LAB CE most missed questions

In a closed system, thawed FFP and PF24 blood components my be labeled as "Thawed plasma" 24 hours after the original thaw time and given a shelf life of? - 5 days - 60 minutes - 24 hours - days

- 5 days

The diagnosis of diphtheria must be confirmed by: - Observing metachromatic granules in a methylene blue stain of an oropharyngeal swab - recovering Corynebacterium diphtheriae in culture - preforming a biochemical identification of a culture - Determining that a culture isolate is a toxin producing strain.

- Determining that a culture isolate is a toxin producing strain.

Which of mycobacterium sp. causes the infectious disease tuberculosis? - Mycobacterium paratuberculosis - Mycobacterium marinum - Mycobacterium ulcerans - Mycobacterium bovis

- Mycobacterium bovis

the body of a cestode is known as its: - proglottid - Scolex - Strobila - Rostellum

- Strobila

which from of hemoglobin cannot be measured using the cyanmethemoglobin method? - Sulfhemoglobin - Carboxyhemoglobin - Oxyhemoglobin - Hemoglobin

- Sulfhemoglobin

all of the following are RNA nucleotides EXCEPT? - Thymine - Uracil - Adenine - Guanine

- Thymine

which of the following autoantibodies are found in a patient with graves disease but not typically seen in Hashimotos thyroiditis? - Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies (TRAbs) - Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) - Islet cell antibodies - Antitransglutaminase (tTg)

- Thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies (TRAbs)

The main purpose for performing molecular testing on surveillance cultures for MRSA is all of the following, EXCPT? - Short turnaround time - High sensitivity - Reduction of patient isolation days - does not require culture conformation

- does not require culture conformation

Which Laboratory assay is a highly specific indicator and the most sensitive assay for diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? A) Cyclic citrullinated peptide B) Sensitized sheep cells C) Latex particle agglutination D) C-reactive Protein agglutination

A) Cyclic citrullinated peptide

which laboratory assay is a highly specific indicator and the most sensitive assay for a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? A) Cyclic citrullinated peptide B) sensitized Sheep cells C) Latex particle agglutination D) C-Reactive protein agglutination

A) Cyclic citrullinated peptide

The screening assay for activated protein C resistance (APRC) is abnormal on a patient. The most likely cause of this result is: A) Factor V Leiden mutation B) antithrombin deficiency C) Factor VIII mutation D) excess tissue factor pathway inhibitor

A) Factor V Leiden mutation

The serum from a patient of African-American descent is reactive with all screening and panel cells. which antibody directed to a high incidence antigen is most likely to be present?

Anti-U

The presence of a Lupus Anticoagulant (antiphospholipid antibodies) can cause an increased A) Platelet count B) APTT C) Bleeding Time D) FDP

B) APTT

A 17-year old African-American male had the following laboratory results: Hb S = 45% Hb A = 53% Hb A2 = 2% Which of the following is the PROBABLE hemoglobin genotype? A) SS B) AS C) SC D) AC

B) AS

which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway? A) C1qrs B) Factors B and D C) C4, C2, C3 D) C5, C6, C7, C8, C9

C) C4, C2, C3

E. coli O157:H7 infection is associated with this disorder: A) Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) B) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) C) Correct! Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS D) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

C) Correct! Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS

The process of motion of a liquid when a Voltage is applied between the ends of an inculating tube that contains that liquid is known as? A) Densitometry B) Electrical impedance C) Electroosmosis D) Voltammerty

C) Electroosmosis

which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage? A) Rosette test B) Kleihauer-Betke test C) Flow cytometry D) AHG test

C) Flow cytometry

D-Dimer fragments are the direct result of the action of plasmin on A) prothrombin B) soluble fibrinogen C) cross-linked fibrin D) plasminogen

C) cross-linked fibrin

The disappearance of HBsAg and HBeAg, the persistence of total anti-HBc, the appearance of anti-HBs, and often the presence of anti-Hbe indicates what type of hepatitis infection? A) Acute HBV infection B) Chronic HBV infections C) recovery phase of HBV infection D) acute HCV infection

