Maternity Week 1-4 Quiz Questions + Kahoot Questions

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 8 weeks gestational age. Gina is at the clinic for her initial prenatal visit. You are the nurse reviewing her medical history. Which of the following if on her history, would require the need for additional antenatal tests in her pregnancy? a. current singleton pregnancy ( 1 fetus) b. chronic hypertension c. history of anemia as a teen which is no resolved d. grandmother with diabetes mellitus

b. chronic hypertension

A nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced an early pregnancy loss in the first trimester. You are aware that 50% of these cases of early pregnancy loss are caused by: a. placental insufficiency b. fetal chromosomal abnormalities c. abdominal trauma d. maternal anemia

b. fetal chromosomal abnormalities

Your patient comes to the clinic at 36 weeks with intense itching of the hands and feet, this is most likely: a. placenta previa b. intrahepatic cholestasis c. signs of maternal anemia d. cervical insufficency

b. intrahepatic cholestasis

Implantation: a. begins the 28th day of the cycle b. is the embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium of the uterus c. happens in the ampulla of the fallopian tube d. stimulates production of the human placental lactogen, a hormone that stimulates the endometrium

b. is the embedding of the blastocyst in the endometrium of the uterus

Your patient is 6 weeks pregnant. During the 1st prenantal visit, she asks, "How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?" a. less than 6 alcoholic drinks b. no alcohol c. up to 4 oz of wine only d. no more than 2 oz in the 3rd trimester

b. no alcohol

without sufficient FHR accelerations in 40 mins a. reactive b. non-reactive

b. non-reactive

The patient in your clinic is pregnant w/ twins. Which of the following conditions in multiple gestations can result in discordant growth and other serious morbidity ? a. hyperemesis gravidarum b. twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome c placenta previa d. maternal anemia: Hgb 10.5 mg/dL

b. twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

After you perform education, your client correctly identifies _______ as urgent signs of concern. (select all that apply) a. heart burn after consuming spicy food b. vaginal bleeding c. fever and chills d. increased constipation

b. vaginal bleeding c. fever and chills

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 38 weeks gestation. As the nurse, you are reviewing fetal kick counts with her. Which of the following is true about fetal kick counts? a. fetal kick counts must be performed in the office with an OBGYN nurse or provider b. fetal kick counts require a special monitoring device to count each kick c. 10 distinct movements in 2 hrs is normal/reassuring d. 5 distinct movements in 2 hrs is normal/reassuring

c. 10 distinct movements in 2 hrs is normal/reassuring

Your patient, Stella, undergoes a regular BPP. What is the score of her biophysical profile? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

c. 8

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 10 weeks gestational age. She wants to discuss chorionic villus sampling (CVS) today. What is the primary advantage of CVS over amniocentesis? a. CVS is the only test that can detect fetal abnormalities caused by genetic disorders b. CVS does not involve invasive tools like a catheter c. CVS can be performed earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis d. There is zero risk of bleeding or rupture of membraines

c. CVS can be performed earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis

You are a nurse caring for a patient in preterm labor at 33 weeks gestation. Which of the following medications may be given to the patient to facilitate fetal lung maturity? a. terbutaline b. magnesium sulfate c. Corticosteroids d. Pitocin

c. Corticosteroids

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that the first day of their LMP was 8/18/2024. What is the clients EDD? a. April 25, 2024 b. May 11, 2024 c. May 25, 2025 d. April 18, 2024

c. May 25, 2025

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0, in her 1st trimester. The nurse is providing information on mental health in pregnancy. Which of the following statements is true? a. perinatal depression is always detectable because of changes in sleep, appetite, and libido b. high levels of maternal stress can increase utero-placental blood flow to the fetus c. Perinatal mood and anxiety disorders may impact the developing fetus and contribute to adverse birth outcomes. d. OB/GYN providers and nurses should be the only team members involved in the pregnant patient's mental health care

c. Perinatal mood and anxiety disorders may impact the developing fetus and contribute to adverse birth outcomes.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a pregnant client. The provider indicated that the client is exhibiting probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following should the nurse expect? a. amenorrhea b. visualization of the fetus via ultrasound c. a positive pregnancy test result c. quickening

