I/O Psych- Exam Qs

According to the EEOC's 80% rule for determining disparate impact of hiring practices on a minority group, disparate impact occurs when Select one: A.the hiring rate of a protected group is less than 80% of the hiring rate of another group. B.80% or more of applicants in a protected group are not hired. C.less than 20% of applicants for the job are members of any protected group. D.the number of people who would have been hired based on a random selection process is more than 80% greater than the number of protected group applicants hired.

Correct Answer is: A According to the EEOC's Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Criteria, disparate impact (also known as adverse impact) occurs if members of a protected class are selected at a rate less than 4/5ths, or 80% of the selection rate of another group. For example, if 2 out of every 10, or 20%, of African American applicants are hired, and 3 out of 10, or 30%, whites are hired, the ratio of the selection rates for the two groups would be 20/30, or 66%. This would indicate adverse impact against African-Americans in the hiring practice. Note that since this guideline was published, legal standards such as the Civil Rights Act of 1991 have held that failure to adhere to the 80% rule is not, by itself, sufficient to provide the basis for an adverse impact claim. Usually, additional proof, such as statistically significant differences between the hiring rates of two groups is required.

According to Donald Super, job choice, job satisfaction, and life satisfaction are predicated on: Select one: A.the self-concept. B.personality traits. C.early childhood experience. D.biological factors.

Correct Answer is: A Donald Super developed a comprehensive theory of vocational development. According to the theory, individuals choose occupations that are consistent with their self-concept, which develops in a predictable sequence of stages. Job satisfaction and life satisfaction are both a function of the degree to which one's activities are consistent with the self-concept. Super's Career and Life Development Theory: Super's (1996) life-space, life-span theory of career development is based on the assumptions that career development can be described in terms of a predictable sequence of stages and that the tasks of each stage must be mastered in order for the individual to progress to the next stage. Key concepts in Super's theory are self-concept, life span, career maturity, life space and life-career rainbow. Self-concept refers to the person's abilities, interests, values, personality traits, physicality, etc. Super suggested people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles.

Super's theory of career development views "career maturity" as: Select one: A.the extent to which a person has mastered the tasks related to his or her developmental stage. B.knowing how to choose a career that is consistent with your self-concept. C.unattainable for most people. D.attainable, but typically not until mid-life or later.

Correct Answer is: A Donald Super proposed a five stage model of career development: growth (birth-15 yrs), exploration (15-24 yrs), establishment (25-44 yrs), maintenance (45-64 yrs), and decline (65+ yrs). A person is considered to have reached "career maturity" when he or she has mastered the tasks of his or her developmental stage and is prepared to enter the next stage. The term "self concept" is another important aspect of Super's theory and refers to a person's abilities, interests, values, personality traits, etc. He believed that people choose a career that is consistent with their self-concept.

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, an employee who is happy with which of the following job elements will most likely be satisfied with her job? Select one: A.job content B.relationships with coworkers C.pay D.job security

Correct Answer is: A Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job elements into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors result in job dissatisfaction when absent, but do not lead to job satisfaction when present. Motivators result in job satisfaction when present, but do not lead to dissatisfaction when absent. Of the choices listed, only job content is a motivator. According to the theory, motivators are intrinsic to the work (i.e., they have to do with the job itself), while hygiene factors are extrinsic to the work. The other three choices are not directly related to the job itself and are classified by Herzberg as hygiene factors.

According to Super's theory, job satisfaction is most related to: Select one: A.the development of their self-concept through their work roles B.the development of career maturity C.awareness of personal reality and common reality D.successful crossing of the Life Career-Rainbow

Correct Answer is: A In Super's theory, people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles. the development of career maturity Career maturity results when a person masters the tasks at his or her developmental stage. awareness of personal reality and common reality This choice refers to Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman's model that an awareness of personal and common reality enhances career development. successful crossing of the Life Career-Rainbow The Life Career Rainbow refers to nine major roles that individuals adopt throughout their career development (e.g. student, parent, spouse, worker).

From an organizational systems approach, positive feedback is most useful as an intervention in order to: Select one: A.provide information which helps plan for corrective actions. B.reinforce adaptive responses. C.extinguish maladaptive organizational interactions. D.establish productive work groups.

Correct Answer is: A In any system, feedback is useful to make corrections. Even our nervous system makes use of this phenomenon: as your body temperature rises on a cold morning, you stop shivering. Likewise with institutions and organizations. This question asks about positive feedback, which, in systems terminology, refers to information that encourages disruption from the status quo. In organizational consulting and family therapy, positive feedback is used to correct or change a pattern; in response to positive feedback the system deviates from homeostasis, or the status quo. This question is not about reinforcing other patterns or extinguishing maladaptive patterns, as two of the choices indicate. These terms are related to behavioral learning theory, not systems theory.

An employer is concerned about the high voluntary turnover rates in her company. Which of the following would be most useful for ensuring that she identifies job applicants who are at high-risk for quitting their jobs if they are hired? Select one: A.a biographical information form B.an interview C.a personality test D.a measure of "g"

Correct Answer is: A Meta-analyses of the research on the validity of various selection techniques has looked at the relationship between different predictors and different outcome measures. Of the various commonly-used predictors, biographical information has the highest correlation with turnover.

The notion that a person would not mind losing money in a civil judgment following a trial as much as she would mind losing it to a thief is related to the concept of Select one: A.procedural justice. B.distributive justice. C.social exchange theory. D.cognitive dissonance. Feedback

Correct Answer is: A Procedural justice is commonly defined by way of a distinction from distributive justice. Judgments of distributive justice are based on comparisons between one's own outcomes to those of others; fairness is perceived when those outcomes are perceived as equal. By contrast, judgments of procedural justice depend on perceptions of fairness in the processes that lead to outcomes. The question describes a situation in which outcomes are equal but the processes that led to them were different. If the person had been focused on distributive justice, she would have been equally upset about losing money in either circumstance, in the trial or to the thief. However, if she is less upset losing the money in a civil judgment, her judgment of fairness may be related to the process by which the money was lost; for example, she may have perceived the trial as reasonably fair. Therefore, procedural justice is the best answer of the choices listed.

According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership? Select one: A.consideration and initiating structure B.employee-centered and production-centered C.autocratic and democratic D.authoritarian and laissez-faire

Correct Answer is: A Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered ("employee-centered and production-centered"). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people.

The most common type of work-family conflict is: Select one: A.time-based B.strain-based C.behaviorally-based D.systemically-based

Correct Answer is: A Research suggests that high levels of work-family conflict are related to negative outcomes for the individual (life dissatisfaction, anxiety, poor health), for relationships (increased interpersonal conflict, divorce), and for the organization (absenteeism, tardiness, loss of talented employees). Work-family conflict can be time-based, strain-based, or behavior-based. Time-based conflict, which occurs when role pressures stemming from the two different domains compete for the individual's time, is the most common type of work-family conflict. It is based on the scarcity hypothesis, that the sum of a person's energy is fixed; therefore multiple roles inevitably reduces the time and energy available to meet all role demands, resulting in strain and work-family conflict. Much of the research on work-family conflict has been based on this premise proposed by role theory and role scarcity. Work-family conflict is bi-directional; work can interfere with family and family can interfere with work. These are referred to as work-to-family conflict and family-to-work conflict. Recent research, based on the enhancement theory, suggests quality multiple roles provide additional sources of social support, increased skills, and heightened self-esteem and well being. Evidence of positive spillover, both from work to home and from home to work, continues to be found. Strain-based conflict occurs when the strain experienced in one role domain interferes with effective performance of role behaviors in the other domain. Behavior-based conflict is described as conflict stemming from incompatible behaviors demanded by competing roles. Recent research, using a systems perspective, demonstrates that one member of a dyad can impact the other's experience of work-family conflict. The effects of this work and family stress and strain are referred to as "crossover effects."

Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams? Select one: A.Each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product. B.Members plan the group's work processes and set the group's work goals. C.Members may be authorized to hire their own replacements. D.Members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups.

Correct Answer is: A Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) a broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.

Which of the following is NOT considered a disability according to the Americans with Disabilities Act? Select one: A.Gender Identity Disorder B.Paraplegia C.Schizophrenia D.Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Correct Answer is: A The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 prohibits employers from discriminating against a qualified individual based on his or her disability. The ADA defines a disability as "a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities" of an individual. However, it specifically excludes certain conditions including: transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia, exhibitionism, voyeurism, gender identity disorders not resulting from physical impairments, or other sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, and psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from current illegal use of drugs. All of the other choices would, therefore, be considered a disability.

Goal setting as a motivational technique is most effective when: Select one: A.performance goals are difficult and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal B.performance goals are difficult and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal C.performance goals are easy and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal D.performance goals are easy and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal

Correct Answer is: A The technique of goal setting involves allowing workers to set their own performance goals, or setting performance goals for them that they accept. Research on goal-setting theory indicates that the technique is most effective when goals are at least moderately difficult and specific feedback regarding progress toward the goal is provided.

Organizational justice research indicates: Select one: A.procedural justice is the best predictor of work performance and of counterproductive work behavior, but all justice forms are related to organizational citizenship behaviors. B.distributive justice is the best predictor of work performance and counterproductive work behavior, but all justice forms are related to organizational citizenship behaviors. C.procedural and distributive justice are the best predictors of work performance and counterproductive work behavior, but interactional justice is the best predictor of organizational citizenship behaviors. D.procedural and distributive justice are the best predictors of work performance, counterproductive work behavior, and organizational citizenship behaviors.

Correct Answer is: A While there is no current consensus over the dimensions of justice in the organizational justice literature, two meta-analyses that used three and four-construct concepts found overlapping results on justice dimensions that predicted different outcomes. Cohen-Charash & Spector (2001) used a three-construct concept (distributive, procedural, and interactional) of justice to investigate the role of justice in organization outcomes. Whereas Colquitt et al.'s (2001) meta-analysis reviewed 25 years of organizational justice research focusing on the operationalizations of justice using the dimensions of distributive, procedural, informational, and interpersonal justice. Despite the differences, results from both indicated procedural justice is the best predictor of work performance and counterproductive work behavior. Organizational citizenship behaviors were found to be related to all dimensions of justice in both studies and noted in Colquitt et al as support for interactional justice to be distinguished as two specific types of interpersonal treatment: interpersonal and informal justice.

According to Edgar Schein, the concept of career anchor refers to: Select one: A.the tendency to stay in a financially secure position regardless of personal interest B.the motivation of priorities that define how people see themselves and their work C.the motivation of advancement opportunities to stay with an organization D.the tendency to stay in a position regardless of advancement opportunities

Correct Answer is: B A person's career anchor is his or her self-concept consisting of self-perceived talents and abilities, basic values, motives, and needs as they pertain to the career. Schein says that people are primarily motivated by one of eight anchors - priorities that define how they see themselves and how they see their work. The eight anchors include: technical/functional competence - a desire to excel in a chosen line of work; general managerial competence - closely allied with the traditional career path of the corporation; autonomy/independence - individuals just want to be alone; security/stability - value predictable environment in which tasks and policies are clearly codified and defined; entrepreneurial creativity - desire to create something of own and run it; service/dedication to a cause - the need to focus work around a specific set of values; pure challenge - seek to solve or master challenges; and lifestyle - organized around an individual's private life.

According to McClelland's Need for Achievement theory, individuals high in Need for Achievement will prefer: Select one: A.difficult tasks which bring very high acclaim when achieved. B.moderately difficult tasks which are both attainable and difficult enough to satisfy the person's need to feel a sense of accomplishment. C.easy tasks which are very easy to achieve and therefore provide immediate gratification of the person's needs. D.any task which gives the person the opportunity for recognition and control over others.

Correct Answer is: B According to McClelland's theory, three needs underlie motivation: need for achievement, need for power, and need for affiliation. Individuals high in need for achievement tend to seek autonomy, personal responsibility, and recognition for their efforts. Since the need for achievement is balanced against a need to avoid failure, these individuals tend to prefer moderately difficult goals and tasks. McClelland used individuals' responses to TAT cards to investigate the needs that underlie motivation. His research suggested that a primary motivator is the need for achievement (nACh). People with a high need for achievement desire autonomy and personal responsibility, prefer moderately difficult goals, and seek recognition for their efforts. They are highly motivated to put effort into their work and tend to stay on the job longer and perform better. McClelland believed that, through training, people with a low need for achievement could develop higher levels of this need. Research on need for achievement suggests that it is strongly related to entrepreneurial success. McClelland also identified two other needs that act as motivators. People with a high need for power (nPOW) are motivated by control over others, visibility, prestige, status, and recognition. Leaders high in nPOW tend to be more effective managers than those who are low in this need. People with a high need for affiliation (nAFF) are motivated by good interpersonal relationships; they are sensitive to criticism and prefer to avoid conflict whenever possible.

