MB Mod 1

A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage. On the basis of the information given, what family form best describes this family? a. Married-blended family b. Extended family c. Nuclear family d. Same-sex family

A

A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby's hands and feet are blue. The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called a. acrocyanosis. b. erythema neonatorum. c. harlequin color. d. vernix caseosa.

A

A patient is warm and asks for a fan in her room for her comfort. The nurse enters the room to assess the mother and her infant and finds the infant unwrapped in his crib with the fan blowing over him on "high." The nurse instructs the mother that the fan should not be directed toward the newborn and the newborn should be wrapped in a blanket. The mother asks why. The nurse's best response is a. "Your baby may lose heat by convection, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him." b. "Your baby may lose heat by conduction, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him." c. "Your baby may lose heat by evaporation, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him." d. "Your baby will get cold stressed easily and needs to be bundled up at all times."

A

From a worldwide perspective, infant mortality in the United States a. is the highest of the other developed nations. b. lags behind five other developed nations. c. is the lowest infant death rate of developed nations. d. lags behind most other developed nations.

A

Healthy People 2030 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and providing care across the perinatal continuum. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to be aware that significant progress has been made in a. the reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care. b. low birth weight and preterm birth. c. elimination of health disparities based on race. d. infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects.

A

Nurses can prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn by a. drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket. b. keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners. c. placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows. d. warming the stethoscope and the nurse's hands before touching the baby.

A

The best reason for recommending formula over breastfeeding is that a. the mother has a medical condition or is taking drugs that could be passed along to the infant via breast milk. b. the mother lacks confidence in her ability to breastfeed. c. other family members or care providers also need to feed the baby. d. the mother sees bottle-feeding as more convenient.

A

The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called a. the standard of care. b. risk management. c. a sentinel event. d. failure to rescue.

A

The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located a. over the uterine fundus. b. on the fetal scalp. c. inside the uterus. d. over the mother's lower abdomen

A

The nurse should immediately alert the physician when a. the infant is dusky and turns cyanotic when crying. b. acrocyanosis is present at age 1 hour. c. the infant's blood glucose level is 45 mg/dL. d. the infant goes into a deep sleep at age 1 hour.

A

Which interventions would help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for maternity patients? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits. b. Provide child care so that a pregnant woman may keep prenatal visits. c. Mandate that physicians make house calls. d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance. e. Provide job training.

A B D

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate a. meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. b. excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. c. golden yellow- to green stained-skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. d. hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.

A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome would be consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant would most likely have longer hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST would indicate hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.

A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? a. "Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b. "The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation." c. "Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea." d. "Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."

A Surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy. With administration of artificial surfactant, respiratory compliance is improved until the infant can generate enough surfactant on his or her own. Surfactant has no bearing on the sedation needs of the infant. Surfactant is used to improve respiratory compliance, including the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The goal of surfactant therapy in an infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is to stimulate production of surfactant in the type 2 cells of the alveoli. The clinical presentation of RDS and neonatal pneumonia may be similar. The infant may be started on broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat infection.

In the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. The nurse should suspect a. hypovolemia and/or shock. b. a nonneutral thermal environment. c. central nervous system injury. d. pending renal failure.

A The nurse should suspect hypovolemia and/or shock. Other symptoms could include hypotension, prolonged capillary refill, and tachycardia followed by bradycardia. Intervention is necessary.

The process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society is known as a. acculturation. b. assimilation. c. ethnocentrism. d. cultural relativism

A Acculturation is the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society. This process takes place over the course of generations. Assimilation is a loss of cultural identity. Ethnocentrism is the belief in the superiority of one's own culture over the cultures of others. Cultural relativism recognizes the roles of different cultures

A mother's household consists of her husband, his mother, and another child. She is living in a(n) a. extended family. b. single-parent family. c. married-blended family. d. nuclear family.

A An extended family includes blood relatives living with the nuclear family. Both parents and a grandparent are living in this extended family. Single-parent families comprise an unmarried biologic or adoptive parent who may or may not be living with other adults. Married-blended refers to families reconstructed after divorce. A nuclear family is where male and female partners and their children live as an independent unit.

A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by a. contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. contractions about 1 minute apart. d. a contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.

A Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less)

Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the woman's position

A Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral); variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations.

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes

A Early decelerations are the fetus's response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman understands that accelerations with fetal movement a. are reassuring. b. are caused by umbilical cord compression. c. warrant close observation. d. are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.

A Episodic accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being. Umbilical cord compression results in variable decelerations in the FHR. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being and do not warrant close observation. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR.

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by ' a. the response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs). b. maternal pain control. c. accelerations in the FHR. d. an FHR above 110 beats/min

A Fetal well-being during labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to UCs. In general, reassuring FHR patterns are characterized by an FHR baseline in the range of 110 to 160 beats/min with no periodic changes, a moderate baseline variability, and accelerations with fetal movement. Maternal pain control is not the measure used to determine fetal well-being in labor. Although FHR accelerations are a reassuring pattern, they are only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. Although an FHR above 110 beats/min may be reassuring, it is only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. More information would be needed to determine fetal well-being.

The nurse is discussing storage of breast milk with a mother whose infant is preterm and in the special care unit. What statement would indicate that the mother needs additional teaching? a. "I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months." b. "I can store my breast milk in the freezer for 3 months." c. "I can store my breast milk at room temperature for 8 hours." d. "I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days."

A If the mother states that she can store her breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months, she needs additional teaching about safe storage. Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for 8 hours, in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days, in the freezer for 3 months, or in a deep freezer for 6 to 12 months. It is accurate and does not require additional teaching if the mother states that she can store her breast milk in the freezer for 3 months, at room temperature for 8 hours, and in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days.

Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm c. External monitors in current use d. Fetus with a known heart defect

A In order to apply internal monitoring devices, the membranes must be ruptured

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurse's first priority is to a. change the woman's position. b. notify the care provider. c. assist with amnioinfusion. d. insert a scalp electrode

A Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, the nurse would continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures, including notifying the care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely reveals variable deceleration. A fetal scalp electrode would provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus; however, this is not a nursing intervention that would alleviate late decelerations, nor is it the nurse's first priority.

The nurse caring for a pregnant patient should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows which trend? a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes. b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years old are beginning to decline. c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase. d. The rates of maternal death owing to racial disparity are elevated in the United States.

A Low-birth-weight infants and preterm birth are more likely because of the large number of teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. In the United States, there is significant racial disparity in the rates of maternal death.

The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by a. change in position. b. oxytocin administration. c. regional anesthesia. d. intravenous analgesic.

A Maternal supine hypotension syndrome is caused by the weight and pressure of the gravid uterus on the ascending vena cava when the woman is in a supine position. This reduces venous return to the woman's heart, as well as cardiac output, and subsequently reduces her blood pressure. The nurse can encourage the woman to change positions and avoid the supine position. Oxytocin administration, regional anesthesia, and intravenous analgesic may reduce maternal cardiac output.

When providing care for a pregnant woman, the nurse should be aware that one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors is a. diabetes mellitus. b. mitral valve prolapse (MVP). c. chronic hypertension. d. anemia.

A The most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors are diabetes and hypertension associated with pregnancy. Both of these conditions are associated with maternal obesity. There are no studies that indicate MVP is among the most frequently reported maternal risk factors. Hypertension associated with pregnancy, not chronic hypertension, is one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors. Although anemia is a concern in pregnancy, it is not one of the most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors in pregnancy.

Examples of appropriate techniques to wake a sleepy infant for breastfeeding include (Select all that apply.) a. unwrapping the infant. b. changing the diaper. c. talking to the infant. d. slapping the infant's hands and feet. e. applying a cold towel to the infant's abdomen.

A,B,C

Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these babies are at increased risk for (Select all that apply.) a. problems with thermoregulation. b. cardiac distress. c. hyperbilirubinemia. d. sepsis. e. hyperglycemia.

A,C,D

A new patient and her partner arrive in the labor, delivery, recovery, and after birth unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby's heart rate should be. Your best response is a. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job." b. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally, the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." c. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are." d. "Your doctor will explain all of that later."

B

In addition to injuries, the leading causes of death in adolescents ages 15 to 19 years are a. suicide, cancer. b. homicide, suicide. c. homicide, heart disease. d. drowning, cancer.