C) recovery phase of HBV infection

When a Specked Nuclear Antibody (ANA) pattern is observed, what follow-up test for antibodies related to Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is not benificial? A) testing for antibodies to Smith (Sm) B) testing for all antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) C) testing for antibodies to SS-A/SS-B+ D) Testfor antibodies to U1RNP+ and dcSSc

D) Testfor antibodies to U1RNP+ and dcSSc

The qualitative differences between A1 and A2 phenotypes includes all of the following Except: A) the formation of anti-A1 in A subgroups B) The amount of transferase enzyme. C) The length of the precursor oligosaccharide chains. D) The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.

D) The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.

Which one of the following statements about endometriosis is incorrect? A) Phagocytes is a form of endocytosis B) in endocytosis, the cell membrane invaginates and isolates a foreign particle in a vesicle C) endocytosis is a mechanism for viruses to enter cells. D) endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macromolcules inside.

D) endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes expel the macromolcules inside.

Coumadin (Warfarin) works as an anticoagulant by: A) chelating the calcium present in the blood B) increasing the activity of antithrombin C) binding to soluble fibrinogen D) interference with vitamin K

D) interference with vitamin K

which of the following cells is the most common nucleated cell in normal adult bone marrow? A) myeloblast B) Promyelocyte C) myelocyte D) metamyelocyte

D) metamyelocyte

Which of the following instruments measures absorbance of light at a specific wavelength? A) Osmometer B) Coulometer C) nephelometer D) spectrophotometer

D) spectrophotometer

what is the principle of the New Methylene Blue test? A) reflecting Ultra-violet lite B) inhibit lipids and proteins C) staining Hemoglobin components D) staining cytoplasmic RNA, mitochondria, and ribosomes

D) staining cytoplasmic RNA, mitochondria, and ribosomes

Corneal tissue transplantation has an extremely high success rate for a variety of reasons, including all of the following with the exception of:

Eccentrically placed grafts

what function in the body does GGT have?

Transfer of gamma-glutamyl pepetides amino acids, water and other peptides

Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of:

Transferrin

Significant risk factors for potential development of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include the following factors EXCEPT:

A strong ability of the host to destory foreign lymphocytes

The ketone component that is measured by the nitroprusside reaction is: A) Acetoacetic acid B) Beta-hydroxybutyric acid C) Acetone D) C-Reactive Proteins

A) Acetoacetic acid

B-hydroxybutric acid is formed as the result of an accumlation of which of the following? A) Acetyl-CoA B) Oxaloacetic acid C) Uric acid D) Alpha-hydroxybutyic acid

A) Acetyl-coA

what form of immunity is expected to provide long-term protection after hepatitis B vaccine(HBV) is administered to an immunocompetent person? A) Active B) Passive C) Adaptive D) Innate (natural)

A) Active

Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category? A) Glycoproteins B) immunoglobulins C) Lipoproteins D) Macroglobulin

A) Glycoproteins

which abnormal gene is inherited within Chediak Higashi resulting in dysfunctional cells and susceptible to infections consequently? A) LTST B) JAK2 C) TET2 D) ASAMTS13

A) LTST

what is the correct sequence of the immunologic Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) response in infectious mononucleosis? A) VCA, EBNA, VCA/IgM, EA B) EA, EBNA, VCA, VCA/IgM C) VCA/IgM, EBNA, VCA, EA D) EBNA, VCA, EA, VCA/IgM

A) VCA, EBNA, VCA/IgM, EA

which of the following blood test is used in the determination of prostate cancer?

Acid phosphatase

Which of the following stains bind to nucleic acid to aid in the detection of cell wall deficient organisms?

Acridine orange

Which of the following enzymes is associated with conditions affecting skeletal muscles?

Aldolase

What would be the best way to determine how much RhIG should be given to a postpartum female who received RhiG antenatally and demonstrates the anti-D antibody at delivery? A) antibody titration B) Flow cytometry C) Rosette test D) Kleihauer-Betke acid elution

B) Flow cytometry

Which of the following is true of genotype screening in pharmacogenomics? A) Genotype screening gives a better overall picture of drug metabolism than measuring metabolism with probe drugs. B) Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolis. C) Genotyping typocally involves measuring only one mutation stie of polymorphism. D) Genotyping has no known impact on drug metabolism.

B) Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolis.

which of the following is true of genotype screening in pharmacogenomics? A) Genotype screening gives a better overall picture of drug metabolism than measuring metabolism with probe drugs. B) Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism. C) Genotyping typically involves measuring only one mutation site or polymorphism. D) Genotyping has no known impact on drug metabolism.

B) Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism.

hs-CRP test result of 5 mg/L may indicate which of the following? A) low risk for cardiovascular disease B) High risk of future CVD C) Acute inflammatory condition D_) no risk for future CVD

B) High risk of future CVD

A patient gew out Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) from an Acid fast bacilli sputum culture. the physician called requesting information on which of the following primary antitubercular agents would be recommended for treatment? A) streptomycin, Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol B) Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol and pyrazinamide C) Isoniazid, Ciprofloxacin, Ethambutol, pyrazinamide D) Isoniazid, Capreomycin, streptomycin, Rifampin

B) Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol and pyrazinamide

Which subset of effector lymphocytes is predominantly responsible for regulation of antibody production? A) TH1 B) T H 2 C) T H 17 D) CD8+

B) T H 2

In the outpatient clinic, you obtain an INR of 1.1 from a patient on oral anticoagulant therapy. What is the best interpretation of this result? A) The patient is adequately anticoagulated and should be tested again in one month B) The patient is under-anticoagulated and should be evaluated by the physician C) The patient is over-anticoagulated and requires intervention by the physician D) Insufficient information to determine the status of the patient

B) The patient is under-anticoagulated and should be evaluated by the physician

two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? A) accurately identifies the presence of disease B) accurately identifies the absence of the disease C) has many false- positives D) has few false-negatives

B) accurately identifies the absence of the disease

the purpose of C3a and C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to: A) bind with specific membrane receptors of lymphocytes and cause release of cytotoxic substances. B) cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils. C) bind with membrane receptors of macrophages to facilitate phagocytosis and the removal of debris and foreign substances. D) regulate and degrade membrane cofactor protein after activation by C3 convertase

B) cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils.

which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the bone marrow biopsy specimen? A) Bone marrow cellularity can be accurately determined B) cellular morphologic details can be determined. C) bone marrow architecture can be examined D) Prussian blue staining could be used to evaluate iron stores, and diagnosis anemia

B) cellular morphologic details can be determined.

Which of the following conditions would argue in favor of therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) for a given drug? A) the drug has a low degree of protein binding B) the drug is given chronically C) the drug has a low toxicity and few side effects D) The effective and toxic concentration are not well defined

B) the drug is given chronically

False positive results for HIV antibody are most likley to occur in patients that: A) Have been exposed to HIV very recently B) are receiving immuno suppressive therapy C) Have and autoimmune disorder D) are infectied with genetically rare strain of HIV

C) Have and autoimmune disorder

which hemoglobin will be increased in delta-beta thalasemia? A) HbA B) Hb A2 C) Hb F D) Hb H

C) Hb F

All of the following are examples of isothermal amplification methods EXCEPT? A) Loop Mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP) B) Nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA) C) Hybridization D) Helicase dependent amplification (HDA)

C) Hybridization

which of the following immunoglobulins are capable of fixing complement by the classical pathway? A) IgG and IgA B) IgM and IgA C) IgG nd IgM D) IgG and IgD

C) IgG nd IgM

Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells? A) Lewis B) ABO C) Kell D) I

C) Kell

Which dematiaceous fungi affects the joints cause septic arthritis? A) Piedraia hortae B) Madurella spp. C) Phialophora spp. D) Hortaea werneckii

C) Phialophora spp.

