IB Bio 1 Q1-Q4 Mastery Packets

Before Hershey and Chase's experiment, scientists were unsure whether the hereditary information was carried in A) DNA or protein B) DNA or carbohydrates C) Protein or carbohydrates D) RNA or DNA

(A) DNA or protein

What name is given to the functional compartments of a cell? A) Organelles B) Chloroplasts C) Lysosomes D) Mitochondria E) Nuclei

(A) Organelles

What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus? A) Transport vesicles B) Nucleosomes C) Ribosomes D) Lysosomes E) Peroxisomes

(A) Transport Vesicles

Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______. A) X-ray crystallography studies B) transforming studies C) base rule studies D) bacteriophage studies E) studies of pathogenic bacteria

(A) X-ray crystallography studies

What is a fat or triacylglyceride? A) a lipid made of three fatty acids and glycerol B) a molecule formed from three alcohols C) a protein with tertiary structure D) a carbohydrate with three sugars E) a kind of lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane

(A) a lipid made of three fatty acids and glycerol

Which term most precisely describes the general process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? A) catabolism B) metabolism C) catalysis D) dehydration E) anabolism

(A) catabolism

All of the following molecules are carbohydrates except A) hemoglobin. B) starch. C) cellulose. D) lactose. E) glycogen.

(A) hemoglobin

The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to A) make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA. B) insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids. C) incorporate genes into viruses. D) make DNA from RNA transcripts. E) insert regulatory sequences into eukaryotic genes.

(A) make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA.

A bacterial cell's DNA is found in its ______. A) nucleoid region B) ribosomes C) capsule D) nucleus E) peroxisome

(A) nucleoid region

The ability of a microscope to differentiate between two objects is known as A) resolving power. B) electron microscope. C) cell fractionation. D) magnification.

(A) resolving power.

Many antibiotic drugs are effective against bacteria without hurting humans because the antibiotics rely upon differences in the structure of human and bacterial ____. A) ribosomes B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) carbohydrates E) chromosomes

(A) ribosomes

Similar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are _____. A) surrounded by two membranes B) able to synthesize lipids C) manufactures by the nucleolus D) green E) not bound by membrane

(A) surrounded by two membranes

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA molecules on the basis of A) their lengths. B) their nucleotide sequences. C) the amount of adenine they contain relative to the amount of guanine they contain. D) the amount of adenine they contain relative to the amount of thymine they contain. E) the nucleotide sequence of their sticky ends.

(A) their lengths.

If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine? A) 40% B) 30% C) 60% D) 80% E) 20%

(B) 30%

Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are ______. A) Larger and equally complex B) Larger and more complex C) Smaller and more complex D) Smaller and equally complex E) Smaller and simpler

(B) Larger and more comlex

According to the theory of endosymbiosis, which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other, larger prokarkyotes? A) Centrioles and ribosomes B) Mitochondria and chloroplasts C) Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum D) Vacuoles and lysosomes E) Nucleoli and chromosomes

(B) Mitochondria and chloroplasts

Where does protein synthesis take place? A) On smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) On ribosomes C) In the nucleus D) In the nucleolus E) In the Golgi apparatus

(B) On ribosomes

When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell. A) Plant B) Prokaryotic C) Fungal D) Eukaryotic E) Animal

(B) Prokaryotic

Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane? A) Protein synthesis B) Regulation of the passage of material into and out of the cell C) Control center of the cell D) Intracellular digestion E) Fat synthesis

(B) Regulation of the passage of material into and out of the cell

Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides? A) a five-carbon sugar and a purine or pyrimidine B) a nitrogen base, a phosphate group, and a five-carbon sugar C) a nitrogen base and a five-carbon sugar D) a five-carbon sugar and adenine or uracil E) a nitrogen base and a phosphate group

(B) a nitrogen base, a phosphate group, and a five-carbon sugar

Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______. A) cell wall and contractile vacuole B) cell wall and central vacuole C) nucleus and contractile vacuole D) cell wall and ribosomes E) nucleus and cell wall

(B) cell wall and central vacuole

The chromosome of a bacterium A) is wrapped around proteins. B) has a circular shape. C) is found within the nucleus. D) occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.

(B) has a circular shape.

The maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment is referred to as A) evolution. B) homeostasis. C) natural selection. D) cell theory. E) taxonomy.

(B) homeostasis.