The motivation theory that proposes a continuum of needs that is comparable to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory but attempts to overcome shortcomings of Maslow's theory is Select one: A.Equity theory. B.ERG theory. C.Expectancy theory. D.Goal-Setting Theory.

Correct Answer is: B Alderfer's ERG theory of motivation proposes three categories of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth needs. Existence needs are material and are met by environmental factors such as (in the workplace) pay and benefits. Relatedness needs are met by relationships with superiors, co-workers, and subordinates. Growth needs are met by opportunities for personal development such as the chance to develop abilities that are important to the person. These three categories exist on a continuum from concrete to abstract; existence needs are the most concrete and relatedness needs are the most abstract. The theory is similar to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory in that it proposes a continuum of needs, but differs in a number of ways as well. For instance, in ERG theory, a person can move back and forth on the needs continuum. Specifically, according to ERG theory, difficulties in satisfying the more abstract needs causes frustration regression, or a greater focus on fulfilling needs on the next level below.

Communication networks in which information passes along a chain of command are associated with: Select one: A.complex job tasks B.simple job tasks C.increased individual satisfaction D.collaborative job tasks

Correct Answer is: B Centralized communication networks, where all communication passes through one position or person, have been shown to be more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple. Formal communication networks where information moves between many positions or people (decentralized communication networks) work best with complex and/or collaborative job tasks. Research indicates decentralized networks also result in more individual satisfaction.

According to Hershey and Blanchard's theory of situational leadership, a leader must respond to a particular work situation with the appropriate Select one: A.task and subordinate orientation. B.task and relationship orientation. C.subordinate and relationship orientation. D.task and temporal orientation.

Correct Answer is: B Hershey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory holds that there is no one correct leadership style across situations; depending on the situation, the leader must respond with the correct task and relationship behavior or orientation. Leadership behaviors are classified as either high or low in task orientation or relationship orientation, resulting in four possible leadership styles. The correct style depends on the maturity level of subordinates. At the lowest maturity levels, where followers cannot do the job and are unwilling or afraid to try, the leader should adopt a high task/low relationship style called Telling / Directing. At the next lowest level, followers have variable competence, and are willing to do the job; the appropriate leadership orientation in this case is high task/high relationship, or Selling / Coaching. Workers at the second highest developmental level can do the job but are uncommitted or unmotivated; here, a low task/high relationship style, Participating / Supporting, is recommended. Finally, the least directive style of leadership, the low task/low relationship oriented style called Delegating / Observing, is recommended for workers at the highest maturity levels - those who are competent and motivated to perform.

According to Holland, a person who enjoys taking engines apart and rebuilding them would be categorized as: Select one: A.conventional B.realistic C.enterprising D.artistic

Correct Answer is: B Holland distinguished between six personality types. The Realistic type prefers activities involving the manipulation of machinery or tools. The Conventional type* prefers manipulating data. The Enterprising type* seeks economic or professional achievement through manipulating others. The Artistic type* is creative, introspective, and nonconforming (* incorrect options).

In Super's theory of career development, the rainbow is used to illustrate: Select one: A.the skills, abilities, and knowledge that a person brings to a job. B.the different roles a person assumes during the course of his or her life. C.the stages of career maturity. D.the social and other environmental determinants of career choice.

Correct Answer is: B In his recent writings, Super depicts various aspects of his theory of career development with illustrations. His "life career rainbow" depicts nine major life roles (e.g., student, parent, spouse) that have an impact on a person's career choice.

Research has generally found that job enrichment: Select one: A.increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction particularly among blue collar workers B.increases job satisfaction and decreases absenteeism, particularly among younger, well-educated employees C.increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance D.has no significant effects on job satisfaction or performance Feedback

Correct Answer is: B Job enrichment involves redesigning a job in order to enable workers to have more challenge, responsibility, decision-making authority, and opportunities for advancement. Although the research findings are mixed, they generally have found that job enrichment leads to increased job satisfaction, decreased absenteeism and turnover, and in some cases, increased job performance in terms of quality rather than quantity. The benefits of job enrichment are greatest among younger, well-educated, employees who have a high need for achievement.

Which of the following is not one of the three forms of job commitment? Select one: A.affective commitment B.continuance commitment C.instrumental commitment D.normative commitment

Correct Answer is: C Factor analysis has shown that job commitment has three forms. Affective commitment* refers to the employee's psychological attitudes toward the organization; continuance commitment* refers to the costs of leaving the company and normative commitment* is the employee's perceived obligation to stay with the company (* incorrect choices). Continuance commitment is least related to job satisfaction and other job-related attitudes and more to practical considerations.

An important decision when utilizing the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection is: Select one: A.how to weigh each predictor. B.which order to administer the predictors. C.if the same person should administer the criterion and evaluate predictor performance. D.which statistical test to use to assess if the results are significant.

Correct Answer is: B Multiple hurdles approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures one at a time. The usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique is maximized by administering the predictors in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).

Which aspect is not associated with organizational citizenship behavior? Select one: A.contextual performance B.responsibility C.altruism D.generalized compliance

Correct Answer is: B Organ defined organizational citizenship behavior as discretionary, voluntary behaviors that are not part of an employee's specified role requirements nor formally rewarded by the organization and in aggregate, contribute to organizational effectiveness by enhancing the "social and psychological context that supports task performance" (Organ 1997: 91). Smith, Organ, and Near (1983) initially identified two distinct OCB dimensions: altruism*, defined as behaviors directed toward a specific person such as helping co-workers with work-related tasks and generalized compliance*, defined as behaviors representative of what a "good worker" should do, such as arriving on time and not wasting time while at work. Organ (1988) later proposed a five-factor model of OCB which included altruism as previously defined; (2) conscientiousness, previously referred to as generalized compliance by Smith et al. (1983) and representing behaviors that go above and beyond minimal expectations of good workers in areas such as attendance, timeliness, and conservation of resources; (3) sportsmanship, referring to behaviors such as tolerating trivial or minor inconveniences without complaining or initiating a grievance; (4) courtesy, involving anticipatory acts that help someone else prevent a problem such as consulting with others when making decisions that may affect them or providing relevant information in advance; and (5) civic virtue, referring to constructive involvement or participation in the overall organization and may include attending meetings regarding the organization. A number of other OCB dimensions have since been proposed and examined, with estimates ranging from one to seven; however most of the OCB literature relies either on the initial two factors or the five dimensions of Organ's (1988) taxonomy (LePine et al, 2002). Contextual performance* is work behavior that affects organizational performance less directly than the task-related behavior typically construed as "performance" and is often used synonymously with OCB in recent studies (* incorrect choices).

A current trend in the field of personnel management is using selection techniques that ensure a good "person-organization fit." The research suggests that a good fit: Select one: A.has positive effects on individual satisfaction, commitment, and productivity as well as significant long-term benefits at the organizational level. B.has positive effects on individual satisfaction, commitment, and productivity but may have negative long-term effects at the organizational level. C.has little or no effect on individual satisfaction, commitment, and productivity but does have long-term benefits at the organizational level. D.has negative effects on individual satisfaction, commitment, and productivity and few long-term effects at the organizational level.

Correct Answer is: B Research on person-organization fit has focused primarily on individual outcomes (which seem positive). The few studies that have looked at organizational-level effects are not as supportive and suggest that, in the long run, too good of a fit between the employees and the organization can reduce creativity, adaptability to change, etc.

Super's conceptual model of the life rainbow depicts: Select one: A.life stages. B.life roles. C.self-concept growth. D.occupational interests.

Correct Answer is: B Super's (1990) life-span, life-space approach to career development uses the life-career rainbow and the archway model to communicate the personal (e.g., values, needs, and interests) and situational (e.g., community, school, and social policies) determinants that influence when and how people play particular life roles and the degree of importance any life role holds. The rainbow is a longitudinal two-dimensional graphic depicting nine life roles that are played in four theaters as one progresses through five developmental stages. Super (1980) identified the nine primary life roles as: child, student, worker, partner, parent, citizen, homemaker, leisurite, and pensioner; the four theaters as: home, school, community, and workplace; and the five life stages as: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. The conceptual model emphasizes that individuals are involved in several roles simultaneously and that roles affect each other. Super (1990) later created the Archway model (1990) to clarify the influence of biographical-geographical, psychological, and socioeconomic components on career development.

Of the five personality dimensions listed below, the one most consistently associated with job success is Select one: A.extraversion. B.conscientiousness. C.openness to experience. D.agreeableness.

Correct Answer is: B The personality dimensions here, along with neuroticism, make up the traits identified by the Five-Factor model of personality. These are dimensions of personality identified by factor analyses that have been confirmed across different cultures. They can be remembered by using the acronym OCEAN or CANOE. Of the five dimensions, conscientiousness--the tendency to show self-discipline, act dutifully, and aim for achievement--has been shown to be most consistently related to different measures of job performance and success. For instance, in one study, conscientiousness was demonstrated to have significant correlations with measures of job proficiency, training proficiency, and performance data in personnel records.

Which of the following work schedules would most likely result in improved job satisfaction? Select one: A.five-day fixed day shift B.compressed week C.rotating shifts on a weekly basis D.rotating shifts on a quarterly basis

Correct Answer is: B The research on alternative work schedules is mixed; however, one consistent finding is that rotating shifts result in lowered productivity and satisfaction, higher accident rates, and more physical and mental health problems. Obviously, the more frequent the change in schedule, the more difficult it would be to adapt. On the other hand, compressed work week schedules, such as the 4/40, usually result in improved job satisfaction and decreased absenteeism. However, compressed schedules usually have no effect on productivity or, depending on the job, possibly a negative affect (while flextime schedules result in improved productivity, absenteeism, and satisfaction).

Herbert Simon's decision-making model suggests that decision makers Select one: A.consider all alternatives and then pick the best one. B.consider alternatives only until they find one that seems acceptable. C.consider only those alternatives that have a 50% or better chance of success. D.rely more on their affective than cognitive reactions when choosing an alternative.

Correct Answer is: B To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.

The three dimensions of situational control identified by Fiedler include all of the following except: Select one: A.leader-employee relations B.position or legitimate power C.role expectations D.task structure

Correct Answer is: C Fiedler's Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and distinguishes between two types of leaders - high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance). Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader's success is contingent on the situation, task to be completed, leader's style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder, situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.

Personal reality and common reality were defined by: Select one: A.Ginzberg's Stages of Career Development B.Super's Career and Life Development C.Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman's Decision Making Model D.Gottfredson's Theory of Career Development

Correct Answer is: C Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman defined personal authoritative reality as what feels right to the individual and common reality as what the individual is told they should do. This was an expansion on Tiedeman and O'Hare's Decision Making Model. The other responses also represent stage theories of career choice. Ginzberg's theory contains three periods (fantasy, tentative, and realistic) with sub-stages corresponding to ages preteen through the early 20's. (See: Ginzberg, E., Ginzberg, S.W., Axelrad, S., & Herman, J.L. (1951). Occupational Choice: an approach to a general theory. New York: Columbia University Press; Ginzberg, E. (1972). Toward a theory of occupational choice: A restatement. Vocational Guidance Quarterly, 20, 169-176.) Super's stages continue across the life-span. In Gottfredson's theory, there are four stages of cognitive development: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness. The first stage typically begins around age 3 and the last in mid-adolescence. The theory addresses how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice.

When Total Quality Management (TQM) fails, it is often because Select one: A.there are too few managers. B.there is too much attention to customer demands. C.the employees are not given sufficient responsibility. D.the rewards are not distributed fairly.

Correct Answer is: C TQM is an organizational philosophy that focuses on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. An important characteristic of TQM is its involvement of employees in all aspects of decision-making, and failures are often due to management's unwillingness to do this.

Which of the "Big Five" personality traits is most associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder? Select one: A.low on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness B.low on neuroticism, low on openness, low on extroversion C.high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness D.high on neuroticism, low on openness, low on agreeableness

Correct Answer is: C The Big Five personality traits: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism ("OCEAN") have been matched with several of the personality disorders. Antisocial Personality Disorder was found to be associated with low scores in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness and generally higher scores in Neuroticism and Extroversion. Note that "neuroticism" is sometimes referred to as its opposite: "emotional stability".

