Hinkle PrepU Chapter 36: Management of Patients With Immune Deficiency Disorders

Which of the following is a lack of one or more of the five immunoglobulins?

Hypogammaglobulinemia Hypogammaglobulinemia is a lack of one or more of the five immunoglobulins. Agammaglobulinemia is a disorder marked by an almost complete lack of immunoglobulins or antibodies. Panhypoglobulinemia is a general lack of immunoglobulins in the blood. Telangiectasia are vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels.

A majority of clients with CVID develop which type of anemia?

pernicious A majority of clients with CVID develop pernicious anemia. They majority do not develop the other types of anemia listed.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to pneumocystis pneumonia and increased bronchial secretions for a client with AIDS. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

assist with chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours The nurse should include interventions such as assisting with and/or performing chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours to prevent stasis of secretions, assist the client to attain the semi- or high Fowler's position to facilitate breathing and airway clearance, allow for frequent rest periods to prevent excessive fatigue, and maintain a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day unless contraindicated.

A client with AIDS has been tested for cytomegalovirus (CMV) with positive titers. What severe complication should the nurse be alert for with cytomegalovirus?

blindness CMV can infect the choroid and retinal layers of the eye, leading to blindness. It does not lead to hearing impairment. Fatigue and diarrhea may occur but are not as critical as blindness.

A nurse is monitoring the client's progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS clients should the nurse be aware of?

chronic diarrhea Chronic diarrhea is believed related to the direct effect of HIV on cells lining the intestine. Although all gastrointestinal manifestations of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) can be debilitating, the most devastating is chronic diarrhea. It can cause profound weight loss and severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

Which term defines the balance between the amount of HIV in the body and the immune response?

viral set point The viral set point is the amount of virus in the body after the initial immune response subsides is referred to as the viral set point, which results in an equilibrium between HIV levels and the immune response that may be elicited. During the primary infection period, the window period occurs because a person is infected with HIV but negative on the HIV antibody blood test. The period from infection with HIV to the development of antibodies to HIV is known as the primary infection stage. The amount of virus in circulation and the number of infected cells equals the rate of viral clearance.

When learning about HIV/AIDS, the student should be able to differentiate the two subtypes of virus by which characteristic?

HIV-1 is more prevalent than HIV-2 subtypes Two HIV subtypes have been identified: HIV-1 and HIV-2. HIV-1 mutates easily and frequently, producing multiple substrains that are identified by letters from A through O. HIV-2 is less transmittable, and the interval between initial infection with HIV-2 and development of AIDS is longer. HIV-1 is more prevalent in the United States and in the rest of the world. Western Africa is the primary site of infection with HIV-2. There is no cure for HIV/AIDS; hence, no cure rate. The virus is thought to be a mutation of a simian virus. Transmission of the virus is not a characteristic.

A nurse is assessing a client with a primary immunodeficiency. Afterward the nurse documents that the client displayed ataxia. The nurse makes this documentation because the client has

uncoordinated muscle movements Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cerebellar ataxia (loss of muscle coordination).

The nurse is working with a parent whose child has just been diagnosed with selective immunoglobulin A deficiency. The parent asks the nurse, "Does this mean that my child is going to die?" How should the nurse respond?

"Your child has a mild genetic immune deficiency caused by a lack of immunoglobulin A, a type of antibody that protects against infections of the lining the mouth and digestive tract." Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency is congenital and characterized by a lack of immunoglobulin A, which predisposes clients to recurrent infections, adverse reactions to blood transfusions or immunoglobulin, autoimmune diseases, and hypothyroidism. There is no current treatment.

A client with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, an autosomal recessive disorder, asks the nurse, "Will my children have this disease?" Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

"All of your children will be carriers of the recessive gene but may not develop the disease" Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is a rare T-cell disorder, which is thought to be an autosomal recessive disorder that affects both males and females. In pedigrees, an autosomal recessive disorder is revealed by the appearance of the phenotype in the male and female progeny of unaffected individuals. Parents must both be heterozygotes, C/c. (That is, both must have a c allele in order to contribute one to create a homozygote affected child with a cc phenotype displaying the disease.) A child born with Cc will be phenotypically normal but carry the recessive trait.

