immunity

A clinic nurse is working with an older client. What action is most important for preventing infections in this client? a. Assessing vaccination records for booster shot needs b. Encouraging the client to eat a nutritious diet c. Instructing the client to wash minor wounds carefully d. Teaching hand hygiene to prevent the spread of microbes

ANS: A Older adults may have insufficient antibodies that have already been produced against microbes to which they have been exposed. Therefore, older adults need booster shots for many vaccinations they received as younger people. A nutritious diet, proper wound care, and hand hygiene are relevant for all populations.

A client calls the clinic to report exposure to poison ivy and an itchy rash that is not helped with over-the-counter antihistamines. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Antihistamines do not help poison ivy." b. "There are different antihistamines to try." c. "You should be seen in the clinic right away." d. "You will need to take some IV steroids."

ANS: A Since histamine is not the mediator of a type IV reaction such as with poison ivy, antihistamines will not provide relief. The nurse would educate the client about this. The client does not need to be seen right away. The client may or may not need steroids; they may be given either IV or orally.

A nurse learning about antibody-mediated immunity learns that the cell with the most direct role in this process begins development in which tissue or organ? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Tonsils

ANS: A The B-cell is the primary cell in antibody-mediated immunity and is released from the bone marrow. These cells then travel to other organs and tissues, known as the secondary lymphoid tissues for B-cells.

A nurse is caring for a client with HIV-III who was admitted with HAND. What sign or symptom would be most important for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider? a. Nausea b. Change in pupil size c. Weeping open lesions d. Cough

ANS: B HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is a sign of neurologic involvement. The nurse would report any sign of increasing intracranial pressure immediately, including change in pupil size, level of consciousness, vital signs, or limb strength. The other signs and symptoms are not life threatening and would be documented and reported appropriately.

A client has a leg wound that is in Stage II of the inflammatory response. For what sign or symptom does the nurse assess? a. Noticeable rubor b. Purulent drainage c. Swelling and pain d. Warmth at the site

ANS: B During the second phase of the inflammatory response, neutrophilia occurs, producing pus. Rubor (redness), swelling, pain, and warmth are cardinal signs of the general inflammatory process.

A client with HIV-III asks the nurse why gabapentin is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Gabapentin can be used as an antidepressant too." b. "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug." c. "This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation." d. "You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections."

A client with HIV-III asks the nurse why gabapentin is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Gabapentin can be used as an antidepressant too." b. "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug." c. "This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation." d. "You are at risk for seizures due to fungal infections."

A primary health care provider notifies the nurse that a client has a "bandemia." What action does the nurse anticipate? a. Administer antibiotics. b. Place the client in isolation. c. Administer IV leukocytes. d. Obtain an immunization history.

ANS: A A bandemia, or shift to the left, in the white count differential means that an acute, continuing infection has placed so much stress on the immune system that the most numerous type of neutrophil in circulation are immature, or band cells. The nurse would anticipate administering antibiotics. The client may or may not need isolation. Leukocyte infusion and immunization history are not relevant.

The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective? a. Consistent use of Standard Precautions b. Double-gloving before body fluid exposure c. Labeling charts and armbands "HIV+" d. Wearing a mask within 3 feet (1 m) of the client

ANS: A According to The Joint Commission, the most effective preventative measure to avoid HIV exposure is consistent use of Standard Precautions. Standard Precautions are required by the CDC. Double-gloving is not necessary. Labeling charts and armbands in this fashion is a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Wearing a mask within 3 feet (1 m) of the client is not necessary with every client contact.

A client with HIV-III is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposi sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important for the nurse's safety? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly

ANS: A All of the actions are important, but due to the infectious nature of this illness, the nurse would ensure he or she is following Standard Precautions (and Transmission-Based Precautions when necessary) to avoid a potential exposure.

The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse would teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest? a. Anal intercourse b. Masturbation c. Oral sex d. Vaginal intercourse

ANS: A Anal intercourse is the riskiest sexual practice because the fragile anal tissue can tear, creating a portal of entry fo r human immune deficiency virus in addition to providing mucus membrane contact with the virus.

