immunizations
What is the most common complication of pertussis?
Pertussis, which is is caused by Bordetella pertussis, infects the respiratory tract and produces toxins that interfere with the function of the respiratory tract, ultimately causing the characteristic symptoms of pertussis. Symptoms begin as they would for the common cold but then transition to the paroxysmal (whooping) cough. Given the impact on the respiratory tract, pneumonia is the most common complication. Poor oxygenation during the coughing episodes can lead to hypoxemia and seizures, but these are less common. Colic is inconsolable crying, which has been attributed to abdominal pain. This is unrelated to pertussis.
Which of the following tetanus booster vaccines would be most appropriate for administration to a 12-year-old boy who has completed a primary series with DTaP and has no known allergies?
Pertussis. Target Groups for Vaccination. Tdap VaccineOne dose of Tdap is routinely recommended for all adolescents who have completed the primary series of DTaP. This should be given at 11 to 12 years of age. DTaP contains higher amounts diphtheria toxoid and pertussis than Tdap. It is only used in children less than 7 years of age to avoid injection site reactions in adolescents and adults. Following the one-time dose of Tdap, a Td booster should be given every 10 years. DT, which has a higher amount of diphtheria toxin is only reserved for children who have a contraindication to the pertussis component in DTaP.
HealthMap Vaccine Finder is a free online tool that allows pharmacists to:
Pharmacists also can list their vaccine service with the HealthMap Vaccine Finder, which is a free marketing tool. To participate in HealthMap Vaccine Finder, vaccine providers create an account at flushot.healthmap.org/admin/signup and enter information on their immunization services regarding several kinds of influenza vaccines and other adult vaccines. People wanting to be vaccinated can go to the website, flushot.healthmap.org, and enter their zip code to locate vaccine providers in their area.
What is the standard dose of epinephrine for managing anaphylaxis?
Preferably, epinephrine is dosed on the basis of the patient's body weight. Aqueous epinephrine (1 mg/mL preparation) should be administered at a dose of 0.01 mg/kg/dose, up to a maximum of 0.5 mg per dose. The dose of epinephrine can be repeated every 5-15 minutes (according to the patient's response), up to three doses.
Which disease is almost certain to cause death if infected patients do not receive postexposure prophylaxis?
Rabies is caused by a rhabdovirus, a group of RNA viruses. It is transmitted to humans via animal bites. Once the virus enters the body, it affects the central nervous system, causing acute encephalitis and neurologic dysfunction. While very few cases occur in the US each year, rabies is almost always fatal if not treated with rabies immune globulin for post-exposure management. Even though hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) is given as post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent hepatitis B infection, the case-fatality rate from acute hepatitis B is extremely low. Post-exposure prophylaxis is also available for measles and meningitis, but the mortality rate is also low for these infections.
Federal law makes offering an annual influenza vaccination a requirement for continued federal funding in which setting?
Resident of long-term care facilities are at high-risk for influenza and pneumococcal disease. If a long-term care facility receives funding from Medicare, it must offer influenza vaccine annually to its residents. Pneumococcal vaccine must also be offered at least once during the resident's stay. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) began requiring this in 2005 as a condition of participation. This is not mandated for patient t-centered medical homes, accountable care organizations, or home health care.
Adolescents should be routinely vaccinated with MCV4 on the following schedule:
Routine vaccination with the quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY or MCV4) is one dose at ages 11 to 12 years and a booster dose at age 16 years. According to ACIP, adding this booster dose substantially reduces the number of cases and deaths due to meningococcal disease while the initial dose serves to protect the younger adolescents.
Which of the following is recognized by sociologists as a factor in a patient's decision whether to be vaccinated?
Sociologists have identified five key factors in a person's decision to be vaccinated: 1) perceived susceptibility to a disease, 2) perceived seriousness of a disease, 3) perceived vaccine benefits, 4) perceived vaccine barriers (e.g., adverse effects, access), and 5) social influence (e.g., recommendation from a health care provider)
The childhood/adolescent and adult immunization schedules are updated and published annually during which months?
The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) meets at least three times a year to discuss vaccine recommendations and guidelines. Although new recommendations may result from these meetings, the comprehensive schedules for children, adolescents, and adults are published once per year. These are typically made available at the end of January or early February.
Which of the following is a requirement of the Occupational Saf
The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act of 2000 directed OSHA to redesign its Bloodborne Pathogens Standard to provide more detail in the OSHA guidelines for employers to identify, evaluate, and implement safer medical devices.This Act mandates the use of safety devices and health care employers must provide safety devices to employees to reduce the risk of occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Following injection, the safety device on the syringe should be immediately activated. Used needles should never be clipped nor recapped. Preexposure vaccination with hepatitis B vaccine must be offered by the employer to all employees with job responsibilities with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens. There is no such requirement for hepatitis A since this is not considered a bloodborne pathogen. The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires the employer to provide training for all personnel with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens. OSHA training must be repeated at least annually.
During which step of the Pharmacists' Patient Care Process would a pharmacist analyze a patient's need for certain vaccines?