A client seen in the outpatient clinic has common variable immunodeficiency. It is important for the nurse to teach the client about the need for more frequent screening for which complication?

malignancy Advances in medical treatment have meant that clients with primary immunodeficiencies live longer, thus increasing their overall risk of developing cancer. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas account for most cancers. The primary immunodeficiencies known to be associated with increased incidence of malignancy are common variable immunodeficiency, immunoglobulin A deficiency, and DNA repair disorders.

The nurse is talking with a group of teens about transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What body fluids does the nurse inform them will transmit the virus? Select all that apply.

semen breast milk blood vaginal secretions There are only four known body fluids through which HIV is transmitted: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. HIV may be present in saliva, tears, and conjunctival secretions, but transmission of HIV through these fluids has not been implicated. HIV is not found in urine, stool, vomit, or sweat.

Which is a major manifestation of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

thrombocytopenia Major symptoms of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome include thrombocytopenia, infections, and malignancies. Ataxia occurs with ataxia-telangiectasia. Episodes of edema in various body parts occur with angioneurotic edema. Bacterial infection occurs with hyperimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome.

Reproductive health education for women who are HIV-positive includes recommending which of the following contraceptives?

female condom The female condom, the first barrier method controlled by women, is the only proven, effective method to prevent the transmission of HIV and sexually transmitted infections (STI).

Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS?

herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.

A nursing student has been assigned to care for a client with DiGeorge syndrome. The student has reviewed the clinical manifestations of this syndrome and knows that the most frequent presenting sign is

hypocalcemia Infants born with DiGeorge syndrome have hypoparathyroidism and resultant hypocalcemia resistant to standard therapy, congenital heart disease, cleft palate and lip, dysmorphic facial features, and possibly renal abnormalities.

A client with severe combined immunodeficiency is to receive a hematopoietic stem cell transplant. What would the nurse expect to be started?

immunosuppressive agents For a client undergoing a hematopoietic stem cell transplant, immunosuppression is started to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow. Antibiotic therapy may or may not be indicated. Chest physiotherapy would be appropriate for clients with ataxia-telangiectasis who have chronic lung disease. Anticoagulation would not be used.

The nurse is aware that the most prevalent cause of immunodeficiency worldwide is

malnutrition The most prevalent cause of immunodeficiency worldwide is severe malnutrition.

A client comes in to get an EIA test done because the health care provider suspects HIV. Which nursing action is essential before an EIA test is performed?

obtaining a general consent for medical care of the client Separate written consent for HIV testing should not be required; general consent for medical care should be considered sufficient to encompass consent for HIV testing. Western blotting is performed if the results of the EIA test are positive. A polymerase chain reaction test, which measures viral loads, is used if diagnosis is confirmed as positive.

Which characteristic has NOT been implicated as a factor for noncompliance with antiretroviral treatment?

past substance abuse Factors associated with nonadherence include active substance abuse, depression, and lack of social support, as well as neurocognitive impairment, low health literacy, stressful life events, high levels of alcohol consumption, homelessness, poverty, nondisclosure of HIV serostatus, denial, stigma, and inconsistent access to medications. Past substance abuse has not been implicated as a factor for noncompliance with antiretroviral treatment.

What intervention is a priority when treating a client with HIV/AIDS?

assessing fluid and electrolyte balance Fluid and electrolyte deficits are a priority in monitoring clients with HIV/AIDS, and assessment of fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance is essential. Skin integrity should be monitored but is a lower priority. Neurologic and psychological status should also be monitored, but this is not as high a priority as fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

A client who is HIV positive is receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) that includes a protease inhibitor (PI). The client comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Assessment reveals lipoatrophy of the face and arms. The client states, "I'm thinking the side effects of the drug are worse than the disease. Look what's happening to me." The nurse would most likely identify which nursing diagnosis as the priority?

disturbed body image related to loss of fat in face and arms The client is experiencing lipoatrophy, which results in a localized loss of subcutaneous fat in the face (manifested as sinking of the cheeks, eyes, and temples), arms, legs, and buttocks. These changes as well as his statement about the side effects of the drug being worse than the disease indicate that he is concerned about how he appears to others. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image would be the priority. Deficient knowledge, risk for infection, and risk for impaired liver function may be applicable; however, they are not concerns at this time.