B

The nurse is explaining the benefits associated with breastfeeding to a new mother. Which statement by the nurse would be inaccurate and provide conflicting information to the patient? a. Women who breastfeed have a decreased risk of breast cancer. b. Breastfeeding is an effective method of birth control. c. Breastfeeding increases bone density. d. Breastfeeding may enhance after birth weight loss

B

The nurse is preparing staff in-service education about atraumatic care for pediatric patients. Which intervention should the nurse include? a. Prepare the child for separation from parents during hospitalization by reviewing a video. b. Prepare the child before any unfamiliar treatment or procedure by demonstrating on a stuffed animal. c. Help the child accept the loss of control associated with hospitalization. d. Help the child accept pain that is connected with a treatment or procedure.

B

The nurse's initial action when caring for an infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to a. notify the physician immediately. b. place a cap on the infant's head. c. tell the mother that the infant must be kept in the nursery and observed for the next 4 hours. d. change the formula because this is a sign of formula intolerance.

B

What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause? a. Early deceleration—umbilical cord compression b. Late deceleration—uteroplacental inefficiency c. Variable deceleration—head compression d. Prolonged deceleration—cause unknown

B

During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful? a. Battering phase b. Honeymoon phase c. Tension-building phase d. Increased drug-taking phase

B During the tension-building phase, the batterer becomes increasingly hostile, swears, threatens, and throws things. This is followed by the battering phase where violence actually occurs, and the victim feels powerless. During the honeymoon phase, the victim of IPV wants to believe that the battering will never happen again, and the batterer will promise anything to get back into the home. Often the batterer increases the use of drugs during the tension-building phase.

A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant's eyes and why it is needed. The nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is to a. destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind. b. prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant's eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal. c. prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant's eyes, leading to dry eyes. d. prevent the infant's eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see.

B The purpose of the erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is to prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant's eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal. Prophylactic ophthalmic ointment is instilled in the eyes of all neonates to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial infection. Prophylactic ophthalmic ointment is not instilled to prevent dry eyes. Prophylactic ophthalmic ointment has no bearing on vision other than to protect against infection that may lead to vision problems.

A male patient asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). The nurse's most appropriate response is a. "The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation." b. "It has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus." c. "The additional lubrication improves sex." d. "Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."

B The statement "Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions" is true. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.

The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on family a. rituals and customs. b. values and beliefs. c. boundaries and channels. d. socialization processes.

B Values and beliefs are the most prevalent factors in the decision-making and problem-solving techniques of families. Although culture may play a part in the decision-making process of a family, ultimately values and beliefs dictate the course of action taken by family members. Boundaries and channels affect the relationship between the family members and the health care team, not the decisions within the family. Socialization processes may help families with interactions with the community, but they are not the criteria used for decision making within the family

Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Periodic abstinence b. Barrier methods c. Hormonal methods d. They all offer about the same protection

B Barrier methods such as condoms best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods (the pill) offer no protection against STIs or HIV.

A newborn is placed under a radiant heat warmer, and the nurse evaluates the infant's body temperature every hour. Maintaining the newborn's body temperature is important for preventing a. respiratory depression. b. cold stress. c. tachycardia. d. vasoconstriction.

B Loss of heat must be controlled to protect the infant from the metabolic and physiologic effects of cold stress, and that is the primary reason for placing a newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Cold stress results in an increased respiratory rate and vasoconstriction.

What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken. a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask. c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask.

B Repositioning the mother, increasing intravenous (IV) fluid, and providing oxygen via face mask are correct nursing actions for intrauterine resuscitation. The nurse should initiate intrauterine resuscitation in an ABC manner, similar to basic life support. The first priority is to open the maternal and fetal vascular systems by repositioning the mother for improved perfusion. The second priority is to increase blood volume by increasing the IV fluid. The third priority is to optimize oxygenation of the circulatory volume by providing oxygen via face mask. If these interventions do not resolve the fetal heart rate issue quickly, the primary provider should be notified immediately.

During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have a. bradycardia. b. a normal baseline heart rate. c. tachycardia. d. hypoxia.