Vitamins are ______. A) required to synthesize most amino acids B) nutrients that we are unable to synthesize and that must be included in our diet C) only required by children D) nutrients that we can synthesize from simpler molecules E) none of the above

(B) nutrients that we are unable to synthesize and that must be included in our diet

Results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms. A) nonpolar covalent bond B) polar covalent bond C) ionic bond D) hydrogen bond E) hydrophobic interaction

(B) polar covalent bond

RNA contains ______, whereas DNA contains ______. A) adenine . . . guanine B) uracil . . . thymine C) cytosine . . . guanine D) nucleotides . . . nucleic acids E) a deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar

(B) uracil . . . thymine

A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s). A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1 E) none; carbon only participates in ionic bonds

(C) 4

Consider a polysaccharide consisting of 828 glucose molecules. The total hydrolysis of the polysaccharide would result in the production of A) 828 glucose molecules and 828 water molecules. B) 827 glucose molecules. C) 828 glucose molecules and no water molecules. D) 827 water molecules. E) 827 glucose molecules and 827 water molecules.

(C) 828 glucose molecules and no water molecules.

Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis? A) Mitochondria B) Ribosome C) Chloroplast D) Nucleolus E) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Chloroplast

Which of the following statements is NOT part of the modern cell theory? A) All organisms are composed of cells B) All cells arise from pre-existing cells C) Different cells are specialized to preform various functions D) The cell is the basic unit of structure and function of all organisms

(C) Different cells are specialized to preform various functions

Whiplike structures used by bacteria for movement are called A) Pili B) Spheres C) Flagella D) Spirilla

(C) Flagella

In plant cells, _____ contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons. A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) central vacuoles D) chloroplasts E) lysosomes

(C) central vacuoles

The process of cellular differentiation is a direct result of A) induction. B) differences in cellular genomes. C) differential gene expression. D) morphogenesis. E) cell division.

(C) differential gene expression.

After replication, ______. A) each new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix B) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands C) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand D) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands E) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands

(C) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand

What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands? A) covalent B) hydrophobic C) hydrogen D) hydrophilic E) ionic

(C) hydrogen

Results from a transfer of electron(s) between atoms. A) nonpolar covalent bond B) polar covalent bond C) ionic bond D) hydrogen bond E) hydrophobic interaction

(C) ionic bond

Covalently connects segments of DNA A) helicase B) nuclease C) ligase D) DNA polymerase E) primase

(C) ligase

Which of the following are nitrogen bases of the pyrimidine type? A) cystine and sucrose B) guanine and glucose C) thymine and cytosine D) glycerol and glycogen E) ribose and deoxyribose

(C) thymine and cytosine

Early 19th-century scientists believed that living organisms differed from nonliving things as a result of possessing a "life force" that could create organic molecules from inorganic matter. The term given to this belief is A) organic evolution. B) inorganic synthesis. C) vitalism. D) materialism. E) mechanism.

(C) vitalism

Catalyzes synthesis of a new strand of DNA A) helicase B) nuclease C) ligase D) DNA polymerase E) primase

(D) DNA polyermase

The ultra structure of a chloroplast could be seen best using A) Cell fractionation B) Light microscopy C) The naked eye D) Electron microscope

(D) Electron microscope

Vacuoles are _______. A) Manufactured by ribosomes B) Composed of microtubules C) Found only in plant cells D) Membranous sacs E) Composed of protein

(D) Membranous sacs

Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus? A) Drug detoxification B) Protein synthesis C) Cellular respiration D) Protein modification E) Intracellular digestion

(D) Protein modification

What is the reason why hydrocarbons are not soluble in water? A) They are hydrophilic. B) They are lighter than water. C) They are large molecules. D) The C-H bond is nonpolar. E) The C-H bond is polar.

(D) The C-H bond is nonpolar.

Who discovered the structure of DNA? A) Franklin B) Hershey and Chase C) Pauling D) Watson and Crick E) Chase

(D) Watson and Crick

The backbone of DNA consists of ______. A) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern B) paired nucleotides C) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern D) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern E) nitrogenous bases

(D) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern

Because they accumulate in the body, excess ingestion of which of the following can have toxic effects? A) sugars B) water-soluble vitamins C) proteins D) fat-soluble vitamins E) calcium and phosphorus

(D) fat-soluble vitamins

Explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another. A) nonpolar covalent bond B) polar covalent bond C) ionic bond D) hydrogen bond E) hydrophobic interaction

(D) hydrogen bond

DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers. A) carbohydrate B) amino acid C) nucleic acid D) nucleotide E) fatty acid

(D) nucleotide

Why must the lagging strand of DNA be replicated in short pieces? A) to make proofreading for errors easier B) otherwise the helix will become distorted C) because of limited space D) the DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction

(D) the DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction

Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by A) the addition of water to each monomer. B) the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers. C) ionic bonding of the monomers. D) the removal of water (condensation). E) connecting monosaccharides together.