You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they're being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to Select one: A.explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators. B.conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators. C.act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind. D.help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.

Correct Answer is: D A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns. Thus, this choice is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators. By comparison, these two choices would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation process consultation= A model of organizational consultation in which the consultant focuses on identifying and improving maladaptive interactional processes occurring between group members.

Most studies of correlates of industrial accidents indicate that the strongest association is with Select one: A.machine malfunction. B.organizational ambiance. C.supervisory attitude. D.human error.

Correct Answer is: D As you can imagine, what people do (or don't do) is the leading cause of industrial accidents. Not paying attention, daydreaming, not fixing the machine correctly, not training properly, etc., all can lead to accidents. It follows that to correct this problem one would want people trained better and one would want an environment in which attention is paid to possible accident-causing conditions.

Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model? Select one: A.learning B.reaction C.results D.return on investment

Correct Answer is: D Donald Kirkpatrick's (1959, 1998) model for evaluating training and learning programs includes four levels: reaction, learning, behavior and result. Each level of evaluation is used to assess the effectiveness of training programs and the effects of the training on the employees. Level 1 ("reaction") evaluations focus on the individual's response to the training or intervention. Level 2 ("learning") measures what has been learned, often using pre/post-tests or end-of-course tests. Level 3 evaluations assess the impact of the intervention on the individual's behavior or performance in the workplace and level 4 ("results") measure the impact of training on the organization's results. (See: Kirkpatrick, D.L. (1998). Evaluating Training Programs: The Four Levels (3rd ed.). San Francisco, California: Berrett-Koehler.) Return on investment (ROI), is a "level 5" evaluation, proposed by Jack Phillips, used to calculate the return on investment of an intervention or training. Phillips' Five Level ROI is an expansion of Kirkpatrick's model and encourages ROI evaluations for each of the first four levels.

According to Fiedler's contingency theory, the most effective leaders: Select one: A.are person-oriented, as opposed to task-oriented B.are able to alter their leadership style to fit the demands of the situation C.are able to alter their leadership style to match the characteristics of the employee D.have a leadership style that matches the demands of the situation

Correct Answer is: D Fiedler's Contingency (LPC) theory proposes that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. However, Fiedler believed that leaders cannot change their leadership style. Rather, their effectiveness is determined by the match between the leader's style and the demands of the situation. A high LPC leader describes his least preferred coworker in positive terms and is primarily person-centered. Whereas, a low LPC leader describes his least preferred coworker in negative terms and is more task-oriented. Low LPC leaders are most effective in either "very favorable" or "very unfavorable" situations, in which favorableness refers to amount of control. High LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

A recent trend in organizational compensation is to use team and organization-wide incentives. Research evaluating the effects of these incentives suggests that: Select one: A.they are associated with lower levels of productivity than individual incentives. B.they are associated with lower levels of productivity than individual incentives as well as with lower morale, increased sabotage, and other undesirable consequences. C.they have little or no effect on productivity but do improve satisfaction and commitment. D.they have positive effects on productivity, especially when incentives are linked to performance.

Correct Answer is: D Gainsharing and profit-sharing are the most common group and organization-wide incentive plans used in organizations. The studies have found that they are associated with increased productivity, especially gainsharing which more closely links bonuses to individual and group performance.

Locke and Latham's goal-setting theory focuses primarily on: Select one: A.ability and effort. B.perceived effort and performance. C.expectations and effort. D.intentions and effort.

Correct Answer is: D Goal-setting theory proposes that, when people accept goals, they intend to achieve them and, therefore, are willing to put forth the effort to do so.

A selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will have the greatest incremental validity when: Select one: A.the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20 B.the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50 C.the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20 D.the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50

Correct Answer is: D Information on a test's incremental validity for differing combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients is provided by the Taylor-Russell tables. Decision-making accuracy can improve on a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

In applied industrial settings, Maslow's theory has been shown to be: Select one: A.applicable for lower-level employees only. B.appropriate for supervisors but not managers. C.applicable across the board. D.not applicable

Correct Answer is: D Maslow's theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true.

Recent meta-analyses of the research on work-family conflict suggest that it is: Select one: A.only a problem for married employees. B.related more to job satisfaction for men than for women. C.related to job satisfaction but not life satisfaction. D.related more to life satisfaction for women than for men.

Correct Answer is: D Meta-analyses indicate that work-family conflict has an impact on job satisfaction and life satisfaction for both men and women. However, there is some evidence that it's effects for women may be greater, especially in terms of life satisfaction.

The intervention known as organizational transformation or development, typically focuses on Select one: A.identifying and implementing specific target areas for change. B.increasing cohesiveness of the organization's members. C.group processes and dynamics within the organization. D.the entire organization's vision.

Correct Answer is: D Organizational transformation is a term for an intervention that is one of the strategies in organizational development. Organizational development (OD) refers to a planned, organization-wide effort designed to improve the organization's effectiveness and targets the organization as a whole rather than an individual unit such as an employee or job. Organizational transformation is a relatively newer method of OD that was developed in response to challenges such as layoffs, mergers, and rapidly changing markets in the corporate world. In organizational transformation, the target of change is the entire organization's vision of its beliefs, purpose, or mission. It attempts to alter the viewpoints of the organization's members. For example, it may involve mission statement changes, consciousness raising, and training exercises designed to help employees shift to an entirely new way of doing business, such as a change to a pay-for-performance pay scale or a new emphasis on vertical rather than horizontal markets.

Performance can be viewed as a function of: Select one: A.motivation and interest. B.satisfaction and motivation. C.ability and satisfaction. D.ability and motivation.

Correct Answer is: D The "classic" performance equation is P = f{A X M}, which means that performance is a function of ability and motivation. Research has suggested that ability is more important in this equation than motivation, and that other factors (e.g., environmental factors) also play a role in performance. However, contrary to the other choices, neither interest nor satisfaction has been found to be highly correlated with performance.

In regard to substance use, the Americans with Disabilities Act Select one: A.protects alcoholics and drug addicts as "qualified individuals" with a disability. B.prohibits administering a drug test to an individual who is participating in a drug rehabilitation program. C.prohibits drug testing from being administered to a prospective employee after a job offer is made. D.protects individuals participating in a drug rehabilitation program who are no longer using drugs.

Correct Answer is: D The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) does not consider individuals who are "currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs" as suffering from a disability on that basis. In other words, it does not protect current drug users. However, it does protect past substance addicts -- as long as the individual is currently participating in or has completed a supervised rehabilitation program, and the person is not currently using drugs.In regard to drug testing, the act does not identify any circumstances in which drug testing is prohibited. In fact, even though it protects former substance addicts, the Act permits employers to use "reasonable means" -- including drug tests -- to verify that such persons are no longer using substances.

Utility analysis is a technique that assesses the: Select one: A.practicality of implementing a training program. B.influence of training on performance. C.overall usefulness of a training program. D.the return on investment of training

Correct Answer is: D Utility analysis was introduced as a method for evaluating the organizational benefits of using systematic procedures (e.g., proficiency tests) to improve personnel selection but has been extended to evaluating any intervention that attempts to improve human performance. It is a quantitative method that estimates the dollar value of benefits generated by an intervention based on the improvement it produces in worker productivity. Utility analysis provides management with information that can be used to evaluate the financial impact of an intervention, including computing a return on their investment in implementing it.

You have been hired as a consultant to a school psychologist in order to improve her efficacy in working with children with behavioral problems. During your consultation, you become aware that she is exhibiting "theme interference". The type of consultation you are providing can best be described as: Select one: A.advocacy B.process C.client-centered D.consultee-centered

Correct Answer is: D The focus of consultee-centered consultation is on the consultee's knowledge, skill, and objectivity in order to improve their effectiveness in working with members of a specific population. In client-centered consultation*, the focus is on a specific client, rather than an entire group. Advocacy consultants* act as advocates for a disenfranchised group. Process consultants* focus on communication patterns and conflict resolution among co-workers (* incorrect options). The term "theme interference" is useful to know, although it is not really key to answering this question. Theme interference occurs when a worker displaces past or present personal problems onto a situation at work. It is thus, analogous to transferance in psychotherapy.

According to a recent meta-analysis on the "big five" traits and job satisfaction, which trait has the strongest relation with overall job satisfaction? Select one: A.agreeableness B.extraversion C.conscientiousness D.neuroticism

Correct Answer is: D The meta-analysis of 163 studies linking traits from the 5-factor model of personality to overall job satisfaction by Judge, Heller & Mound (2002) found neuroticism was the strongest, most consistent correlate of job satisfaction and also the Big-Five trait most often studied in relation to job satisfaction. Conscientiousness displayed the second strongest correlation followed by extraversion. The estimated true score correlations with job satisfaction include: Neuroticism (-.29), Conscientiousness (.26), Extraversion (.25), Agreeableness (.17), and (.02) for Openness to Experience. The findings support previous reviews that lower neuroticism and higher extraversion are associated with higher job satisfaction. The study also notes Conscientiousness, previously found to have positive effects in terms of job performance, has been overlooked in studies in terms of job satisfaction.

Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development? Select one: A.Anna Freud B.Super C.Holland D.Tiedeman and O'Hara

Correct Answer is: D Tiedeman and O'Hara based their career development model on Erikson's psychosocial theory of ego identity development. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of many differentiations and reintegrations throughout one's lifespan. Differentiation comes from the realization that a particular career does not "fit" with one's personality. Integration involves identification with a career.

Which of the following is not true about work samples as a selection technique? Select one: A.less likely to discriminate against members of minority groups B.good predictor of job performance C.work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills D.work samples of verbal skills have more validity than work samples of motor skills

Correct Answer is: D Work samples provide standardized, job-like conditions to measure work behavior. They are used as a selection technique, as an indicator of individuals likely to benefit from training, and as a means of reducing turnover through a job preview. Research indicates that work samples are generally good predictors of job performance; however, work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills. Additionally, work samples are less likely to discriminate against individuals from different groups and are acceptable to applicants.

Giving workers greater autonomy in the completion of whole tasks to increase job satisfaction is an example of: A.enrichment. B.development. C.rotation. D.enlargement.

Correct Answer: A Herzberg's 2 Factor Theory Lower Level Needs(hygiene factors): Not the job itself, it is the surroundings, the context (pay, work conditions, supervision), dissatisfaction results when lower level needs are not met, but meeting them does not produce satisfaction Upper Level Needs (motivator factors): it is the job content, need for achievement, responsibility, opportunity However, when these needs are not met, dissatisfaction does not result Job enrichment (expanding jobs to give employees a greater role in planning and performing their work), VERTICAL LOADING: · Thus, providing an opportunity to build satisfiers and job content. · To increase employee's autonomy, authority, and freedom, and encourage them to take on new challenging tasks. · Results in INCREASING satisfaction and performance, and DECREASING turn-over and absenteeism Job enlargement (larger choice to DECREASE boredom) HORIZONTAL LOADING, enlarge variety of tasksL · Just expand the variety of tasks without increasing responsibility or autonomy · INCREASES satisfaction, and only slightly affects job performance · Goals increase satisfiers to reduce sense of boredom

An employment test that has an adverse impact on a minority group is not considered discriminatory if its use is a business necessity and if: A.the test is not a written one. B.the test results are shown to be valid. C.the test is a standardized one. D.discrimination was not intentional.

Correct Answer: B adverse impact may be permitted when the selection criterion is a "bona fide occupational qualification" (BFOQ). This means that there is a valid reason for hiring a substantially larger proportion of a particular subgroup. In other words, if an employer can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure. If a job requires heavy lifting, for example, a measure of physical strength would be acceptable even though its use results in hiring more men than women. Adverse impact does not mean that unfair discrimination has occurred; however, if adverse impact is established, the employer is responsible for demonstrating that the selection procedure used is valid and necessary.

Of the following, the model that is best described as a personality-based approach to leadership is: A.path-goal theory. B.Lewin's field theory. C.transformational theory. D.contingency theory.