B The baseline heart rate is measured over 10 minutes; a normal range is 110 to 160 beats/min. Bradycardia is a fetal heart rate (FHR) below 110 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer. Tachycardia is an FHR over 160 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer. Hypoxia is an inadequate supply of oxygen; no indication of this condition exists with a baseline heart rate in the normal range.

Which statement about cultural competence is not accurate? a. Local health care workers and community advocates can help extend health care to underserved populations. b. Nursing care is delivered in the context of the patient's culture but not in the context of the nurse's culture. c. Nurses must develop an awareness of and sensitivity to various cultures. d. A culture's economic, religious, and political structures influence practices that affect childbearing.

B The cultural context of the nurse also affects nursing care. The work of local health care workers and community advocates is part of cultural competence; the nurse's cultural context is also important. Developing sensitivity to various cultures is part of cultural competence, but the nurse's cultural context is also important. The impact of economic, religious, and political structures is part of cultural competence; the nurse's cultural context is also important.

To detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), most laboratory tests focus on the a. virus. b. HIV antibodies. c. CD4 counts. d. CD8 counts.

B The screening tool used to detect HIV is the enzyme immunoassay, which tests for the presence of antibodies to the virus. CD4 counts are associated with the incidence of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in HIV-infected individuals.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. fetal hypoxemia.

B Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues

What are modes of heat loss in the newborn? (Select all that apply.) a. Perspiration b. Convection c. Radiation d. Conduction e. Urination

B,C,D

A tiered system of categorizing FHR has been recommended by regulatory agencies. Nurses, midwives, and physicians who care for women in labor must have a working knowledge of fetal monitoring standards and understand the significance of each category. These categories include (Select all that apply.) a. reassuring. b. Category I. c. Category II. d. nonreassuring. e. Category III

B,C,E

A first-time dad is concerned that his 3-day-old daughter's skin looks "yellow." In the nurse's explanation of physiologic jaundice, what fact should be included? a. Physiologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life. b. Physiologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities between the mother and infant blood types. c. The bilirubin levels of physiologic jaundice peak between 72 to 96 hours of life. d. This condition is also known as "breast milk jaundice."

C

A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infant's eyes when the mother asks, "What is that medicine for?" The nurse responds a. "It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better." b. "It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract." c. "Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection." d. "This medicine will protect your baby's eyes from drying out over the next few days."

C

An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed a. only if the newborn is in obvious distress. b. once by the obstetrician, just after the birth. c. at least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. d. every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.

C

An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation and weighing 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of a. birth injury. b. hypocalcemia. c. hypoglycemia. d. seizures

C

In administering vitamin K to the infant shortly after birth, the nurse understands that vitamin K is a. important in the production of red blood cells. b. necessary in the production of platelets. c. not initially synthesized because of a sterile bowel at birth. d. responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and prevention of jaundice

C

In assisting the breastfeeding mother position the baby, nurses should keep in mind that a. the cradle position usually is preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth. ' b. women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position. c. whatever the position used, the infant is "belly to belly" with the mother. d. while supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput.

C

The leading cause of death from unintentional injuries in children is a. poisoning. b. drowning. c. motor vehicle related fatalities. d. fire- and burn-related fatalities.

C

The major cause of death for children older than 1 year is a. cancer. b. infection. c. unintentional injuries. d. congenital abnormalities

C

The nurse administers vitamin K to the newborn for which reason? a. Most mothers have a diet deficient in vitamin K, which results in the infant's being deficient. b. Vitamin K prevents the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver and must be given by injection. c. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn's intestinal tract. d. The supply of vitamin K is inadequate for at least 3 to 4 months, and the newborn must be supplemented.

C

The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body, seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within a. 6 to 10 days. b. 2 to 4 weeks. c. 6 to 12 weeks. d. 6 months.

C

With regard to the nutrient needs of breastfed and formula-fed infants, nurses should understand that a. breastfed infants need extra water in hot climates. b. during the first 3 months breastfed infants consume more energy than do formula-fed infants. c. breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily at least during the first 2 months. d. vitamin K injections at birth are not needed for infants fed on specially enriched formula.

C C Human milk contains only small amounts of vitamin D. Neither breastfed nor formula-fed infants need to be given water, even in very hot climates. During the first 3 months formula-fed infants consume more energy than do breastfed infants and therefore tend to grow more rapidly. Vitamin K shots are required for all infants because the bacteria that produce it are absent from the baby's stomach at birth.