(D) the removal of water (condensation).

What name is given to the rigid structure that surrounds and supports a prokaryotic cell? A) Pili B) Nucleoid region C) Plasma membrane D) Capsule E) Cell wall

(E) Cell Wall

Which of the following are characteristics of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A) Mitochondria and nucleus B) Golgi apparatus and ribosomes C) Cytoplasm and a well defined nucleus D) Cell wall, several vesicles and cytoplasm E) Cell membrane, ribosomes and DNA

(E) Cell membrane, ribosomes, and DNA

What are the basic units of life? A) A, G, C, and T B) Organelles C) DNA molecules D) Nuclei E) Cells

(E) Cells

The endomembrane system includes _______. A) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum B) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes and the endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and ribosomes E) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum

(E) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following organelles is NOT defined by a membrane? A) Chloroplast B) Lysosome C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi reticulum E) Ribosome

(E) Ribosome

"Becoming specialized in structure and function" is a definition of A) pattern formation. B) development. C) morphogenesis. D) induction. E) differentiation.

(E) differentiation.

The difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells _____ prokaryotic cells. A) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in B) lack the complexity seen in C) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in D) have DNA, which is lacking in E) have a nucleus surrounded by a membrane, which is lacking in

(E) have a nucleus surrounded by a membrane, which is lacking in

The cloning of "Dolly" was considered a major scientific breakthrough because A) it proved that the pattern of gene expression is controlled at transcription. B) it was evidence that DNA methylation regulates gene expression. C) it was the first time a surrogate mother was used successfully. D) it showed that cells can be arrested in the cell cycle. E) it showed that differentiated adult mammal cells can dedifferentiate.

(E) it showed that differentiated adult mammal cells can be dedifferentiated.

Synthesizes short segments of RNA A) helicase B) nuclease C) ligase D) DNA polymerase E) primase

(E) primase

______ is a hydroxyl group. A) —SH B) —NH2 C) NCOOH D) — H E) —OH

(E) —OH

A) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak

15) This pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele, because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype, then ______. A) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak B) none of the daughters would have a widow's peak C) none of the sons would have a widow's peak D) all of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak E) all of the sons and none of the daughters would have a widow's peak

(B)

A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life form that has DNA. You grow the cells in 15N medium for several generations and then transfer it to 14N medium. Which pattern in Figure 16.1 would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner?

1) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 x F1 cross? A) 3:1 B)1:2:1 C)1:1 D)2:1 E)9:3:3:1

A) 3:1

33) Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis? A) Four haploid cells result. B) Four diploid cells result. C) Four autosomes result. D) Four chiasmata result. E) Two diploid cells result.

A) Four haploid cells result.

5) An individual who is homozygous _____. A) carriers two copies of the same allele for a gene B) expresses the dominant trait C) is a carrier of a genetic disorder D) carriers two different alleles for a gene E) expresses the recessive trait

A) carriers two copies of the same allele for a gene

17) Genes are carried on ______. A) chromosomes B) centrosomes C) centromeres D) chiasma E) nuclei

A) chromosomes

6) To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross the individual with an individual who _____. A) is homozygous recessive for that trait B) has the genotype Aa C) is homozygous dominant for that trait D) is heterozygous for that trait E) expresses the dominant trait

A) is homozygous recessive for that trait

14) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an X-linked dominant. What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia. A) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia. B) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia. C) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia. D) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia. E) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

B ) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

3) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes? A)9:3:3:1 B)1:1 C)2:1 D)3:1 E)1:2:1

B) 1:1

18) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______. A) transposons B) autosomes C) sister chromatids D) centromeres E) polysomes

B) autosomes

26) Which of the following terms belongs with the words synapsis, tetrads, and chiasmata? A) prophase II B) crossing over C) fertilization D) autosomes E) haploid

B) crossing over

12) What is the best explanation for a BbCc x bbcc cross producing offspring in a 5:5:1:1 phenotypic ratio? A) Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment B) linked genes C) polygenic inheritance D) incomplete dominance E) codominance

B) linked genes

4) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome? A) allele B) locus C) chromaddress D) phenotype E) genotype

B) locus

22) Asexual reproduction requires ______ individual(s). A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 0 E) 3

C) 1

25) How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8? A) 4 B) 12 C) 16 D) 8

C) 16

In humans, free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached (e) and the presence of freckles (F) is dominant to the absence of freckles (f). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes and freckles? A) 0% B) 100% C) 25% D) 75% E) 50%

C) 25%

34) A man is brought to court in a paternity case. He has blood type B. The mother also has blood type B. Which blood type of a child would exclude the accused from paternity? A) B B) O C) AB D) B E) None of these choices will exclude.