A nurse is assessing an older client for the presence of infection. The client's temperature is 97.6° F (36.4° C). What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for more specific signs. b. Conclude that an infection is not present. c. Document findings and continue to monitor. d. Request the primary health care provider order blood cultures.

ANS: A Because older adults have decreased immune function, including reduced neutrophil function, fever may not be present during an episode of infection. The nurse would assess the client for specific signs of infection. Documentation needs to occur, but a more thorough assessment comes first. Blood cultures may or may not be needed depending on the results of further assessment.

A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine autoinjector. What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed? a. "I don't need to go to the hospital after using it." b. "I must carry two autoinjectors with me at all times." c. "I will write the expiration date on my calendar." d. "This can be injected right through my clothes."

ANS: A Clients would be instructed to call 911 and go to the hospital for monitoring after using the autoinjector. The medication may wear off before the offending agent has cleared the client's system. The other statements show good understanding of this treatment.

What does the nurse learn about the function of colony-stimulating factor? a. Triggers the bone marrow to shorten the time needed to produce mature WBCs. b. Causes capillary leak in acute inflammation. c. Responsible for creating exudate (pus) at infectious sites. d. Dilates blood vessels at the site of inflammation leading to hyperemia.

ANS: A Colony-stimulating factor triggers the bone marrow to shorten the time needed to produce mature WBCs from about 14 days to hours. Increased blood flow to the local area of inflammation produces hyperemia, or redness. Exudate is formed by neutrophils and consists of dead WBCs, necrotic tissue, and fluids that escape from damaged cells. Histamine, serotonin, and kinins dilate arterioles leading to redness and warmth.

A patient is taking guaifenesin (Humibid) as part of treatment for a sinus infection. Which instruction will the nurse include during patient teaching? a. Force fluids to help loosen and liquefy secretions. b. Report clear-colored sputum to the prescriber. c. Avoid driving a car or operating heavy machinery because of the sedating effects. d. Report symptoms that last longer than 2 days.

ANS: A Forcing fluids helps to loosen and liquefy secretions. The patient must be fully aware that any fever, chest tightness, change in sputum from clear to colored, difficult or noisy breathing, activity intolerance, or weakness needs to be reported. The patient must also report to the prescriber a fever of higher than 100.4° F (38° C) or symptoms that last longer than 3 to 4 days. Decongestants do not cause sedation, and therefore the patient does not need to avoid driving a car or operating heavy machinery.

5. A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The test is negative and the client states "Whew! I was really worried about that result." What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's sexual activity and patterns. b. Express happiness over the test result. c. Remind the client about safer sex practices. d. Tell the client to be retested in 3 months.

ANS: A The ELISA test can be falsely negative if testing occurs after the client has become infected but prior to making antibodies to HIV. This period of time is known as the window period and can last up to 21 days. The confirmatory Western Blot test takes an additional 7 days, so using that testing algorithm, the client's status may not truly be known for up to 28 days. The client may have had exposure that has not yet been confirmed. The nurse needs to assess the client's sexual behavior further to determine the proper response. The other actions are not the most important, but discussing safer sex practices is always appropriate. Testing would be recommended every 3 months for someone engaging in high risk behaviors.

A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to HIV-III. The client's partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the client's mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best? a. Contact the social worker to assist the client with advance directives. b. Ignore the mother; the client does not want her to be involved. c. Let the client know, gently, that nurses cannot be involved in these disputes. d. Tell the client that, legally, the mother is the emergency contact.

ANS: A The client should make his or her wishes known and formalize them through advance directives. The nurse would help the client by contacting someone to help with this process. Ignoring the mother or telling the client that nurses cannot be involved does not help the situation. Legal statutes vary by state, but the nurse would be the client's advocate and help ensure his or her wishes are met.

A client with HIV-II is hospitalized for an unrelated condition, and several medications are prescribed in addition to the regimen already being used. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Consult with the pharmacy about drug interactions. b. Ensure that the client understands the new medications. c. Give the new drugs without considering the old ones. d. Schedule all medications at standard times.