The Pharmacists' Patient Care Process incorporates five steps to providing patient-centered care (collect, assess, plan, implement, and follow-up). Each of these can be applied to immunization services. Collect: the pharmacist collects the information that is necessary to determine which vaccinations may be indicated. Assess: the pharmacist assesses the information collected and analyzes the need for vaccines in accordance with the ACIP recommendations. Plan: the plan should include an offer to immunize, as appropriate, as well as pertinent areas of education for the patient, including education about vaccine-preventable diseases, vaccines, and how vaccines can help the patient. Implement: The pharmacist implements the care plan in collaboration with a patient or caregiver and physician or other health care professional, as appropriate. Follow-up: includes appropriate monitoring and management of possible adverse reactions, which may range from injection-site reactions to more severe reactions such as syncope and anaphylaxis. A follow-up plan should be created for patients who initially decline a vaccine recommendation, who may have temporary contraindications, or precautions, or those referred to another immunization provider. In addition, follow-up plans are required for patients who require additional immunizations to complete a vaccine series. 36 1 point
Which of the following best describes how to administer Tdap vaccine to an adult patient weighing 185 lb?
The Tdap vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle. Intramuscular injections should be administered at a 90 degree angle. Vaccines that are given subcutaneously are administered at a 45 degree angle into the outer aspect of the upper arm. The weight of the patient does not matter with regard to route of administration.
The monitoring system that health care providers should use to report serious adverse events after vaccination is:
The Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS) is a national vaccine post-marketing safety surveillance program of the CDC and the FDA. This monitoring system collects information about adverse events that occur after the administration of vaccines in the United States to identify potential vaccine safety concerns. All immunization providers have a professional responsibility to report any serious, rare, or unexpected adverse events to VAERS. The CMS-1500 form is required by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) for billing. OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, which has the responsibility to ensure working conditions are safe for employees. VICP is the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program and provides a no-fault insurance fund that covers vaccine-related injuries listed in the Vaccine Injury Table (VIT).
The presence of fever, diffuse maculopapular rash, and Koplik spots are characteristic of which of the following diseases?
The classic symptoms of measles include fever, cough, coryza (runny nose), conjunctivitis, Koplik spots (a bluish-white rash on mucous membranes, especially the mouth), followed by the development of a maculopapular rash approximately 14 days after exposure. Individuals infected with mumps may not have symptoms. Others may have nonspecific symptoms, such as headache, fever, myalgia, and malaise. About 30% to 40% of individuals may experience inflammation of the parotid glands. Rubella symptoms tend to be relatively mild and may present as a maculopapular rash that occurs approximately 14 days after exposure. Others may experience arthritis and arthralgia. Varicella presents as a generalized vesicular rash.v
Barbara is a 60-year-old woman who presents to the pharmacy for two vaccines: HZV and IIV. Which of the following are the appropriate doses and routes for administering these vaccines to this patient?
The dose of the herpes zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is 0.65 mL. It is administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. Inactivated influenza vaccines are administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle. The dose for individuals aged 3 years and older is 0.5 mL.
What is the minimum needle length recommended for administering HepB vaccine to an adult patient weighing 130 lb?
The hepatitis B vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle in individuals three years of age and older. The needle must be long enough to reach deep into the muscle. Fixed 1-inch needles are acceptable for patients weighing 60 kg (132 lb) or less.
According to ACIP, which of the following is a contraindication to receiving HZV?
The herpes zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is a live vaccine. It is contraindicated in individuals who are pregnant and those with compromised immune systems. This includes those with HIV and a CD4+ count less than 200, those receiving chemotherapy or radiation or other immunocompromising medications (e.g., corticosteroids), and cancer affecting the bone or lymphatic system (e.g., leukemia, lymphoma). It is also contraindicated in individuals who have experienced a severe allergic reaction to the vaccine components (e.g., gelatin, neomycin). Individuals with a history of a herpes zoster infection and those who have not received the varicella vaccine may still receive HZV. Although HZV can be administered to individuals younger than 60 years of age, this is not recommended by ACIP.
According to ACIP recommendations, which of the following needle lengths would be appropriate for administering HZV to an adult patient?
The herpes zoster vaccine is administered subcutaneously at a 45 degree angle into the outer aspect of the upper arm. The needle should pass through the dermal layer and into the subcutaneous tissue. It should not enter muscle tissue. A 5/8 inch needle should be used for all vaccines administered subcutaneously.
Which of the following vaccines may be administered to boys and young men aged 9 through 26 years to reduce the likelihood of acquiring genital warts?
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a sexually transmitted disease. High-risk strains are known to cause a variety of cancers. However, other low-risk HPV strains also cause the majority of cases of genital warts. The 9-valent HPV vaccine provides protection against two of the strains known to cause genital warts (6 and 11). 9vHPV may be given to both males and females ages 9 through 26 years and is routinely recommended at ages 11 or 12 years.
The incubation period for influenza can range from:
The incubation period for influenza can range from 1 to 4 days. The onset of symptoms is usually abrupt. People infected with influenza virus may be contagious beginning 1 day before their symptoms develop and up to 5 to 7 days after becoming sick. Uncomplicated influenza usually resolves after 3 to 7 days for the majority of patients.
Which of these vaccines is a live attenuated vaccine?
The live attenuated vaccines include cholera, herpes zoster, live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV), MMR, MMRV, rotavirus, tuberculosis (BCG), typhoid (Ty21a), vaccinia (smallpox), varicella, and yellow fever. All other vaccines are inactivated.
