Linux + Practice Test 2

Which of the following is used to represent the logical negation operator in Bash? A. ! B. * C. -ge D. -gt

A. ! The (!) is the logical negation (not) operator. The (-gt) operator is the greater than comparison operator. The (*) is the multiplication arithmetic operator. The (-ge) is the greater than or equal to comparison operator.

{ "Jamario" : "Dion Training Instructor", "Certification" : { "CISSP" : true, "Security+" : true } } Consider the screenshot above. Which of the following types of files is represented? A. .json (Correct) B. .yaml C. .py D. .terraformrc

A. .json The screenshot provides an example of a simple JSON file. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is a standard text-based format for representing structured data based on JavaScript object syntax. A JSON file stores simple data structures and objects JSON format, which is a standard data interchange format. It is primarily used for transmitting data between a web application and a server. JSON files are lightweight, text-based, human-readable, and can be edited using a text editor.

Which of the following is the default nice value assigned to an application? A. 0 B. -19 C. 20 D. 5

A. 0 The default nice value assigned to an application is 0. The highest nice value is -19. The lowest nice value is 20. A nice value is associated with every running process with higher nice numbers being given a higher priority by the CPU for processing.

Gavin, a system administrator at Dion Training, is currently working in his home directory. He enters 'cd /var/log/' in the shell to move into the log directory. Which of the following types of path traversals was just performed? A. Absolute B. Relative C. Parent D. Same

A. Absolute An absolute path defines the directories to traverse by starting from the root of the filesystem. A relative path defines the directories to traverse based on the user's current location in the filesystem. A traversal to a parent directory occurs when the user enters the 'cd ..' command. A traversal to the same directory occurs when the user enters the 'cd .' command.

Josephine, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to automate the integration and testing phase of the software development lifecycle. Which of the following should be used to accomplish this? A. Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) B. Infrastructure as Code (IaC) C. Orchestration D. DevOps

A. Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) is a process for managing the software-development life cycle that automates feature integration and testing. DevOps is an amalgamation of software development and systems operations characterized by a shorter development life cycle, a reduction in the time between product changes, and the integration of those changes in the production environment. Infrastructure as Code (IaC) refers to the idea of centrally managing configuration files with strict version control to automate the deployment of configuration file changes. Orchestration refers to a series of automated tasks that, when combined, result in a complete solution.

Cheryl, a system administrator at Dion Training, is troubleshooting a script that should be run every time the system starts up. Unfortunately, the script is not executing during the boot process. The Description, ExecStop, and WantedBy directives have been specified. Which of the following directives is required to initialize a custom script at boot? A. ExecStart B. ExecStop C. Before D. After

A. ExecStart The ExecStart directive executes commands along a specified absolute path upon startup to start a service. The ExecStop directive executes commands along a specified absolute path upon shutdown to stop a service. The Before directive specifies that the unit will start before any other unit listed in this field. The After directive specifies that the unit will start after any other unit listed in this field.

Dion Training wants to increase the security posture of its systems. Which of the following commands is used to protect their sensitive data by encrypting the data at rest on their storage device? A. LUKS B. rsync C. scp D. netcat

A. LUKS Linux Unified Key Setup (LUKS) is a platform-independent full-drive encryption solution that is commonly used to encrypt storage devices in Linux environments. The nc (netcat) command is used to test connectivity and send data across a network connection. The nc command is also used by penetration testers and system administrators to conduct a banner grab of the web server. The scp (secure copy) command is used to copy data to/from a remote host using SSH. The rsync command is a data transfer tool that only transfers changed files and avoids copying duplicate information that already exists at the remote destination to drastically reduce network traffic.

Which of the following best security practices requires a user to utilize a minimum of two forms of authentication when logging into a Linux server? A. Multifactor Authentication (MFA) B. Token C. Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) D. System Security Services Daemon (sssd)

A. Multifactor Authentication (MFA) Multifactor authentication (MFA) is the practice of requiring the user to present at least two different factors before the system authenticates them. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) defines the underlying framework and centralized authentication method leveraged by authentication services, such as Kerberos and LDAP.

Kyle, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to identify what state a process is currently in. The process is currently functioning properly and is receiving all of the resources it needs to operate. Which of the following process state BEST describes this? A. Running B. Sleeping C. Stopped D. Zombie

A. Running The running process state means that the process functions normally and is receiving the resources it needs. The stopped process state means that the process is currently exiting or has terminated and is releasing its resources. The zombie process state means that the process is a child process that sent its exit status to its parent processes to be released for exiting. The sleeping process state means that the process is awaiting access to resources to be able to run.

Alexander, a system administrator, has recently finished editing a configuration file using the vim text editor. They issued the ":q" command in vim and then exited the configuration file. Which of the following types of signals did they use to close the vim editor? A. SIGTERM B. SIGKILL C. SIGHUP D. CTRL+Z

A. SIGTERM The vim text editor contains a command mode that allows commands to be issued directly within the text editor. For example, issuing the ":q" command in vim will cause a graceful exit from the program using the SIGTERM (signal -15) process signal. The SIGKILL (signal -9) process is used when an application refuses to exist gracefully using the SIGTERM signal. The SIGHUP signal requests that a process exit when the terminal running the process closes. This allows the operating system to terminate the process once the terminal closes since it is assumed that the user is no longer interested in the results of the command. The CTRL+Z key combination is used to send a temporary stop signal to the currently running program in the Linux CLI.

Which of the following controls service-to-service interactions in a containerized environment? A. Service mesh B. Container registry C. Virtual machine D. Container image

A. Service mesh Service mesh is a dedicated infrastructure layer managed by code that provides service-to-service interaction in a container environment. A container image is a static file with executable code that can create a container on a computer system. Since a container image is a static file, it cannot be changed and is therefore able to be deployed consistently in any environment. A container registry is a collection of repositories used to store and access container images. Virtual machines (VMs) allow for the virtualization of a physical computer so that each virtual machine can run its own copy of an operating system.

Victor, a system administrator at Dion Training, is working on a trouble ticket from a user who is receiving a warning message every time they try to save files in their home directory. The system administrator believes the user may have exceeded their assigned quota limits on the internal storage device of the Linux system. Which of the following quota types would issue a warning to the user any time they attempt to save a new file and exceed their quota? A. User soft quota limit B. User hard quota limit C. Inode soft quota limit D. Inode hard quota limit

A. User soft quota limit A storage quota is the amount of storage space allocated to a user, group, or a number of files (inodes). A user soft quota limit will allow a user to exceed their limit for a given period (grace period), but once that grace period expires then no additional storage can be used. A user hard quota limit will prevent users from using any additional storage once the limit is reached. An inode soft quota limit is used to limit the number of files that can be stored and utilizes a grace period. An inode hard quota limit is used to limit the number of files that can be stored on a system.