ANS: A The drug regimen for someone with HIV/AIDS is complex and consists of many medications that must be given at specific times of the day, and that have many interactions with other drugs and food. The nurse would consult with a pharmacist about possible interactions. Client teaching is important but does not take precedence over ensuring the medications do not interfere with each other, which could lead to drug resistance or a resurgence of symptoms.

he nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with HIV-II. The client's CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3 (0.399 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is best? a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence. b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol. c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4+ CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors. d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals.

ANS: A This client is in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-II case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and would be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required, although some medications may need to be taken while abstaining. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High-protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take precedence over stopping the spread of the disease.

A client has just been informed of a positive HIV test. The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for support systems. b. Determine if a clergy member would help. c. Explain legal requirements to tell sex partners. d. Offer to tell the family for the client.

ANS: A This client needs the assistance of support systems. The nurse would help the client identify them and what role they can play in supporting him or her. A clergy member may or may not be welcome. Positive HIV test results are reportable in all 50 states, Washington, D.C., and Canada but the nurse works with the client to support his or her choices in disclosure. The nurse would not tell the family for the client.

For a person to be immunocompetent, which processes need to be functional and interact appropriately with each other? (Select all that apply.) a. Antibody-mediated immunity b. Cell-mediated immunity c. Inflammation d. Red blood cells e. White blood cells

ANS: A, B, C The three processes that need to be functional and interact with each other for a person to be immunocompetent are antibody-mediated immunity, cell-mediated immunity, and inflammation. Red and white blood cells are not processes.

A nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. e. People with HIV-I disease are not infectious to others. f. The CD4+ T-cell is only affected when the disease has progressed to HIV-III

ANS: A, B, C, D In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produce are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in client's with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease. The CD4+ T-cell is the immune system cell most affected by infection with the HIV virus.

The nurse is teaching an elderly client the risks of infection for older adults. Which of the following factors would the nurse include in the education? (Select all that apply.) a. Higher risk for respiratory tract and genitourinary infections. b. May not have a fever with severe infection. c. Show expected changes in white blood cell counts. d. Should receive influenza, pneumococcal, and shingles vaccinations. e. Skin tests for tuberculosis may be falsely negative. f. Booster vaccinations are not likely needed as one ages.

ANS: A, B, D, E Immunity changes during an adult's life and older adults have decreased immune function. The number and function of neutrophils and macrophages are reduced leading to reduced response to infection and injury, such as temperature elevation. The usual response of an increased white blood cell count is delayed or absent. Older adults are less able to make new antibodies in response to the presence of new antigens requiring repeat vaccinations and immunizations. Skin tests for tuberculosis may be falsely negative and there is an increased risk for bacterial and fungal infections due to the decreased number of circulating T-lymphocytes.

The nurse learns that which risk factors can affect immunity? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Environmental factors c. Ethnicity d. Drugs e. Nutritional status

ANS: A, B, D, E Immunity changes during an adult's life as a result of nutritional status, environmental conditions, drugs, disease, and age. Immunity is most efficient in young adults and older adults have decreased immune function. Ethnicity does not affect immunity.

Which are steps in the process of making an antigen-specific antibody? (Select all that apply.) a. Antibody-antigen binding b. Invasion c. Opsonization d. Recognition e. Sensitization f. Production

ANS: A, B, D, E, F The seven steps in the process of making antigen-specific antibodies are: exposure/invasion, antigen recognition, sensitization, antibody production and release, antigen-antibody binding, antibody binding actions, and sustained immunity. Opsonization is the adherence of an antibody to the antigen, marking it for destruction.

Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics? (Select all that apply.) a. CD4+ cell count less than 200/mm3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14% b. Infection with P. jiroveci c. Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) d. Presence of HIV wasting syndrome e. Taking antiretroviral medications f. Confusion, dementia, or memory loss

ANS: A, B, D, F A diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person be HIV positive and have either a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14% (even if the total CD4+ count is above 200 cells/mm3) or an opportunistic infection such as P. jiroveci and HIV wasting syndrome. Confusion, dementia, and memory loss are central nervous system indications. Having a positive ELISA test and taking antiretroviral medications are not AIDS-defining characteristics.