A woman infected with HIV comes into the clinic. What symptoms may be the focus of a medical complaint in women infected with HIV?

gynecologic problems In women with HIV, gynecologic problems, such as abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may be the focus of a majority of complaints. Acute retroviral syndrome (viremia) may be the chief complaint in one third to more than one half of those infected, not necessarily women. Its manifestations include rashes, muscle and joint pain, and weight loss.

A client who is HIV positive is experiencing severe diarrhea. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to find?

hypokalemia Electrolyte imbalances such as decreased sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and chloride typically result from profuse diarrhea. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 would indicate dilute urine. The client with severe diarrhea most likely would be dehydrated, leading to a high urine specific gravity. Proteinuria may suggest renal dysfunction and would not be associated with severe diarrhea unless the client was developing renal failure.

Ataxia refers to

uncoordinated muscle movements Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting both T-cell and B-cell immunity. Telangiectasia refers to vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels. Receptive aphasia is an inability to understand spoken words. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing.

A child has just been diagnosed with a primary immune deficiency. The parents state, "Oh, no. Our child has AIDS." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"Although AIDS is an immune deficiency, your child's condition is different from AIDS." Primary immune deficiencies should be not be confused with AIDS. They are not the same condition. In addition, a primary immune disorder does not increase the child's risk for developing AIDS later in life. Primary immune deficiency diseases are serious, but they are rarely fatal and can be controlled. Testing will reveal the evidence of a primary immune disease, not AIDS. AIDS is classified as a secondary immunodeficiency.

The nurse receives a phone call at the clinic from the family of a client with AIDS. They state that the client started "acting funny" and reported headache, tiredness, and a stiff neck. Checking the temperature resulted in a fever of 103.2°F. What should the nurse inform the family member?

"The client may have cryptococcal meningitis and will need to be evaluated by the healthcare provider" A fungal infection, Cryptococcus neoformans is another common opportunistic infection among clients with AIDS, and it causes neurologic disease. Cryptococcal meningitis is characterized by symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, mental status changes, and seizures.

The nurse is obtaining an assessment and health history from the parents of a 6-month-old infant with an elevated temperature. Which statement by the parents alerts the nurse to a possible immunodeficiency disorder?

"This is the third infection with a high fever the baby has had in the past month" Infants with X-linked agammaglobulinemia usually become symptomatic after the natural loss of maternally transmitted immunoglobulins, which occurs at about 5 to 6 months of age. Symptoms of recurrent pyogenic infections usually occur by that time.

A patient is on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for the treatment of HIV. What does the nurse know would be an adequate CD4 count to determine the effectiveness of treatment for a patient per year?

50/mm3 to 150/mm3 An adequate CD4 response for most patients on HAART is an increase in CD4 count in the range of 50 mm3 to 150 mm3 per year, generally with an accelerated response in the first 3 months.

As part of HAART therapy, a client is prescribed a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). What would be an example of a drug from this class? Select all that apply.

Delavirdine Efavirenz Examples of NNRTIs are delavirdine and efavirenz. Abacavir and stavudine are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). Amprenavir is a protease inhibitor.

A client is suspected of having an immune system disorder. The health care provider wants to perform a diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis. What test should the nurse prepare the client for?

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay T-cell and B-cell assays (or counts) and the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay may be performed. A C-cell assay and plasmapheresis are distractors for this question. A complete chemistry panel is not a diagnostic test for an immune system disorder.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is immunosuppressed. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?