Luna, a system administrator, wants to edit the time of day that some scheduled tasks in the cron table are being run on a Linux server. Which of the following commands should she use to edit these scheduled tasks? A. crontab B. at C. fcstat D. curl

A. crontab The crontab (CRON TABle) file is a file that contains the schedule of tasks to be run at specified times. To edit the crontab file, a system administrator should use the crontab command. The crontab command is used to schedule new tasks or edit the tasks currently included in the crontab file. The at command is used to run a single task at a specific time and is not designed to be used with repetitive or regularly scheduled tasks. The curl command is used to transfer data to or from a server using any of the supported protocols (HTTP, FTP, IMAP, POP3, SCP, SFTP, SMTP, TFTP, TELNET, LDAP, or FILE). The fcstat command displays information about existing Fibre Channel adapters.

Which of the following DNS resolution tools uses question and answer sections in its output to display the results of a name resolution? A. dig B. nslookup C. host D. ifcfg

A. dig The dig command is used to gather information and test name resolution by displaying the question and answer sections in its output. The host command is used to conduct name resolution in Linux, but it doesn't provide the queries and response section of the output. The ifcfg command is an alternative to ifconfig or the ip command for managing IP addressing. The nslookup command is sued to gather name resolution information and to test the name resolution process on a Linux system using either interactive or non-interactive modes.

Doris, a software developer at Dion Training, wants to build a container image from a Dockerfile. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. docker build B. docker inspect C. docker port D. docker rmi

A. docker build The docker build command is used to build an image from a Dockerfile. The docker port command is used to list the port mappings for the specified container. The docker rmi command is used to remove images from the docker repository. The docker inspect command is used to display detailed information about a container.

Victoria, a system administrator at Dion Training, received a warning that a Linux server is low on storage space. She has identified that one partition is full and wants to add additional storage to the system. Victoria just installed a new hard disk and needs to partition it. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. fdisk B. vgdisplay C. lvdisplay D. pvcreate

A. fdisk The fdisk utility is a menu-driven program that is used to create, modify, or delete partitions on a storage drive. Using fdisk, you can create a new partition table or modify existing entries on the partition table. The vgdisplay command lists attributes of volume groups. The lvdisplay command lists attributes of logical volumes. The pvcreate command initializes a drive or partition to use as a physical volume on a Linux server.

Margaret, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to display the first ten lines of a configuration file to the terminal. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. head B. tail C. source D. read

A. head The head command displays the first ten lines of the specified file. The tail command displays the last ten lines of the specified file. The source command is used to execute another command within the current shell process. The read command in Bash is used to collect input from a user and then processes that input as part of a script.

Penelope, a system administrator at Dion Training, recently installed a new Linux server named ServerDT. Dion Training uses a naming scheme for all of its servers based on the server's function, such as FileServer01 or Database03. Which of the following commands could Penelope use to change the hostname of the server from ServerDT to FileServer02? A. hostnamectl B. arp C. resolvectl D. ifcfg

A. hostnamectl The hostnamectl command is used to view the system's hostname, to display the version of the Linux kernel being used, and display other information about the system's hardware. The systemd hostnamectl set-hostname command can be used to configure or change the hostname of the current Linux server. The resolvectl command allows an administrator to manually query the name resolution services to confirm that the names and IP addresses returned are accurate. The arp command is used to discover information about known MAC addresses and IP bindings. The ifcfg command is an alternative to ifconfig or the ip command for managing IP addressing.

Avery, a network administrator, wants to document the IP address for the four network adapters on a Linux server. Which of the following commands could she use to display the IP addresses for all four of the network adapters without requiring the use of any options? A. ifconfig B. hostname C. ifcfg D. arp

A. ifconfig The ifconfig command enables a user to view the current IP address information for each network adapter recognized by the system. The arp command is used to discover information about known MAC addresses and IP bindings. The ifcfg command is an alternative to ifconfig or the ip command for managing IP addressing. The hostname command displays the system's current network name configuration.

Rodney, a system administrator at Dion Training, is having issues installing yum on a Linux server. Which of the following package managers could he use instead if he needs to install and upgrade .rpm packages on the server? A. rpm B. dpkg C. zypp D. apt

A. rpm The .rpm file type is used primarily to install or update applications on the system using the yum or rpm commands. The .deb file type is used primarily to install or update applications on the system using the dpkg or apt commands. The SUSE ZYpp Package Manager (zypper) is a software package manager used in the SUSE Linux operating system and uses the .zypp file format.

Carl, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to configure SELinux policies on a Linux server. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. semanage B. sestatus C. getsebool D. setsebool

A. semanage The semanage command configures SELinux policies. The sestatus command gets the status of SELinux, including its current mode, policy type, and mount point. The getsebool command displays the on/off status of SELinux boolean values. These boolean values enable a user to change policy configurations at runtime without writing the policy directly. The setsebool command changes the on/off status of an SELinux boolean value.

Bertha, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to display the default target on a Linux workstation to determine if users have access to the GUI. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. systemctl get-default B. systemctl isolate C. systemctl set-default D. systemctl status

A. systemctl get-default The systemctl command is used to control the systemd init daemon. The systemctl command is used to view running services, manage (enable/disable) services to run during boot or within the current session, determine the status of these services, and manage the system target. The systemctl get-default command displays the default target. The systemctl isolate command starts the specified unit environment. The systemctl set-default command changes the default target. The systemctl status command displays the status of the specified service.

Owen, a network administrator at Dion Training, wants to analyze the packets on the outbound interface of the firewall. Which of the following commands is used to conduct packet captures in Linux? A. tcpdump B. netstat C. hostnamectl D. nslookup

A. tcpdump The tcpdump command is used to conduct packet captures and analysis in Linux. The netstat (network statistics) command gathers information about TCP connections to the system. Netstat can be used to display existing connections, listening ports on the server, and network adapter information. The hostnamectl command is used to view the system's hostname, display the version of the Linux kernel being used, and display other information about the system's hardware. The systemd hostnamectl set-hostname command can be used to configure or change the hostname of the current Linux server. The nslookup command is sued to gather name resolution information and to test the name resolution process on a Linux system using either interactive or non-interactive modes.

Roland, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, is conducting an audit of the company's service accounts on a Linux server. To increase the security of the server, Roland wants to block interactive logins from the service accounts and needs to prevent the service accounts from accessing the shell. Which of the following should be placed in the shell field of each service account listed in the /etc/passwd file to block their access to the shell? A. /log/audit B. /sbin/nologin C. /etc/shadow D. /sbin/noshell

B. /sbin/nologin Service accounts should be routinely audited to ensure the security of a Linux system. Service accounts shoudl be blocked from accessing the shell and denied the ability to conduct an interactive login. To prevent this, the /sbin/nologin value should be entered in the shell field for the service account.

Olive, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to output the results from a script designed to pull the serial numbers from a text file and redirect them to an inventory.txt file. Which of the following redirectors should be used to accomplish this? A. < B. > C. << D. >>

B. > The (>) operator redirects the standard output to a file. The (>>) operator appends the standard output to the end of the destination file. The (<) reads the input from a file rather than from the keyboard or mouse. The (<<{string}) operator provides input data from the current source, stopping when a line containing the provided string occurs. When placed in a script, this is called a here document.