The nurse is assessing a client for signs and symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following would be consistent with this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Discoid rash on skin exposed to sunlight b. Urinalysis positive for casts and protein c. Painful, deformed small joints d. Pain on inspiration e. Thrombocytosis f. Serum positive for antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

ANS: A, B, D, F Signs and symptoms of SLE include (but are not limited to) a discoid rash on skin exposed to the sun, urinalysis with casts and protein, pleurisy as manifested by pain on inspiration, and positive ANA titers in the blood. Nonerosive arthritis in peripheral joints can occur but does not lead to deformity. Thrombocytopenia is another sign.

What statements about the complement system are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Comprised of 20 types of inactive plasma proteins. b. Act as enzymes when activated to enhance innate immunity. c. Phagocytize foreign invaders quickly by destroying their membranes. d. Sticks to the antigen and forms a membrane attack complex. e. Maintain and prolong inflammation from non-self cells. f. Is part of the innate immune system.

ANS: A, B, D, F The complement system is made up of 20 different types of inactive plasma proteins that, when activated, act as enzymes to enhance (or complement) cell actions in innate immunity. They join other proteins to surround antigens and "fix" or stick to the antigen quickly forming a membrane attack complex on the antigen surface. This action makes immune cell attachment to antigens and phagocytosis more efficient. They are part of innate immunity. They do not phagocytize invaders themselves nor do they maintain and prolong inflammation from allergens.

he nurse is studying hypersensitivity reactions. Which reactions are correctly matched with their hypersensitivity types? (Select all that apply.) a. Type I—examples include hay fever and anaphylaxis. b. Type II—mediated by action of immunoglobulin M (IgM). c. Type III—immune complex deposits in blood vessel walls. d. Type IV—examples are poison ivy and transplant rejection. e. Type IV—involve both antibodies and complement.

ANS: A, C, D Type I reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and include hay fever, anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma. Type III reactions consist of immune complexes that form and deposit in the walls of blood vessels. Type IV reactions include responses to poison ivy exposure, positive tuberculosis tests, and graft rejection. Type II reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin G, not IgM. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions do not involve either antibodies or complement.

A nurse is studying the function of immunoglobulins. Which immunoglobulins are correctly matched to their function? (Select all that apply.) a. IgA: most responsible for preventing infection in the respiratory tracts, the GI tract, and the genitourinary tract. b. IgD: provides protection against parasite infestations, especially helminths. c. IgE: associated with antibody-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions. d. IgG: activates classic complement pathway and enhances neutrophil and macrophage actions. e. IgM: first antibody formed by a newly sensitized B-lymphocyte plasma cell.

ANS: A, C, D, E All options are true except IgD acts as a B-cell antigen receptor. IgE provides protection against parasite infestations, especially helminth

The nurse is learning about immunoglobulins. . Which principles does the nurse learn? (Select all that apply.) a. IgA is found in high concentrations in secretions from mucous membranes. b. IgD is present in the highest concentrations in mucous membranes. c. IgE is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. d. IgG comprises the majority of the circulating antibody population. e. IgM is the first antibody formed by a newly sensitized B-cell.

ANS: A, C, D, E Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is found in high concentrations in secretions from mucous membranes. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. The majority of the circulating antibody population consists of immunoglobulin G (IgG). The first antibody formed by a newly sensitized B-cell is immunoglobulin M (IgM). Immunoglobulin D (IgD) is typically present in low concentrations.

A nurse is studying the functions of specific leukocytes. Which leukocytes are matched correctly with their function? (Select all that apply.) a. Monocyte: matures into a macrophage. b. Basophil: releases vasoactive amines during an allergic reaction. c. Plasma cell: secretes immunoglobulins in response to the presence of a specific antigen. d. Cytotoxic T-cells: attacks and destroys ingested poisons and toxins. e. Natural killer cell: nonselectively attacks non-self cells. f. Regulator T-cells: become sensitized for self-recognition in the bone marrow.

