hematologic (immune) system. Acetaminophen and metformin do not.

A nurse works in a gerontology clinic. What age-related changes cause the nurse to alter standard assessment techniques from those used for younger adults? (Select all that apply.) a. Dentition deteriorates with more cavities. b. Nail beds may be thickened or discolored. c. Progressive loss of hair occurs with age. d. Sclerae begin to turn yellow or pale. e. Skin becomes dry as the client ages.

ANS: B, C, E Common findings in older adults include thickened or discolored nail beds, dry skin, and thinning hair. The nurse adapts to these changes by altering assessment techniques. Having more dental caries and changes in the sclerae are not normal age-related changes.

The nurse notes that a client has a higher than normal reticulocyte count. This would indicate a. bone marrow depression. b. dehydration. c. increased erythrocyte production. d. polycythemia vera.

ANS: C An increase in the reticulocyte count indicates an increase in erythrocyte production, probably because of excessive RBC destruction (hemolytic anemia) or loss (hemorrhage).

The nurse is preparing a client for a bone biopsy and aspiration. The client asks "Will this be painful?" How does the nurse respond? a. "The procedure is always done under general anesthesia." b. "The biopsy lasts for only 2 minutes." c. "There is a chance that you may have pain." d. "You can relieve pain with guided imagery."

ANS: C Clients may have pain during this procedure. The type and amount of anesthesia or sedation depend on the physician's preference, the client's preference, and previous experience with bone marrow aspiration. The procedure takes from 5 to 15 minutes. Guided imagery can relieve pain but works well only with some clients.

The nurse is assessing a client's susceptibility to rejecting a transplanted kidney. Which result does the nurse recognize as increasing the client's chances of rejection? a. Decreased T-lymphocyte helper b. Decreased white blood cell count c. Increased cytotoxic-cytolytic T cell d. Increased neutrophil count

ANS: C Cytotoxic-cytolytic T cells function to attack and destroy non-self-cells, specifically virally infected cells and cells from transplanted grafts and organs. A high level of these cells would increase the chances of rejection. Decreased white blood cells would indicate immune suppression. Neutrophils are increased during an infection.

The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Yellow-tinged sclerae b. Shiny smooth tongue c. Numbness of the extremities d. Gum bleeding and tenderness

ANS: C Extremity numbness is associated with cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency or pernicious anemia. Loss of the papillae of the tongue occurs with chronic iron deficiency. Yellow-tinged sclera is associated with hemolytic anemia and the resulting jaundice. Gum bleeding and tenderness occur with thrombocytopenia or neutropenia.

The nurse is monitoring the laboratory test results for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. The nurse is aware that the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for most clinical conditions requiring anticoagulation is a. less than 1. b. 1 to 2. c. 2 to 3.5. d. 3 to 5.5.

ANS: C For most clinical conditions that necessitate anticoagulation, the recommended INR is 2 to 3.5.

A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find? a. Hematocrit of 46% b. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL c. Elevated reticulocyte count d. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count

ANS: C Hemorrhage causes the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation. The hematocrit and hemoglobin levels are normal. The WBC count is not affected by bleeding.

A female client is admitted with the medical diagnosis of anemia. The nurse assesses for which potential cause? a. Diet high in meat and fat b. Daily intake of aspirin c. Heavy menses d. Smoking history

ANS: C Iron levels can be low because intake of iron is too low, or because loss of iron through bleeding is excessive. A premenopausal woman may be having unusually heavy menses sufficient to cause excessive loss of blood and iron. Smoking and aspirin do not cause iron deficiency. A diet high in meat provides iron.

The nurse observes yellow-tinged sclera in a client with dark skin. Based on this assessment finding what does the nurse do next? a. Assess the client's pulses. b. Examine the soles of the client's feet. c. Inspect the client's hard palate. d. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.

ANS: C Jaundice can best be observed in clients with dark skin by inspecting the oral mucosa, especially the hard palate, for yellow discoloration. Because sclera may have subconjunctival fat deposits that show a yellow hue, and because foot calluses may appear yellow, neither of these areas should be used to assess for jaundice. The client's pulse and lung sounds have no correlation with an assessment of jaundice.

The laboratory test result that would be most helpful to the nurse in the assessment of a client with a bleeding disorder is a. differential count. b. hematocrit. c. platelet count. d. RBC count.

ANS: C Platelets have a key role in blood clotting. An abnormal platelet count would indicate bleeding problems originating from a platelet disorder.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a. Assess the client's fibrinogen level. b. Administer the prescribed iron. c. Maintain strict Standard Precautions. d. Monitor the client's pulse oximetry.