Correct Answer: C **Lewin's field theory is a social psych concept Transformational vs. Transactional Leadership: In the more recent literature, a distinction is made between transformational and transactional leaders. Bass (1990) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. Transformational leaders are change-focused: recognizing the need for and able to create a vision of organizational change. They influence and motivate subordinates by activating subordinates' higher-order needs, appealing to higher ideals and values such as justice and equality, encouraging subordinates to sacrifice self-interest for the sake of the organization, and clarifying what is needed to accomplish the change. In contrast, transactional leaders focus more on stability than change and leadership is by contingent reinforcement. The subordinates are motivated by the leaders' use of rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments. contingency theory and path-goal theory are contingency theories of leadership-- not personality House's Path-Goal Theory of Leadership: House's (House and Baetz, 1978) path-goal theory of leadership predicts that subordinates satisfaction and motivation are maximized when they perceive that their leader is helping them achieve desired goals. A leader can accomplish this by adopting a style that 1) helps subordinates identify specific ways to achieve goals; 2) removes obstacles to goals; and 3) rewards subordinates for accomplishing goals. House distinguishes between four leader styles: Instrumental (directive) leaders provide specific guidelines and establish clear rules and procedures. Supportive leaders focus on establishing supportive relationships with subordinates. Participative leaders include subordinates in decision-making. Achievement-oriented leaders set challenging goals and encourage higher levels of performance. Like other contingency models, path-goal theory predicts that the best leadership style depends on the attributes of the situation. For path-goal theory, these include certain characteristics of subordinates (e.g., ability level, need for affiliation, locus of control) and of the work environment (e.g., task structure, formal authority system).

According to recent research, the compressed workweek has the least impact on: A.absenteeism B.supervisor performance ratings C.overall job satisfaction D.satisfaction with work schedule

Correct Answer is: A A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek (increasing the number of hours per day and decreasing the number of days worked in a given work period) did not have a strong impact on absenteeism or objective measures of job performance. However, compressed workweek schedules were found to have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule

Criterion contamination would have the effect of Select one: A.increasing the validity coefficient of a job selection test. B.lowering the validity coefficient of a job selection test. C.increasing the reliability coefficient, but not necessarily the validity coefficient, of a job selection test. D.lowering the reliability coefficient, and therefore the validity coefficient, of a job selection test.

Correct Answer is: A Criterion contamination can occur when ratings are used as the criterion measure in a predictive equation. If the rater knows the ratees' scores on the predictor, the rating process can be contaminated. For instance, let's say IQ is used as a predictor of job performance. If the rater of job performance knows that an employee has an IQ of 150, the rater may judge the employee's job performance high simply because he knows the employee is very intelligent. This is criterion contamination, and it results in a spuriously high validity coefficient. Here, for instance, the IQ test will look like a very good predictor of job performance; however, if the raters had not known the ratees' IQs beforehand, the IQ test may not have turned out to be such a great predictor at all.

The terms "circumscription" and "compromise" are associated with: Select one: A.Gottfredson B.Super C.Krumboltz D.Meichenbaum

Correct Answer is: A Gottfredson's (1981; 1996; 2002) theory of circumscription and compromise addresses about how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. The theory proposes four stages of cognitive development including: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness and that the expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise. Circumscription refers to the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work. Compromise refers to the expansion of preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences.

Holland's social type is most similar to which other one of his types? A.artistic B.investigative C.realistic D.conventional

Correct Answer is: A Holland's theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC"). The personality types reflect a person's primary interest, or an environment's primary characteristic; for example, the social type enjoys working with others and avoids ordered, systematic activities that involve tools or machinery. There is overlap between the types, though some types overlap more than others. For example, the social type is relatively more similar to the artistic and enterprising types, and less similar to the realistic, investigative, and conventional types.

According to Holland's personality typology, a person's personality type indicates the: Select one: A.person's unconscious occupational abilities B.one occupation the person is capable of performing C.occupational environment in which the person would be most satisfied and productive D.person's occupational interests, but does not predict job satisfaction

Correct Answer is: C Holland classified six personality types and occupational environments, and proposed that the closer the match, or "congruence" between them, the more likely the person will be satisfied, productive, and will stay in that environment.

Research on subordinates' satisfaction with their leader at work has found that the strongest determinant is: A.the leader's level of consideration. B.the leader's use of a participative decision-making style. C.the leader's provision of equitable rewards. D.the leader's personality characteristics.

Correct Answer is: A If you're familiar with the research on leadership, you might be aware that factor analyses of leadership qualities has, over the years, consistently identified two basic factors -- task orientation (instrumentality) and consideration. Knowing this would have helped you pick the right answer. Also, consideration is a better choice because it is a more general answer and could be conceived of as encompassing the characteristics listed in the other responses.

A company that creates an overall ranking of its employees based on a variety of performance outcome measures and fires the employees in the bottom 10 percent of these rankings is using a(n) ______________ method of employee evaluation. Select one: A.forced distribution B.forced choice C.BARS D.illegal

Correct Answer is: A In a forced distribution, or forced ranking, system of personnel evaluation, employees are basically ranked against each other. The method requires managers to distribute ratings into pre-specified performance distributions or rankings (e.g., 1 out of 100, top 10%), etc. Regarding the other choices, the forced choice methodology basically involves using a multiple choice scale to evaluate employees on a variety of dimensions; the rater must select one statement from a set (two or more) of statements that best describes the employee. BARS stands for Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales. These are constructed by doing a job analysis to identify critical incidents, or specific behaviors that are associated with good or poor performance. Using such as scale, a rater would choose the behavior most characteristic of the employee being evaluated. Finally, the method the question describes is not illegal as long it is applied fairly, and in fact describes the method of employee evaluation that Jack Welch implemented at GE in the 1980s and has been adopted by many other firms.

A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions? A.Did the program meet its goals? B.How can the program be improved in the future? C.How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized? D.What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?

Correct Answer is: A In the terminology of program evaluation, a common distinction is between summative and formative evaluation. Summative evaluations deal with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address "bottom line" issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it. By contrast, a formative evaluation addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation.

A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions? Select one: A.Did the program meet its goals? B.How can the program be improved in the future? C.How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized? D.What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?

Correct Answer is: A In the terminology of program evaluation, a common distinction is between summative and formative evaluation. Summative evaluations deal with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address "bottom line" issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it. By contrast, a formative evaluation addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation.

In contrast to job enlargement, job enrichment involves Select one: A.increasing an employee's decision-making authority. B.increasing the number of tasks done by an employee. C.an attempt to increase the employee's motivation. D.increasing external rewards for the employees such as pay and benefits.

Correct Answer is: A Job enrichment is a motivational technique that involves giving employees increased responsibility, decision-making authority, and autonomy. It is based on Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation, which classifies factors that affect job satisfaction into two categories: motivators, which increase satisfaction, and hygiene factors, which prevent dissatisfaction. Motivators are related to intrinsic conditions of the job itself, such as the autonomy and the opportunity for personal growth. Job enrichment attempts to provide motivators in order to increase satisfaction and ultimately performance. Job enlargement is also an attempt to increase an employee's satisfaction and motivation. It involves increasing the number of tasks an employee performs. The idea is to reduce the level of monotony and boredom; however, research suggests that job enrichment is the more effective technique.

Krumbholtz's Social Learning Theory of career development and decision-making emphasizes Select one: A.self-observation and world-view generalizations. B.lifespan developmental stage. C.personality type. D.outcome expectations.

Correct Answer is: A Krumbholtz's social learning theory views learned experiences as the most important factors in career choice and preference, though it does acknowledge the role of other factors such as innate abilities and environmental events. According to the theory, generalizations about one's self and the world, called self-observation generalizations and world-view generalizations respectively, play a direct role in career choice. For example, the self-observation generalization that one is very good at logical reasoning, and the world-view generalization that jobs in computer programming will pay more than other jobs in the future might lead one to pursue a career in computer programming. Regarding the other choices, lifespan developmental stage is correlated to career behavior in Donald Super's theory of vocational choice, and John Holland developed a personality typology which links career choice and personality type. Outcome expectations could certainly be an example of a self-observation and world-view generalization, but the first choice is better because it names specific theoretical constructs associated with Krumbholtz's theory.

In organizations, peer evaluations: Select one: A.are more susceptible to rater biases than supervisor evaluations. B.are less valid as predictors of future performance than supervisor evaluations. C.are considered more desirable than supervisor evaluations by employees. D.are similar in terms of reliability and validity to supervisor evaluations.

Correct Answer is: D Peer evaluations aren't used often in organizations, partly because employees don't like them and partly because they have traditionally been considered to be less reliable and valid than supervisor evaluations. However, with regard to the latter, the research has actually found peer evaluations to be as psychometrically sound as supervisor evaluations.

Krumbholtz's Social Learning Theory of career development and decision-making emphasizes: A.self-observation and world-view generalizations. B.lifespan developmental stage. C.personality type. D.outcome expectations.

Correct Answer is: A Krumbholtz's social learning theory views learned experiences as the most important factors in career choice and preference, though it does acknowledge the role of other factors such as innate abilities and environmental events. According to the theory, generalizations about one's self and the world, called self-observation generalizations and world-view generalizations respectively, play a direct role in career choice. For example, the self-observation generalization that one is very good at logical reasoning, and the world-view generalization that jobs in computer programming will pay more than other jobs in the future might lead one to pursue a career in computer programming. Regarding the other choices, lifespan developmental stage is correlated to career behavior in Donald Super's theory of vocational choice, and John Holland developed a personality typology which links career choice and personality type. Outcome expectations could certainly be an example of a self-observation and world-view generalization, but the first choice is better because it names specific theoretical constructs associated with Krumbholtz's theory.

Leader-Member Exchange Theory (LMX) emphasizes: Select one: A.the relationships a leader has with members can be divided into two groups referred to as the "in-group" and the "out-group." B.adhering to formal organizational expectations yields increased access and opportunity C.principles of fairness in members achieving a quality relationship with a leader D.leaders and members use exchanges to achieve mutually beneficial outcomes

Correct Answer is: A Leader member exchange theory (LMX) emphasizes that the nature of the relationship between a leader and member is the determining factor as to whether a member belongs to the "in-group" or the "out-group" and that not all members of the organization achieve the same quality relationship. Improved organizational effectiveness and achieving leader/employee needs satisfaction is the general objective. LMX theory suggests a developing leader-member relationship that moves through three phases: stranger, acquaintance, and partner. The relationship between the leader and members of the "out-group" is marked by a lower quality with both parties only completing their formal role obligations. Whereas, the relationship with the "in-group" members moves from low quality, one way, self-oriented and scripted to high quality, reciprocal, group oriented and negotiated exchanges. Given their status with the leader, in-group members have more decision-making influence, access to resources and responsibility than those in the out-group. The leader, in exchange for the additional effort of these members, provides more support, trust and initiative beyond the obligations of the job. Research indicates LMX theory is positively related to "higher job satisfaction, stronger organizational commitment, and better subordinate performance" (Yukl, 1998). LMX theory has been criticized as being discriminatory (i.e., increased opportunity for one group and formal expectations for another) and counter to principles of fairness among subordinates. The theory does not propose inequitable treatment of members rather it explains how relationships with various members can develop. LMX research suggests that leaders become cognizant of their attitudes toward all members and create methods for all employees to freely enter the in-group.

The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to Select one: A.train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test. B.have a second set of raters rescore the test. C.use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories. D.ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.

Correct Answer is: A Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix "intra" means the same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.

A Guttman scale is an attitude scale on which: Select one: A.agreement with a particular item implies agreement with other lower-level items. B.agreement with a particular items implies disagreement with other lower-level items. C.items are scored based on the degree to which they reflect a person's position on a particular issue. D.subjects are asked to rate a large number of items on a scale ranging from "strongly agree" to "strongly disagree."

Correct Answer is: A On a Guttman scale, items are arranged in an order so that an individual who agrees with a particular item also agrees with items of lower rank-order. An example is the social distance scale developed by Bogardus, which is used to assess a person's attitudes toward particular subgroups. On this scale, agreement with an item such as "I would marry a New Yorker," implies agreement with lower-level items, such as "I would not mind having a New Yorker as a neighbor."

The primary purpose of feedback in the context of organizational development is to: A.help clients understand the diagnostic information that has been collected B.provide clients with information on the effectiveness of an OD intervention C.provide employees with information about their individual performance D.provide managers with information on the employee's concerns

Correct Answer is: A Organization development (OD) is a process used to facilitate organizational change. The phases of OD have been described by Burke as: entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning change, intervention, and evaluation. The purpose of the feedback phase is to help clients understand the information that the consultant has gathered and diagnosed so the clients can decide what actions to take

The primary purpose of feedback in the context of organizational development is to: Select one: A.help clients understand the diagnostic information that has been collected B.provide clients with information on the effectiveness of an OD intervention C.provide employees with information about their individual performance D.provide managers with information on the employee's concerns

Correct Answer is: A Organization development (OD) is a process used to facilitate organizational change. The phases of OD have been described by Burke as: entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning change, intervention, and evaluation. The purpose of the feedback phase is to help clients understand the information that the consultant has gathered and diagnosed so the clients can decide what actions to take

___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable. A.differential validity B.criterion contamination C.criterion deficiency D.researcher deficiency

Correct Answer is: C Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.

