Kinesiology Exam #2 Hip / Knee / Ankle
The primary motions that occur at the talocrural joint are: a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Inversion and eversion c. Adduction and abduction d. None of the above
a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
The iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, and pubofemoral ligaments all limit: a. Extension of the hip b. Flexion of the hip c. Abduction of the hip d. Internal rotation of the hip
a. Extension of the hip
Which of the following muscles is not considered part of the triceps surae? a. Flexor digitorum longus b. Gastrocnemius c. Soleus d. A and B e. A and C
a. Flexor digitorum longus
Which of the following muscles is a primary hip flexor? a. Iliopsoas b. Semitendinosus c. Piriformis d. Gluteus maximus
a. Iliopsoas
If the abdominal muscles are weak, resisted hip flexion will likely result in: a. Increased lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Decreased lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Co-activation of the gluteus maximus d. Rupture of the pubofemoral ligament
a. Increased lordosis of the lumbar spine
Standing with a hip flexion contracture is likely to: a. Involve a hyperlordotic posture of the lumbar spine b. Involve a posterior pelvic tilt c. Over-stretch the iliofemoral ligament d. A and C e. B and C
a. Involve a hyperlordotic posture of the lumbar spine
The primary ligament involved in resisting large valgus-producing forces at the knee is the: a. Medial collateral ligament b. Posterior cruciate ligament c. Lateral collateral ligament d. Arcuate popliteal ligament
a. Medial collateral ligament
The right external rotators of the hip are highly involved in which of the following activities? a. Planting the right foot and cutting sharply to the left b. Planting the left foot and cutting sharply to the right c. Strongly adducting the hip across the midline d. Flexing the hip past 100 degrees
a. Planting the right foot and cutting sharply to the left
Which of the following muscles is not considered a quadriceps muscle? a. Semimembranosus b. Vastus intermedius c. Rectus femoris d. Vastus lateralis e. A and C
a. Semimembranosus
Foot drop or foot slap would most likely result from weakness of which of the following muscles? a. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus b. Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Flexor hallucis longus and tibialis posterior
a. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus
A deep squat produces more patellofemoral compression force than a shallow squat. a. True b. False
a. True
A large Q-angle can contribute to excessive lateral tracking of the patella. a. True b. False
a. True
A posterior pelvic tilt is accompanied by decreasing lordosis of the lumbar spine. a. True b. False
a. True
Active extension of the knee involves a superior migration of the patella. a. True b. False
a. True
An anterior pelvic tilt is a type of hip flexion. a. True b. False
a. True
Both the gastrocnemius and the soleus attach to the calcaneal tuberosity via the Achilles tendon. a. True b. False
a. True
If a man with osteoarthritis of the right hip must carry a load such as a suitcase, he should carry it on the right side. a. True b. False
a. True
One of the primary functions of the plantar fascia is to support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot. a. True b. False
a. True
One of the primary functions of the posterior cruciate ligament is to resist a posterior translation of the tibia relative to a fixed femur. a. True b. False
a. True
The abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and abductor digiti minimi are all intrinsic muscles of the foot. a. True b. False
a. True
The rectus femoris becomes actively insufficient when performing the combined motions of hip flexion and knee extension. a. True b. False
a. True
The tibialis anterior can perform dorsiflexion and inversion. a. True b. False
a. True
The tibialis posterior is innervated by the same nerve that innervates the flexor hallucis longus. a. True b. False
a. True
Three of the four hamstring muscles attach proximally to the ischial tuberosity. a. True b. False
a. True
When the iliopsoas muscle is stretched, the pelvis must be stabilized to prevent: a. Unwanted lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Unwanted stretching of the hamstrings c. Excessive flattening of the lumbar spine d. Activation of the quadriceps muscles
a. Unwanted lordosis of the lumbar spine