Which of these vaccines is an inactivated vaccine?
The live attenuated vaccines include cholera, herpes zoster, live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV), MMR, MMRV, rotavirus, tuberculosis (BCG), typhoid (Ty21a), vaccinia (smallpox), varicella, and yellow fever. All other vaccines are inactivated.
How is the live, cholera vaccine administered?
The live cholera vaccine is administered as a single oral dose at least 10 days prior to potential exposure to V. cholera.Individuals should not eat or drink for 60 minutes before or after receipt of the vaccine.
There should be a flat hard surface in the area where vaccines will be administered to ensure:
The location for vaccine administration should have space for the patient to faint without being injured, and a flat surface for the patient to lie on if fainting occurs or if the pharmacist needs to perform CPR.
With the exception of rotavirus, the routinely recommended live vaccines are contraindicated in a patient who:
The majority of live vaccines are contraindicated in patients who are immunocompromised. Immunosuppression may reduce vaccine efficacy as well as pose a risk for disseminated infection with the normally attenuated pathogen in the live vaccine. However, some exceptions have been made depending on the level of immunosuppression. In the case of the rotavirus vaccine, severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a contraindication but other immunocompromising conditions are precautions. The interval that should be observed between one or more live vaccines is four weeks. Ppsv2 Antibiotics can interfere with the oral typhoid and cholera vaccines but should be fine with all other vaccines.
Which of the following vaccines is recommended for infants to receive within 24 hours of birth?
The only vaccine routinely recommended to be given at birth is the hepatitis B vaccine. This dose, when given within 24 hours of birth, is critical for reducing maternal transmission of the virus. Following the first dose, two additional doses are needed (one at age one to two months and the third dose at ages 6 through 18 months).
As outlined within the Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP) within the NCVIA, a copy of the most up-to-date version of the vaccine information statement (VIS) must be given to the patient or the patient's caregiver before administering the vaccine. The provider must document the patient name, date the vaccine was administered, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, name, address, and title of person administering the vaccine, date printed on the VIS, and date the VIS was given to the vaccine recipient or that person's legal representative. A patient's or caregiver's signature for activities and documents pertaining to vaccine administration is not mandated by federal law. However, some states or employers may require signatures.
The vaccines that contain gelatin include live attenuated influenza vaccine (Flumist), MMR, MMRV, rabies (RabAvert), typhoid (Vivotif Ty21a), varicella, yellow fever, and zoster (Zostavax). Appendix B (Vaccine Excipient & Media Summary) of CDC's Epidemiology and Prevention of Vaccine-Preventable Diseases is a great resource to identify the various components in each vaccine.
Which of the following patients would be a candidate for PPSV23?
The23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults age 65 years an older and those considered high-risk for pneumococcal disease. These individuals are immunocompromised, those with cerebrospinal fluid leak or cochlear implants, those with diabetes, chronic heart disease, chronic lung disease, chronic liver disease, and alcoholism, and those ages 19 through 64 with asthma or who smoke cigarettes. Children with asthma would only be candidates for PPSV23 if they are treated with high-dose corticosteroids. Because this is a polysaccharide vaccine, it is not effective in children less than 2 years of age. Pregnancy is not considered a risk factor for pneumococcal disease.
RotaTeq (RV5) should be administered as a:
There are two live, oral vaccines available to prevent rotavirus. However, the dosing differs between the two. RotaTeq (RV5) is administered orally in a 3-dose series, with doses administered at ages 2, 4, and 6 months. Rotarix (RV1) is administered orally in a 2-dose series, with doses administered at ages 2 and 4 months.
Which of the following best describes an opportunity for pharmacists to use diagnosis-based screening to identify people at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases?
There are two main approaches for determining who needs a vaccine: universal immunization and high-risk targeting. Three screening strategies can be used to identify people at high-risk: diagnosis-based screening, procedure-based screening, and occurrence-based screening. Diagnosis-based screening identifies patients in need of vaccines based on the presence of a particular diagnosis (in this case, diabetes). Procedure-based screening involves assessing vaccine needs based on a patient's receipt of a surgical, medical, or pharmacy-based procedure (in this case, a splenectomy). Occurrence-based screening takes advantage of an event, such as a hospital admission, clinic visit, or emergency department visit to identify people who need to be vaccinated (in this case, discharge counseling).
Vaccines as well as exposure to natural disease are both examples of which type of immunity?
There are two types of immunity—innate and acquired. Innate immunity is the first line of defense against pathogens and includes physical barriers (e.g., skin, mucus), physiologic factors (e.g., stomach acid, body temperature), processes (e.g., inflammation), and cells of the immune system (e.g., phagocytes, macrophages). These are defenses that are present at birth. Acquired immunity involves immunological memory. It is something the body develops upon exposure to pathogens or antigens and results in antigen-antibody complex formation. Acquired immunity can be active or passive. Passive immunity happens when antibodies are provided from another source, such as when maternal antibodies are transferred to the fetus or upon receipt of blood products or immunoglobulin. Passive immunity, which is short-lived, can be considered temporary. Temporary immunity happens when temporary protection is provided, as is the case when immunoglobulin is given following hepatitis B exposure. Active immunity occurs when an antigen from an invading pathogen or a vaccine triggers the immune system to respond. Active immunity has a prolonged effect.