"I can eat whatever I want as long as it's low fat" The client requires additional teaching if he states that he can eat whatever he wants. Immunosuppressed clients should avoid raw fruit and vegetables because they may contain bacteria that could increase the risk of infection; foods must be thoroughly cooked. Avoiding people who are sick, products containing alcohol, and people who have just received vaccines are appropriate actions for an immunosuppressed client.

There are major differences between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. Select the most accurate statement the nurse would use to explain the cause of a secondary immunodeficiency.

"Your immune system was most likely affected by an underlying disease process." A secondary immunodeficiency is the result of an underlying disease process or the treatment of a disorder. It is not genetically inherited. Some examples of a secondary immunodeficiency are chronic stress and diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is preparing to administer the recommended dose of intravenous gamma-globulin for a 60-kg male client. How many grams will the nurse administer?

30 g The optimal dose is determined by the client's response. In most instances, an IV dose of 200-800 mg/kg of body weight is administered every 3-4 weeks to ensure adequate serum levels of immunoglobulin G (IgG).

A client with AIDS has become forgetful with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms?

AIDS dementia complex (ADC) ADC, a neurologic condition, causes the degeneration of the brain, especially in areas that affect mood, cognition, and motor functions. Such clients exhibit forgetfulness, limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. DSP is characterized by abnormal sensations, such as burning and numbness in the feet and later in the hands. Candidiasis is a yeast infection that may develop in the oral, pharyngeal, esophageal, or vaginal cavities or in the folds of the skin. CMV infects the choroid and retinal layers of the eye, leading to blindness, and can also cause ulcers in the esophagus, colitis, diarrhea, pneumonia, and encephalitis.

The nurse is caring for a client whose most recent laboratory values reveal a neutrophil level of 21,000 mm3. When preparing to assess the client, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

assessing the client for signs and symptoms of infection Normal neutrophil levels range from 3,000 to 7,000 mm3. Levels rise in response to infection, so the nurse should monitor the client closely for signs and symptoms of infection. Increased neutrophil levels do not normally affect coagulation or energy levels.

Which microorganism is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS?

cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus. C. neoformans is a fungus that causes an opportunistic infection in clients with HIV/AIDS. M. avium is an acid-fast bacillus that commonly causes a respiratory illness. P. carinii is an organism that is thought to be protozoan but believed to be a fungus based on its structure.

A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about primary immunodeficiencies. When describing these conditions, what would the nurse need to integrate into the presentation?

most cases are typically diagnosed during infancy Most primary immunodeficiencies are diagnosed in infancy, with a male-to-female ratio of 5 to 1. A large fraction of primary immunodeficiencies are not diagnosed until adolescence or early adulthood when the gender distribution equalizes. Secondary immunodeficiencies are more common than primary immunodeficiencies.

A client taking abacavir has developed fever and rash. What is the priority nursing action?

report to the healthcare provider Fever and a rash could be indicative of a hypersensitivity reaction. Hypersensitivity reactions are also known as anaphylactic reactions and often involve skin rashes, fever, and bronchopulmonary issues such as bronchial constriction. The health care provider should be notified immediately and the medication stopped. Interventions need to be taken to assure that the client's airway is not compromised. Administering acetaminophen and documentation and treating the rash are not the priority and would be completed after the client is stabilized.

Nursing students are reviewing the pathophysiology of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). They demonstrate understanding of the information when they state which of the following as the form of the genetic viral material?

ribonucleic acid (RNA) HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genetic material in the form of RNA rather than DNA. HIV consists of a viral core containing the viral RNA, surrounded by an envelope consisting of protruding glycoproteins.

A client is diagnosed with pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). What medication does the nurse anticipate educating the client about for treatment?

TMP-SMZ TMP-SMZ (Bactrim, Cotrim, Septra) is the treatment of choice for PCP; it is as effective as parenteral pentamidine isethionate (Pentacarinat) and more effective than other regimens.

Which client is more at risk of becoming infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

a person having casual intercourse with multiple partners People who have casual intercourse with multiple partners are at a greater risk of acquiring HIV. Women who have never had intercourse are at the least risk because HIV spreads through body fluids, such as semen, vaginal secretions, and blood. The risks of women who have had deliveries after the age of 40 or men who use sildenafil (Viagra) before having intercourse are yet to be established.