ANS: A, C, E Monocytes mature into macrophages, plasma cells secrete immunoglobulin in the presence of specific antigens, and natural killer cells nonselectively attack non-self cells. Basophils release histamines, kinins, and heparin in areas of tissue damage. Cytotoxic T-cells selectively attack and destroy non-self cells, including virally infected cells, grafts, and transplanted organs. Regulator T-cells become sensitized for self-recognition in the thymus.

3. The nurse assesses clients for the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which signs/symptoms does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Pulselessness c. Pallor d. Redness e. Warmth f. Decreased function

ANS: A, D, E, F The five cardinal signs of inflammation include redness, warmth, pain, swelling, and decreased function.

The nurse caring for clients assesses their daily laboratory profiles. Which lab results are considered to be in the normal range? (Select all that apply.) a. Segmented neutrophils: 68% b. Bands: 19% c. Monocytes: 12% d. Lymphocytes: 38% e. Eosinophils: 2% f. Basophils: 1%

ANS: A, D, E, F The normal range for segmented neutrophils is 55% to 70%. The normal range for bands is 5%. The normal range for monocytes is 2% to 8%. The normal range for lymphocytes is 20% to 40%. The normal range for eosinophils is 1% to 4%. The normal range for basophils is 0.5% to 1%.

A client with HIV-III has been hospitalized with suspected cryptosporidiosis. What physical assessment would be most important with this condition? a. Auscultating the lungs b. Assessing mucous membranes c. Listening to bowel sounds d. Performing a neurologic examination

ANS: B Cryptosporidiosis can cause diarrhea and wasting with extreme loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse would assess signs of hydration/dehydration as the priority, including checking the client's mucous membranes for dryness. The nurse will perform the other assessments as part of a comprehensive assessment.

A client is being administered the first dose of belimumab for a systemic lupus erythematosus flare. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Observe the client for at least 2 hours afterward. b. Instruct the client about the monthly infusion schedule. c. Inform the client not to drive or sign legal papers for 24 hours. d. Ensure emergency equipment is working and nearby. e. Make a follow-up appointment for a lipid panel in 2 months. f. Instruct the client to hold other medications for 72 hours.

ANS: A,D This drug is a monoclonal antibody to tumor necrosis factor. The first dose would be administered in a place where severe allergic reactions and/or anaphylaxis can be managed. This includes having emergency equipment nearby. The client would be observed for at least 2 hours after this first dose. This drug does not cause drowsiness, so there would be no restrictions on driving or signing legal documents. Elevated lipids are not associated with this drug. This drug is used in combination with other therapies, especially during a flare.

The nurse is caring for clients on the medical-surgical unit. What action by the nurse will help prevent a client from having a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Administering steroids for a positive TB test b. Correctly identifying the client prior to a blood transfusion c. Keeping the client free of the offending agent d. Providing a latex-free environment for the client

ANS: B A classic example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction is a blood transfusion reaction. These can be prevented by correctly identifying the client and cross-checking the unit of blood to be administered. A positive type IV response is a positive TB test. Avoidance therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for a type IV hypersensitivity to substances that are known and can be avoided such as poison ivy and insect stings. Latex allergies are a type I hypersensitivity.

A client with HIV-II has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action would the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.

ANS: B Adherence to the complex drug regimen needed for HIV treatment can be daunting. Clients must take their medications on time and correctly at a minimum of 90% of the time to be effective. Since this client's viral load has increased dramatically, the nurse would first assess this factor. After this, the other assessments may or may not be needed.

The older client's adult child questions the nurse as to why the client is at higher risk for infection when the client's white cell count is within the normal range. What response by the nurse is best? a. "The white cell count does not tell us everything about immunity." b. "White blood cells are less active in older people so they are not as efficient." c. "Older people typically have poor nutrition which makes them prone to infection." d. "As one ages, immunoglobulins cease to be produced in response to illness."

