MCB 2010: Ch's 19-21 Mastering For Final Review

not treatable with any of type antibiotic.

Characteristics of Treponema pallidum, the bacterium which causes syphilis, include all except ability to avoid immune detection by varying the few antigens it carries on its surface. vertical transmission to a fetus during any stage of pregnancy. not treatable with any of type antibiotic. rapid invasion of host tissues from the initial infection site. Gram-negative spirochete.

The patient's urinary tract anatomy is normal. The patient did not develop the UTI as a result of a healthcare intervention

Choose the feature(s) of an uncomplicated UTI. Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style) The patient's urinary tract anatomy is normal. The patient is experiencing a recurring infection. Caused by antibiotic resistant bacteria. The patient did not develop the UTI as a result of a healthcare intervention

Taenia solium

Cysticercosis is a result of infection with which species? Taenia asiatica Enterobius vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides Taenia solium Necator americanu

Individuals who became ill may have consumed larger quantities of the food than individuals who did not become ill.

From the preliminary analysis, it would appear that individuals who consumed barbecue with Bubba-Qs sauce had the highest attack rate, followed by the dry-rubbed barbecue.Some of the individuals who said they ate the barbecue with the sauce did not become ill. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for such an occurrence? Individuals who did not become ill are genetically less susceptible to the food poisoning agent. Not everyone who was questioned may accurately remember which foods they consumed. Some individuals may have immunity to the illness because they have been previously exposed. Individuals who became ill may have consumed larger quantities of the food than individuals who did not become ill.

Papillomaviridae

Genital warts are caused by __________. Trichomonas vaginalis Haemophilus ducreyi Chlamydia trachomatis Neisseria gonorrhoeae Papillomaviridae

Zika Dengue fever Ebola

Please select all applicable answer choices. There may be more than one correct answer. Zika Dengue fever Ebola Lyme disease Rocky mountain spotted fever

blood fluke

What causes schistosomiasis?roundworm hookworm blood fluke pinworm tapeworm

Esophagus Stomach

Which of the following anatomical sites is part of the upper gastrointestinal tract? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Esophagus Gallbladder Stomach Small intestine

Uniform vaginal discharge with a greyish-white appearance The presence of a fishy odor after adding potassium hydroxide to a vaginal mucus smear The presence of epithelial cells with bacteria attached

Which of the following clinical criteria is indicative of vaginosis? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Uniform vaginal discharge with a greyish-white appearance The presence of a fishy odor after adding potassium hydroxide to a vaginal mucus smear A vaginal pH below 4.5 The presence of epithelial cells with bacteria attached

Swelling of the parotid salivary glands Dry mouth

Which of the following clinical signs and symptoms is characteristic of a mumps infection? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Swelling of the parotid salivary glands Jaundice Quick onset of profuse and watery diarrhea Dry mouth

Tachypnea (more than 20 breaths per minute) Body temperature above 101°F

Which of the following clinical signs of infection is indicative of sepsis? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Body temperature above 101°F Leukopenia Bradycardia (less than 60 beats per minute) Tachypnea (more than 20 breaths per minute)

A patient with an artificial heart valve has her gum nicked during a routine teeth cleaning.

Which of the following is the most likely mechanism through which bacterial endocarditis is transmitted? A patient from North Carolina is bitten by an infected deer tick. A patient with an artificial heart valve has her gum nicked during a routine teeth cleaning. A New Mexico resident is bitten by an infected flea. A teenager coming into contact with infected saliva by sharing cups with his girlfriend

moderate vomiting and fever

Which of the following symptoms is LEAST characteristic of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning? moderate vomiting and fever sudden onset of diarrhea short incubation period severe abdominal cramping

Pinworm

You are tending to your preschool-aged patient who presents with excessive anal itching. The child's mother notes that the child woke several times during the night due to anal irritation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are absent. You recommend performing a tape test on the child. Which of the following diseases is the pediatric patient most likely afflicted with? Hookworm Pinworm Trichinellosis Ascariasis

it can prevent oropharyngeal cancer caused by having oral sex with a woman infected with HPV

Boys should receive the HPV vaccine because __________. it can prevent oropharyngeal cancer caused by having oral sex with a woman infected with HPV boys are much more susceptible to HPV infection than girls it can prevent herpes it can prevent pregnancy

Epstein-Barr virus

Burkitt's lymphoma is a possible complication of which disease? Marburg virus human immunodeficiency virus Epstein-Barr virus Lassa virus Ebola virus