When do most perinatal HIV infections occur?

after exposure during delivery Mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1 may occur in utero or through breastfeeding, but most perinatal infections are thought to occur after exposure during delivery.

A patient with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is extremely fatigued and not feeling well. What lab test does the nurse anticipate the patient will have to detect a common development related to the disease?

b12 level More than 50% of patients with CVID develop pernicious anemia, a condition in which the body cannot make enough red blood cells due to an inability to absorb vitamin B12.

When describing the effects of treatment for phagocytic cell disorders, which of the following would the nurse include as being the most successful?

hematopoietic stem cell transplant Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation has proven to be a successful curative modality for phagocytic disorders. The effectiveness of antibiotic therapy is variable and depends on the factors associated with the infection, such as epidemiology, susceptibility, resistance, availability, and cost. Granulocyte infusions are seldom successful because of the short half-life of these cells. Gene therapy is promising but further study and improvements are needed.

A client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks how the health care provider determines what his or her viral load is. What is the nurse's best response?

the healthcare providers can have a polymerase chain reaction test run The p24 antigen test and polymerase chain reaction test measure viral loads. They are used to guide drug therapy and follow the progression of the disease. Options A, B, and C are incorrect, as these tests do not determine the client's viral load.

The lower the client's viral load,

the longer the survival time The lower the client's viral load, the longer the time to AIDS diagnosis and the longer the survival time. The key goal of antiretroviral therapy is to achieve and maintain durable viral suppression.

The majority of patient with primary immunodeficiency are in which age group?

younger than 20 About 80% of the patients with primary immunodeficiency are younger than age 20 years.

A client is beginning highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The client demonstrates an understanding of the need for follow up when scheduling a return visit for viral load testing at which time?

6 weeks Viral load tests are measured immediately before initiating antiretroviral therapy and then again in 2 to 8 weeks. In most clients, adherence to a regimen of potent antiretroviral agents should result in a large decrease in the viral load by 2 to 8 weeks. Therefore, a return visit at 6 weeks would be in this time frame. By 16 to 20 weeks, the viral load should continue to decline, dropping below detectable levels.

A client receiving antiretroviral therapy reports "not urinating enough." What is the nurse's best action?

assess blood urea nitrogen and creatinine Adverse effects associated with antiretroviral therapy include potential nephrotoxicity. Assessing blood urea nitrogen and creatinine for clients who have decreased urination is appropriate. The other answers will not assist the nurse in determining the client's problem, which should be assessed before intervention are administered.

A female client comes to the clinic and tells the nurse, "I think I have another vaginal infection and I also have some wart-like lesions on my vagina. This is happening quite often." What should the nurse consult with the physician regarding?

testing the client of the presence of HIV Abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may correlate with HIV infection. Wearing cotton underwear can help with the prevention of candidiasis but does not address the recurrent vaginal infection that may not be caused by a fungus. Abstaining from sexual intercourse does not address the recurrent vaginal infection. A medicated douche can alter the normal flora of the vaginal wall.

A client suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks the nurse what causes AIDS. What is the best response by the nurse?

the human immunodeficiency virus A pathogen known as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS. HIV/AIDS is not caused by either the streptococcal or the staphylococcal bacteria; it is also not caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.

A nurse is reviewing treatment options with parents of an infant born with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). The nurse recognizes that the parents understand the teaching based on which statement?

"We could have our 10-year-old daughter tested, as the ideal stem cell donor is a human leukocyte antigen-identical sibling." Treatment options for SCID include stem cell and bone marrow transplantation. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is the definitive therapy for SCID; the best outcome is achieved if the disease is recognized and treated early in life. The ideal donor is a human leukocyte antigen-identical sibling.

Which is usually the most important consideration in the decision to initiate antiretroviral therapy?

CD4 counts The most important consideration in decisions to initiate antiretroviral therapy is CD4+ counts.