Anthony, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to select an orchestration tool that uses agents and relies on the Ruby programming language. Which of the following orchestration tools would meet these requirements? A. Ansible B. Chef C. Puppet D. SaltStack

B. Chef Chef is an orchestration tool that utilizes agents and the Ruby programming language. Puppet is an orchestration tool that is agentless and recognizes configuration files in Bash, Python, Ruby, YAML, and PowerShell. SaltStack is an orchestration tool that utilizes both agent and agentless options and supports the use of Python and YAML. Ansible is an orchestration tool that is commonly used for Red Hat Enterprise Linux deployments, is agentless, and relies on the Python programming language.

Louis, a software developer at Dion Training, created a hash value for a software package and then encrypted this hash value using Dion Training's private key. Which of the following terms is used to describe this encrypted hash value? A. Wildcard certificate B. Digital signature C. Public key D. Certificate authority

B. Digital signature Digital signatures are used for sender authentication and message integrity. Digital signatures are created by hashing the data being sent and encrypting it with their developer's or sender's private key. Private keys are maintained securely by an individual or device and used to decrypt messages that are encrypted by their public key. Private keys are also used to create digital signatures by encrypting a hash of the sent data. The public key refers to one-half of a user key pair under the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). This key is available to any user who wants to encrypt a message to a specific individual. The message can only be decrypted by the recipient's private key. A certificate authority (CA) is a server that issues digital certificates for entities and maintains the associated private/public key pair. Wildcard certificates support multiple subdomains of a single parent domain, such as www.diontraining.com, mail.diontraining.com, and ftp.diontraining.com.

Noah is teaching a new Linux administrator some basic commands. Which of the following functions does the cat command perform? A. Display the contents of a file that would not normally fit on one screen B. Display the contents of a text file on the screen C. Delete the contents of the specified file D. Move the contents of the specified file

B. Display the contents of a text file on the screen The cat command displays the contents of a text file on the screen. If the content of the file is larger than the screen, the contents will scroll off the top of the screen. To fit one screen of text at a time to the screen, the administrator should use the more or less commands. The rm (remove) command is used to delete the contents of the specified file. The mv (move) command is used to move the contents of the specified file.

Fanny, a system administrator at Dion Training, is troubleshooting a script that should be run every time the system shuts down. Unfortunately, the script is not executing during the shutdown process. The Description, ExecStart, and WantedBy directives have been specified. Which of the following directives is required to initialize a custom script during a shutdown? A. ExecStart B. ExecStop C. Before D. After

B. ExecStop The ExecStop directive executes commands along a specified absolute path upon shutdown to stop a service. The ExecStart directive executes commands along a specified absolute path upon startup to start a service. The Before directive specifies that the unit will start before any other unit listed in this field. The After directive specifies that the unit will start after any other unit listed in this field.

Lisa, a software developer at Dion Training, wants to increase the CPU priority of some custom software that is running on the company's Linux server. Which of the following should be used to accomplish this? A. Increase its priority (raise the nice value) B. Increase its priority (lower the nice value) C. Decrease its priority (raise the nice value) D. Decrease its priority (lower the nice value)

B. Increase its priority (lower the nice value) To increase the priority of a process or software, the nice value should be lowered. The nice command allows users to start new processes at a specified priority level. A nice value is associated with every running process with higher nice numbers being given a higher priority by the CPU for processing. The default nice value assigned to an application is 0. The highest nice value is -19. The lowest nice value is 20.

Dale, a system administrator at Dion Training, deleted some sensitive files from an SSD. Another system administrator was able to recover the files from the SSD after they were deleted. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that the system administrator was able to recover the files? A. The inodes were exhausted B. SSD trimming was not performed C. A RAID misconfiguration exists D. There was an incorrect partition size

B. SSD trimming was not performed SSD trimming is a tool that removes data and frees up disk space on a storage device instead of just marking it as available for future usage. SSD trimming is a safer way to remove/delete files from a storage device than simply conducting file deletion commands in the operating system.

Gabrielle, a software developer at Dion Training, created a penetration testing simulator that is located on a remote server that students need to connect to. The simulation is designed to be accessed by tunneling the application's connection from port 2101 through port 22. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration? A. X11 forwarding B. SSH port forwarding C. Dynamic forwarding D. Multifactor authentication

B. SSH port forwarding Port forwarding, also referred to as SSH port forwarding, is a process that allows for tunneling applications through the SSH protocol from the client machine to the server machine over designated ports to add encryption for legacy applications, move through firewalls, and open backdoors into the internal network from an external client machine. Dynamic port forwarding creates a proxy that is then used by other applications for connectivity. X11 forwarding provides the graphical interface capabilities for Linux using the X11 Windows System (X11). Multifactor authentication (MFA) is the practice of requiring the user to present at least two different factors before the system authenticates them.

Consider the following command that was entered in the CLI: $ bg %1 Which of the following actions is being performed by the command above? A. The command refers to a job started by the command beginning with abc B. The command will run the job specified in the background C. The command specifies the previous job in the list D. The command refers to a job started by a command containing abc

B. The command will run the job specified in the background The bg %1 command instructs Linux to run job number one (%1) in the background. The bg %abc command is used to refer to a job started by the command beginning with abc. The bg %?abc command is used to refer to a job started by a command containing abc. The bg %- command is used to specify the previous job in the list.

Ada, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, wants to increase the security of a Linux system by requiring system administrators to use multi-factor authentication when logging into an administrative-level account. When the system administrator enters their username and password, they are then prompted to enter a dynamically displayed 6-digit code on a portable hardware device. Which of the following would this hardware device be considered? A. SSO B. Token C. PAM D. SSSD

B. Token A token is any unique physical or digital object that you can use to verify your identity. A physical token generates and stores authentication/authorization information. Multifactor authentication (MFA) is the practice of requiring the user to present at least two different factors before the system authenticates them. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) defines the underlying framework and centralized authentication method leveraged by authentication services, such as Kerberos and LDAP. This provides a common mechanism for many different authentication services and applications. The System Security Services Daemon (sssd) connects the local system to remote authentication services. Single Sign-On (SSO) is a session and user authentication service that permits a user to use one set of login credentials.

Kieran, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, determined that all of the company's Linux servers should receive their security patches and software updates outside of normal working hours to prevent downtime for the company's users. To achieve this, Kieran wants to use a command that will update the APT database without installing new updates during the workday. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. apt purge B. apt update C. apt upgrade D. apt remove

B. apt update The apt update command updates APT database of available packages. The apt upgrade command upgrades a single package or can be used to upgrade all of the system's packages if a single package was not specified. The apt remove command uninstalls the package but the configuration files remain on the Linux system. The apt purge command uninstalls the package and all of its configuration files.