Pes planus is a condition that is best described as: a. Paralysis or paresis of the dorsiflexor muscles b. A chronically dropped, or low, medial longitudinal arch of the foot c. An abnormally high, or raised, medial longitudinal arch of the foot d. A valgus deformation at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe
b. A chronically dropped, or low, medial longitudinal arch of the foot
Which of the following statements best describes genu recurvatum? a. Internal rotation of the tibia relative to a fixed femur b. A knee that displays marked hyperextension c. A knee that consistently displays a knock-kneed or valgus appearance d. A knee that consistently displays a bow-legged or varus appearance
b. A knee that displays marked hyperextension
On standing with the knees fully extended, an individual with tight hamstrings is most likely to display: a. A relative anterior pelvic tilt b. A relative posterior pelvic tilt c. Genu varum d. Genu valgum
b. A relative posterior pelvic tilt
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee? a. Absorb compressive forces between the patella and the femur b. Absorb and disperse compressive forces between the tibia and the femur c. Prevent friction between the hamstring muscles and the epicondyles of the femur d. Significantly reduce the area of joint contact between the femur and the tibia
b. Absorb and disperse compressive forces between the tibia and the femur
Coxa valga describes: a. The position of the hip when standing with an anterior pelvic tilt b. An angle of inclination significantly greater than 125 degrees c. The position of the hip when standing with a posterior pelvic tilt d. An angle of inclination significantly less than 125 degrees
b. An angle of inclination significantly greater than 125 degrees
Which of the following nerves innervates most of the muscles that dorsiflex the foot? a. Tibial nerve b. Deep peroneal nerve c. Superficial peroneal nerve d. Lateral plantar nerve
b. Deep peroneal nerve
A positive Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the hip adductors. a. True b. False
b. False
Abduction of the hip occurs about a medial-lateral axis of rotation. a. True b. False
b. False
During standing at ease, the line of gravity (from body weight) normally travels anterior to the medial-lateral axis of the hip. a. True b. False
b. False
Inversion and eversion of the foot primarily occur at the talocrural joint. a. True b. False
b. False
One of the primary functions of the popliteus muscle is to assist in locking the knee. a. True b. False
b. False
The gastrocnemius muscle is maximally elongated in a position of dorsiflexion and full knee flexion. a. True b. False
b. False
The gastrocnemius muscles have the potential to perform knee extension. a. True b. False
b. False
The hip joint is a condyloid joint allowing 2 degrees of freedom. a. True b. False
b. False
The medial and lateral collateral ligaments are at less risk of injury with the knee fully extended because they are slackened in knee extension. a. True b. False
b. False
The peroneus brevis is innervated by the same nerve that innervates the tibialis posterior. a. True b. False
b. False
The rectus femoris is maximally elongated in a position of hip flexion and knee flexion. a. True b. False
b. False
The talocrural joint is more stable in a position of plantar flexion than in a position of dorsiflexion. a. True b. False
b. False
One of the primary functions of the longitudinal arch is to: a. Limit excessive supination of the foot b. Help safely absorb weight-bearing forces through the foot c. Prevent excessive plantar flexion at the talocrural joint d. Prevent excessive flexion at the lateral four metatarsophalangeal joints
b. Help safely absorb weight-bearing forces through the foot
Which of the following actions occurs in the horizontal plane? a. Hip flexion b. Hip internal rotation c. Hip abduction d. Hip extension
b. Hip internal rotation
An anterior pelvic tilt involves: a. A force-couple between the gluteus maximus and the erector spinae b. Increasing lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Decreasing lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Strong activation of the hamstring muscles
b. Increasing lordosis of the lumbar spine
A muscle that courses anterior to the medial-lateral axis of rotation of the knee is able to perform: a. Knee flexion b. Knee extension c. Knee internal rotation d. Knee external rotation
b. Knee extension
When the hip is flexed to 70 degrees: a. The gluteus maximus is slackened. b. Many of the adductors have a favorable line of pull to perform hip extension. c. The iliofemoral ligament becomes taut. d. The psoas major is maximally elongated.
b. Many of the adductors have a favorable line of pull to perform hip extension.