Ava has arrived at the clinic for her well-child visit. She is 4 months old. Ava's immunization record reveals that she has received the following vaccines: 2 doses of HepB 1 dose of Hib 1 dose of rotavirus 1 dose of PCV13 1 dose of DTaP 1 dose of IPV Which vaccines should Ava receive at today's visit?
Upon reviewing the immunization schedule for children and adolescents, Ava is due for her 2nd dose of Hib, rotavirus, DTaP, PCV13, and IPV. She is not due for her 3rd hepatitis B dose until 6 months of age. Even though it may be influenza season, she is too young to receive influenza vaccine. IIV is not recommended until 6 months of age. MMR and varicella, which are live vaccines, are not recommended until 1 year of age.
David is a healthy 5-year-old boy who is scheduled to see his pediatrician for a checkup in July prior to starting kindergarten. David's immunization record reveals that he has received the following vaccines: 3 doses of HepB 4 doses of PCV13 2 doses of HepA 3 doses of IPV 2 doses of rotavirus 1 dose of MMRV 4 doses of DTaP 4 doses of Hib Which vaccines should David receive at this visit?
Upon reviewing the immunization schedule for children and adolescents, David will need his 5th dose of DTaP, 4th dose of IPV, 2nd dose of MMR, and 2nd dose of varicella. His PCV13, Hib, hepatitis A and B series are complete. Depending on the rotavirus vaccine used, two doses may have completed the series. Regardless, David is too old to receive any additional rotavirus vaccine doses. He does not require the meningococcal vaccine (MCV4) until he is 11 to 12 years of age. Because he needs both MMR and varicella, he may receive the MMRV combination vaccine again.
Emily is a 16-year-old high-school student with no chronic medical conditions. Emily's immunization record shows that she completed the primary series for IPV, HepA, Hib, DTaP, and MMR, and she had a physician-diagnosed case of chickenpox at 2 years of age. Which of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for her today?
Upon reviewing the immunization schedule for children and adolescents, Emily was supposed to receive Tdap, MCV4, and HPV at ages 11 to 12. It also appears she did not receive her hepatitis B vaccines as an infant. Emily will need to get caught up on these four vaccines. Since influenza vaccine is universally recommended on an annual basis, she should receive that as well if it is during influenza season. We would refer to the catch-up schedule for dosing interval guidance.
Which of the following statements is true regarding how vaccines evoke an immune response?
Vaccines contain antigens that stimulate an immune response and result in immunologic memory. B cells are activated in this process. Except for pure polysaccharide vaccines, T cells are also activated and are able to generate additional B cells. B cells express unique receptors that recognize and bind to only one particular antigen. B cells are the major cells involved in the creation of antibodies that circulate in blood plasma and lymph. This is referred to as humoral immunity. B cells mature to plasma cells and antibodies that help the body eliminate the antigen are formed.
Which of the following key questions is important to ask a patient before administering IIV?
When screening patients prior to vaccination, there are a variety of questions to ask depending on the vaccines to be administered. The purpose of screening is to determine if there are any precautions or contraindications to the respective vaccines. Before giving any vaccine, it is important to determine how the patient is feeling. It is okay to administer vaccines if the patient has a mild illness, such as low-grade fever, mild respiratory tract infection, mild diarrhea, or otitis media. However, if the patient has moderate to severe acute illness that requires additional care, it is advised to defer vaccination until the illness resolves. Antibodies and blood products may interfere with the replication needed by live vaccines to elicit an immune response. This is an important question for all live vaccines. If any live vaccines were administered within the past 4 weeks, no additional live vaccines can be administered until at least 4 weeks have passed. If a patient's immune system is suppressed due to certain cancers, HIV, immunosuppressive medications, or other immune-suppressing conditions, then live vaccines are usually contraindicated because immunosuppression may reduce vaccine efficacy as well as pose a risk for disseminated infection with the normally attenuated pathogen in the live vaccine. On the other hand, immunosuppression may indicate the need for certain inactivated vaccines (e.g., influenza, pneumococcal). Because the inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) is not a live vaccine, the questions pertaining to live vaccines do not need to be asked.
When looking at the schedule for vaccines that might be indicated for children and adolescents aged 18 years or younger based on medical indications, what does the orange bar represent?
answer from 2017 childhood scheduleThe schedule for vaccines that might be indicated for children and adolescents aged 18 years or younger based on medical indications includes six different color-coded bars. Yellow indicates that vaccination according to the routine schedule is recommended. Purple is for vaccines that are recommended for persons with an additional risk factor for which the vaccine would be indicated. The yellow and black checkered bar indicates that vaccination is recommended, and additional doses may be necessary based on medical condition. The footnotes will need to be used for further guidance. A white bar means that there is no recommendation. Red means the vaccine is contraindicated and orange indicates there is a precaution for vaccination.
What is meant by the term "immunization neighborhood"?
he immunization neighborhood is a term coined by the American Pharmacists Association to describe the "collaboration, coordination, and communication among immunization stakeholders dedicated to meeting the immunization needs of the patient and protecting the community from vaccine-preventable diseases."
Herd immunity refers to which of the following situations?
here are instances in which some individuals are not able to be vaccinated. For example, infants younger than 2 months of age are too you to receive DTaP and a child with a compromised immune system would not likely receive MMR. It is important to vaccinate those in the community who can receive the vaccine to avoid outbreaks and the transmission of disease to those unvaccinated. This is called herd immunity.