Rose, a network administrator at Dion Training, wants to review all of the configuration settings for the DMZ of the firewall on a Linux server. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. firewall-cmd -get-zones B. firewall-cmd --zone=dmz --list-all C. firewall-cmd --zone=dmz --add-port=21/tcp D. firewall-cmd --zone=dmz --remove-port=21/tcp

B. firewall-cmd --zone=dmz --list-all The firewall-cmd --zone=dmz --list-all would list all rules in the dmz zone. The firewall-cmd --get-zones is used to list all zones in the firewall. The firewall-cmd ---zone=dmz --remove-port=21/tcp is used to block FTP communications through the firewall. The firewall-cmd --zone=dmz --add-port=21/tcp would allow FTP communications to occur through the firewall using port 21.

Julia, a software developer at Dion Training, just completed some changes to the code for the Dion Training website. She now wants to upload a copy of the code from her local workstation to the company's central repository so that other developers can access the newly revised code. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. git checkout B. git push C. gitignore D. git add

B. git push The push subcommand in git is used to upload local repository content to a remote central repository. The add subcommand in git is used to add changes to the working directory, but changes are not formally made until the commit command is run. The checkout subcommand in git is used to switch between different versions or branches of the code in the git repository. If Jason needs to review the code and make modifications to it, he should check out the code from the repository using the checkout subcommand. There is no formal gitignore command and files to be ignored by git are annotated in the .gitignore file.

Scarlett, a system administrator at Dion Training, is having trouble resolving hosts to their associated IP addresses. Scarlett believes the issue may be that server's name has not been added to the /etc/hosts file properly. Which of the following commands should Scarlett execute on the server to quickly identify the proper name to use in the hosts file? A. ifconfig B. hostname C. ifcfg D. arp

B. hostname The hostname command displays the system's current network name configuration. The arp command is used to discover information about known MAC addresses and IP bindings. The ifcfg command is an alternative to ifconfig or the ip command for managing IP addressing. The ifconfig command enables a user to view the current IP address information for each network adapter recognized by the system.

Which of the following commands determines how the system will represent various culture-specific elements, such as the keyboard layout and the currency symbols to be used on a Linux system? A. timedatectl B. localectl C. lsmod D. sysctl

B. localectl The localectl command is used to view and configure the system locale and keyboard layout settings. The timedatectl command is used to set the system date and time information. The sysctl command displays or sets kernel parameters at runtime. The lsmod command displays the currently loaded kernel modules, their sizes, usage details, and their dependent modules.

Duncan, a system administrator at Dion Training, has been asked to create a RAID array on a Linux server. Which of the following commands should he use to create, manage, and monitor the RAID array? A. urandom B. mdadm C. fdisk D. partprobe

B. mdadm The mdadm (multiple device administration) command is used to manage RAID systems from within the Linux CLI. In a RAID array, data is stored across multiple physical storage devices, and those devices are combined into a single virtual storage device. The mdadm tool enables you to create, manage, and monitor RAID arrays. The fdisk utility is a menu-driven program that is used to create, modify, or delete partitions on a storage drive. Using fdisk, you can create a new partition table or modify existing entries on the partition table. The partprobe command causes the system to redetect the storage disks and any partition changes. The partprobe command can be run to confirm the new partitions exist as expected. he urandom device is a special character device that provides random data when the file system interacts with it.

Helen, a system administrator at Dion Training, needs to unlock the user account for Jon Snow (jsnow). Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. chage B. passwd C. chmod D. userdel

B. passwd The passwd (password) command changes the password of a user account from within the command line interface. The passwd -u jsnow command is used to unlock the jsnow user account. The userdel command is used to delete or remove an existing user account on a system. The chage (change age) command is used to control password expiration, expiration warnings, inactive days, and other information for existing user accounts. The chmod (change modification) command is used to modify the permissions of a file or directory, but only the file or directory's owner or a system administrator can change the permissions for an object.

Eva, a system administrator at Dion Training, is troubleshooting a connection between a Linux server and its default gateway located at 192.168.1.1. She wants to send only 4 ICMP requests from the workstation to the gateway as part of her troubleshooting. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. ping 192.168.1.1 # 4 B. ping 192.168.1.1 -c 4 C. ping 192.168.1.1 D. ping 192.168.1.1 -n 4

B. ping 192.168.1.1 -c 4 The ping (Packet Internet Groper) command is used to check the network connectivity between a client and a server. By default. the ping command will send requests indefinitely until the command is stopped using the CTRL + Z key combination. To only send 4 ICMP requests using the ping command, the system administrator must use the -c 4 option. The ping command uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to send an ICMP echo message to the specified server. If that server is available, then it will send an ICMP reply message back to the client and the command displays the amount of time it took to receive the reply. If the client doesn't receive a timely response to its request from the destination computer, a request time out error is returned. If the client cannot reach the destination, an unknown host error is returned to the requester.

Gwendoline, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, is reviewing the permissions assigned to file on a Linux server. The file currently has a chmod value of 642 assigned. Which of the following permissions would the user have when accessing the file? A. read only B. read and write C. read, write, and execute D. none

B. read and write A chmod value of 642 would indicate that the user was assigned a permission of 6. This indicates that the user permissions (6) will allow for read (4) and write (2), but not execute (1) permissions (4+2+0 =6). Linux uses permission strings to indicate the type of permissions a file or directory has. These permissions strings can be written as a series of nine letters (using R for read, W for write, and X for execute), or the permission string can be abbreviated using a three-digit number to represent the user, group, and other permission states. When using the abbreviated number format, each digit is calculated by adding the permission for the field together. Read permissions have a value of 4. Write permissions have a value of 2. Execute permissions have a value of 1.

Hazel, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to install and run sandboxed applications using the Flatpak package manager. Which of the following terms is used to describe the repositories used by Flatpak? A. snaps B. remotes C. AppImage D. zip

B. remotes The Flatpak package manager uses the term remotes to refer to its repositories. The Snap package manager uses self-contained packages called snaps. An AppImage file is a self-contained application that can be run on Linux systems within a sandboxed environment. Each AppImage application file contains everything needed to run the application. The term zip refers to a specific file format used for a compressed archive containing one or more files.

Charles, a system administrator at Dion Training, is trying to see if one of their previous shells disconnected from the remote server when using the ssh command. Which of the following commands could he use to determine if there is currently an established connection over port 22? A. ip B. ss C. lsof D. blkid

B. ss The ss (socket state) command is a network utility used to provide information about established TCP connections or which ports the system may be listening on for inbound connections. The blkid command displays known information about the partitions on a specified device. The lsof command displays a list of the open files and the processes that opened them. The ip (internet protocol) command is a suite of tools used for configuring network interfaces and displaying information about those interfaces.