ANS: B An age-related change in immunity is that neutrophils in the older adult are less active and therefore less effective in immunity. The white blood cell count is not the only thing that can inform about immunity, but this response is too vague to be useful. Many older adults do have poor nutrition that does affect immunity, but this is not true for everyone and the stem does not contain information stating that is problematic for this older adult. Immunoglobulins do not cease to be produced with age.

A nurse is learning about the types of different cells involved in the inflammatory response. Which principles does the nurse learn? (Select all that apply.) a. Basophils are only involved in the general inflammatory process. b. Eosinophils increase during allergic reactions and parasitic invasion. c. Macrophages can participate in many episodes of phagocytosis. d. Monocytes turn into macrophages after they enter body tissues. e. Neutrophils can only take part in one episode of phagocytosis.

ANS: B, C, D, E Eosinophils do increase during allergic and parasitic invasion. Macrophages participate in many episodes of phagocytosis. Monocytes turn into macrophages after they enter body tissues. Neutrophils only take part in one episode of phagocytosis. Basophils are involved in both the general inflammatory response and allergic or hypersensitivity responses.

A nurse caring for clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) plans care understanding the most common causes of death for these clients is which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Infection b. Cardiovascular impairment c. Vasculitis d. Chronic kidney disease e. Liver failure f. Blood dyscrasias

ANS: B,D Any and all organs and tissues may be affected in SLE but the most common causes of death in clients with SLE include cardiovascular impairment and chronic kidney disease.

When giving dextromethorphan, the nurse understands that this drug suppresses the cough reflex by which mechanism of action? a. Causing depression of the central nervous system b. Anesthetizing the stretch receptors c. Having direct action on the cough center d. Decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions

ANS: C Dextromethorphan suppresses the cough reflex through a direct action on the cough center. The other options are incorrect.

During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient? a. Constipation b. Abdominal cramps c. Drowsiness d. Decreased libido

ANS: C Drowsiness is usually the chief complaint of people who take antihistamines.

A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. Which of these is a benefit of orally administered decongestants? a. Immediate onset b. A more potent effect c. Lack of rebound congestion d. Shorter duration

ANS: C Drugs administered by the oral route produce prolonged decongestant effects, but the onset of action is more delayed and the effect less potent than those of decongestants applied topically. However, the clinical problem of rebound congestion associated with topically administered drugs is almost nonexistent with oral dosage forms.

1. The nurse learns that the most important function of inflammation and immunity is which purpose? Destroying bacteria before damage occurs Preventing any entry of foreign material Providing maximum protection against infection Regulating the process of self-tolerance

ANS: C Immunity and Inflammation working together are critical to maintaining health, preventing disease, and repairing tissue damage. When all the different parts and functions of immunity are working well, the adult is immunocompetent and has maximum protection against infection. Working together, their function is not limited to destroying bacteria before damage occurs. They do not prevent the entry of all foreign materials and immunity alone regulates the process of self-tolerance.

The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest acting? a. Artificial active b. Inflammatory c. Natural active d. Natural passive

ANS: C Natural active immunity is the most effective and longest acting type of immunity. Artificial and natural passive do not last as long. "Inflammatory" is not a type of immunity.

client with known HIV-II is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action would the nurse take first? a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client. b. Notify the primary health care provider about the CD4+ results. c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions. d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care.

ANS: C Since this client's CD4+ cell count is so low, he or she may have energy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The client also appears to have progressed to HIV-III. The nurse would first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the primary health care provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alterative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

A client is in the hospital and has received two doses of an angiotensin-converting enzyme for hypertension. When the nurse answers the client's call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below: angioedema What action by the nurse takes is most appropriate? a. Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately. b. Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter. c. Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team. d. Reassure the client that these symptoms will go away.

ANS: C This client has angioedema which is a severe type I hypersensitivity reaction and is most commonly caused by ACE-inhibitors. The nurse would ensure the client's airway is patent and either call the Rapid Response Team or delegate this to someone else. Epinephrine needs to be administered right away, but not without a prescription by the primary health care provider unless standing orders exist. The client may need oxygen, but a patent airway comes first. Reassurance is important, but airway and calling the Rapid Response Team are the priorities.