In the event that a young child is fussy following the receipt of a vaccine, pharmacists should advise parents to: Feedback
oung children may experience drowsiness, fretfulness, or poor appetite following vaccination. Parents should be advised to plan quiet activities and comfort their children as needed. Children's formulations of acetaminophen or ibuprofen can be used to relieve local discomfort, if needed. Aspirin is not recommended for use in children. If more serious adverse reactions occur, parents should be instructed to seek emergency care and to follow up with the pediatrician as necessary.
Which entity determines the specific vaccines that a pharmacist may administer?
A pharmacist's scope of practice and immunization authority are determined by the pharmacist's state practice act. As such the laws and regulations for pharmacists as immunizers vary by state. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration provides the regulatory oversight for the approval of vaccines. The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices is the leading authority in the U.S. that provides comprehensive vaccination recommendations and guidelines. These recommendations are reviewed and approved by the CDC. The local health departments do not have any oversight regarding a pharmacist's immunization practices. However, pharmacists often work with their local health departments to provide vaccines and public health services.
Which type of vaccine involves stimulation of B cells without the assistance of T helper cells?
A pure polysaccharide vaccine does not require T-helper cells to produce an immune response. It is mediated solely through B cells. As such, they are T cell-independent. The immune systems in children younger than 2 years of age are too immature to mount an immune response by this method. In addition, there is no booster effect and any immunity developed is relatively short-lived. When a polysaccharide vaccine is altered by adding a protein, it is considered conjugated. The immune response changes to one that is T cell-mediated. This mechanism allows children younger than 2 years of age to form an immune response. Conjugated vaccines provide longer-lasting protection. A recombinant vaccine is made by using recombinant DNA technology. Both live attenuated vaccines and recombinant vaccines mimic natural infection and involve T cells in the immune response.
Which of the following patients are appropriate candidates for the 2-dose schedule of HPV9?
ACIP recommends a 2-dose series of 9vHPV at ages 11 or 12 years. The doses should be given at 0 and 6 to 12 months. If the 2nd dose is administered sooner than 5 months after the 1st dose, then a 3rd dose is needed. If the series has not been started by age 15, then a 3-dose series is needed. A 3-dose series is also recommended for individuals who are immunocompromised.
According to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), which of the following would be considered adequate evidence of immunity to varicella, indicating that administration of varicella vaccine is unnecessary?
According to ACIP, evidence of immunity to varicella is documentation of 2 doses of varicella vaccine at least 4 weeks apart; history of varicella or herpes zoster diagnosis or verification of varicella or herpes zoster disease by a health care provider; laboratory evidence of immunity or disease; or for women who are not pregnant, immunocompetent individuals, and individuals who are not health care providers, born in the U.S. before 1980. Given the likelihood of false positive reports, self-reporting is no longer considered evidence of immunity.
Kimberly is a 34 year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant. She received a Td booster dose 1 year ago when she cut her hand while working in the kitchen. She has no documentation of receiving a Tdap vaccine. The most appropriate recommendation would be to administer:
According to the ACIP recommendations, pregnant women should receive 1 dose of Tdap during each pregnancy, preferably during the early part of gestational weeks 27-36, regardless of prior history of receiving Td or Tdap. In fact, earlier in this window maximizes antibody transfer to the infant. Waiting until after the child is born does not allow for this passive immunity to occur. DTaP contains higher amounts diphtheria toxoids and pertussis than Tdap. It is only used in children less than 7 years of age to avoid injection site reactions in adolescents and adults.
Alex is a 32-year-old man who is scheduled to travel to a country where hepatitis A is endemic. He leaves in 3 weeks and will be gone a month. He received his first dose of hepatitis A vaccine today. Alex should be counseled to return for his second dose of hepatitis A vaccine:
Adults needing protection from the hepatitis A virus should receive a two-dose series. The second dose should be given at least 6 months after the first dose.
All Medicare Part B enrollees are covered for which vaccines?
All Medicare Part B enrollees have coverage for both pneumococcal vaccines and the influenza vaccine, while hepatitis B vaccine is covered only for specific high-risk patients. The Td/Tdap and herpes zoster vaccines are covered under a patient's Medicare Part D plan.
Justin is a healthy 16-year-old boy who has no documentation of varicella vaccine or history of the disease. He should receive:
Anyone aged 7 years and older without evidence of immunity to varicella should receive 2 doses of varicella vaccine. Children aged 7 through 12 years should receive 2 doses 3 months apart. However, if the second dose was administered at least 4 weeks after the first dose, it can be considered valid. Individuals aged 13 years and older should receive 2 doses at least 4 weeks apart.
Upon giving a VIS to a patient who is to receive a vaccine cover under the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act, what must be documented?
As outlined within the Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP) within the NCVIA, a copy of the most up-to-date version of the vaccine information statement (VIS) must be given to the patient or the patient's caregiver before administering the vaccine. The provider must document the patient name, date the vaccine was administered, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, name, address, and title of person administering the vaccine, date printed on the VIS, and date the VIS was given to the vaccine recipient or that person's legal representative. A patient's or caregiver's signature for activities and documents pertaining to vaccine administration is not mandated by federal law. However, some states or employers may require signatures.