Margaret is reluctant to give poor ratings to her subordinates for fear of "ruffling feathers." Consequently, she tends to be unusually easy in her ratings. Margaret is committing what type of error? Select one: A.central tendency B.halo C.leniency D.severity

Correct Answer is: A Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating all ratees. The halo effect occurs when evaluations of one aspect of a person's behavior influence evaluations of other aspects. The halo effect can be positive or negative; i.e., it can result in a bias in favor of or against a person. You may have considered the leniency bias as the correct response. This type of rater bias involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. However, the question does not indicate that all the ratings are high, only that Margaret is reluctant to give low scores for poor performance. Severity error, or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees.

Of the following, the best predictor of job success would likely be a Select one: A.general cognitive ability test. B.personality test. C.structured interview. D.vocational interest inventory.

Correct Answer is: A Research on the validity of selection measures generally finds the cognitive ability tests and biodata are 1-2 in terms of predictive validity. Although validity coefficients will vary from study to study, the most widely accepted conclusion is that general ability tests are the best overall predictors.

An organization decides to implement changes based on a job characteristics assessment. Which of the following is least likely to be affected? Select one: A.work quality B.motivation C.satisfaction D.absenteeism

Correct Answer is: A Studies show when jobs are redesigned according to the job characteristics model there are improvements in satisfaction, absenteeism, turnover, and motivation. Work quality is less likely to be affected.

According to Donald Super, career development can be described in terms of progress through a developmental sequence of vocational stages. One's standing in this developmental sequence, in relation to where one should be, given his or her chronological age, is referred to as A.vocational maturity. B.vocational consistency. C.vocational resolution. D.vocational level.

Correct Answer is: A Super postulated a developmental sequence of vocational development occurring through the life span and consisting of five stages: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. Each of these stages also consists of a number of substages. Super coined the term "vocational maturity" to refer to the degree to which a person's progress in this sequence is appropriate given the person's chronological age. In fact, Super and his colleagues constructed a number of assessment instruments specifically designed to measure vocational maturity.

As opposed to industrial psychology, the approach of engineering psychology is to fit the Select one: A.job to the worker. B.worker to the job. C.job to the organization. D.worker to the organization.

Correct Answer is: A The engineering psychologist tends to examine the factors making up the job and how these impact the worker. The job elements, from such things as the illumination in the plant to the work rate, are manipulated to maximize the productive work of the employee. Fitting the worker to the job (e.g., hiring better people) is a function of personnel psychology. By contrast, the engineering psychologist works with the job elements and designs the most productive environment for the worker hired.

Research has found that flexible work schedules have the greatest impact on: Select one: A.absenteeism B.job satisfaction C.productivity D.self-rated performance

Correct Answer is: A The results of a meta-analysis concluded that flextime has positive effects on employee absenteeism (i.e., improved attendance), productivity, satisfaction with work schedule, and job satisfaction. However, the greatest impact was on absenteeism (effect size = .93), followed by productivity (.45), satisfaction with schedule (.32), and job satisfaction (.15). Note that job satisfaction was lower than previously reported findings.

According to Fiedler's contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when: A.the task is very structured or very unstructured. B.the task is moderately structured. C.the employees are either very high or very low in ability. D.the employees are moderate in terms of ability level.

Correct Answer is: A To answer this question, you need to know that Fiedler referred to task-oriented leaders as "low-LPC" leaders and that he proposed that low-LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and very unfavorable situations. The favorability of the situation is determined by several factors, including the structure of the task (but not the ability of the employees).

Organizational psychologists would most likely use which of the following when talking to business leaders about implementing the use of psychological tests in selecting employees? Select one: A.utility analysis B.utility evaluation C.job analysis D.job evaluation

Correct Answer is: A Utility analysis is a procedure used to translate the cost and benefits of different business alternatives into dollars and cents. In this case, an I/O psychologist would use utility analysis to compare how much money the company currently makes without using the psychological tests and how much money the company would be expected to make if a testing program were implemented. A job analysis is a detailed analysis and description of a job that specifically states what needs to be done (job-related tasks), the nature of the work (work environment), and the type of individual who can perform the work successfully (knowledge, skills, and abilities). Job evaluation is the process used to determine how much to pay each employee. A typical job evaluation process involves assessing the value of each job-related task to the business and then adding up the value of all tasks listed in the job description to determine the overall value of the job.

When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, are Select one: A.more precise but more difficult. B.less precise but easier. C.more precise and easier. D.less precise and more difficult.

Correct Answer is: A When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It's specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn't take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn't be as precise either.

Most well-controlled studies of the effect of cultural moderators on the validities of job selection tests indicate that there are Select one: A.no significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups. B.significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups. C.significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups on general aptitude tests but not on assessments of motor skills. D.significant differences in validities between majority and minority groups on assessments of motor skills but not on tests of general aptitude.

Correct Answer is: A While group differences exist between African-Americans and Caucasians on test performance (that is, while mean scores differ on these various standardized tests), it has not been shown conclusively that the predictive validity coefficients of the tests are differentially moderated by ethnic group membership. In other words, a test is likely to have the same validity coefficient for all subgroups of the same population -- even though those subgroups may score differently, on the average, from each other.

Studies examining the predictions of goal-setting theory for work groups suggests that Select one: A.having employees work as a team with team goals results in lower productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals. B.having employees work as a team with team goals results in higher productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals. C.having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been consciously accepted by the employees. D.having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been determined by the employees.

Correct Answer is: B A current emphasis in the I/O literature is on team work, and the increased reliance on teams in organizations is supported by research showing that teams are more productive than individuals. Note that, in some situations, group performance is not as good as individual performance (e.g., in certain types of decision-making). However, this question is asking specifically about research related to goal-setting theory, so this is the best response.

A __________________ is performed during the development or delivery of an intervention to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals. Select one: A.summative evaluation B.formative evaluation C.utility analysis D.needs analysis

Correct Answer is: B A distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation in the literature on evaluation. Formative evaluations are conducted during the delivery of the intervention to identify ways to improve it. summative evaluation Summative evaluations are conducted at the end of the intervention to evaluate its effectiveness and participants' reactions to it. utility analysis Whereas the utility analysis summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs. needs analysis A needs analysis is the first step in developing a training program. It is conducted prior to developing an intervention to determine what the intervention should include.

In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whether A.the examinee is likely to do well on the job. B.the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample. C.the examinee will be satisfied on the job. D.the examinee is suited to train others.

Correct Answer is: B A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.

Which of the following procedures summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs to improve decision making? Select one: A.utilization review B.utility analysis C.concurrent review D.quality management

Correct Answer is: B Based on the logic that decision making will be improved by using a decision-support framework that explicitly considers the costs and benefits of human resources (HR) decisions, a utility analysis summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs. Utility analysis has most frequently been studied as applied to selection procedures although other cost/benefit analyses have been applied to HR interventions such as recruitment, training, performance feedback, promotion, turnover/layoff management and more recently, new policy implementation. Studies have purported to identify, with a high degree of precision, the financial payback to be realized through investments designed to improve employee productivity. Advances in utility analysis application and related research have been limited due to an inability to develop an agreed-upon method to estimate the dollar value of job performance and its standard deviation (SDy). The challenge arises in uniformly evaluating human inputs, actions, and/or the outcomes of those actions as well as the uncertainty of task characteristics, relationships, and levels of task independence across positions and organizations.

Within the context of Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA), job tenure is related to an employee's: Select one: A.organizational commitment. B.satisfaction and satisfactoriness. C.career concept. D.motivation and ability.

Correct Answer is: B Dawis and Lofquist's (1964) model of career development, Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA), centers on the connection between a worker and his/her job and work environment. A key element of the theory is that an individual is best suited for positions that have matching demands and rewards to his/her individual characteristics. According to the TWA, satisfaction and satisfactoriness are factors related to job tenure. Satisfaction, in this theory, refers to a worker's satisfaction with the job. This is established by the degree to which the worker's needs are satisfied by the provided rewards of the job. Satisfactoriness, on the other hand, refers to the organization or employer's satisfaction with the worker. For example, how well the worker's skills fulfill the requirements of the job and is able to perform the job.

According to Holland, a highly differentiated person: Select one: A.is most flexible, possessing traits found in all six personality types. B.scores high on only one of the six personality types. C.scores high on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality hexagon. D.has the emotional maturity to effectively deal with many different personality types

Correct Answer is: B Holland proposed that all behaviors, including career choice, are a function of personality and the social environment. He distinguished between six personality types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. A highly differentiated person would be someone who scored high on only one of the personality types. Holland believed that high differentiation would best predict the outcome of a personality and occupational match.

A consultant gathers descriptions of jobs through direct observation, through published information, and through interviews of incumbents. This process is undertaken for the purpose of: Select one: A.validating a selection procedure. B.establishing the content of a job selection test. C.cross-validating a selection procedure that was already constructed on a previous sample of incumbents. D.assessing the major factors that underlie job performance in the interest of establishing the construct validity of a job selection procedure.

Correct Answer is: B In this question, you should understand that the person is undertaking a job analysis -- studying what the job actually entails. From the job analysis, he or she can go ahead and find appropriate tests, or make up a test, to assess people's abilities to succeed at the job components identified by the analysis. In short, a job analysis can be used to identify appropriate content for a job selection measure. The other choices are incorrect because they imply that the person is conducting some kind of statistical validation study, which is not the case here.

Factor analysis has shown that job commitment has three forms. Of these, job satisfaction is least correlated with: Select one: A.affective commitment. B.continuance commitment. C.normative commitment. D.instrumental commitment.

Correct Answer is: B Knowing what the three forms of job commitment are would have helped you answer this question: Affective commitment refers to the employee's psychological attitudes toward the organization; normative commitment is the employee's perceived obligation to stay with the company; and continuance commitment refers to the costs of leaving the company. Given these definitions, it makes sense that continuance commitment would be least related to job satisfaction and other job-related attitudes and more to practical considerations.

Patrick was elated, in a meeting with senior management, when he was told that the company president was impressed with his recent contributions. After he left the meeting and was alone in his office, however, Patrick started to experience feelings of anger. Which of the following best explains Patrick's circumstances? Select one: A.Model of Facet Satisfaction B.Opponent Process Theory C.The Vitamin Model D.Job Dissatisfaction Theory

Correct Answer is: B Landy's (1978) Opponent Process Theory of job satisfaction hypothesizes that job attitudes emanate from a person's physiological state. Opponent process theory assumes that when a person experiences an extreme emotional state, his or her central nervous system mechanisms attempt to bring him or her back to a state of emotional equilibrium or neutrality. In returning to neutrality, the emotional state may even surpass equilibrium and progress to the opposite emotional state. In this case, Patrick initially felt elated when informed of the praise then when the positive emotional state waned over time it continued to the opposite emotional state of anger.

The belief that workers have just enough self motivation to show up at work, punch the time clock, and do only the minimum necessary to get the job done best exemplifies which theory? Select one: A.Three-needs theory B.Theory X C.Theory Y D.Theory Z

Correct Answer is: B McGregor's (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers' skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management. In contrast, Theory Y's* management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles. While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z* examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization. McClelland's three needs*, or Learned, theory proposes individuals learn needs from their culture and when one of these needs is strong in an individual, then it has the potential to motivate behavior that leads to its satisfaction (* incorrect choices). The theory's three primary needs are: the need for affiliation (n Aff), which is a desire to establish social relationships with others; the need for power (n Pow), or a desire to control one's environment and influence others; and the need for achievement (n Ach) or a desire to take responsibility, set challenging goals, and obtain performance feedback.

Of the following relationships, the one which, according to empirical research, is stronger is: Select one: A.job enlargement and job satisfaction. B.job turnover and job dissatisfaction. C.gender and job dissatisfaction. D.job satisfaction and productivity.

Correct Answer is: B Of the four choices, only the relationship between job dissatisfaction and job turnover has been found to be significant.