Infants of mothers with diabetes (IDMs) are at higher risk for developing a. anemia. b. hyponatremia. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. sepsis.

C IDMs are at risk for macrosomia, birth injury, perinatal asphyxia, respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, cardiomyopathy, hyperbilirubinemia, and polycythemia. They are not at risk for anemia, hyponatremia, or sepsis.

A traditional family structure in which male and female partners and their children live as an independent unit is known as a(n) a. extended family. b. binuclear family. c. nuclear family. d. blended family.

C About two thirds of U.S. households meet the definition of a nuclear family. Extended families include additional blood relatives other than the parents. A binuclear family involves two households. A blended family is reconstructed after divorce and involves the merger of two families.

Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who a. want menstrual regularity and predictability. b. have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.

C Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.

the nurse's care of a Hispanic family includes teaching about infant care. When developing a plan of care, the nurse bases interventions on the knowledge that in traditional Hispanic families a. breastfeeding is encouraged immediately after birth. b. male infants typically are circumcised. c. the maternal grandmother participates in the care of the mother and her infant. d. special herbs mixed in water are used to stimulate the passage of meconium.

C In Hispanic families, the expectant mother is influenced strongly by her mother or mother-in-law. Breastfeeding often is delayed until the third postpartum day. Hispanic male infants usually are not circumcised. Olive or castor oil may be given to stimulate the passage of meconium.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in a. early decelerations. b. fetal dysrhythmias. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes

C Low maternal blood pressure reduces placental blood flow during uterine contractions and results in fetal hypoxemia. Maternal hypotension is not associated with early decelerations, fetal dysrhythmias, or spontaneous rupture of membranes.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate may be caused by a. narcotics. b. barbiturates. c. methamphetamines. d. tranquilizers.

C Narcotics, barbiturates, and tranquilizers may be causes of decreased variability; methamphetamines may cause increased variability

A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce girl vaginally after being in labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence? a. She is Hispanic. b. She delivered a girl. c. The standards of care were not met. d. She refused fetal monitoring.

C Not meeting the standards of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. The patient's race is not a factor for a case of negligence. The infant's gender is not a factor for a case of negligence. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the patient has the right to refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence; however, informed consent should be properly obtained, and the patient should sign an against medical advice form for refusal of any treatment that is within the standard of care.

What marks on a baby's skin may indicate an underlying problem that requires notification of a physician? a. Mongolian spots on the back b. Telangiectatic nevi on the nose or nape of the neck c. Petechiae scattered over the infant's body d. Erythema toxicum anywhere on the body

C Petechiae (bruises) scattered over the infant's body should be reported to the pediatrician because they may indicate underlying problems. Mongolian spots are bluish-black spots that resemble bruises but fade gradually over months and have no clinical significance. Telangiectatic nevi (stork bites, angel kisses) fade by the second year and have no clinical significance. Erythema toxicum is an appalling-looking rash, but it has no clinical significance and requires no treatment

The role of the professional nurse caring for childbearing families has evolved to emphasize a. providing care to patients directly at the bedside. b. primarily hospital care of maternity patients. c. practice using an evidence-based approach. d. planning patient care to cover longer hospital stays.

C Professional nurses are part of the team of health care providers who collaboratively care for patients throughout the childbearing cycle. Providing care to patients directly at the bedside is one of the nurse's tasks; however, it does not encompass the concept of the evolved professional nurse. Throughout the prenatal period, nurses care for women in clinics and physician's offices and teach classes to help families prepare for childbirth. Nurses also care for childbearing families in birthing centers and in the home. Nurses have been critically important in developing strategies to improve the well-being of women and their infants and have led the efforts to implement clinical practice guidelines using an evidence-based approach. Maternity patients have experienced a decreased, rather than an increased, length of stay over the past two decades.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of a. altered cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. meconium fluid.

C Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

. When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman's a. age. b. minority status. c. educational level. d. inability to pay.