A flagellar stain would show peritrichous flagella for each of the following organisms except: A) Bordetella bronchiseptica B) Alcaligenes faecails C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Escherichia coli

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

what RBC morphology on a Wright-Stained smear may indicate the presence of an unstable hemoglobin? A) Acanthocytes B) Codocytes C) Schistocytes D) Xerocytes

C) Schistocytes

what RBC morphology on a Wright-stained smear may indicate the presence of an unstable hemoglobin? A) Acanthocytes B) Codocytes C) Schistocytes D) Xerocytes

C) Schistocytes

A normal Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) result is dependent upon the concentration and activity of which coagulation factors present in a patient's plasma? A) II, Protein S, X, XI B) II, V, VII, X C) VIII, IX, XI, XII D) I, VII, Protein C, XIII

C) VIII, IX, XI, XII

This species of Candida accounts for around 20 percent of urinary Yeast isolates.

Candida glabrata

According to the National Fire prevention association (NFPA), electrical fires are classified as:

Class C

The portion of an enzyme which when separated from its cofactor is called an? A) Holoenzyme B) Isoenzyme C) Coenzyme D) Apoenzyme

D) Apoenzyme

which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? A) CDe / cDe B) cDE / ce C) cDE / cE D) CDe / ce

D) CDe / ce

8-hydroxyquinoline and Ortho-Cresolphthalein complexone (CPC) reagent is commonly used in the determination of: A) Phosphorus B) Magnesium C) Chloride D) Calcium

D) Calcium

colorless hexagonal plate crystals seen in a urine specimen are MOST likely to indicate which of the following? A) Gout B) Renal damage C) Bilirubinuria D) Cystinuria

D) Cystinuria

Which test can confirm a diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)? A) Decreased platelet aggregation due to Ristocetin B) Decreased renal function C) Decreased vWF antigen D) Decreased ADAMTS-13

D) Decreased ADAMTS-13

Which FAB designation is called the "true" monocytic leukemia and is characterized by monoblasts, promonocytes, and monocytes? A) FAB M1 B) FAB M3 C) FAB M4 D) FAB M5

D) FAB M5

VDRL and RPR are examples of which of the following types of test methodologies? A) ELISA B) Hemagglutination C) Immunofluorescence D) Flocculation

D) Flocculation

Each of the following hypothalamic hormones is correctly matched with anterior pituitary hormone that it releases EXCEPT: A) TRH--TSH B) GnRH--LH and FSH C) CRH-- ACTH D) GHRH--Oxytocin

D) GHRH--Oxytocin [GHRH- is responsable for releaseing growth hormone (GH)}]

Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator used acutely during asthma attack. off the reasons blow explain why therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) for albuterol is not available or common EXCEPT? A) it is not a chronically used drug so toxicity is less likely B) The half-life is short, and the drug is cleared quickly C) It has a wide therapeutic window D) It has a narrow therapeutic window

D) It has a narrow therapeutic window

Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL test: A) Diagnostic of active syphilis B) Diagnostic of latent syphilis C) Diagnostic of nero-syphilis D) Monitoring course of treatment

D) Monitoring course of treatment

all of the following substances can be used to induce platelet aggregation when performing platelet aggregation studies EXCEPT: A) Thrombin B) Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) C) Epinephrine D) Plasminogen

D) Plasminogen

Which adsorption technique removes cold IgM antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities? A) cold auto-adsorption B) warm auto-adsorption C) Differential (allogeneic) D) Rabbit erythrocyte Stroma (REST)

D) Rabbit erythrocyte Stroma (REST)

A blood specimen is received in the laboratory for testing five hours after collection. Which of the following test results may be falsely decreased? A) serum/ plasma potassium B) Serum/ plasma creatinine C) Serum/ plasma lactate Dehydrogenase D) Serum/plasma glucose

D) Serum/plasma glucose

Dracunculus medinensis to this category of parities?

Nematode

smooth gray nonhemolytic colonies that were recovered after 36 hours incubation from a wound of the forearm of a 14-year-old boy following a dog bite. - GS = GN bacilli - a musty mushroom odor - oxidase positive - no growth on MAC

Pasteurella multocida

what condition is associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein, EXCEPT?

Prostate cancer

what is the name of the colorless end product of bilirubin catabolism?

Urobilinogen