Tertiary syphilis

Gumma lesions on the skin and bones, heart damage, and neurological symptoms are characteristic of which stage of syphilis? Secondary syphilis Congenital syphilis Tertiary syphilis Primary syphilis

105/150(100)= 70.0%

150 people attended a July 4 celebration, catered by a BBQ restaurant. 40 patients presented with severe symptoms at ER. Investigation by health official Dr. Thompson as follows: Dr. Thompson's investigation reveals that a total of 40 individuals were given emergency treatment at Collintown Community Hospital. Interviews with these individuals lead to the identification of an additional 65 people who were ill with compatible signs and symptoms but did not seek medical attention. His investigation revealed that all of the ill persons and 45 who did not become ill attended the Independence Day celebration. Dr. Thompson is interested in knowing what percentage of the individuals who attended the July 4 celebration became ill. The attack rate is the number of individuals treated and/or had symptoms divided by the number of attending individuals. What is the attack rate of food poisoning among the group who attended the July 4 celebration? 105/150(100)= 70.0% 40/150(100)= 26.6% 65/105(100)= 61.9% 40/65(100)= 61.5%

gonorrhea; "the clap"

A 20-year-old male reports to his physician that he has experienced painful urination, as though he were urinating molten metal. He has also noticed a pus-like discharge from his penis. The man reports having been sexually active with two or three women in the previous six months. Because his partners reported being "absolutely sure" that they carried no sexually transmitted diseases, the patient had not used a condom. What disease does this patient have? What is the common name for this disease? syphilis; "tabes" genital herpes; "crabs" gonorrhea; "the clap" chlamydia; "red eye"

single dose of metronidazole dx: trichomoniasis

A 30-year-old woman who is not pregnant presents with a foul-smelling, greenish vaginal discharge, indicating some form of vaginitis. A smear is taken, and routine tests performed. A motile, unicellular eukaryote with multiple flagella and an undulating membrane is observed in the microscope. What treatment is recommended? doxycycline combination therapy of ceftriaxone and azithromycin clindamycin topical antifungal cream single dose of metronidazole

Neither Chlamydia trachomatis nor Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be ruled out without further testing.

A 48-hour old infant is brought to the clinic with signs of severe bacterial conjunctivitis (infection of the eye). The infant was born at home, with the birth assisted only by an unlicensed midwife, and no pharmaceutical interventions performed on the mother or infant. Which infectious agents is the likely culprit? bacterial vaginosis due to mixed anaerobic species HSV-2 Chlamydia trachomatis Neisseria gonorrhoeae Neither Chlamydia trachomatis nor Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be ruled out without further testing.

infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A Tired Freshman An 18-year-old college freshman reports to the campus health clinic. He states that he has felt very fatigued and generally ill for about a week and developed sore throat, fever, and headache the day before. He has been sleeping more than usual and has virtually no appetite. He says his girlfriend, who attends college in a different state and whom he saw last month, has also been feeling very fatigued for the last two weeks or so, but she displays none of the student's other symptoms. Which disease and causative agent pair would be responsible for these symptoms? malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum ehrlichiosis caused by Ehrlichia chaffeensis infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi

genital herpes caused by HSV-2

A man presents to the physician's office complaining of irritation in the genital area. Examination reveals a bright red rash with raised pustules with clear fluid. Upon questioning, the man reports he has recently been sexually active. What is the most likely diagnosis based upon the appearance of the genital lesions? syphilis genital warts caused by HPV genital herpes caused by HSV-2 gonorrhea chlamydia

An antifungal azole drug should be prescribed.

A teenage patient presents with intense vaginal itching, burning, and a "cottage cheese-like" discharge. The patient's case history reveals that she was prescribed amoxicillin for treatment of a severe sinus infection. Which of the following treatments should be prescribed for the patient based on disease presentation and the patient's case history? Acyclovir should be prescribed to reduce the frequency and severity of outbreaks. A single dose of metronidazole should be given to the patient. The patient should be given two injections of Bicillin L-A. An antifungal azole drug should be prescribed.