D

A after birth woman telephones about her 4-day-old infant. She is not scheduled for a weight check until the infant is 10 days old, and she is worried about whether breastfeeding is going well. Effective breastfeeding is indicated by the newborn who a. sleeps for 6 hours at a time between feedings. b. has at least one breast milk stool every 24 hours. c. gains 1 to 2 ounces per week. d. has at least 6 to 8 wet diapers per day

D

A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session about childhood obesity prevention for parents of school-age children. The nurse should include which associated risk of obesity in the teaching plan? a. Type I diabetes b. Respiratory disease c. Celiac disease d. Type II diabetes

D

A nurse may be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp a. as part of fetal scalp blood sampling. b. in response to tocolysis. c. in preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring. d. to elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR).

D

A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible. The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant a. with his arms folded together over his chest. b. curled up in a fetal position. c. with his head cupped in her hand. d. with his head and body in alignment.

D

An African-American woman noticed some bruises on her newborn girl's buttocks. She asks the nurse who spanked her daughter. The nurse explains that these marks are called a. lanugo. b. vascular nevi. c. nevus flammeus. d. Mongolian spots.

D

An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate a(n) a. infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing. b. infant in severe distress who needs resuscitation. c. prediction of a future free of neurologic problems. d. infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.

D

HIV may be perinatally transmitted a. only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation. b. from the use of unsterile instruments. c. only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid. d. through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother

D

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be perinatally transmitted a. only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation. b. by a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments. c. only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid. d. through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother

D

In what form do families tend to be most socially vulnerable? a. Married-blended family b. Extended family c. Nuclear family d. Single-parent family

D

What infant response to cool environmental conditions is either not effective or not available to them? a. Constriction of peripheral blood vessels b. Metabolism of brown fat c. Increased respiratory rates d. Unflexing from the normal position

D

Which statement concerning the benefits or limitations of breastfeeding is inaccurate? a. Breast milk changes over time to meet changing needs as infants grow. b. Long-term studies have shown that the benefits of breast milk continue after the infant is weaned. c. Breast milk/breastfeeding may enhance cognitive development. d. Breastfeeding increases the risk of childhood obesity.

D

While completing a newborn assessment, the nurse should be aware that the most common birth injury is a. to the soft tissues. b. caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery. c. fracture of the humerus and femur. d. fracture of the clavicle.

D

While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a "C" with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive a. tonic neck reflex. b. glabellar (Myerson) reflex. c. Babinski reflex. d. Moro reflex.

D

While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia, the nurse realizes that the patient has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse's best response to this patient is a. "This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States." b. "Do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?" c. "We will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery." d. "The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications."

D

A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history, the cause of this newborn's distress is most likely to be a. hypoglycemia. b. phrenic nerve injury. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. sepsis.

D The prolonged rupture of membranes and the tachypnea (before and after birth) both suggest sepsis. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis.

Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are a. suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea. b. experiencing severe swings in blood pressure. c. trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment. d. breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.

D This pattern is called periodic breathing and is common to premature infants. It may still require nursing intervention of oxygen and/or ventilation. Apnea is a cessation of respirations for 20 seconds or longer. It should not be confused with periodic breathing.

The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is a. altered cerebral blood flow. b. fetal hypoxemia. c. umbilical cord compression. d. fetal sleep cycles.

D A temporary decrease in variability can occur when the fetus is in a sleep state. These sleep states do not usually last longer than 30 minutes. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would be evidenced by tachycardia initially and then bradycardia. A persistent decrease or loss of FHR variability may be seen. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR.

The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity nurses is a. collegiality. b. ethics. c. evaluation. d. accountability.

D Accountability refers to legal and professional responsibility for practice. Collegiality refers to a working relationship with one's colleagues. Ethics refers to a code to guide practice. Evaluation refers to examination of the effectiveness of interventions in relation to expected outcomes

As a powerful central nervous system stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental separation (abruption), and stillbirth? a. Heroin b. Alcohol c. PCP d. Cocaine

D Cocaine is a powerful CNS stimulant. Effects on pregnancy associated with cocaine use include abruptio placentae, preterm labor, precipitous birth, and stillbirth. Heroin is an opiate. Its use in pregnancy is associated with preeclampsia, intrauterine growth restriction, miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, infections, breech presentation, and preterm labor. The most serious effect of alcohol use in pregnancy is fetal alcohol syndrome. The major concerns regarding PCP use in pregnant women are its association with polydrug abuse and the neurobehavioral effects on the neonate.