c. a positive pregnancy test result

Which of the following couples would be at a greater risk for conceiving a child with a genetic disorder? a. a young couple in their 20s married for 2 years; his uncle on his mother's side has a Y-linked inheritance disorder, and her dad has hypertension. b. a couple married 10 years, she is 32 and he is 36, who have never been pregnant and have a history of twins. c. a young couple in their 20s married for 2 years, his uncle has hemophilia and her dad has hypertension d. a couple having fertility concerns for the past 18 months. She is 30 and he's 26, who routinely soak in their hot tub at home.

c. a young couple in their 20s married for 2 years, his uncle has hemophilia and her dad has hypertension

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 37 weeks. when analyzing Gina's non-stress test, a visually apparent increase in FHR that reaches a peak of 15 bpm above the baseline and last a minimum of 15 seconds but less than 2 mins is defined as: a. moderate variability b. a category II strip c. an acceleration d. a uterine contraction

c. an acceleration

Your patient asks you about safe food consumption in pregnancy. Which of the following are foods to avoid in pregnancy? (select all) a. orange juice w pulp b. pasteurized milk c. deli meat d. fresh, raw sprouts from the garden

c. deli meat d. fresh, raw sprouts from the garden

A pregnant patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is asking for advice on how to minimize nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client? a. recline for 2 hrs after eating b. avoid carbonated soda, dry crackers, toast c. eat small, frequent meals throughout the day d. decrease water intake to reduce frequent trips to the bathroom

c. eat small, frequent meals throughout the day

Your patient is discussing some of the changes they have been experiencing. You understand the following to be presumptive signs of pregnancy. a. darkening of the nipples and areola b. auscultation of the fetal heart sound c. fatigue, nausea, and vomiting d. quickening and palpation of the fetal outline

c. fatigue, nausea, and vomiting

The top half of an NST strip displays ___________, and the bottom half displays __________. a. uterine contractions/ fetal heart rate b. amniotic fluid index/ facial heart rate c. fetal heart rate/ uterine contractions d. fetal heart rate/ fetal respiratory rate

c. fetal heart rate/ uterine contractions

When is the embryo most susceptible to teratogens? a. week 9-18 of gestation b. throughout 2nd trimester c. first 8 weeks of gestation d. week 4-5 gestation

c. first 8 weeks of gestation

A nurse is providing post-abortion care to a patient. After discharge home, the patient should be instructed to call their health care provider in case of which of the following symptoms? a. soaking 1 maxi pad every 6 hrs b. mild uterine cramping c. foul-smelling discharge d. Temperature 99.0 degrees F

c. foul-smelling discharge

The patient at risk for preterm birth at 30 weeks gestation should be instructed to immediately call their provider and or/present to the hospital if which of the following occur: a. 1 uterine contraction each day b. 10 fetal movements in 2 hrs c. low back ache and pelvic pressure d. constipation

c. low back ache and pelvic pressure

Progesterone and ________ are the 2 hormones that lead to softening of the ligaments in pregnancy. a. estrogen b. testosterone c. relaxin d. prolactin

c. relaxin

Your patient's group beta strep (GBS) testing came back positive. This means that: a. the patient must undergo a C section to avoid transmission to the infant b. the patient will receive antiviral medication throughout the pregnancy c. the patient will receive antibiotics while in labor d. the patient will be prescribed a 1-time dose of oral antibiotics

c. the patient will receive antibiotics while in labor

A patient at her new OB visit is not immune to rubella. How should the nurse counsel the patient? (select all that apply) a. a vaccine is necessary during pregnancy b. the rubella virus does not cross the placenta c. the rubella vaccine is recommended after birth d. congenital rubella infection may cause deafness

c. the rubella vaccine is recommended after birth d. congenital rubella infection may cause deafness