Which of the following muscles courses posterior to the medial-lateral axis of rotation of the ankle? a. Tibialis anterior b. Peroneus brevis c. Peroneus tertius d. Extensor hallucis longus e. A and D
b. Peroneus brevis
A muscle that courses posterior to the medial-lateral axis of rotation of the ankle can be predicted to produce which of the following actions? a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar flexion c. Inversion d. Eversion
b. Plantar flexion
Injury to the tibial nerve most likely will result in weakness of which of the following actions? a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar flexion c. Eversion d. Extension of digits 1 to 4
b. Plantar flexion
The combined action of dorsiflexion, eversion, and abduction is described as _________ of the ankle and foot. a. Supination b. Pronation c. Hyperextension d. Varus
b. Pronation
Which of the following muscles is not associated with the pes anserinus? a. Sartorius b. Rectus femoris c. Gracilis d. Semitendinosus
b. Rectus femoris
When standing only on the right leg, the primary muscles involved in keeping the left side of the pelvis from dropping are the: a. Left hip abductors b. Right hip abductors c. Left hip adductors d. Right hip adductors
b. Right hip abductors
Which of the following best describes an anterior pelvic tilt? a. Short-arc, pelvic-on-femoral hip extension with the trunk remaining essentially upright b. Short-arc, pelvic-on-femoral hip flexion with the trunk remaining essentially upright c. An open-chain hip extension motion d. Long-arc hip flexion with the trunk moving in the same direction as the pelvis
b. Short-arc, pelvic-on-femoral hip flexion with the trunk remaining essentially upright
Which of the following structures is the distal attachment for all heads of the quadriceps? a. Tibial plateau b. Tibial tuberosity c. Pes anserinus d. Lateral epicondyle of the femur
b. Tibial tuberosity
Which of the following best describes the screw-home mechanism of the knee? a. Active extension of the knee causing a superior migration of the patella b. Passive flexion of the knee resulting in an inferior migration of the patella c. An automatic rotation that assists in locking the extending knee d. Simultaneous activation of the medial and lateral hamstring muscles
c. An automatic rotation that assists in locking the extending knee
The tibialis posterior and the peroneus longus are similar in which of the following ways? a. Both muscles course anterior to the medial-lateral axis of rotation at the ankle. b. Both muscles perform eversion. c. Both muscles perform plantar flexion. d. Both muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve.
c. Both muscles perform plantar flexion.
Which of the following positions is considered the close-packed, most stable position of the talocrural joint? a. Full adduction b. Full abduction c. Full dorsiflexion d. Full plantar flexion
c. Full dorsiflexion
Which group of muscles is largely innervated by the obturator nerve? a. Hip extensors b. Hip abductors c. Hip adductors d. Hip external rotators
c. Hip adductors
The hamstrings are maximally elongated in a position of: a. Hip flexion and knee flexion b. Hip extension and knee flexion c. Hip flexion and knee extension d. Hip extension and knee extension
c. Hip flexion and knee extension
The anterior-superior iliac spine is a bony landmark found on the: a. Ischium b. Proximal femur c. Ilium d. Pubis
c. Ilium
An "extensor lag" is best described as: a. Activation of the vastus medialis and vastus lateralis occurring after activation of the rectus femoris b. Activation of the quadriceps that occurs after activation of the hamstrings c. Inability to complete the final few degrees of knee extension possibly due to swelling within the knee d. Extension of the knee occurring after extension of the hip
c. Inability to complete the final few degrees of knee extension possibly due to swelling within the knee
Which of the following statements best describes a function of the patella? a. Prevents excessive hyperextension of the knee b. Assists the medial hamstrings with internal rotation of the patella c. Increases the internal moment arm of the quadriceps, enhancing knee extension torque d. Prevents excessive flexion of the knee e. B and D
c. Increases the internal moment arm of the quadriceps, enhancing knee extension torque
A muscle that courses on the medial side of the anteriorposterior axis of rotation can be predicted to produce which of the following motions? a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar flexion c. Inversion d. Eversion
c. Inversion
Which of the following statements is true regarding a posterior pelvic tilt? a. Involves increasing lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Is performed by a force-couple involving the iliopsoas and the erector spinae c. Involves decreasing lordosis of the lumbar spine d. A and B e. B and C
c. Involves decreasing lordosis of the lumbar spine
Which of the following statements is true? a. Normal range of motion for hip external rotation is 0 to 15 degrees. b. Normal range of motion for hip extension is 0 to 90 degrees. c. Normal range of motion for hip abduction is 0 to 40 degrees. d. Normal range of motion for hip flexion is 0 to 100
c. Normal range of motion for hip abduction is 0 to 40 degrees.
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the femoral nerve? a. Biceps femoris—long head b. Semitendinosus c. Rectus femoris d. A and C e. B and C
c. Rectus femoris
The "terrible triad" describes: a. Three primary muscles involved in a hamstring strain b. Triangular forces produced during a deep squat c. Simultaneous injury of the medial collateral ligament, anterior cruciate ligament, and medial meniscus d. Simultaneous activation of the quadriceps, hamstring, and gastrocnemius muscles
c. Simultaneous injury of the medial collateral ligament, anterior cruciate ligament, and medial meniscus
With the foot firmly fixed to the ground, which of the following muscles can assist with extending the knee? a. Extensor hallucis longus b. Tibialis anterior c. Soleus d. Peroneus tertius
c. Soleus
The subtalar joint is best described as the articulation between the: a. Talus and the distal tibia and fibula b. Talus and the cuboid c. Talus and the calcaneus d. Calcaneus and the navicular
c. Talus and the calcaneus
If the quadriceps muscles are active eccentrically: a. The knee is moving into extension. b. The hip is moving into flexion. c. The knee is moving into flexion. d. The patella is migrating superiorly.
c. The knee is moving into flexion.