A nurse has presented an educational program to a community group on Lyme disease. What statement by a participant indicates the need to review the material? a. "I should take precautions against ticks, especially in the summer." b. "A red rash that looks like a bull's-eye may be one of the symptoms." c. "If Lyme disease is not treated successfully, it is usually fatal." d. "For Stage I disease, antibiotics are usually needed for 14 to 21 days."

ANS: C Untreated Lyme disease can lead to chronic complications, or Stage III Lyme disease, such as arthritis, chronic fatigue, memory/thinking problems. It is not usually a fatal disease so this information would need to be corrected by the nurse. The other participant statements are correct.

When teaching a patient who will be receiving antihistamines, the nurse will include which instructions? (Select all that apply.) a. ―Antihistamines are generally safe to take with over-the-counter medications.‖ b. ―Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption of the drug c. ―Take the medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal distress.‖ d. ―Drink extra fluids if possible.‖ e. ―Antihistamines may cause restlessness and disturbed sleep.‖ f. ―Avoid activities that require alertness until you know how adverse effects are tolerated.‖

ANS: C, D, F Antihistamines should be taken with food, even though this slightly reduces the absorption of the drug, so as to minimize the gastrointestinal upset that can occur. Over-the-counter medications must not be taken with an antihistamine unless approved by the physician because of the serious drug interactions that may occur. Drinking extra fluids will help to ease the removal of secretions, and activities that require alertness, such as driving, must not be engaged in until the patient knows how he or she responds to the sedating effects of antihistamines.

The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect may occur? a. Heartburn b. Bradycardia c. Drowsiness d. Palpitations

ANS: D Although a topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestant can be absorbed into the bloodstream, the amount absorbed is usually too small to cause systemic effects at normal dosages. Excessive dosages of these medications, however, are more likely to cause systemic effects elsewhere in the body. These may include cardiovascular effects, such as hypertension and palpitations, and central nervous system effects such as headache, nervousness, and dizziness. The other options are incorrect.

The nurse working with clients who have autoimmune diseases understands that what component of cell-mediated immunity is the problem? a. CD4+ cells b. Cytotoxic T-cells c. Natural killer cells d. Regulator T-cells

ANS: D Regulator T-cells help prevent hypersensitivity to one's own cells, which is the basis for autoimmune disease. CD4+ cells are also known as helper/inducer cells, which secrete cytokines. Natural killer cells have direct cytotoxic effects on some non-self cells without first being sensitized. Regulator T-cells have an inhibitory action on the immune system. Cytotoxic T-cells are effective against self cells infected by parasites such as viruses or protozoa.

A client with HIV-III and wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem? a. Chooses high-protein food. b. Has decreased oral discomfort. c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks. d. Has a weight gain of 2 lb (1 kg)/1 mo.

ANS: D The weight gain is the best indicator that goals for this client problem have been met because it demonstrates that the client not only is eating well but also is able to absorb the nutrients. Choosing high-protein food is important, but only if the client eats and absorbs the nutrients.

A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort? a. Administer sleeping medication. b. Perform most activities for the client. c. Increase the client's oxygen during activity. d. Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest.

ANS: D This client has two major reasons for fatigue: decreased oxygenation and systemic illness. The nurse would not do everything for the client but rather let the client do as much as possible within limits and allow for adequate rest in between. Sleeping medications may be needed but not as the first step, and only with caution. Increasing oxygen during activities may or may not be warranted, but first the nurse must try pacing the client's activity.

A client with HIV-III is admitted to the hospital with Toxoplasma gondii infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Initiate Contact Precautions. b. Conduct frequent neurologic assessments. c. Conduct frequent respiratory assessments. d. Initiate Protective Precautions.

ANS: D Toxoplasma gondii infection is an opportunistic infection that causes an encephalitis but poses only a rare threat to immunocompetent individuals The nurse would perform ongoing neurologic assessments. Contact and Protective Precautions are not needed. Good respiratory assessments are important to the client, but toxoplasmosis will demonstrate neurologic signs and symptoms.