_________________ sampling; aspiration of small amount of placental tissue

chorionic villus

Your patient, Jordan Chung, presents to the prenatal clinic and you are their nurse. - Jordan is currently 28 weeks pregnant - They gave birth to identical twins in 2018 at 30 weeks. Both survived their long NICU stay and are healthy today. - Before the twins, Jordan had an elective abortion at 10 weeks. What is Jordan's GTPAL? a. GTPAL: 30112 b. GTPAL: 32012 c. GTPAL: 40212 d. GTPAL: 40112

a. GTPAL: 30112

Your patient, Tanya Garcia, presents to the prenatal clinic and you are her nurse. -Tanya is 14 weeks pregnant, -Tanya had her oldest living child at 32 weeks. She spent a few weeks in the NICU before coming home. -Her next 2 living kids (ages 5 and 3) were born at 40 weeks. -Tanya also experienced a prior pregnancy loss at 12 weeks What is Tanya's GTPAL? a. GTPAL: 52113 b. GTPAL: 50314 c. GTPAL: 43013 d. GTPAL: 53113

a. GTPAL: 52113

Your patient's first day of their last menstrual period was April 13th, 2023. What is their estimated date of delivery? a. January 20, 2024 b. January 6, 2024 c. January 13, 2024 d. February 20, 2024

a. January 20, 2024

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 18 weeks gestational age. She has instead opted for an amniocentesis. Which of the following should the nurse review with Gina? a. There is a small risk of pregnancy loss with the procedure b. she should empty her bladder before the procedure c. amniocentesis does not involve any invasive tools, like a needle or catheter d. there is no need for monitor the fetal heart rate post-procedure

a. There is a small risk of pregnancy loss with the procedure

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 36 weeks gestational age. The nurse is reviewing the results of Gina's biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should expect which of the following variables to be included in the test? a. amniotic fluid volume, gross body movement, fetal breathing movements b. fetal position, CST, amniotic fluid volume c. fetal weight, abdominal head circumference d. fetal lung maturity, NST, nunchal translucency

a. amniotic fluid volume, gross body movement, fetal breathing movements

You have a patient coming in for prenatal care and ask what the recommended intake of folic is. Your respond: a. at least 400 mcg b. at least 400 mg c. at least 1000 mcg d. at least 100 mcg

a. at least 400 mcg

People who are carriers for sickle cell anemia have just one defective gene. They carry the disorder and can pass it on to a child but not have it themselves. This is an example of: a. autosomal recessive disorder b. autosomal dominant disorder c. X-linked inheritance d. Y-linked inheritance

a. autosomal recessive disorder

After ovulation, this is a collection of the remaining cells of the old follicle that persist for ~12 days: a. corpus luteum b. placenta c. human chorionic gonadotropic d. endometrium

a. corpus luteum

Which of the following would you exclude in your teaching for a patient complaining of heartburn in pregnancy? a. drink orange juice in the morning b. chew gum c. avoid or lessen intake of spicy food d. eat small snacks throughout the day

a. drink orange juice in the morning

You understand that ___________ is associated w/ decreased uteroplacental perfusion that leads to decreased renal blood flow a. oligohydramnios b. polyhydramnios

a. oligohydramnios

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 10 weeks gestational age. Gina asks if she has any increased risk for fetal growth disorders. Which of the following categories would increase that risk? a. parental aneuploidy b. negative carrier screening for cystic fibrosis c. maternal age of 21-35 years old d. having no prior children

a. parental aneuploidy

Conception: a. requires spermatogenesis and oogenesis to have occurred b. is also known as ovulation c. can occur only on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle d. occurs in the posterior wall of the uterus

a. requires spermatogenesis and oogenesis to have occurred

From implantation until 8 weeks gestation, _______ will have most profound negative impact on the embryo. a. teratogens b. organogenesis c. conception d. infertility

a. teratogens

You are caring for a client in their first trimester. The medical record includes: GTPAL= 42103. How should you interpret this? a. the client has 3 living children b. the client has experienced 4 births at term c. the client has experienced 2 preterm births d. the client has had 3 miscarriages

a. the client has 3 living children

You are caring for another patient in their 2nd trimester. The patient's medical record includes the following data; GTPAL= 20010. How should you interpret this? a. the client has had 1 abortion b. the client has 2 living children c. this is the client's 1st pregnancy d. the client has 1 living child