Interdependence in the workplace usually takes one of four forms. A network of two-way relationships that tie a collection of people together describes which type of organizational interdependence? Select one: A.comprehensive B.reciprocal C.pooled D.sequential

Correct Answer is: B Pooled interdependence occurs when individuals have a shared source of resources but little else in common; sequential involves a series or chain of one-way interactions in which individuals rely on those who precede them in the chain; reciprocal is described in the question and comprehensive is the most complex form as everyone involved is reciprocally interdependent on one another. While a greater potential for conflict and the loss of individuals due to turnover becomes more important as the intensity and complexity of interdependence increases from pooled to comprehensive, comprehensive interdependence can stimulate greater flexibility and enable groups to adapt more quickly to environmental changes.

Research about job experience with the four day workweek suggests that it is correlated with: A.supervisor ratings of employee performance only B.supervisor ratings of employee performance and employee overall job satisfaction C.job performance only D.job performance and absenteeism

Correct Answer is: B Research on the effects of the CWW is mixed. A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues (1999) found the CWW to have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance and employee overall job satisfaction.

The Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA) is a person-environment fit theory of career development that indicates employment tenure is tied to: A.organizational culture B.organizational justice C.satisfaction and satisfactoriness D.satisfaction and ability

Correct Answer is: C Dawis and Lofquist's (1964) Theory of Work Adjustment defines satisfaction as an individual's satisfaction with a job based on how well it meets the individual employee's needs. Satisfactoriness refers to the degree to which the employee's skills meet the requirements of the job and to which the employee successfully performs the job. According to TWA, both are influences of employment tenure.

While both positive and negative effects are associated with high levels of group cohesiveness, with respect to productivity, high group cohesiveness is: Select one: A.associated with higher productivity when management is indifferent to the group. B.associated with higher productivity when management is supportive of the group. C.consistently associated with lower group productivity. D.consistently associated with higher group productivity.

Correct Answer is: B Schmuck & Schmuck (2000) define group cohesion as "the relation of individual group members to the group as a whole." Whether or not high levels of group cohesiveness manifests in improved productivity depends in part on how the group is managed. Management supportiveness is one of several variables that moderates the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity, with high levels of support being associated with higher levels of productivity and management hostility or indifference being associated with lower productivity.

The kappa statistic is used to evaluate reliability when data are: A.interval or ratio (continuous) B.nominal or ordinal (discontinuous) C.metric D.nonlinear

Correct Answer is: B The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability, or the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters, when data are nominal or ordinal. Interval and ratio data is sometimes referred to by the term metric.

Job commitment has the highest correlation with Select one: A.job satisfaction. B.absenteeism and turnover. C.productivity. D.quality of work

Correct Answer is: B The research on job commitment, or the degree to which a person identifies with an organization and is willing to work to help the organization reach its goals, suggests that it has a moderate to strong negative correlation with absenteeism and turnover. In this respect, it is similar to job satisfaction, which also is more highly correlated with absenteeism and turnover than with other variables (such as productivity) typically studied in the organizational psychology literature.

In terms of interviews as selection techniques, which of the following is most consistent with the research? Select one: A.Panel interviews generally have the highest levels of validity, and they are especially valid when an average (versus consensus) rating is derived. B.When interviewers are given biodata information about an interviewee prior to the interview, interviewers give less credence to interview information when the biodata is not supportive of a decision to hire than when the biodata is very supportive of a decision to hire. C.Although the research is inconsistent, the best conclusion about interviews is that future-oriented (situational) interviews are more valid than past-oriented (behavior description) interviews regardless of whether the interview is structured or unstructured. D.One of the difficulties with interviews, even when they are structured, is that they are highly susceptible to gender biases, especially when the interviewee and the interviewer are of different genders.

Correct Answer is: B There is some evidence that interviewers place less importance on interview information when biodata is not very favorable and more importance when it is supportive of a hiring decision. Apparently, a good interview cannot make up for a bad history, but a good history can be supported or canceled out by the results of the interview.

Which of the following techniques involves considering a range of exam scores equivalent for the purpose of employee selection? Select one: A.utility analysis B.banding C.ranking D.multiple hurdles

Correct Answer is: B Used to increase diversity and reduce adverse impact in the workplace, banding is based on the assumption that different scores should be viewed as equivalent unless they are statistically significantly different (determined by the standard error of the difference (SED) between scores) and refers to a range of scores being considered as equivalent for selection purposes. Adverse impact is reduced due to lower-scoring applicants being included within the band and banding provides flexibility to select from candidates based on other factors such as ethnicity, gender, work experience, seniority and other job-related factors. Ranking refers to use of a point system to rate or "rank" applicants based on various requirements of the job. The multiple hurdle technique requires sequentially passing two or more screening tests or procedures.

In determining the incremental validity of a selection test, the minimum amount of information one has to know is the: Select one: A.base rate, sample size, and validity of the test. B.selection ratio, sample size, and validity of the test. C.base rate, selection ratio, and validity of the test. D.base rate, selection ratio, sample size, and validity of the test.

Correct Answer is: C A job selection test's incremental validity is the increase in predictive accuracy that is obtained by using the test as compared to not using it. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low.

A predictor that is highly sensitive for identifying the presence of a disorder would most likely result in: A.measurement error B.type II error C.a high number of false positives D.a high number of false negatives

Correct Answer is: C A predictor that is highly sensitive will more likely identify the presence of a characteristic; that is, it will result in more positives (true and false). This may be desirable when the risk of not detecting a problem is high. For example, in the detection of cancer, a blood test that results in a high number of false positives is preferable to one that has many false negatives. A positive test result can then be verified by another method, for example, a biopsy. Measurement error is the part of test scores which is due to random factors. Type II error is an error made when an experimenter erroneously accepts the null hypothesis.

The fundamental principle underlying goal-setting theory is: A.self-efficacy beliefs are related to an individual's commitment to organizational goals. Incorrect B.organizational goals are only achieved when they are consistent with a person's self-concept. C.behavior is regulated by a person's conscious goals and intentions. D.participation is necessary to ensure commitment to goals.

Correct Answer is: C Acceptance of goals is paramount importance goal-setting theory. Acceptance is the critical factor: A person must consciously accept the goals and intend to achieve them. Self-efficacy beliefs and consistency with one's self-concept are not goal-setting theory principles. Participation in goals may increase one's acceptance and intentions, but it is not considered required.

In equity theory, the key factor influencing motivation is: A.the desirability of rewards for tasks and the expectancy that tasks will be successfully accomplished. B.the degree to which job tasks satisfy higher-order needs. C.perceived self and other input/outcome ratios. D.the degree to which workers believe that their input into the chosen goals of the organization is valued.

Correct Answer is: C According to equity theory, individuals compare the ratio of inputs they bring to a job (e.g., amount and quality of work) and the outcomes they receive (e.g., pay, praise) and attempt to keep that ratio equitable to their perceived input/outcomes of others. For example, if a person felt that he was doing more work than a colleague but both were getting the same pay, the person would perceive an underpayment inequity. The theory states that workers seek to restore equity if they perceive either an underpayment or an overpayment inequity. They may, for example, attempt to increase or decrease their inputs, seek more compensation or other positive outcomes, or change their perceptions of the value of the inputs or outcomes involved.

A college graduate is hired by a small firm and is promised bonuses and promotions based on his work performance. After working at the firm for two years, he has not received a bonus, raise, or promotion, despite the fact that he has regularly worked overtime and is generally recognized to be one of the firm's best workers by the other employees. From the perspective of expectancy theory, which of the following would be lowered in the man as a result of this experience? A.valence B.expectancy C.instrumentality D.idealism

Correct Answer is: C According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of expectancy, valence, and instrumentality. Instrumentality refers to the degree to which performance leads to certain desired outcomes. In this situation, the man's performance is not leading to promotions and bonuses; as a result, according to the theory, instrumentality and, as a result, motivation, would be lowered.Valence refers to the importance of outcomes that follow from performance. In this situation, valence would be related to how much the man values promotions and bonuses. And expectancy refers to belief that effort will pay off in performance. In this situation, expectancy refers to the man's belief that working hard would lead to good performance on the job.

If you wanted to encourage students to learn new vocabulary words in a foreign language, the most effective approach would be to: A.tell them to take it easy and not worry about it B.tell them to learn as many words as they can C.tell them to take their time and plan to learn 5 words a day D.put pressure on them and tell them to learn 20 words a day

Correct Answer is: C Although this question appears to be about learning and memory, the answer is probably best addressed in I/O's Goal Setting Theory. According to goal-setting theory, goals are best attained when the goals are specific and moderately difficult.

According to House's path-goal theory, the optimal leader style: Select one: A.is a democratic one that allows workers to participate in setting goals and identifying ways for achieving them. B.is the one that emphasizes a task-oriented (versus person-oriented) approach that focuses on ways to achieve goals. C.varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals. D.varies depending on the leader's experience and personality but always focuses on ensuring that goals are consistent with workers' skills and knowledge.

Correct Answer is: C As its name implies, path-goal theory predicts that leaders will be most successful when they show followers the path for achieving goals. Path-goal theory is also a contingency theory, which means that it proposes that the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the situation.

Two applicants score 42 and 45 on an assessment test and the standard error of the difference is 3.5 points. The scores are treated as equivalent allowing the applicant with the score of 42 to be selected on the basis of some other job-related characteristic. This approach is an example of __________________ in selection decision making. Select one: A.top-down B.cut-off C.banding D.multiple hurdles-required to score above on specific level on several measures

Correct Answer is: C Based on the principle that a higher score must correlate with better performance on the job, top-down ranking* occurs when an employer selects candidates in the strict highest/lowest order of their test scores. Decisions based on rank ordering when there is no correlation between a higher score and better performance on the job results in adverse impact. Proposed alternatives to reduce adverse impact are using a cut-off score*, reflecting the minimal qualifications for the job rather than an unreasonably stringent requirement, and banding. Banding is based on the assumption that different scores should be viewed as equivalent unless they are statistically significantly different (determined by the standard error of the difference (SED) between scores) and refers to a range of scores being considered as equivalent for selection purposes. Adverse impact is reduced due to lower-scoring applicants being included within the band and banding provides flexibility to select from candidates based on other factors such as ethnicity, gender, work experience, seniority and other job-related factors. Multiple hurdles* approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures such as a weighted application, drug test, interview, and skill tests (* incorrect choices).

Employees are provided with a training program designed to improve the quality of their work. At the conclusion of the training program a supervisor administers a test to the employees. Three months later the same supervisor evaluates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two scores. The correlation between the scores is 0.70. The results are most likely biased due to: Select one: A.a contrast effect B.a restricted range of scores C.criterion contamination D.demand characteristics

Correct Answer is: C Criterion contamination occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knowledge affects the rating. For example, if an employee obtained a very high score on the post-training test and the supervisor knows this, the supervisor's ratings of the employee's on-the-job performance might be biased upward. To prevent criterion contamination, the rater should have no knowledge of the ratees' predictor scores. Contrast effect* refers to the tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees. There is no indication that there is a restricted range of scores*, and if there was, that would reduce the correlation between the predictor and criterion scores. Demand characteristics* are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected of them (* incorrect options).

Holland's investigative type is least similar to which other one of his types? A.artistic B.conventional C.enterprising D.social

Correct Answer is: C Holland's theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as "RIASEC" ). The personality types reflect a person's primary interest, or an environment's primary characteristic; for example, the investigative type enjoys working alone and solving complex problems; likes dealing with ideas more than people or things and has math or scientific abilities. There is overlap between the types, with some overlapping more than others. For example, the investigative type is more similar to the realistic and artistic*, and less similar to the enterprising, conventional* and social* types (* incorrect choices).

According to Holland, a person who enjoys filing, copying, and data entry would have which of the following personality types? Select one: A.realistic B.investigative C.conventional D.obsessive-compulsive

Correct Answer is: C In Holland's personality typology, the Conventional type most enjoys manipulating data, filing, and copying. The Realistic type* prefers working with tools and machinery. The Investigative type* is analytical, precise, and curious. The Artistic type is creative, introspective, and nonconforming. The Social type enjoys working with others. And the Enterprising type seeks economic or professional achievement through manipulating others. Obsessive-compulsive* is not one of Holland's personality types (* incorrect options).

A personnel director devises four measures to be used as selection techniques for police officers. She plans on using multiple regression to combine the scores on the four measures in order to predict an applicant's score on a measure of job performance. You suggest that multiple regression is not the appropriate method in this situation because: A.multiple regression is used only when the criterion includes three or more orthogonal categories. B.multiple regression is used only when there are two or more criteria that are each measured on a continuous scale. C.the characteristics assessed by the four measures are noncompensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure cannot be compensated for by a high score on another measure. D.the characteristics assessed by the four measures are compensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure can be compensated for by a high score on another measure.