Eliza, a system administrator at Dion Training, needs to generate a new public/private key pair to identify herself as an authorized user when connecting to a server using SSH. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. ssh-add B. ssh-keygen C. ssh-copy-id D. systemctl enable sshd

B. ssh-keygen The ssh-keygen command is used to generate a public/private key pair using a specified asymmetric encryption algorithm. By default, the ssh-keygen command will generate an RSA public/private key pair for use with the SSH protocol. The ssh-add command adds private key identities to the SSH key agent, but it does not generate a new public/private key pair. The ssh-copy-id appends the user's public keys to the remote server's authorized_keys file so that the server can authenticate the user's private key, but it does not generate a new public/private key pair. The systemctl enable sshd command is used to start the ssh daemon when starting up or rebooting a Linux system.

Which of the following hidden directories are created the first time a user runs the ssh command? A. .sshconfig B. .tcp C. .ssh D. .bashrc

C. .ssh The .ssh directory is created the first time a user runs the ssh command. The .ssh/config file is created to hold the ssh program's configuration information. The .bashrc file is a hidden file inside the user's home directory that contains a script file that is executed everytime the user logs into the system.

Jayden, a system administrator at Dion Training, is testing a new script he created. He wants to test the script on files of specific lengths but does not have any files of those sizes available. Which special device file could Jayden use to create files of specific lengths? A. /dev/urandom B. /dev/null C. /dev/zero D. /tmp

C. /dev/zero The /dev/zero file is a way of filling storage capacity with a series of zeroes. For example, using the dd command, a sysadmin can create a file of a specified size as part of testing. The /dev/urandom file can create is a source of random characters for tasks such as creating completely randomized passwords. The /dev/null special file is a writeable location that is used as a target for generated data that should be discarded. This data is often error messages that are redirected to /dev/null by using the 2> redirector. The /tmp folder stores temporary files that are susceptible to loss if the Linux system is shutdown abruptly.

Graham, a system administrator at Dion Training, accidentally erased the DNS configurations on a Linux server. Which of the following files should be modified to identify the location of the network's DNS servers? A. /etc/DNS B. /etc/host/ C. /etc/resolv.conf D. /proc

C. /etc/resolv.conf The /etc/resolv.conf file is used to configure the IP address of one or more DNS servers for a Linux server or client. The /proc directory is a virtual file system that represents continually updated kernel information to the user in a standard directory or file format. The /etc/DNS and /etc/host directories are not created by default in Linux distributions.

Clare, a network administrator, is troubleshooting an issue with a Linux workstation not being able to connect to an external NTP server. She reviews the current firewall configuration and notices that only ports 22, 80, and 443 are currently set to allow. Which of the following ports must be opened in the firewall to allow NTP to function properly? A. 23 B. 110 C. 123 D. 445

C. 123 Port 123 is the default port for Network Time Protocol (NTP). Port 23 is the default port for Telnet. Port 445 is the default port for Server Messaging Block (SMB). Port 110 is the default port for Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3).

Andrea, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to create a "here document" by providing input data from the current source and only stopping once the line containing the provided string is found. Which of the following redirectors should be used to accomplish this? A. < B. > C. << D. >>

C. << The (<<{string}) operator provides input data from the current source, stopping when a line containing the provided string occurs. When placed in a script, this is called a here document. The (<) reads the input from a file rather than from the keyboard or mouse. The (>>) operator appends the standard output to the end of the destination file. The (>) operator redirects the standard output to a file

David, the CTO at Dion Training, wants to improve his productivity by scheduling tasks to automatically be performed at certain times of the day. Which of the following is the primary task scheduler used on a Linux system? A. GRUB2 B. SMB C. CRON D. LUKS

C. CRON The cron command is the primary task scheduler in Linux. The SMB (Server Message Block) protocol provides users with shared access to files and other resources across a local area network (LAN). Linux Unified Key Setup (LUKS) is a platform-independent full-drive encryption solution that is commonly used to encrypt storage devices in Linux environments. GRUB2 is a popular Linux bootloader.

Ethan, a Linux user, accidentally started up the menu-driven parted application. Which of the following keystrokes should he use to stop the currently running process? A. CTRL + Z B. CTRL + D C. CTRL + C D. End Key

C. CTRL + C The CTRL + C keystroke stops a running process. The CTRL + Z keystroke pauses a job temporarily so that it can be moved to the background. The CTRL + D keystroke exits the program and logs the user out of the current session. Pressing the end key will not conduct any process actions in Linux.

Rita, a system administrator at Dion Training, received an error indicating that the filesystem size is 2 GB according to the superblock. When Rita checks the physical size of the device, she notices it is only 1 GB in size. Which of the following filesystem errors is occurring? A. Filesystem corruption B. Inode exhaustion C. Filesystem mismatch D. Low IOPS

C. Filesystem mismatch Filesystem mismatch occurs when the physical size of the device does not equal the filesystem size reported by the superblock. Filesystem mismatches often occur after a change to the filesystem or partition size, if there is a filesystem misconfiguration, or if the storage disk is damaged. Inode exhaustion occurs when there are no available unique identifiers for a file even if there is still free disk space available. Each file created on a Linux partition is given an identifier called an inode. Filesystem corruption can occur when data is incorrectly read to or written from a storage device. Low IOPS (Input/Output Operations per Second) is a measurement that indicates that a storage device is performing slowly.

Kathryn, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, wants to decrypt a message that she received from Paul. Paul encrypted the message so that only Kathryn should be able to decrypt it. Which of the following keys should she use to decrypt his message when she receives it? A. Kathryn's public key B. Certificate authority C. Kathryn's private key D. Wildcard certificate

C. Kathryn's private key The private key refers to one-half of a user's key pair in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) system. Private keys are maintained securely by an individual or device and are used to decrypt messages that are encrypted with their public key. Private keys are also used to create digital signatures by encrypting a hash of the sent data. The public key is available to any user who wants to encrypt a message to a specific individual, but only the recipient's matching private key can be used to decrypt the message. A certificate authority (CA) is a server that issues digital certificates for entities and maintains the associated private/public key pair. Internal CAs issue self-signed certificates—certificates that are owned by the same entity that signs them. In other words, the certificate does not recognize any authority and is essentially certifying itself. Self-signed certificates require the client to trust the entity directly. Wildcard certificates support multiple subdomains of a single parent domain, such as www.diontraining.com, mail.diontraining.com, and ftp.diontraining.com.

Aimee, a system administrator at Dion Training, determined that a Linux system is malfunctioning and over-allocating memory to some of its applications. She wants to use a program to recover the over-allocated resources. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. iostat B. tcpdump C. OOM killer D. ioping

C. OOM killer The Out of Memory Killer (OOM Killer) is used to recover over-allocated memory space back to the Linux operating system. The tcpdump command is used to conduct packet captures and analysis in Linux. The iostat command is used to generate a report on CPU and device utilization. The ioping command is used to generate a report of a device's input/output (I/O) latency in real-time.

Joy, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to select an orchestration tool that is agentless and can utilize configuration files written in Bash, Python, Ruby, YAML, and PowerShell. Which of the following orchestration tools would meet these requirements? A. Ansible B. Chef C. Puppet D. SaltStack

C. Puppet Puppet is an orchestration tool that is agentless and recognizes configuration files in Bash, Python, Ruby, YAML, and PowerShell. SaltStack is an orchestration tool that utilizes both agent and agentless options and supports the use of Python and YAML. Ansible is an orchestration tool that is commonly used for Red Hat Enterprise Linux deployments, is agentless, and relies on the Python programming language. Chef is an orchestration tool that utilizes agents and the Ruby programming language.