a. the client has had 1 abortion

in the ovarian cycle, if the ovum is not fertilized, what occurs? a. the corpus luteum regresses b. menstruation does not occur c. the corpus luteum continues to produce progesterone d. the placenta begins to form and will produce progesterone

a. the corpus luteum regresses

most common abnormality of chromosome number

aneuploidy

A client who is at 8 weeks gestation tells the RN "I have been trying to get pregnant for a year. But now that i'm pregnant, why am I not that excited?" Which response should the nurse make? a. "i will inform the provider you are feeling this way" b. "it is normal to have these feelings during the first few months of pregnancy" c. " you should be happy that you are bringing new life into the world!" d. I'm going to make you an appointment with a counselor to discuss your thoughts"

b. "it is normal to have these feelings during the first few months of pregnancy"

Which of the following teaching points should you include when counseling about fetal kick counts? (select all) a. count fetal kicks throughout the day b. 10 distinct movements in 2 hrs is normal/reassuring c. have the patient sit or lie down to palpate their abdomen d. wait until prenatal care visit to repeat decreased fetal movement

b. 10 distinct movements in 2 hrs is normal/reassuring c. have the patient sit or lie down to palpate their abdomen

Your patient's pre-pregnancy BMI is 35. What is their recommended weight gain in pregnancy? a. 20-40 lbs b. 11-20 lbs c. 23-35 lbs d. 15-25 lbs

b. 11-20 lbs

A nurse is caring for a patient with intrahepatic cholestasis. Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of ICP? a. seeing bright spots in the eyes b. Pruritus of the palms and feet c. decreased bile acids d. darkened melasma and linea nigra

b. Pruritus of the palms and feet

The following are considered risks with a amniocentesis procedure: a. postterm labor b. Rh sensitization from fetal blood into maternal blood c. preterm labor d. pregnancy loss

b. Rh sensitization from fetal blood into maternal blood c. preterm labor d. pregnancy loss

Your pregnant patient (G2P2002, O-) was involved in an accident. What product will she possibly receive in triage? a. iv iron b. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) c. fresh frozen plasma (FFP) d. Immunoglobulin A

b. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

Your pt Rita (30 yrs old, G2P0000, blood A-) is undergoing amniocentesis. What do you anticipate administering afterwards? a. Intravenous iron b. RhoGAM c. pitocin infusion d. measles mumps rubella (MMR) vaccine

b. RhoGAM

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0, currently in her first trimester. Which of the following actions can facilitate adaptations to the pregnancy? a. reassure Gina that it is normal to have severe anxiety in the first few months b. asses Gina's specific learning needs and stressors in life c. discourage questions from the partner or family members during the prenatal visits d. immediate referral to psych care provider for ambivalence in the first trimester

b. asses Gina's specific learning needs and stressors in life

You are a nurse caring for a client at 36 weeks gestation. The patient is experiencing episodes of menstrual hypotension when she is resting in bed in the supine position. The client asks you what causes these episodes, you respond a. "this is the result of increased blood volume during pregnancy" b. "this is due to increased cardiac output" c. "this is due to pressure from your uterus on your diaphragm" d. "this is due to the compression of your uterus on the inferior vena cava"

d. "this is due to the compression of your uterus on the inferior vena cava"

A patient who is at 7 weeks gestation is experiencing nausea/vomiting in the morning. What info can you include in your patient teaching? a. awaken in the night to eat a high-protein snack to maintain energy b. avoid breakfast and rest the gut upon waking when morning sickness is at its peak c. eat a large evening meal to satiate hunger throughout the night d. eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed in the morning

d. eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed in the morning

Which of the following if listed in the patient's medical history is one of the strongest predictors of subsequent preterm birth in the future pregnancy? a. history of missed abortion b. history of fetal cardiac abnormalities c. history of postterm birth d. history of preterm birth

d. history of preterm birth

Which of the following are other risk factors for preterm birth? a. singleton pregnancy b. adequate prenatal care c. long interval between pregnancies d. multiple gestation