Correct Answer is: C It isn't clear from the question what would be wrong with multiple regression in this situation. the characteristics assessed by the four measures are noncompensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure cannot be compensated for by a high score on another measure. However, by process of elimination, only this response is correct. the characteristics assessed by the four measures are compensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure can be compensated for by a high score on another measure. This response is incorrect because multiple regression is compensatory and would be appropriate if a high score on one measure could compensate for a low score on another measure. Multiple regression isn't the appropriate technique when the characteristics measured by the different predictors are noncompensatory. multiple regression is used only when the criterion includes three or more orthogonal categories. multiple regression is used only when there are two or more criteria that are each measured on a continuous scale. These two options aren't true about multiple regression.

Lewin's (1951) model of organizational change includes the following three stages: Select one: A.data collection, feedback and action planning. B.planning, action, and evaluation. C.unfreezing, changing and refreezing. D.entry, planning and action.

Correct Answer is: C Kurt Lewin's process of organizational change involves three stages: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. Collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing or developing action plans are the three steps of survey feedback. In 1980, Huse added several steps to Lewin's model, with entry and planning being added to the unfreezing stage and action was added as the primary step in the changing stage.

Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies: Select one: A.Theory J B.Theory A C.Theory Z D.TQM

Correct Answer is: C Ouchi's Theory Z is an organizational management philosophy that incorporates aspects from traditional American (Theory A) and Japanese (Theory J) management philosophies. The theory represents a middle ground, for example, emphasizing long-term employment versus short-term or lifelong and a moderately specialized career path instead of specialized or nonspecialized.

Statistically, selection bias is determined by comparing: Select one: A.the predictor means of different groups. B.the criterion means and variances of different groups. C.the regression line slopes of different groups. D.the factor structure of the predictor for different groups.

Correct Answer is: C Selection bias is occurring when a test has different levels of predictive validity for different groups. Statistically, this is determined by comparing the regression lines for the two groups to see if there is a difference in their slopes and/or the Y-intercept. If there is, then using a common regression line to make selection decisions for members of both groups may result in an underestimate of criterion scores for one group and an overestimate for the other group.

In any organized setting of more than a few people, paired-comparisons is the preferred rating system when the goal is to Select one: A.establish a standard performance criterion for the average productivity rate in that organization. B.rank-order the people in the organization in the most cost-effective manner. C.maximally differentiate among the people in the organization. D.set the most attainable and acceptable production goals for each person in that organization

Correct Answer is: C The paired comparison technique involves comparing each person to every other person in the organization in reference to one or more variables such as productivity. It is a time-consuming and expensive process but results in highly precise and differentiated evaluations of each person in the group evaluated.

According to Anne Cleary's model of test fairness, a job selection test would be considered unfair if: A.Based on the use of the test, a higher proportion of Caucasians than African-Americans are chosen for the job. B.the test has a higher validity coefficient for Caucasians than for African-Americans. C.the slope of the test's regression line is different for African-Americans than for Caucasians. D.the content of the test is culturally biased.

Correct Answer is: C Under the Cleary model, a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is different for one subgroup than for another. The effect of these statistical phenomena is that differences between subgroups on predictor scores would not be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion. For instance, low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup.

Job evaluation methods have been criticized for containing biases against work typically performed by women. This criticism most directly pertains to the standard of Select one: A.employment equity. B.procedural justice. C.comparable worth. D.job fairness.

Correct Answer is: C The term "job evaluation" refers to procedures used within a workplace to establish the relative worth of particular jobs and tasks within the organization. If a job evaluation were biased against work typically performed by women, this would mean that the value of such work to the organization would be unfairly set too low. The term "comparable worth" refers to the standard that wages for jobs with different titles and/or duties should be based on their actual worth to the organization rather then the gender makeup of the workers in those jobs. In other words, a gender biased job evaluation would contradict the standard of comparable worth. Regarding the other choices, employment equity refers to multidimensional efforts to promote fair representation of minority groups in the workplace--not only through hiring practices but also through retention, promotion, and training efforts. Procedural justice refers to perceptions of fairness in the processes that resolve disputes and allocate resources. It is not as good an answer as comparable worth because it usually refers to perceptions rather than actual practice and because comparable worth refers specifically to the undervaluation of tasks that women typically perform. A bias in a job evaluation method relates more to distributive justice, or fairness in outcomes, because a job evaluation is typically used to establish salary. And "job fairness" is a broad term that generally means that distribution of workplace rewards, such as salaries and selection for jobs, is based on merit rather than some form of bias.

The organizational developmental intervention called team building is most appropriate for addressing which of the following issues? Select one: A.increasing the morale of an entire organization. B.diagnosing group interactional issues that interfere with group effectiveness. C.reducing role ambiguity or role confusion in work groups. D.providing feedback to group members about group norms of which they are unaware.

Correct Answer is: C The term "organizational development" (OD) refers to a planned, organization-wide effort, managed from the top-down, designed to improve organizational health and effectiveness by applying behavioral science knowledge. It is distinct from other industrial-organizational interventions in that the target of intervention is an entire organization (or entire work group within an organization), as opposed to an individual unit such as an employee or job. There are a number of intervention strategies associated with OD, including team building, process consultation, and survey feedback. Team building is designed to improve the problem-solving abilities of goal-oriented work groups. It can involve a variety of exercises, activities, and games. The specific goals of the technique include increasing motivation, increasing team cohesiveness, reducing interpersonal conflict and, clarifying team members' roles. reducing role ambiguity or role confusion in work groups. Thus, of the choices listed, only the correct answer identifies a specific goal of team building. increasing the morale of an entire organization. You may have thought this choice was a good answer, and team building exercises do often have a positive effect on morale. However, increasing morale is usually not identified as a specific goal of team building.

As an organizational psychologist, Dr. Jobb will recommend frame-of-reference training in order to Select one: A.improve the accuracy of selection decisions. B.enhance communication among team members. C.reduce rater biases on performance appraisals. D.improve leadership effectiveness.

Correct Answer is: C This is one of those concepts that you either know or don't know, so it wouldn't be worth a lot of time trying to figure out the right answer. Now you know: Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by teaching raters to focus on the various characteristics and requirements that contribute to good job performance.

The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when: A.the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low B.the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high C.there are many applicants for few job openings D.there are few applicants for many job openings

Correct Answer is: C This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05). Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high We can eliminate these two options because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. there are few applicants for many job openings Contrary to this option, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.

A psychologist serves as the head of a social service agency. The psychologist likes the job because, in addition to allowing her to work with clients in a clinical setting, it provides her with the opportunity for raises and promotions. On the Strong Interest Inventory, the psychologist would likely receive high scores for which of the following personality types? Select one: A.investigative and conventional B.realistic and artistic C.social and enterprising D.investigative and enterprising

Correct Answer is: C This questions is about Holland's six personality types -- realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. One's results on the Strong Interest Inventory include a 3-letter personality type that indicates, in order, which three types best describe the individual. Individuals in the mental health professions typically obtain a 3-letter code of social, enterprising, and artistic (SEA); if you knew this, you knew enough to answer the question. If you didn't, the question helped you out by telling you that the psychologist likes to work hands-on with clients (which would be characteristic of the social type) and that she is interested in promotions and pay raises (which would be characteristic of the enterprising type).

The usefulness of a job selection test is increased to the degree that Select one: A.the base rate is low and the selection ratio is high. B.the base rate is high and the selection ratio is low. C.the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low. D.the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high.

Correct Answer is: CIn a job selection test, usefulness refers to the degree to which the test helps you hire successful candidates. Job selection tests are useful to the degree that the correlation between test scores and job performance is high, the base rate is moderate, and the selection ratio is low. The base rate refers to the percentage of people in the population who are able to perform the job successfully. To understand why you'd want a moderate base rate, think about the extreme cases: a base rate of 100% or 0%. A 100% base rate means that everyone can do the job successfully; a 0% base rate mean that no one can. In both cases, a job selection test is useless because you don't need it to distinguish between good and bad candidates. A base rate of 50% means that half of the population can do the job successfully and a selection test therefore becomes more useful in distinguishing between acceptable and unacceptable applicants. The selection ratio refers to the proportion of available jobs relative to applicants. For example, if 100 people apply for 10 openings, the selection ratio would be 10%. With a small selection ratio, you are only selecting the very top scorers on the test, and assuming the test has a reasonable correlation with job performance, these top scorers are more likely to succeed on the job. Note that the smaller the selection ratio, the higher the number of false negatives, which are people who fail the test but would have succeeded on the job. But this is more of a problem for candidates than it is for businesses that use the test; the latter will still end up with more successful candidates the lower the selection ratio.

A "mixed standard scale" helps reduce rater biases by: A.using a forced-choice format that matches items with a comparable level of social desirability. B.using a specific description of work-related behavior to anchor each point on the rating scale. C.comparing two or more employees on each job behavior. D.obscuring order-of-merit when describing work-related behaviors. Feedback

Correct Answer is: D A mixed standard scale tries to overcome halo, leniency, and similar rater biases by arranging, in a non-hierarchal manner, items that describe performance as either good, average, or poor and then the rater rates whether the individual performs better, equal to, or worse (+, 0, -) than the behavior described in the item. Items are arranged in a way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases.

A "mixed standard scale" helps reduce rater biases by: Select one: A.using a forced-choice format that matches items with a comparable level of social desirability. B.using a specific description of work-related behavior to anchor each point on the rating scale. C.comparing two or more employees on each job behavior. D.obscuring order-of-merit when describing work-related behaviors.

Correct Answer is: D A mixed standard scale tries to overcome halo, leniency, and similar rater biases by arranging, in a non-hierarchal manner, items that describe performance as either good, average, or poor and then the rater rates whether the individual performs better, equal to, or worse (+, 0, -) than the behavior described in the item. Items are arranged in a way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases.

A needs assessment is usually conducted to: A.acertain a job applicant's skills B.describe the requirements of a job C.determine the relative worth of a job D.identify the needs of an organization

Correct Answer is: D A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training. describe the requirements of a job This choice describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job. determine the relative worth of a job This describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs.

Recent literature comparing leadership and management has identified several similarities and differences. Which of the following set of characteristics is more critical for today's leaders than for managers? Select one: A.rational, persistent, and tough-minded B.problem-solving, persistent, and independent C.visionary, authoritative, and tough-minded D.independent, innovative, and flexible

Correct Answer is: D A topic of interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and independent

Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say: A.More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better B.Flexitime was a brillant invention C.It's time for a change around here D.The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool

Correct Answer is: D According to Fiedler's 1971 contingency theory, a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better Flexitime was a brillant invention These two options could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. It's time for a change around here This could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.

Which of the Big Five personality traits is least stable over time? Select one: A.Conscientiousness B.Extraversion C.Agreeableness D.Neuroticism

Correct Answer is: D All of the Big Five traits are relatively stable throughout adulthood. However, several studies have concluded that extraversion is the most stable trait, while neuroticism is the least stable over time.

The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as: A.floor effect B.contrast effect C.central tendency bias D.severity error

Correct Answer is: D Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale. A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias. If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect. A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.

Which of the following proposed a behavioral theory of career decision making? A.Holland B.Super C.Herzberg D.Krumboltz

Correct Answer is: D Krumboltz's Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; and performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors.

According to Bass, transformational leadership contains four interrelated components. Which of the following is characterized by high moral and ethical standards? A.intellectual stimulation B.inspirational motivation C.individualized consideration D.idealized influence

Correct Answer is: D Bass (1985) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. In truly transformational leadership, high morals and ethical standards characterize charismatic or idealized influence. In research by Podsakoff, MacKenzie, Moorman and Fetter (1990), trust was found to be the single most important variable moderating the effects of transformational leadership on the performance, attitudes, and satisfaction of the followers. Inspirational motivation* provides followers with meaning and challenges for engaging in undertakings and shared goals. Intellectual stimulation* helps followers to question assumptions and to generate more creative solutions to problems. Individual consideration* treats each follower as an individual and provides coaching, mentoring and growth opportunities (* incorrect options).

Equity theory suggests that the relationship between pay and motivation A.is positive; the more one is paid, the more motivated one is likely to be. B.is negative; the more one is paid, the less motivated one is likely to be. C.is negligible; pay has little or nothing to do with motivation. D.is complex; the relationship between pay and motivation is mediated by a variety of other factors.