A client is given a nursing diagnosis of social isolation related to withdrawal of support systems and stigma associated with AIDS. Which outcomes would indicate that the nurse's plan of care was effective? Select all that apply.

Client demonstrates beginning participation in events and activities. Client identifies appropriate sources of assistance and support. Client verbalizes feelings related to the changes imposed by the disease. For the nursing diagnosis of social isolation, outcomes indicating effectiveness of care include demonstrating a beginning level of participation in activities and events, identifying appropriate sources for assistance and support, and verbalizing feelings related to the changes resulting from the disease. Demonstrating knowledge of safer sexual practices and practices to reduce transmission risk are more appropriate for a nursing diagnosis of deficient knowledge.

A nurse is preparing to give a client an infusion of gamma globulin. The nurse knows to stop the infusion if the client experiences which symptoms? Select all that apply.

Flank pain Shaking chills Tightness in the chest Adverse reactions can include reports of flank and back pain, shaking chills, dyspnea, and tightness in the chest, as well as headache, fever, and local reaction at the infusion site.

Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through

biopsy KS is diagnosed through biopsy of the suspected lesions. Visual assessment will not confirm a diagnosis. A computed tomography scan will not assist in determining skin cell changes. Skin scraping is a procedure to collect cells, not to evaluate cells.

Which option should the nurse encourage to replace fluid and electrolyte losses in a client with AIDS?

liquids The nurse should encourage clients with AIDS to consume liquids in order to help replace fluid and electrolyte losses. Gluten and sucrose may increase the complication of malabsorption. Large doses of iron and zinc should be avoided because they can impair immune function.

A client is scheduled to receive an intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) infusion. The client asks the nurse about the infusion's administration and its adverse effects. Which condition should the nurse instruct this client to report immediately?

tickle in the throat Continually assess the client for adverse reactions; be especially aware of complaints of a tickle or lump in the throat, which could be the precursor to laryngospasm that precedes bronchoconstriction.

A client that is HIV+ has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia caused by P. jiroveci. What medication does the nurse expect that the client will take for the treatment of this infection?

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole To prevent and treat Pneumocystis pneumonia, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is prescribed. The other medications are antifungals and used to treat candidiasis.

A client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit. The nurse caring for the client would expect to see what included in the treatment regimen?

IV gamma globulin administration Treatment for ataxia-telangiectasia includes IV gamma globulin, antimicrobial therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. It does not include platelet administration, factor VIII administration, or thymus grafting.

What severe complication does the nurse monitor for in a patient with ataxia-telangiectasia?

overwhelming infection Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cerebellar ataxia (loss of muscle coordination), telangiectasia (vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels), and immune deficiency. The immunologic defects reflect abnormalities of the thymus. The disorder is characterized by some degree of T-cell deficiency, which becomes more severe with advancing age. Immunodeficiency is manifested by recurrent and chronic sinus and pulmonary infections, leading to bronchiectasis.

A nurse knows that more than 50% of clients with CVID develop the following disorder.

pernicious anemia More than 50% of clients with CVID develop pernicious anemia. Although chronic diarrhea may occur in clients with CVID, it does not happen in 50% of them. Hypocalcemia and neutropenia are not concerns for clients with CVID.

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) develops a nonproductive cough, shortness of breath, a fever of 101°F and an O2 saturation of 92%. What infection caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci does the nurse know could occur with this client?

pneumocystis pneumonia The most common life-threatening infection in those living with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), caused by P. jiroveci (formerly P. carinii) (Durham & Lashley, 2010). Without prophylactic therapy, most people infected with HIV will develop PCP. The clinical presentation of PCP in HIV infection is generally less acute than in people who are immunosuppressed as a result of other conditions. Clients with HIV infection initially develop nonspecific signs and symptoms, such as nonproductive cough, fever, chills, shortness of breath, dyspnea, and occasionally chest pain. Arterial oxygen concentrations in clients who are breathing room air may be mildly decreased, indicating minimal hypoxemia.