Miriam, a system administrator at Dion Training, is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a Linux workstation. She ran the 'ip addr' command and determined that the workstation has an assigned IP address of 169.254.25.1. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the network connectivity issues on the system? A. The workstation has not been assigned a valid Layer 2 address B. A private IP address is assigned to the workstation and isn't routable on the internal network C. The client failed to obtain a valid lease from the DHCP server D. A public IP address is assigned to the workstation and isn't routable on the internal network

C. The client failed to obtain a valid lease from the DHCP server An IP address in the 169.254.x.x/16 range is called an APIPA. An Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is assigned to a device when the DHCP server is either permanently or temporarily unavailable. A workstation using an APIPA address is not able to communicate outside of its subnet or local area network.

Janet, a network administrator at Dion Training, is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue. She runs the 'ping 8.8.8.8' command and received a message stating that the request timed out. Which of the following is MOST likely true based on the result? A. The connection to the remote server was successful B. The workstation cannot find a valid path to the destination C. The request reached the destination but did not receive a timely response D. The DHCP server on the network is misconfigured

C. The request reached the destination but did not receive a timely response The ping (Packet Internet Groper) command is used to check the network connectivity between a client and a server. The ping command uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to send an ICMP echo message to the specified server. If that server is available, then it will send an ICMP reply message back to the client and the command displays the amount of time it took to receive the reply. If the client doesn't receive a timely response to its request from the destination computer, a request time out error is returned. If the client cannot reach the destination, an unknown host error is returned to the requester.

Antony, a system administrator at Dion Training, ran the top command and sees an abnormally high value for the %id metric. Which of the following BEST describes what this metric is used for? A. This metric represents the amount of time a virtual CPU is waiting for access to the physical CPU B. This metric represents the amount of time the CPU is waiting for I/O access C. This metric represents the amount of time the CPU is idle D. This metric represents the amount of time the CPU spent running user processes

C. This metric represents the amount of time the CPU is idle The top command dynamically displays the processes consuming the most system resources. The %id displays CPU idle time and if this is too high then this indicates that the CPU is working too hard. The %us displays CPU time spent running user processes. The %s metric displays the CPU time spent running the Linux kernel.The %wa metric displays the I/O wait time. If the %wa is high, this indicates that the run queue is too high. The %st displays steal which indicates how often a virtual CPU is waiting for access to the physical CPU.

Wilfred, a system administrator at Dion Training, installed only the kernel modules, services, network capabilities, and performance requirements to match the service role for a Linux server. Which of the following security hardening best practices did they implement? A. Setting a strong default umask B. Securing service accounts C. Tune kernel parameters D. Managing file access

C. Tune kernel parameters The tune kernel parameters best practice matches the server's role, installed services, network capabilities, performance requirements, and service levels to the given Linux server. The setting strong default umask best practice is used to configure an appropriate set of default permissions via umask to enforce the principle of least privilege. The audit service accounts are stored in /etc/ passwd to ensure they do not have shell privileges that would permit privilege escalation. The block shell access best practice is enabled by placing / sbin/nologin in the account's shell field of the /etc/passwd file. The managing file access best practice involves carefully configuring permissions and ACLs according to the principle of least privilege and by utilizing SELinux.

Joanne, a member of the Instructors group at Dion Training, is unable to execute the file ExamResults with a permission string of -rw-r--r--. The ExamReport file is owned by Jason and the group Instructors. Which of the following commands should be used to allow Joanne to execute this file? A. chmod 744 ExamReport B. chmod 000 ExamReport C. chmod 421 ExamReport D. chmod 766 ExamReport

C. chmod 421 ExamReport The proper chmod octet to use is 421 to ensure the group has the proper permissions to execute to the ExamResults. A permission string of -rw-r--r-- would have an octet value of 644. A permission string is made up of three sets of letters which each represent read/write/execute permissions for the user/group/everyone. Read (4), write (2), and execute (1) values are added together to create a 3 digit number to represent the permissions for user/group/everyone. The user permissions would then be R (4). The group permissions are W (2). The everyone permissions are X (1). Therefore, R---W---X would have an octet value of 421.

Minnie, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to change the ownership of some files created by a user who was recently terminated from the company. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. chage B. chmod C. chown D. usermod

C. chown The chown (change ownership) command is used to change the owner, the group, or both the owner and the group for a given file or directory. The chage (change age) command is used to control password expiration, expiration warnings, inactive days, and other information for existing user accounts. The chmod (change modification) command is used to modify the permissions of a file or directory, but only the file or directory's owner or a system administrator can change the permissions for an object. The usermod command is used to modify the system account files to reflect changes for a given user account.

Iris, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, wants to isolate the process associated with her web browser to prevent malware from infecting her system while browsing sites online. Which of the following techniques would allow for the controlling of what a process can access on a file system by changing the apparent root directory of that process and its children? A. SUID B. SGID C. chroot jail D. firewalld

C. chroot jail A chroot jail is a technique of controlling what a process can access on a file system by changing the root directory of that process's environment. A chroot jail is used to create a limited sandbox area for the process to run so that the process and its children are isolated from the rest of the system. A chroot jail can be used to create a separate virtualized copy of the software system and can prevent a malicious process from changing data outside the prescribed directory tree. SUID, or setuid, is the permission that allows a user to have similar permissions as the owner of the file. SGID, or setgid, is the permission that allows a user to have similar permissions as the group owner of the file. The firewall daemon (firewalld) is used to dynamically manage a firewall without requiring the firewall to restart upon modification.

Allen, a software developer at Dion Training, needs to upload a new container image to the company's Docker repository. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. docker port B. docker inspect C. docker push D. docker rmi

C. docker push The docker push command is used to upload a container image to a registry. The docker port command is used to list the port mappings for the specified container. The docker rmi command is used to remove images from the docker repository. The docker inspect command is used to display detailed information about a container.

Laurence, a system administrator at Dion Training, is troubleshooting an issue with a Linux firewall. Since the server was rebooted, the firewall no longer shows port 21/tcp as allowed. Laurence set this port to allow last week before the server was rebooted. Laurence configures the firewall to allow port 21/tcp again. Now, he wants to make sure this change will become persistent and survive any future reboots. Which of the following commands should be used? A. firewall-cmd --save B. firewall-cmd --stay C. firewall-cmd --permanent D. firewall-cmd --reload

C. firewall-cmd --permanent The firewall-cmd --permanent command is used to ensure that any configuration changes will become persistent and remain active after a system is rebooted. The firewall-cmd --reload flag reloads the specified zone's configuration. The firewall-cmd --save and firewall-cmd --stay commands are not valid options used by the firewall-cmd command.