Correct Answer is: D Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. An unbalanced situation is one in which these ratios are not perceived as equal. For instance, underpayment is an unbalanced situation in which outcomes are perceived to be less than contributions, and overpayment occurs when we perceive that our outcomes exceed contributions.Equity theory holds that motivation is affected by these perceived input/output ratios. For instance, if you perceive that you are contributing more to a company than a co-worker who is getting paid the same amount, you would take action to correct this inequity, whether it be by working less, asking for a raise, leaving the job, re-evaluating the value of your contributions, etc. Similarly, if you are getting paid more than a co-worker whom you perceive as just as valuable as yourself, you may work more, do better quality work, decide that you are more important than the co-worker, etc. The point is that the theory suggests that the relationship between pay and motivation is complex and will be mediated by one's perceived input, the perceived input/output ratio of co-workers, and the strategy chosen to achieve a state of balance or equity.

According to Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory, the element of the situation that is most relevant to the ideal leadership style is Select one: A.task type B.task difficulty C.leader personality D.follower developmental level

Correct Answer is: D Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Theory holds that there are four leadership styles, and leaders should be flexible enough to adopt the one that applies best to the situation, based on the developmental or maturity level of the followers. At the lowest maturity levels, where followers cannot do the job and are unwilling or afraid to try, the leader should adopt a highly directive style called Telling / Directing. At the next lowest level, followers have variable competence, and are willing to do the job; the appropriate leadership style, in this case, is Selling / Coaching. Workers at the second-highest developmental level can do the job but are uncommitted or unmotivated; here, a Participating / Supporting style is recommended. Finally, the least directive style of leadership, Delegating / Observing, is recommended for workers at the highest maturity levels--those who are competent and motivated to perform.

Lewin's classic study on leadership styles produced which of the following findings? Select one: A.Democratic groups produce a higher quantity of work than either autocratic or laissez-faire groups. B.In autocratic groups, the leader's absence does not affect the quality or quantity of work. C.The success of all three leadership styles studied--democratic, autocratic, and laissez-faire--depended on the personality of group members. D.Laissez-faire was the least successful leadership style in terms of both quantity and quality of work output.

Correct Answer is: D In 1951, Kurt Lewin and his colleagues conducted a study assessing the effectiveness of three different leadership styles: authoritarian, where the leader remains aloof and uses orders to direct the group's behavior; democratic, where the leader actively encourages group members and participates in their activities; and laissez-faire, where the leader provides knowledge but does not direct or participate in activities. The subjects were 10-year-old boys participating in an arts and crafts club. A key finding was that the laissez-faire style was the least successful, resulting in significantly lower quality and quantity of work as compared to the other two styles. Other findings were that groups with democratic leaders produced the highest quality of work and its members were the most satisfied, and that autocratically led groups produced the highest quantity of work. Some children did prefer the autocratic style, so choice 3 would have been a better answer if laissez-faire was not included--laissez-faire style is not successful regardless of the personality of the group members.

The two aspects of interactional justice are: Select one: A.environmental and social justice B.interpersonal and environmental justice C.informational and comparative justice D.interpersonal and informational justice

Correct Answer is: D Justice Perceptions are employee judgments about whether their work situation is fair and have been found to be related to: job satisfaction, performance, withdrawal and counterproductive behaviors and organizational commitment. Interactional justice focuses on the interpersonal treatment of individuals when procedures are implemented and consists of two components: interpersonal justice, which refers to the degree to which individuals affected by decisions are treated with dignity, respect and politeness by third parties or authorities involved in executing procedures or determining outcomes, and informational justice, which refers to the explanations provided to individuals conveying information about why procedures were used in a certain way or why outcomes were distributed in a particular manner.

Tiedeman and O'Hara emphasize which of the following in the process of career development? Select one: A.innate drives B.interests C.aptitude D.identity

Correct Answer is: D Knowing that Tiedeman and O'Hara based their model on Erikson's psychosocial theory of identity would have helped you select the correct answer. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of differentiation (realizing that a career does not fit with one's personality) and integration (identifying with a career).

Which of the following types of assessment has the lowest validity in terms for predicting performance in an industrial setting? Select one: A.assessment center B.biographical data C.personal interview D.personality inventory

Correct Answer is: D Personality tests have not been shown to have very good validity in predicting performance on almost all types of jobs. Reported validity coefficients between scores on these tests and measures of performance are typically less than .15. Reported validity coefficients for biographical data or job interviews are typically in the moderate range; structured interviews as opposed to the informal interviews that are most commonly used, often have higher validity. Assessment centers, which involve structured, group activities designed to assess how well prospective executives function in simulated situations requiring leadership, have been found to be relatively highly correlated with measures of job performance.

Research indicates the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance: Select one: A.are the most valid across different jobs. B.is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items. C.are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone. D.is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.

Correct Answer is: D Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs. For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively. When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased

A leader should adopt a "telling" style if: Select one: A.The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility B.The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility C.The employee's ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high D.The employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low

Correct Answer is: D The "telling style" according to Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) description, is more effective when an employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are low. This leadership style involves high task orientation and low relationship orientation. The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility The leader should adopt the "selling" style-high task orientation and high relationship orientation. The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility The leader should adopt a "participatory" style-low task orientation and high relationship orientation. The employee's ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high The leader can use a "delegating style"; both low task and low relationship orientation.

The terms "business necessity" and "job relatedness" are associated with: Select one: A.utility analysis B.comparable worth C.critical incidents D.adverse impact

Correct Answer is: D The concepts of business necessity and job relatedness represent conditions that may allow the use of a selection procedure that has an adverse impact for members of a protected group. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, if an employer can show that a selection measure, or other employment procedure, that is having an adverse impact is job related and a business necessity, then the employer may be able to continue using the procedure.

The "paired comparison" technique is a method to: A.evaluate appropriate compensation B.determine qualification for advancement C.assess appropriateness of a hiring decision D.appraise performance

Correct Answer is: D The paired comparison technique compares an employee to every other employee on each dimension of job performance.

Super's (1992) concept that relates the five life stages of growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement to nine major life roles is called Select one: A.Role of Self-Concept. B.Arch of Career Determination. C.Career Maturity. D.Life-Career Rainbow.

Correct Answer is: D The question is describing Super's Life-Career Rainbow. Super also emphasized the role of self-concept, suggesting that people will choose an occupation that allows them to express their self-concept. Super's Arch of Career Determination illustrates the psychological and socioeconomic variables that shape one's career.

Super's (1992) concept that relates the five life stages of growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement to nine major life roles is called: A.Role of Self-Concept. B.Arch of Career Determination. C.Career Maturity. D.Life-Career Rainbow.

Correct Answer is: D The question is describing Super's Life-Career Rainbow. Super also emphasized the role of self-concept, suggesting that people will choose an occupation that allows them to express their self-concept. Super's Arch of Career Determination illustrates the psychological and socioeconomic variables that shape one's career.

If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged: Select one: A.20 to 25. B.30 to 35. C.40 to 45. D.50 to 55.

Correct Answer is: D The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you're measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.

In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following except: Select one: A.using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks. B.viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development. C.basing rewards on long-term (versus short-term) achievement. D.rewarding employees for individual (versus group) achievement.

Correct Answer is: D This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement (which is characteristic of the traditional approach). The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new approaches and are characteristic of "total quality" organizations. One of the most recent Japanese influences is the emphasis on product quality, which is reflected in the adoption of total quality management (TQM) by many American companies.

The administrative model of decision making, as compared to the rational-economic model emphasizes Select one: A.obtaining all available information before making a decision. B.ensuring that the decision-making process is not biased. C.ensuring that decision-making process is not overly simplified. D.a satisficing approach.

Correct Answer is: D Two models of decision making are the rational-economic (or classical) and the administrative (or behavioral) model. The rational-economic model deals with how decisions should be made. It assumes the decision-maker is completely rational, has access to and seeks all information relevant to the decision, considers all possible alternatives, and makes the best possible choice. The administrative model deals with how decisions are actually made. It assumes that, due to limited cognitive and external resources, decision-makers simplify problems, work with a limited range of options and alternatives, and employ "satisficing", or seeking the solution that meets minimally acceptable criteria, as opposed to an optimal solution.

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, job context factors have an effect on: 1. dissatisfaction but not satisfaction 2. satisfaction but not dissatisfaction. 3. both satisfaction and dissatisfaction. 4. neither satisfaction nor dissatisfaction.

Correct Answer: 1. Feedback: Herzberg's two-factor or motivator-hygiene theory proposes that there are different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction in the workplace. He divides needs into upper and lower level needs. Lower level needs, also called hygiene factors or dissatisfiers, relate to job context, such as pay, working conditions, and supervision. They result in dissatisfaction when they are not adequate, but do not produce satisfaction. Upper level needs, called motivators or satisfiers, relate to job content and include needs for achievement, responsibility, and opportunity. It is thought that meeting these needs increases satisfaction and motivation, but failing to meet these needs does not result in dissatisfaction.

A company wants to make major changes in customer relations and hires a consultant to help implement these changes according to the principles of organizational development. This consultant meets with certain employees who are resistant to the recent changes to help them implement the new customer relations procedures. This is an example of: 1. program-centered administrative consultation. 2. consultee-centered administrative consultation. 3. consultee-centered case consultation. 4. client-centered case consultation.

Correct Answer: 2. consultee-centered administrative consultation Feedback: This scenario depicts an example of consultee-centered administrative consultation. In this situation, the consultant is working with employees in order to improve the implementation of a program. In addition, this consultant is specifically addressing the employees' attitudes toward how the program is being conducted. In program-centered administrative consultation (Response 1), the focus is on the program itself, for example, how to develop a program for customer relations. In consultee-centered case consultation (Response 3), the consultant works with the consultee on his or her difficulties with patients. In client-centered case consultation (Response 4), the focus is on helping the consultee with a particular patient.

Which type of employees would be most likely to have a low turnover rate? • 1. Highly productive male workers. • 2. Female workers on an assembly line. • 3. Poorly paid under-40 tenured professors. • 4. Salespersons with low job satisfaction.

Correct Answer: 3. Feedback: The factors that correlate most highly with turnover are satisfaction, length of time on the job, and expressed interest to stay; all of these correlations are in the negative direction. Even though the professors are poorly paid (Response 3), the fact that they are tenured means that they are less likely to leave their jobs. There is no relationship between productivity and turnover (Response 1). Assembly line workers (Response 2) tend to be less satisfied with their jobs, and therefore would have a higher turnover rate. Dissatisfied salespeople would also be likely to leave their jobs.

According to Tiedeman and O'Hara, successful career development is based upon: • 1. a combination of eight life roles. • 2. knowledge of oneself and knowledge of the working world. • 3. differentiation and integration. • 4. modeling and reinforcement.

Correct Answer: 3. differentiation and integration Feedback: Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development focuses on the processes of differentiation and integration. Differentiation refers to making distinctions about the different aspects of oneself (e.g., characteristics one possesses) and the environment (e.g., seeing various aspects of a particular job instead of just one factor). Integration refers to unifying these different aspects, and results in making better decisions, setting more refined goals, and developing more useful plans. According to Donald Super, career is viewed as a combination of eight life roles some of which include son/daughter, worker, leisurite, and spouse/friend (Response 1). Holland's vocational theory focuses on knowledge of oneself and knowledge of the working world (Response 2). Holland has proposed that individuals and job traits can be matched, and close matches correlate with job success and satisfaction. Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision making posits that people choose careers based on what has been learned through modeling and reinforcement (Response 4).

A consultant is hired to design a program for a subset of highly gifted children at an elite private school. After she designs the program, the school accepts it, and she then proceeds with implementation. She periodically meets with the teachers, parents, and students to get a sense of how the program is working and what changes or modifications may be needed. The consultant's work can best be described as a: • 1. consultee-centered case consultation. • 2. consultee-centered administrative consultation. • 3. summative evaluation. • 4. formative evaluation.

Correct Answer: 4. formative evaluation. Feedback: The consultant's work is focusing on the evaluation of a program she designed. Her work involves a formative evaluation because she is evaluating the program on an on-going basis as it is being implemented. By contrast, a summative evaluation (Response 4) involves program evaluation that occurs only at the end of the program. Consultee-centered case consultation (Response 1) focuses on helping a consultee on some general clinical issues (e.g., dealing with borderline patients), and consultee-centered administrative consultation (Response 2) focuses on helping consultees overcome problems that limit programmatic change.