Which tests tell the physician what the viral load is in a client with HIV/AIDS? Select all that apply.

polymerase chain reaction p24 antigen test It is now possible to measure a person's viral load, the number of viral particles in the blood. The p24 antigen test and polymerase chain reaction test measure viral loads. The ELISA is a screening test for HIV. The Western blot is a diagnostic test for HIV. The T4/T8 ratio determines the status of T lymphocytes.

A client is diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). What would the nurse expect to integrate into the client's plan of care?

preparation for bone marrow transplant For a client with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID), the nurse would include in the plan of care preparing the client for a bone transplant. Antifungal agents are used to treat chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis. Granulocyte-stimulating factors would be used to treat immunodeficiency related to phagocytic dysfunction. A thymus graft would be used to treat DiGeorge syndrome.

A parent brings a young child to the clinic for an evaluation of an infection. The parent states, "my child has been taking antibiotics now for more than 2 months and still doesn't seem any better." During the history and physical examination, what would alert the nurse to suspect a primary immunodeficiency?

10 ear infections in the past year The parent has already reported one of the warning signs associated with primary immunodeficiencies--the use of antibiotics for 2 or more months with little effect. Another warning sign is eight or more new ear infections within 1 year. Therefore, the report of 10 ear infections in the past year would increase the nurse's suspicion. Recurrent, deep skin, or organ abscesses, failure of an infant to gain weight or grow normally, and persistent thrush (yeast infection) in the mouth or elsewhere on the skin after age 1 year would be additional warning signs. A superficial wound on the leg, age-appropriate weight, and a history of a fungal diaper rash would not be considered warning signs.

HIV is harbored within which type of cell?

lymphocyte Because HIV is harbored within lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, any exposure to infected blood results in significant risk of infection. HIV infection is not harbored in platelets, erythrocytes, or nerve cells.

While caring for a patient with pneumocystis pneumonia, the nurse assesses flat, purplish lesions on the back and trunk. What does the nurse suspect these lesions indicate?

Kaposi's sarcoma Kaposi's sarcoma, the most common HIV-related malignancy, is a disease that involves the endothelial layer of blood and lymphatic vessels. Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestation of HIV; they can appear anywhere on the body and are usually brownish pink to deep purple. They may be flat or raised and surrounded by ecchymoses (hemorrhagic patches) and edema (Fig. 37-3).

Antiretroviral medications should be offered to clients with T-cell counts less than

350 cells/mm3 In general, antiretroviral medications should be offered to individuals with a T-cell count less than 350 cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 100,000 copies/mL.

When a nurse infuses gamma globulin intravenously, the rate should not exceed

3ml/min The intravenous infusion should be administered at a slow rate, not to exceed 3 mL/min.

A female client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) receives family-planning counseling. Which statement about safer sex practices for persons with HIV is accurate?

A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. The nurse should caution the client not to have unprotected sex because continued exposure to HIV in a seropositive client may hasten the course of the disease or result in infection with another strain of HIV. Hormonal contraceptives, implants, and injections offer no protection against HIV transmission. The intrauterine device isn't recommended for a client with HIV because it may increase her susceptibility to pelvic inflammatory disease.

Which blood test confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV?

Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA) EIA and Western blotting identify and confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV. ESR is an indicator of the presence of inflammation in the body. p24 antigen test is a blood test that measures viral core protein. Reverse transcriptase is not a blood test. Rather, it is an enzyme that transforms single-stranded RNA into double-stranded DNA.

A client is receiving ganciclovir as part of the treatment for cytomegalovirus retinitis. What would the nurse monitor the results of the client's laboratory tests for?

neutropenia A common reaction to ganciclovir is severe neutropenia. Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia are associated with foscarnet. Ganciclovir is not associated with thrombocytopenia.

A client has discussed therapy for his HIV-positive status. What does the nurse understand is the goal of antiretroviral therapy?

bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level. This level is no more than 500 or 50 copies, depending on the sensitivity of the selected viral load test. It is not possible to reverse the status to a negative, and it cannot eliminate the risk of AIDS but can help with prolonging the asymptomatic stage of HIV. Antiretroviral therapy does not treat mycobacterium avium complex.