A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Perform a nutrition assessment. b. Refer the woman to a social worker. c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife. d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments.

D Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but a nutrition assessment is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The patient may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the woman has identifiable high-risk problems, her health care may need to be provided by a physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high risk issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or manage the type of care a patient is to receive.

When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses comprehend that both a. can be used when membranes are intact. b. measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions. c. may need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring. d. can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.

D External monitoring can be used in both periods; internal monitoring can be used only in the intrapartum period. For internal monitoring the membranes must have ruptured, and the cervix must be sufficiently dilated. Internal monitoring measures the intensity of contractions; external monitoring cannot do this. With external monitoring, the woman may need to alert the nurse that UA is occurring; internal monitoring does not require this

Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement b. Early decelerations c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min d. Late decelerations

D Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they generally are not a concern during normal labor

As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with a. hypotension. b. cord compression. c. maternal drug use. d. hypoxemia.

D Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic patient with limited English proficiency. It is important for the nurse to a. use maternity jargon in order for the patient to become familiar with these terms. b. speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit. c. provide the patient with handouts. d. assess whether the patient understands the discussion

D Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words; avoiding jargon; and evaluating whether the patient understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and focusing on what is important increase understanding. Most patient education materials are written at too high a level for the average adult and may not be useful for a patient with limited English proficiency.

The recommended treatment for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission to the fetus during pregnancy is a. acyclovir. b. ofloxacin. c. podophyllin. d. zidovudine.

D Perinatal transmission of HIV has decreased significantly in the past decade as a result of prophylactic administration of the antiretroviral drug zidovudine to pregnant women in the prenatal and perinatal periods. Acyclovir is an antiviral treatment for HSV. Ofloxacin is an antibacterial treatment for gonorrhea. Podophyllin is a solution used in the treatment of human papillomavirus.

When attempting to communicate with a patient who speaks a different language, the nurse should a. respond promptly and positively to project authority. b. never use a family member as an interpreter. c. talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the patient. d. provide as much privacy as possible

D Providing privacy creates an atmosphere of respect and puts the patient at ease. The nurse should not rush to judgment and should make sure that he or she understands the patient's message clearly. In crisis situations, the nurse may need to use a family member or neighbor as a translator. The nurse should talk directly to the patient to create an atmosphere of respect.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should a. change the woman's position. b. discontinue the oxytocin infusion. c. insert an internal monitor. d. document the finding in the patient's record.

D The FHR indicates early decelerations, which are not an ominous sign and do not require any intervention. The nurse should simply document these findings.

A woman currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse what the major differences are between the cervical cap and the diaphragm. The nurse's most appropriate response is a. "No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it's less messy." b. "The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse." c. "Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient." d. "The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later."

D The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. No additional spermicide is required for repeated acts of intercourse. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.

You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your patient, who is in active labor. Suddenly you see the fetal heart rate (FHR) drop from its baseline of 125 beats/min down to 80 beats/min. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and perform a vaginal examination. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the fetal heart rate remains in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take? a. Call for staff assistance. b. Insert a Foley catheter. c. Start Pitocin. d. Notify the care provider immediately.

D To relieve an FHR deceleration, the nurse can reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen. If oxytocin is infusing, it should be discontinued. If the FHR does not resolve, the primary care provider should be notified immediately. Inserting a Foley catheter is an inappropriate nursing action. If the FHR were to continue in a nonreassuring pattern, a cesarean section could be warranted, which would require a Foley catheter. However, the physician must make that determination. Pitocin may place additional stress on the fetus.

While working in the prenatal clinic, you care for a very diverse group of patients. When planning interventions for these families, you realize that acceptance of the interventions will be most influenced by a. educational achievement. b. income level. c. subcultural group. d. individual beliefs.

D The patient's beliefs are ultimately the key to acceptance of health care interventions. However, these beliefs may be influenced by factors such as educational level, income level, and ethnic background. Educational achievement, income level, and subcultural group all are important factors. However, the nurse must understand that a woman's concerns from her own point of view will have the most influence on her compliance