C) AB

21) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole. B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles. C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles. D) Sister chromatids separate; those inherited from the mother migrate to one pole, and those inherited from the father go to the opposite pole. E) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father.

C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.

19) Sexual intercourse in humans ______. A) produces a haploid individual B) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes C) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell D) prevents genetic disorders E) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote

C) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell

2) Alleles are described as ________. A) homologous chromosomes B) alternate phenotypes C) alternate forms of a gene D) environmental factors that affect gene expression E) heterologous chromsomes

C) alternate forms of a gene

10) Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called _______. A) allosomes B) centromeres C) autosomes D) centrosomes E) nonsexosomes

C) autosomes

31) Mendel's finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the __________. A) law of universal inheritance B) law of dominance C) law of independent assortment D) law of separate convenience

C) law of independent assortment

7) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ______. A) Mendel's principle of segregation B) the chromosomal theory of inheritance C) linkage D) Mendel's law of independent assortment E) crossing over

D) Mendel's law of independent assortment

28) What is a karyotype? A) a unique combination of chromosomes found in a gamete B) a system of classifying cell nuclei C) the genotype of an individual D) a display of homologous chromosomes of a cell organized in relation to their number, size, and type E) the phenotype of an individual

D) a display of homologous chromosomes of a cell organized in relation to their number, size, and type

29) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is A) a somatic cell of a female. B) a somatic cell of a male. C) an ovum. D) a sperm cell. E) a zygote.

D) a sperm cell.

24) The human genome project involved A) storing genetic information in databases that are accessible to the public B) determining the sequences of DNA base pairs C) determining the location of genes on chromosomes D) all of the above

D) all of the above

35) Trisomy is a mutation that results in a cell having an extra A) gene. B) codon. C) nitrogen base. D) chromosome.

D) chromosome.

20) How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II? A) one-half as much B) the same amount C) one-quarter as much D) four times as much E) twice as much

D) four times as much

9) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ________. A) will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis B) cannot reproduce C) has cystic fibrosis D) is a carrier E) cannot have children with cystic fibrosis

D) is a carrier

16) What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the following cross: AaBb × AaBb? In this example, A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b. A) 4:4:4:4 B) 1:1:1:1 C) 8:4:2:2 D) 16:0:0:0 E) 9:3:3:1

E) 9:3:3:1

30) What are the sources of genetic variation in sexual life cycles of animals? A) random fertilization B) crossing over during meiosis C) independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis D) B and C E) A, B, and C

E) A, B, and C

23) ______ represent sites of crossing over. A) Centromeres B) Tetrads C) Synapses D) Centrosomes E) Chiasma

E) Chiasma

13) Red-green color blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind? A) Though he has normal color vision, the man is actually homozygous for red-green color blindness. B) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind. C) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness. D) The man's mother carrier an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression of the trait skipped a generation. E) He can't (unless there is a mutation).

E) He can't (unless there is a mutation).

11) What is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes (polygenic inheritance)? A) Pleiotropy occurs. B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed. C) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of offspring expressing the dominant. A mating between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous individual produces offspring who all have the same phenotype. E) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

E) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

27) The X and the Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes because A) the number of Y chromosomes determines the sex of the individual. B) females have X chromosomes and males have Y chromosomes. C) they are formed only as a result of fertilization. D) they are present only when cells undergo meiosis. E) genes located on these chromosomes play a role in determining the sex of the individual.

E) genes located on these chromosomes play a role in determining the sex of the individual.

32) Homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of a dividing cell during A) mitosis. B) binary fission. C) fertilization. D) meiosis II. E) meiosis I.

E) meiosis I.

(A) a saturated fatty acid

What is the molecule illustrated above? A) a saturated fatty acid B) similar in structure to a steroid C) a polyunsaturated triglyceride D) a common component of plant oils E) an unsaturated fatty acid

(A) a steroid

What is the structure shown above(Ignore caption)? A) a steroid B) a protein C) a cellulose molecule D) a starch molecule E) a nucleic acid polymer

(E) D is the child of A and B.

Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) B is the child of A and C. B) D is the child of A and C. C) A is the child of C and D. D) D is the child of B and C. E) D is the child of A and B.