A client with paroxysmal hemoglobinuria, a deficiency of complement proteins, reports headache and weakness of the right arm and leg. Based on these symptoms, for which health complication should the nurse assess?

cerebral venous thrombosis Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is an acquired clonal stem cell disorder resulting from a somatic mutation in hematopoietic stem cells. Clinical manifestations may be indolent or life threatening. The disorder is characterized by hemoglobinuria that increases during sleep, as well as intravascular hemolysis, cytopenia, infections, bone marrow hyperplasia, and a high incidence of life-threatening venous thrombosis, which occurs most commonly in the abdominal and cerebral veins.

There are many ethical issues in the care of clients with HIV or HIV/AIDS. What is an ethical issue healthcare providers deal with when caring for clients with HIV/AIDS?

disclosure of the client's condition Despite HIV-specific confidentiality laws, clients infected with AIDS fear that disclosure of their condition will affect employment, health insurance coverage, and even housing. Since healthcare providers do not share a client's diagnosis with a support group, option A is incorrect. Caring for a client with an infectious terminal illness that can be transmitted to other people is a concern for healthcare providers but it is not an ethical issue.

A client with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) comes to the ED reporting tingling and numbness in the hands and feet, muscle weakness, fatigue, and chronic diarrhea. An assessment reveals abdominal tenderness, weight loss, and loss of reflexes. A gastric biopsy shows lymphoid hyperplasia of the small intestine and spleen as well as gastric atrophy. Based on these findings, what common secondary problem has this client developed?

pernicious anemia More than 50% of clients with CVID develop pernicious anemia. Lymphoid hyperplasia of the small intestine and spleen and gastric atrophy, which is detected by biopsy of the stomach, are common findings. Gastrointestinal malabsorption may occur.

A client with HIV will be started on a medication regimen of three medications. What class of drugs will the nurse instruct the client about?

reverse transcriptase inhibitors Reverse transcriptase inhibitors are drugs that interfere with the virus' ability to make a genetic blueprint. A protease inhibitor is a drug that inhibits the ability of virus particles to leave the host cell. The integrase inhibitors are a class of drug that prevents the incorporation of viral DNA into the host cell's DNA. Hydroxyurea is a drug that is used as an adjunct therapy that tries to halt the progression of AIDS.

A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?

risk for injury In a client with AIDS, central nervous system (CNS) deterioration can lead to AIDS-related dementia. This type of dementia impairs cognition and judgment, placing the client at risk for injury. Although Bathing or hygiene self-care deficit and Complicated grieving may be relevant in AIDS, these diagnoses don't take precedence in a client with AIDS-related dementia. Because CNS deterioration results from infection, Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion isn't applicable.

The nurse is gathering data from laboratory studies for a client who has HIV. The clients T4-cell count is 200/mm3, and the client has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia. What does this indicate to the nurse?

the client has converted from HIV infection to AIDS AIDS is the end stage of HIV infection. Certain events establish the conversion of HIV infection to AIDS: a markedly decreased T4 cell count from a normal level of 800 to 200/mm3 and the development of certain cancers and opportunistic infections. The client does not have advanced HIV; they meet the criteria for the development of AIDS. The T4-cell count is not decreasing due to an infection.

A nurse is implementing appropriate infection control precautions for a client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse knows which body fluid is not a means of transmission?

urine HIV is transmitted in body fluids that contain free virions and infected CD4+ T cells. These fluids include blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, and breast milk. Urine is not a body fluid responsible for HIV transmission.

The nurse is admitting a client to the unit with a diagnosis of ataxia-telangiectasia. The nurse would recognize that the client is exhibiting telangiectasia when assessing the presence of what?

vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels Telangiectasia is the term that refers to vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels. Ataxia refers to uncoordinated muscle movement and is a clinical manifestation of combined B-cell and T-cell deficiencies. Telangiectasia is not peripheral edema, vascular lesions, or urticaria.

What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy?

viral load Viral load should be measured at baseline and on a regular basis thereafter because viral load is the most important indicator of response to ART. The other tests are not used in this way.