d. multiple gestation

Gina Marie is a 21 year old patient, G1P0000 now @ 15 weeks gestational age. You discuss a blood test called alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) with Gina. Increased levels of AFP in the blood detect: a. maternal anemia b. risk of preeclampsia c. trisomy 21 d. neural tube defects such as spina bifida

d. neural tube defects such as spina bifida

Which hormone stimulates contractions of the uterus and stimulates milk ejection for breast feeding? a. progesterone b. estrogen c. luteinizing hormone d. oxytocin

d. oxytocin

This is a term defined by craving for non-nutritive substances a. hyperemesis gravidarum b. chadwick's sign c. melasma d. pica

d. pica

Which of the following prenatal patients is eligible for a cervical cerclage? a. G!P0000: current singleton pregnancy b. cervix is closed in the 2nd trimester c. history of 1st trimester pregnancy loss due to chromosomal abnormalities d. short cervical length and prior spontaneous preterm birth at 32 weeks gestation

d. short cervical length and prior spontaneous preterm birth at 32 weeks gestation

You are caring for a patient who is pregnant and reviewing manifestations of complications the client should promptly report to their provider. Which of the following complications should you include? a. swelling of the ankles b. heartburn after eating dinner c. lightheadedness when lying flat on their back d. vaginal bleeding and leakage of fluid

d. vaginal bleeding and leakage of fluid

Cell-free fetal DNA diagnose fetal abnormalities; true or false

false

______________ test; a screening tool uses FHR patterns and accelerations as an indicator of fetal well-being

non-stress

___________ hydramnios; AFI < 5 cm

oligo

_____________ hydramnios; AFI > 24 cm

poly

_________ screen-maternal serum screen; risk for NTD and trisomy 21 & 18 a. Cell-free DNA b. quadruple

quadruple

Is this a reactive or nonreactive non-stress test?

reactive

>32 weeks gestation; FHR increases 15 bpm above baseline for 15 seconds twice or more in 20 mins

reactive NST

Period of pregnancy at which chronic villus sampling can be done: a. 10-13 weeks gestation b. right after conception c. 15-20 weeks gestation d. 30-34 weeks gestation

a. 10-13 weeks gestation

You are an RN teaching a patient at 8 weeks gestation about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following should the nurse include? a. Breast tenderness and urinary frequency b. severe headaches and dysuria c. round ligament pain and blurry vision d. epigastric pain and unilateral calf tenderness and warmth

a. Breast tenderness and urinary frequency

Sage is 16 weeks pregnant and currently taking their women's health nurse practitioner's recommended dose of 400 mcg/day of folic acid supplements. How many mg of folic acid is Sage taking in the span of a week?

2.8 mg in a week G

How many uterine contractions are there during this part of the non-stress test?

4 uterine contractions

Your patient, Marina, is diagnosed with herpes simplex virus during her pregnancy. The provider has prescribed valacyclovir 500 mg twice per day. Marina, however, can not swallow pills. So the pharmacist prepares an oral suspension liquid. The oral suspension liquid comes in as 25 mg/mL. How many mL of valacyclovir should Marina be taking each day?

40 mL daily

Which of the following comprise of modified BPP? (select all) a. NST b. fetal breathing movements c. AFI d. fetal tone

A. NST C. AFI

(acronym) principle that sonography should only be performed for a valid reason using lowest possible exposure

ALARA

This is a probable sign of pregnancy that is a bluish-purple colorization of the vaginal mucosa, vulva, and cervix: a. Chadwick's Sign b. Goodel'ls Sign c. Ballottement d. Hegar's sign

a. Chadwick's Sign

Your patient gives birth at 37 weeks and 5 days. How would you classify this delivery? a. Early term b. Late term c. Full term d. Post term

a. Early term

You have a patient who comes in with the following: -currently pregnant (16 weeks gestation) - hx of 1 prior birth at 30 weeks - hx of 2 prior births at 38 weeks - 1 prior pregnancy loss of 11 weeks a. G5, TPAL: 2113 b. G5, TPAL: 3013 c. G4, TPAL: 1223 d. G4, TPAL: 2113

a. G5, TPAL: 2113