The rectus femoris remains strong throughout a motion that combines hip flexion with knee flexion because: a. The rectus femoris becomes maximally elongated b. The hamstrings are able to assist with flexing the hip c. The rectus femoris is shortened across the hip but elongated across the knee—maintaining a nearoptimal length for producing force d. The vastus medialis and the vastus lateralis assist with flexing the hip, whereas the one-joint gluteus maximus assists with flexing the knee.
c. The rectus femoris is shortened across the hip but elongated across the knee—maintaining a nearoptimal length for producing force
Which of the following joints allows nearly equal amounts of motion in all three planes? a. Talocrural b. Subtalar c. Transverse tarsal d. Metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe
c. Transverse tarsal
The normal range of motion for hip flexion is: a. 0 to 90 degrees b. 0 to 50 degrees c. 0 to 30 degrees d. 0 to 120 degrees
d. 0 to 120 degrees
Measured on the lateral side of the knee, normal genu valgum of the knee is typically: a. 30 degrees b. 100 degrees c. 120 to 140 degrees d. 170 to 175 degrees
d. 170 to 175 degrees
Which of the following muscles is able to perform hip extension and knee flexion? a. Semitendinosus b. Biceps femoris—long head c. Biceps femoris—short head d. A and B e. All of the above
d. A and B
Which of the following muscles is not multi-articular? a. Vastus lateralis b. Vastus medialis c. Rectus femoris d. A and B e. All of the above are multi-articular muscles.
d. A and B
Which of the following describes the primary sagittal plane function of the anterior cruciate ligament? a. Resists posterior translation of the femur relative to a fixed tibia b. Resists anterior translation of the femur relative to a fixed tibia c. Resists anterior translation of the tibia relative to a fixed femur d. A and C e. B and C
d. A and C
Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the tibial branch of the sciatic nerve? a. Semitendinosus b. Biceps femoris—long head c. Semimembranosus d. Biceps femoris—short head
d. Biceps femoris—short head
Which of the following muscles has the potential to plantar flex the ankle and flex the knee? a. Flexor hallucis longus b. Soleus c. Peroneus tertius d. Gastrocnemius
d. Gastrocnemius
Which of the following is not an action of the gluteus maximus? a. Hip extension b. Hip external rotation c. Posterior pelvic tilt d. Hip internal rotation
d. Hip internal rotation
Which of the following joints is commonly referred to as a "mortise joint"? a. Subtalar joint b. Transverse tarsal joint c. Proximal interphalangeal joints d. Talocrural joint
d. Talocrural joint
If a patient's left hip is arthritic or painful, a clinician would most likely recommend that: a. The patient perform heavy resistive exercises with the left leg b. The patient use a cane in the left hand c. The patient perform deep squatting exercises d. The patient use a cane in the right hand
d. The patient use a cane in the right hand
Which of the following factors is likely to contribute to excessive lateral tracking of the patella? a. Tight iliotibial band or lateral retinaculum b. Excessive pronation of the ankle and foot c. Weakness of the hip abductors and hip external rotators d. B and C e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Inversion and eversion: a. Occur about a medial-lateral axis of rotation b. Occur about an anterior-posterior axis of rotation c. Occur in the frontal plane d. A and C e. B and C
e. B and C
The primary motions allowed at the subtalar joint are: a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Inversion and eversion c. Abduction and adduction d. A and B e. B and C
e. B and C
Which of the following helps to prevent excessive inversion of the ankle and foot? a. The deltoid ligaments b. The lateral collateral ligaments of the ankle and foot c. Activation of the peroneus tertius d. A and C e. B and C
e. B and C
Which of the following muscles is involved with the force-couple that produces a posterior pelvic tilt? a. Iliopsoas b. Gluteus maximus c. Rectus abdominis d. A and B e. B and C
e. B and C
Which of the following statements is true regarding an individual hiking the right side of the pelvis? a. This motion is produced by active contraction of the right hip abductors b. This motion involves closed-chain abduction of the left hip c. This motion involves activation of the left gluteus medius d. A and C e. B and C
e. B and C