If a patient with an egg allergy experiences hives following influenza vaccination, what is ACIP's recommendation for vaccinating this patient against influenza?
As recommended by the ACIP, persons with a history of egg allergy who have experienced only hives after exposure to egg should receive influenza vaccine. Any licensed and recommended influenza vaccine (i.e., any age-appropriate IIV or RIV3) that is otherwise appropriate for the recipient's age and health status may be used. Persons who report having had reactions to egg involving symptoms other than hives, such as angioedema, respiratory distress, lightheadedness, or recurrent emesis; or who required epinephrine or another emergency medical intervention, may similarly receive any licensed and recommended influenza vaccine. However, the selected vaccine should be administered in an inpatient or outpatient medical setting in which the administration should be supervised by a health care provider who is able to recognize and manage severe allergic conditions.
lan is a 47-year-old man who has no documentation of a primary series of tetanus-containing vaccine. Which of the following would be an appropriate primary series for Alan?
DTaP contains higher amounts diphtheria toxoid and pertussis than Tdap. It is only used in children less than 7 years of age to avoid injection site reactions in adolescents and adults. Individuals 7 years of age and older who need protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis should receive Tdap, not DTaP. Adults with an unknown or incomplete history of a 3-dose primary series with tetanus and diphtheria toxoid-containing vaccines should complete the primary series. The initial dose in this series should be Tdap. The second dose should be Td given at least 4 weeks later. The third dose, also using Td, should be 6-12 months after the second dose. A booster of Td is then given every 10 years after the third dose.
Kyle is a 5-year-old boy who is up to date with his vaccinations. He has never experienced any adverse effects from vaccinations. At his next well-child check-up, Kyle will be receiving the following vaccines: IPV, MMR, varicella vaccine, and a tetanus-containing vaccine. Which of the following tetanus-containing vaccines would be appropriate for him?
DTaP is a five-dose series given at ages 2, 4, 6, 15 through 18 months, and 4 through 6 years. Kyle is due for his 5th and final dose of DTaP. DTaP is appropriate for children less than 7 years of age. DT is only reserved for children who have a contraindication to the pertussis component in DTaP. Children, adolescents, and adults 7 years of age and older who require protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis would receive Tdap. Following the one-time dose of Tdap, a Td booster should be given every 10 years.
Which disease is characterized by the development of a membrane on the tonsils, pharynx, or larynx, leading to respiratory obstruction?
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which enters the body through the respiratory tract. C. diphtheriae can infect any mucous membrane in the body, with the most common sites being the tonsils, pharynx, larynx, and nasal mucosa. The infection can cause tissue destruction and usually results in the formation of a pseudomembrane, which is a characteristic sign of diphtheria infection. This bluish-white membrane develops on the tonsils and pharynx within 2 to 3 days. As the membrane extends into the airway, it can lead to respiratory obstruction. Bordetella pertussis, infects the respiratory tract and produces toxins that interfere with the function of the respiratory tract, ultimately causing the characteristic symptoms of pertussis. Symptoms begin as they would for the common cold but then transition to a paroxysmal (whooping) cough. Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) is spread by respiratory transmission and most commonly causes pneumonia, bacteremia, and meningitis. Meningitis is an infection of the brain and spinal cord, which can lead to a variety of complications including brain damage and deafness.
According to ACIP recommendations, HZV is indicated for the prevention of herpes zoster in adults aged:
Even though the herpes zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is FDA approved for individuals aged 50 and older, the ACIP recommends this vaccine for individuals aged 60 and older. There are concerns about waning immunity with this vaccine. If given too soon (before age 60), it may not afford protection in older individuals who are at higher risk of herpes zoster.
vWhich of the following patients is a candidate for both MenACWY and MenB vaccines?
Even though the quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY or MCV4) and the serogroup B meningococcal vaccine both provide protection against meningococcal disease, the risk of infection for the various strains and age indications of vaccines differ. Both are recommended during outbreaks of the respective serogroup(s) as well as for individuals with functional or anatomic asplenia and persistent complement component deficiencies. While MenACWY can be used beginning at age 2 months, MenB is not recommended for use until age 10 years. HIV infection and being in the military are considered risk factors for the serogroups in MenACWY, but not serogroup B.
After completion of a primary vaccine series and documentation of a one-time dose of Tdap, Td booster doses are recommended every:
Following the one-time dose of Tdap that is given after the primary series has been completed, a Td booster should be given every 10 years.
A health care provider who has not been vaccinated against hepatitis B is stuck by a contaminated needle after administering an immunization to a hepatitis B-positive patient. In addition to hepatitis B vaccine, the health care provider also should receive hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBIG) as postexposure prophylaxis because the HBIG provides:
Giving both the hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) allows for active and passive immunity. Active immunity occurs when the antigen from the vaccine triggers the immune system to respond. The vaccine will provide long-term protection but it takes the body about two weeks to develop immunity. Passive immunity happens when antibodies are provided from another source, such as immunoglobulin. Passive immunity is short-live, but it provides protection right away.
What is the time interval for which the development of Guillain-Barré syndrome following influenza vaccination would result in a precaution for future influenza vaccines?
Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune, neuromuscular disease. Although rare, it can occur following viral infections and, in some instances, receipt of influenza and tetanus-containing vaccines. If GBS has occurred within 6 weeks of receipt of either of these vaccines, this would be considered a precaution for future vaccination with the associated vaccine. Such individuals should not be vaccinated unless the benefits of vaccination and preventing disease outweigh the risks of GBS recurring. If GBS occurred greater than 6 weeks following vaccination, then it is not likely that the occurrence of GBS was associated with the vaccine.
Prior to the introduction of a vaccine, what was the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in children younger than 5 years of age?
H. influenzae type b (Hib) is an aerobic gram-negative coccobacillus spread by respiratory transmission from asymptomatic carriers.Before the availability of vaccines, Hib affected 1 of every 200 children in the United States, accounting for more than 20,000 cases each year.It was the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in children younger than 5 years of age. Hib vaccines have been highly effective—disease incidence was reduced from 20,000 cases in 1985 to 17 cases reported in 2010.
Robert is a 48-year-old pharmacist who is preparing to provide immunizations in his pharmacy for the first time next fall. He has no documentation of receiving the hepatitis B vaccine and would like to be vaccinated before administering vaccines in his practice. What is the recommended routine schedule for vaccination against hepatitis B?
Hepatitis B vaccine is routinely given as a 3-dose series. For adults seeking protection against the hepatitis B virus, the routine schedule is 0, 1, and 6 months.
Which viruses are associated with the development of cancer?
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a sexually transmitted disease that infects epithelial cells. It is known to cause a variety of cancers, including cervical cancer. Hepatitis B is a bloodborne pathogen that replicates in the liver. It can cause a variety of complications, including liver cancer. Up to 80% of hepatocellular cancers are caused by hepatitis B. Hepatitis A is spread by the fecal-oral route. While it can cause a variety of liver problems, including inflammation, jaundice, dark urine, and, rarely, liver failure, it does not cause chronic infection or cancer. Neither the varicella virus, which includes herpes zoster, nor rubella have been linked with the development of cancer.
For a patient who needs to receive IIV and HZV, which of the following best describes appropriate administration of these vaccines?
IIV is the inactivated influenza vaccine and HZV is the live, attenuated herpes zoster vaccine. Inactivated vaccines do not interfere with the immune response to other vaccines, live or inactivated. There is no need to observe any minimum interval between doses of two different inactivated vaccines, nor between combinations of inactivated and live vaccines. The concern is when two live vaccines are not administered at the same clinic visit. If two live vaccines are not given simultaneously, at least 4 weeks must pass before giving the other live vaccine.
Which of the following immunization strategies is preferred for adults under the age of 65 years with immunocompromising conditions who require both PCV13 and PPSV23?
Ideally, when individuals require both PCV13 and PPSV23, PCV13 should be given first. For those with immunocompromising conditions at high-risk for pneumococcal disease, the interval between PCV13 and PPSV23 is at least 8 weeks. This 8-week interval also applies to those with asplenia, cochlear implants, and cerebrospinal fluid leaks. All others would wait at least one year between the two vaccines.
If a vial of influenza vaccine is left out of the refrigerator on the pharmacy counter overnight, what should be done with the vaccine?
If a vaccine has been exposed to temperatures outside the recommended range, the vaccine should be quarantined and stored in the refrigerator or freezer (as appropriate based on where the vaccine should usually be stored). In the case, the IIV should be placed back in the refrigerator. This quarantined vaccine should be clearly marked "do not use" and the manufacturer should be contacted for further guidance. Pharmacists should document each of these steps any time there is a break in the cold chain.
If a patient received the first dose of HepB but did not return for the remaining doses in the series, under what circumstances should the HepB series be restarted?
If patients fall behind with vaccinations given in a multi-dose series, it usually is not necessary to start the series over; oral typhoid is the one exception. Increasing the interval between doses of a multi-dose vaccine series does not diminish the ultimate effectiveness of the vaccine, but it does delay protection for the patient.
According to ACIP recommendations, what is the maximum number of doses of PPSV23 a patient should receive in his or her lifetime?
Immunocompromised individuals and those with asplenia should receive two doses of PPSV23 five years apart. If the second dose was administered prior to age 65, then a third dose would be given after the individual turns 65 (and five years after the previous dose). It is possible for these individuals to receive up to three doses of PPSV23. However, there are no circumstances in which more than three doses would be recommended.
Jackie is a 34-year-old woman who received an influenza vaccine from you today. She wants to know how long it will take for the vaccine to begin working to protect her from getting the flu. What would be the most appropriate response to this patient?
Immunologic Memory.
In 2014, which vaccination rate was lowest among adolescents 13 through 17 years of age?
In 2014, the vaccination rate for 3 doses of HPV in females and males ages 13 through 17 years was 40% and 22%, respectively. This was drastically lower than other vaccines routinely recommended for adolescents. The rate of meningococcal (MenACWY) vaccination in this age group was 79%. The rate of Tdap vaccination was 88%. The rate of at least 2 doses of MMR vaccination was 91%.
If a patient is a candidate for revaccination with PPSV23, what is the ACIP-recommended interval between doses of this vaccine?
Individuals at high-risk for pneumococcal disease may require one to three doses of PPSV23, depending on age and condition. When multiple doses are required, the interval between doses should be 5 years. For example, individuals under the age of 65 who are immunocompromised or have asplenia should receive two doses of PPSV23 five years apart. If the second dose was administered prior to age 65, then a third dose would be given after the individual turns 65 (and five years after the previous dose).