Benjamin, a software developer at Dion Training, wants to be able to easily identify important versions of the code by adding a label to the repository's history. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. git checkout B. git add C. git tag D. git branch

C. git tag The git tag command is used to add a label to a repository's history to annotate versions or releases. The git add command is used to add changes to the working directory, but changes are not formally made until the commit command is run. The git checkout command is used to switch between different versions or branches of the code in the git repository. The git branch command allows the user to manage branches or pointers to specific repository snapshots after the changes are committed.

Which of the following commands displays bus information about devices attached to the Universal Serial Bus? A. lspci B. dmidecode C. lsusb D. make

C. lsusb The lsusb command displays information about devices attached to the USB bus of the system. The lspci command displays information about devices attached to the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) bus. The make command assists in maintaining a set of programs by building up-to-date versions of programs. The make command automatically looks for the makefile in the current directory. The dmidecode command displays system information for current devices. The dmidecode command can also indicate upgrade possibilities by showing maximum processor and memory upgrades.

Katie, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to display information about a kernel module's version number or the name of the module's author. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. lsmod B. rmmod C. modinfo D. modprobe

C. modinfo The modinfo command displays information about a particular kernel module, such as the file name of the module, license, description, author's name, module version number, dependent modules, and other parameters or attributes. The modprobe command is used to add or remove modules from a kernel. The modprobe command can load all the dependent modules before inserting the specified module and is preferred over using the insmod and rmmod commands. The lsmod command displays the currently loaded kernel modules, their sizes, usage details, and their dependent modules. The rmmod command removes a module from the currently running kernel.

Chantelle, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, is reviewing the permissions associated with a system file on a Linux server. The file has a chmod value of 777. Which of the following permissions does the group have associated with this system file? A. read only B. read and write C. read, write, and execute D. none

C. read, write, and execute A chmod value of 777 would indicate that the user, group, and others are assigned permissions of 7. This indicates that the group permissions (7) will allow for read (4), write (2), and execute (1) permissions (4+2+1 =7). Linux uses permission strings to indicate the type of permissions a file or directory has. These permissions strings can be written as a series of nine letters (using R for read, W for write, and X for execute), or the permission string can be abbreviated using a three-digit number to represent the user, group, and other permission states. When using the abbreviated number format, each digit is calculated by adding the permission for the field together. Read permissions have a value of 4. Write permissions have a value of 2. Execute permissions have a value of 1.

Which of the following commands in the systemd tool suite would be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues on a Linux system? A. dig B. nslookup C. resolvectl D. ifcfg

C. resolvectl The resolvectl command allows an administrator to manually query the name resolution services to confirm that the names and IP addresses returned are accurate. The ifcg, dig, and nslookup commands are not part of the systemd tool suite. The ifcfg command is an alternative to ifconfig or the ip command for managing IP addressing. The dig command is used to gather information and test name resolution by displaying the queries and their responses in its output. The nslookup command is sued to gather name resolution information and to test the name resolution process on a Linux system using either interactive or non-interactive modes.

Aiden, a system administrator at Dion Training, needs to create an efficient process for obtaining daily backups of the company's Linux servers without consuming excessive bandwidth. Which of the following commands is designed to reduce network bandwidth utilization when synchronizing files between the servers during the backup process? A. mtr B. nc C. rsync D. sftp

C. rsync The rsync command is a data transfer tool that only transfers changed files and avoids copying duplicate information that already exists at the remote destination to drastically reduce network traffic. The SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) command is used to access, manage, and transfer files over an encrypted SSH connection. The nc (netcat) command is used to test connectivity and send data across a network connection. The nc command is also used by penetration testers and system administrators to conduct a banner grab of the web server. The mtr command is a combination of the ping and traceroute tools that includes additional improvements to enable testing of the quality of a network connection.

The system administrators at Dion Training are trying to select a command that would securely copy files from one server to another using an encrypted tunnel over port 22. Which command should the team select to achieve this? A. xz B. rsync C. scp D. nc

C. scp The scp (secure copy) command is used to copy data to/from a remote host using SSH. The rsync command is a data transfer tool that only transfers changed files and avoids copying duplicate information that already exists at the remote destination to drastically reduce network traffic. The nc (netcat) command is used to test connectivity and send data across a network connection. The xz command is a data compression utility that reduces the size of selected files and manages files in the .xz file format.

Which of the following types of firewalls checks the source, destination, and protocol used, as well as tracks the state of the connection? A. zone B. services C. stateful D. stateless

C. stateful Stateful firewalls inspect the packet contents and identify the behavior of the connection and how the data changes throughout the network communication process. Stateless firewalls are simple and check things such as address information, such as source, destination, and protocol against configured firewall rules. These firewalls are significantly more robust than stateless firewalls. A firewall zone defines a set of rules for each connection.

When a new application is started, its processes are loaded into the system's memory. When the user no longer needs the application, the system will send a signal to terminate its process and release the resources consumed back to the operating system. Which of the following BEST describes this process state? A. sleeping B. running C. stopped D. zombie

C. stopped The stopped process state means that the process is currently exiting or has terminated and is releasing its resources. The sleeping process state means that the process is awaiting access to resources to be able to run. The running process state means that the process functions normally and is receiving the resources it needs. The zombie process state means that the process is a child process that sent its exit status to its parent processes to be released for exiting.

Anne, a system administrator at Dion Training, is unable to reach a remote server over the network. She wants to identify which router or firewall is blocking the network traffic from the Linux server to the remote server. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. ping B. dig C. traceroute D. nslookup

C. traceroute The traceroute command is used to display the network path between a client and a server, including any routers or firewalls used between the two systems. The ping (Packet Internet Groper) command is used to check the network connectivity between a client and a server. The dig command is used to gather information and test name resolution by displaying the questions and response sections in its output. The nslookup command is sued to gather name resolution information and to test the name resolution process on a Linux system using either interactive or non-interactive modes.

Catherine, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, installed multiple versions of nmap on her Linux workstation. When running nmap from the command line, she is not sure which version of the program is being run. Which of the following commands should be used to determine which version of nmap is being run from a directory within the PATH variable? A. find B. locate C. which D. echo

C. which The which command displays the complete path of a specified command by searching the directories assigned to the PATH variable. So, if Catherine ran the command 'which nmap', a value like '/bin/nmap' would be returned to show which version of the program is being run and from which location on the given Linux system. The find command searches the file system for files that match the given parameters, such as file size, modification date, owner, or even permissions. The locate command searches for files and directories along a specified path by relying on an index database to conduct its search. The echo command is used to display a line of text on the command line interface or terminal.

Rhys, a cybersecurity analyst administrator at Dion Training, wants to review some information and related settings about the Instructors and Development groups on a Linux server. Which of the following files would contain this information? A. /etc/passwd B. /etc/profile C. /etc/shadow D. /etc/group

D. /etc/group The /etc/group file contains a list of groups and group IDs. The /etc/profile to set system-wide environment variables and startup programs for new user shells. The /etc/passwd file stores the actual user account and maintains various settings related to accounts. The /etc/skel directory contains files that will be copied automatically to the home directory of any new user.