ANS: C The client who is receiving chemotherapy drugs that suppress the bone marrow will be at risk for a decreased white blood cell (WBC) count and infection. The nurse will be most therapeutic by adhering to Standard Precautions to prevent infection, such as handwashing. The nurse will not expect the fibrinogen level to be affected by this therapy. Iron is not typically administered with chemotherapy because this is bone marrow suppression, so the administration of epoetin (Epogen) or filgrastim (Neupogen) is most effective. Monitoring the pulse oximetry is part of routine care and probably would not need to be done continuously.

The nurse is caring for four clients with hematologic-type problems. Which client does the nurse prioritize to see first? a. 18-year-old female with decreased protein levels b. 36-year-old male with increased lymphocytes c. 60-year-old female with decreased erythropoietin d. 82-year-old male with an increased thromboxane level

ANS: C The kidney releases more erythropoietin when tissue oxygenation levels are low. This growth factor then stimulates the bone marrow to increase red blood cell (RBC) production, which improves tissue oxygenation and prevents hypoxia. Hypoxia causes the body to increase its respiratory rate to overcome decreased oxygenation of the tissues. All these clients are important, but the woman with decreased erythropoietin takes priority because of her risk for hypoxia.

The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 46-year-old client who states "I have been drinking a 12-pack of beer every day for the past 20 years." Which laboratory abnormality does the nurse correlate with this history? a. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count b. Decreased bleeding time c. Elevated prothrombin time (PT) d. Elevated red blood cell (RBC) count

ANS: C The liver is the site for production of prothrombin and most of the blood-clotting factors. If the liver is damaged because of chronic alcoholism, it is unable to produce these clotting factors. Therefore, the PT could become elevated, which would reflect deficiency of some clotting factors. The WBC would not be elevated in this situation because no infection is present. Bleeding time would likely increase. The client's RBC count most likely would not be affected unless the client was bleeding, in which case it would decrease.

The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a shift to the left. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Cool extremities b. Pallor and weakness c. Elevated temperature d. Low oxygen saturation

ANS: C The term shift to the left indicates that the number of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands) is elevated and that finding is a sign of infection. There is no indication that the patient is at risk for hypoxemia, pallor/weakness, or cool extremities.

A client who has a chronic vitamin B12 deficiency is admitted to the hospital. When obtaining the client's health history which priority question does the nurse ask this client? a. Are you having any pain? b. Are you having blood in your stools? c. Do you notice any changes in your memory? d. Do you bruise easily?

ANS: C Vitamin B12 deficiency impairs cerebral, olfactory, spinal cord, and peripheral nerve function. Severe chronic deficiency may cause permanent neurologic degeneration. The other options are not symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency.

A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8 b. Client with a platelet count of 128000/mm3 c. Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds d. Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/µL

ANS: C A normal PT is 11 to 12.5 seconds. This client is at high risk of bleeding. The other values are within normal limits.

The nurse is assessing the following laboratory results of a client before discharge. Which instruction does the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan? Test Result: Hemoglobin 15 g/dL Hematocrit 45% White blood cell (WBC) count 2000/mm3 Platelet count 250000/mm3 a. "Avoid contact sports." b. "Do not take any aspirin." c. "Eat a diet high in iron." d. "Perform good hand hygiene."

ANS: D A normal WBC count is 5000 to 10,000/mm3. A white blood cell count of 2000/mm3 is low and makes this client at risk for infection. Good handwashing technique is the best way to prevent the transmission of infection. The other laboratory results are all within normal limits.

The nurse is assessing a client with liver failure. Which assessment is the highest priority for this client? a. Auscultation for bowel sounds b. Assessing for deep vein thrombosis c. Monitoring of blood pressure hourly d. Assessing for signs of bleeding

ANS: D All these options are important in assessment of the client, but the most important action is assessment for signs of bleeding. The liver is the site of production of prothrombin and most of the blood-clotting factors. Clients with liver failure run a high risk of having problems with bleeding.

A nurse reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The nurse would be most concerned about which finding? a. Hematocrit of 35% b. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL c. Platelet count of 400000/µL d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/µL

ANS: D Because the total WBC count is not usually affected by aging, the low WBC count in this patient would indicate that the patient's immune function may be compromised and the underlying cause of the problem needs to be investigated. The platelet count is normal. The slight decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit are not unusual for an older patient.