Which of the following is most likely to result in an influenza pandemic?
Influenza A is the main contributor to pandemic and epidemic outbreaks of disease. A pandemic is a worldwide outbreak. In the case of influenza, this is often due to an antigenic shift in which one or both of the surface antigens on the influenza A virus change. A new strain is created that can result in widespread infection. Antigenic drift occurs continuously and leads to minor changes in the structure of the virus, but does not result in new strains.
At what point during pregnancy is it recommended to administer the influenza vaccine?
Influenza vaccination during pregnancy not only decreases the risks for influenza-related complications during pregnancy, but has also been shown to reduce influenza-related hospitalizations in newborns. For women pregnant during the influenza season, the ACIP recommends that the influenza vaccine be given during any trimester. While there may be some vaccines that are more effective when given during a specific trimester (e.g., Tdap) or others that may be safer to administer prior to or after pregnancy (e.g., live vaccines), the influenza vaccine does not have these issues and can be given at any time.
Tom is a 9-year old boy who has never had an influenza vaccine. Tom's mother shows you his up-to-date immunization record and reports that he has never had any adverse reactions to vaccinations. What dose and schedule of IIV should be administered to Tom?
Influenza vaccination is universally recommended beginning at age 6 months. Children aged 6 months through 8 years who have not previously received at least two dose of the influenza vaccine should receive 2 doses, 4 weeks apart. Beginning at age 9, children only need one dose during an influenza season. The dose of influenza vaccine is 0.25 mL for children aged 6 months through 2 years. Children 3 years of age and older would get 0.5 mL.
Aiden is a 6-month-old healthy boy with no known allergies. He has received vaccinations in the past with no reported adverse reactions. Aiden's father asks about having his son vaccinated against influenza. The most appropriate response would be to inform the father that Aiden:
Influenza vaccination is universally recommended beginning at age 6 months. Children aged 6 months through 8 years who have not previously received at least two dose of the influenza vaccine should receive 2 doses, 4 weeks apart. Children aged 6 months can be given either the trivalent or quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV3 or IIV4), so long as the age indications for the product are appropriate. It is not recommended that LAIV be used for the current influenza season. Furthermore, LAIV is approved for healthy individuals 2 through 49 years of age. Even if it was recommended, Aiden would be too young.
Which of the following statements would be accurate when responding to a patient's concerns about the safety of vaccines?
Injectable influenza vaccine is inactivated (i.e., killed), thus it is impossible for this vaccine to cause influenza. The intranasal influenza vaccine is a live vaccine, but the virus has been modified so that it cannot cause disease. No vaccine is 100% effective and efficacy varies depending on the vaccine. Furthermore, if illness does occur in someone vaccinated, it is often less severe. Thimerosal is a mercury-containing compound that has been used for decades as a preservative in vaccines to prevent bacterial contamination. There is no scientific evidence showing any short- or long-term harm from exposure to thimerosal in vaccines. One myth that has circulated about vaccines is that some manufacturer lots are associated with higher incidences of adverse events reported to VAERS (i.e., hot lots). To date, no vaccine lot in the modern era has been found to be unsafe on the basis of VAERS reports. There is a misperception that giving several vaccines on the same day overloads the patient's immune system. In immunocompetent people of any age, the immune system is fully capable of eliciting an appropriate immune response to multiple antigens administered on the same day through vaccination. In fact, a person's immune system is exposed to more antigens every day from food or bacteria in the mouth and nose than from some vaccines.
Even though state laws may have specific mandates, how long should pharmacists maintain records of immunizations?
Keeping Immunization RecordsImmunizations should become part of the patient's permanent record and should be kept for the patient's lifetime.
Which of the following statements about live attenuated vaccines is true?
Live attenuated vaccines are produced by weakening the virus or bacteria to reduce the likelihood that it can cause disease. Inactivated vaccines are produced by killing the virus or bacteria. They include polysaccharide vaccines (which can be conjugated or unconjugated), toxoids, or cellular vaccines (which can be viruses or bacteria, or fractions of either). Live attenuated vaccines tend to produce more persistent, longer-lasting immunity than inactivated vaccines. Live attenuated vaccines must replicate in order for the body to produce an immune response. If given to a patient with a compromised immune system, there is a chance they could replicate in an uncontrolled fashion and cause disease. Circulating antibodies may interfere with a live attenuated vaccine's ability to replicate.
Which of the following diseases are transmitted through mosquito bites?
Mosquito-borne infections for which vaccines are available include yellow fever and Japanese encephalitis. Typhoid fever is spread by Salmonella typhi in food and water. Hepatitis A is spread via the fecal-oral route. Haemophilus influenzae type b and measles are spread by respiratory transmission.
If pharmacists are called upon to assist with vaccination efforts following a natural disaster, which vaccine is likely to be needed by many of the victims?
Natural disasters, such as hurricanes, earthquakes, and floods, may increase the risk for tetanus infections due to environmental microbes, such as the contamination of wounds from bacteria in the soil. Therefore, it is important to provide Td or Tdap vaccination for victims in disaster-affected areas. Natural disasters have not been found to increase risk for pneumococcal disease, measles, mumps, rubella, or meningococcal B.