Trevor, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, wants to convert a permission string into its corresponding octet value. The permission string for the file is RWXR-X--X. Which of the following octets would represent this permission string? A. 777 B. 741 C. 147 D. 751

D. 751 A permission string of RWXR-X--X would have a octet value of 751. A permission string consists of three sets of letters each representing read/write/execute permissions for the user/group/everyone. Read (4), write (2), and execute (1) values are added together to create a 3 digit number to represent the permissions for user/group/everyone. The user permissions are RWX (4+2+1 = 7). The group permissions are R-X (4+0+1 = 5). The everyone permissions are --X (0+0+1 = 1). Therefore, RWXR-X--X would have a octet value of 751.

June, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to select a new shell for use with a Linux server. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used shell in Linux? A. Bash B. Korn C. Z-shell D. Darwin

D. Darwin Darwin is an open-source Unix-like operating system released by Apple on November 15, 2000, and serves as the basis of hte macOS, iOS, iPadOS, watchOS, and tvOS operating systems. Darwin is an operating system and not a commonly used shell in Linux. The Bourne Again Shell (BASH) is the default shell used by many Linux distributions. The Korn shell and Z-shell (Zsh) are alternative shells commonly used in Linux.

Kay, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training, wants to connect local systems to a remote authentication service. Which of the following daemons should be used to accomplish this? A. MFA B. SSO C. PAM D. SSSD

D. SSSD The System Security Services Daemon (sssd) connects the local system to remote authentication services. Multifactor authentication (MFA) is the practice of requiring the user to present at least two different factors before the system authenticates them. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) defines the underlying framework and centralized authentication method leveraged by authentication services, such as Kerberos and LDAP. Single Sign-On (SSO) is a session and user authentication service that permits a user to use one set of login credentials.

Kathleen, a data forensic technician at Dion Training, was able to recover some sensitive files from a storage device after they were deleted by a system administrator. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason why the technician was able to recover the files? A. The storage device was corrupted or damaged B. The SSH protocol failed to encrypt the data at rest C. The system's kernel was misconfigured D. The files still remain on a storage device after deletion

D. The files still remain on a storage device after deletion Storage devices do not delete data when a deletion command is run, instead, the command simply marks the disk space as available for new data to overwrite the existing file. A corrupted/damaged storage device would hinder recovery, not aid it. The SSH protocol is an encrypted network transmission protocol, not a data-at-rest encryption protocol.

Logan, a network administrator at Dion Training, is attempting to secure a switch port by implementing the sticky MAC feature on a Cisco switch that restricts network access only to a specific set of MAC addresses. Unfortunately, Logan only received a list of IP addresses that should be set to allow in the sticky MAC binding table. Which of the following commands could Logan use to determine the MAC address for each client's assigned IP address? A. ifconfig B. hostname C. ifcfg D. arp

D. arp The arp command is used to discover information about known MAC addresses and IP bindings. The hostname command displays the system's current network name configuration. The ifconfig command enables a user to view the current IP address information for each network adapter recognized by the system. The ifcfg command is an alternative to ifconfig or the ip command for managing IP addressing.

Bryan, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to determine if a valid password has been set for a given user. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. cat /etc/user B. cat /usr/bin C. cat /etc/passwd D. cat /etc/shadow

D. cat /etc/shadow The shadow file in the etc directory is a text-based database of information about the users and a hashed version of their passwords for a given Linux server. The shadow file can only be read or modified by the root user to ensure a high level of security for the Linux server. The /etc/passwd file is a text-based database of information about users that may log into the system or other operating system user identities that own running processes. The /usr/bin includes executable programs that can be executed by all users. The /etc/user is not a valid default Linux file.

Marie, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to modify the permissions of a file to provide read-only access to the assigned group. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. getfacl B. chown C. chage D. chmod

D. chmod The chmod (change modification) command is used to modify the permissions of a file or directory, but only the file or directory's owner or a system administrator can change the permissions for an object. The chage (change age) command is used to control password expiration, expiration warnings, inactive days, and other information for existing user accounts. The chown (change ownership) command is used to change the owner, the group, or both the owner and the group for a given file or directory. The getfacl command is used to retrieve the ACLs of files and directories. The getfacl command shows metadata about the object including its owner, its group, any SUID/SGID/sticky bit flags set, the standard permissions associated with the object, and the individual permission entries for users and groups.

Suzanne, a system administrator at Dion Training, needs to execute a command inside a running container. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. docker build B. docker inspect C. docker port D. docker run

D. docker run The docker run command is used to run a process or command in an isolated container. The docker inspect command is used to display detailed information about a container. The docker build command is used to build an image from a Dockerfile. The docker port command is used to list the port mappings for the specified container.

Leanne, a software developer at Dion Training, wants to combine a sequence of commits into a single history of commits. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. git pull B. git add C. git checkout D. git merge

D. git merge The git merge command combines sequences of commits into a single history of commits to integrate the changes from one branch into the main branch inside of the repository. The git pull command is used to download content from a remote repository that updates the local repository to mirror the contents locally.The git add command is used to add changes to the working directory, but changes are not formally made until the commit command is run. The git checkout command is used to switch between different versions or branches of the code in the git repository.

Patricia, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to place a copy of a configuration file into her home directory and remove the existing copy from her Desktop. Which of the following commands could be used to accomplish this by issuing a single text-based command? A. cp B. rm C. mkdir D. mv

D. mv The mv (move) command is used to move the contents of the specified file. The mv command is a single command that performs the functions of copying a file to a new location and then removing the file from the existing location. The cp command (copy) is used to copy a file or directory into a new location. The rm (remove) command is used to delete the contents of the specified file. The mkdir (make directory) command is used to create (or make) a new directory.

Mazen, a system administrator at Dion Training, wants to create a new volume group. Which of the following commands should he use to perform this function? A. lvscan B. lvresize C. pvcreate D. vgcreate

D. vgcreate The vgcreate command creates volume groups on a Linux server. The lvscan command scans all physical devices for logical volumes on a Linux server. The lvresize command resizes logical volumes on a Linux server. The pvcreate command initializes a drive or partition to use as a physical volume on a Linux server.

Edna, a system administrator at Dion Training, needs to edit or modify the sudoers file to change the priviledges for users on a Linux server. Which of the following commands should be used to accomplish this? A. useradd B. usermod C. passwd D. visudo

D. visudo The sudoers file is a file configured by a Linux administrator to allocate system rights to other users on the system. Visudo edits the sudoers file in a protected and safer manner. Visudo locks the sudoers file against multiple simultaneous edits, provides basic syntax checking, and also checks for parsing errors to ensure the sudoers file doesn't get corrupted during editing. The useradd command is used to create user accounts and configure the default settings for a new user. The usermod command is used to modify the system account files to reflect changes for a given user account. The passwd (password) command changes the password of a user account from within the command line interface.