The nurse reads that an assigned client has an immunodeficiency. The nurse reads further in the medical record anticipating that the client also most likely has a history of a. conjunctivitis. b. severe headaches. c. skin eruptions. d. unexplained weight loss.

ANS: D Clients with immunodeficiencies have a history of recurrent infections, especially of mucous membranes (e.g., oral cavity, anorectal area, genitourinary [GU] tract, respiratory tract), poor wound healing, diarrhea, and manifestations of systemic activation of the immune response.

The health care provider orders a liver/spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure? a. Check for any iodine allergy. b. Insert a large-bore IV catheter. c. Place the patient on NPO status. d. Assist the patient to a flat position.

ANS: D During a liver/spleen scan, a radioactive isotope is injected IV and images from the radioactive emission are used to evaluate the structure of the spleen and liver. An indwelling IV catheter is not needed. The patient is placed in a flat position before the scan.

When assessing a newly admitted patient the nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered? a. Platelet count b. Neutrophil count c. White blood cell count d. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level

ANS: D Pallor of the skin or nail beds is indicative of anemia, which would be indicated by a low Hgb level. Platelet counts indicate a person's clotting ability. A neutrophil is a type of white blood cell that helps to fight infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following an automobile accident. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. Watch for excess bruising. b. Check for swollen lymph nodes. c. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia. d. Wash hands and avoid persons who are ill.

ANS: D Splenectomy increases the risk for infection, especially with gram-positive bacteria. The risks for lymphedema, bleeding, and anemia are not increased after a person has a splenectomy.

The nurse discovers a client is taking the herb St. John's wort. The nurse cautions that this herb reduces the effectiveness of a. lanoxin. b. prednisone. c. theophylline. d. warfarin.

ANS: D The anticoagulation properties of warfarin are diminished if taken in conjunction with St. John's wort.

The nurse reviews the complete blood count (CBC) and white blood cell (WBC) differential of a patient admitted with abdominal pain. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Monocytes 4% b. Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL c. Platelet count 168000/µL d. White blood cells (WBCs) 15500/µL

ANS: D The elevation in WBCs indicates that the patient has an inflammatory or infectious process ongoing, which may be the cause of the patient's pain, and that further diagnostic testing is needed. The monocytes are at a normal level. The hemoglobin and platelet counts are normal.

A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure? a. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. b. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site. c. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound. d. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.

ANS: D To decrease the risk for bleeding, the patient should lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes. After a bone marrow biopsy, the wound is small and will not be packed with gauze. A pressure dressing is used to cover the aspiration site. There is no indication to elevate the patient's head.

The nurse is caring for a client who has an elevated white blood cell count. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a. Administer the prescribed Tylenol. b. Hold the client's prescribed steroids. c. Assess the client's respiratory rate. d. Obtain the client's temperature.

ANS: D White blood cells provide immunity and protect against invasion and infection. An elevated white blood cell count could indicate an infectious process, which could cause an elevation in body temperature. Tylenol would treat a fever but not the elevated white blood cell count. Steroids place the client at higher risk for infection but should not be stopped suddenly. The respiratory rate does not need to be assessed in this client.

A nursing student wants to know why clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease tend to be polycythemic. What response by the nurse instructor is best? a. It is due to side effects of medications for bronchodilation. b. It is from overactive bone marrow in response to chronic disease. c. It combats the anemia caused by an increased metabolic rate. d. It compensates for tissue hypoxia caused by lung disease.

ANS: D In response to hypoxia, more red blood cells are made so more oxygen can be carried and delivered to tissues. This is a physiologic process in response to the disease, it is not a medication side effect, the result of overactive bone marrow, or a response to anemia.

A client is having a radioisotopic imaging scan. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client for shellfish allergies. b. Place the client on radiation precautions. c. Sedate the client before the scan. d. Teach the client about the procedure.

ANS: D The nurse should ensure that teaching is done and the client understands the procedure. Contrast dye is not used, so shellfish/iodine allergies are not related. The client will not be radioactive and does not need radiation precautions. Sedation is not used in this procedure.

A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58000/mm3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage high-protein foods. b. Institute neutropenic precautions. c. Limit visitors to healthy adults. d. Place the client on safety precautions.

ANS: D With a platelet count between 40,000 and 80,000/mm3, clients are at risk of prolonged bleeding even after minor trauma. The nurse should place the client on safety precautions. High-protein foods, while healthy, are not the priority. Neutropenic precautions are not needed as the client's white blood cell count is not low. Limiting visitors would also be more likely related to a low white blood cell count.