Chronic arthritis, neurological problems, irregular heartbeat, and myocarditis

A young graduate student studying deer habitats in the Northeastern United States presents with fever, a headache, and extreme fatigue. You believe that the patient may have a viral infection, and send her home without any medication. Five days later, the patient is readmitted and presents with a bulls-eye rash. If you do not treat the infection with the recommended antimicrobial therapy, which of the following complications may develop? Petechiae, stroke, organ damage, organ abscesses, and heart failure Blood vessel damage affecting circulation to the extremities, and possibly leading to limb amputation Chronic arthritis, neurological problems, irregular heartbeat, and myocarditis The disease is often fatal if left untreated.

direct contact autoinoculation indirect contact

Genital warts are transmitted by __________. Select all that apply. airborne particles a mosquito vector direct contact autoinoculation indirect contact

All CAUTIs are considered nosocomial infections. Patients diagnosed with a CAUTI will likely spend more time in the hospital than patients being treated for the same overall condition who do not have a CAUTI. CAUTIs result in higher death rates.

CAUTIs (catheter associated urinary tract infections) have been associated with increased morbidity and mortality, higher hospital costs, and lengthier hospital stays. Based on this information along with information in your text, which of the following statements is (are) true? Select all that apply. All CAUTIs are considered nosocomial infections. Patients diagnosed with a CAUTI will likely spend more time in the hospital than patients being treated for the same overall condition who do not have a CAUTI. CAUTIs result in higher death rates. CAUTIs are considered uncomplicated UTIs.

Salmonella enterica serotype Enteritidis

Eating peanut butter, cantaloupe, chicken products, seafood, spinach, or handling a pet turtle are all sources of infection for which of the following bacteria? Campylobacter jejuni Shigella dysenteriae Esherichia coli O157:H7 Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi Salmonella enterica serotype Enteritidis

flagellaShiga-like toxin

Further testing reveals this is a strain of E. coli O157:H7. What virulence factor produced by this strain could cause the heart and lung damage observed in this case? enterotoxin endospores flagellaShiga-like toxin

Polar flagella help bacteria burrow into mucosal lining to escape stomach acid, where enzymes decrease the acidity around them, and they release a toxin to kill host cells.

How does Helicobacter pylori cause stomach ulcers? The glycocalyx protects the bacteria from stomach acid as the bacteria enters a susceptible host and binds to an area of epithelial cells in the stomach with thin mucosa where toxins cause further damage and allow entry. Bacterial capsules allow the bacteria to survive in the acidic lumen of the stomach as it releases toxins that bind to and destroy the epithelial lining of the stomach. Fimbriae enable to bacteria to penetrate the mucosa and bind to the epithelial lining of the stomach where toxins are released that bind and destroy epithelial cells. Polar flagella help bacteria burrow into mucosal lining to escape stomach acid, where enzymes decrease the acidity around them, and they release a toxin to kill host cells. Peritrichous flagella help the bacteria squeeze through the mucosal lining to avoid stomach acid, where cytokine imposters are released which attract B cells and cause the immune response to destroy the epithelial lining of the stomach.

The worm penetrates the skin when the patient walks outside barefoot.

How does a patient typically become infected with hookworms? Cysts are ingested when the patient eats undercooked meat. Cysts are spread via respiratory droplets when an infected host coughs or sneezes. The worm penetrates the skin when the patient walks outside barefoot. Eggs are ingested when the patient eats infected seafood. Cysts are spread onto fomites when an infected host does not properly wash their hands and then the patient touches that object and doesn't wash their hands before eating.

There is lysozyme in urine. The flow of urine limits bacterial attachment in the urinary tract.

In healthy people, the urinary tract is typically free of cultivable bacteria. Select all the factors that limit bacteria growth in a healthy person's urinary tract. The immune system rapidly identifies and eliminates bacteria that would constitute normal urinary tract microbiota. There is lysozyme in urine. The flow of urine limits bacterial attachment in the urinary tract. The pH of the urinary tract prevents microbial colonization.

Angel himself The healthcare staff Urine catheter tube

It was determined that Angel's UTI was caused by MRSA. Which of the following could be the source of his infection? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS style) Angel himself The healthcare staff Urine catheter tube Feces

pyelonephritis

Of the following, which is the most serious condition? ureteritis pyelonephritis urethritis and cystitis urethritis cystitis

a clear set of signs and symptoms that make diagnosis straightforward.

Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by all the following except inflammation, swelling, or abscesses in the internal reproductive organs. treatment with antibiotic therapy. a clear set of signs and symptoms that make diagnosis straightforward. can be caused by several types of bacterial pathogens. increased risk for ectopic pregnancy.

genital warts

The picture shows:

Burkitt's lymphoma

The suppression of apoptosis on account of infection with EBV may lead to the development of which disease in patients with suppressed immune systems? severe arthritis Chagas' disease Burkitt's lymphoma lymph node swelling (lymphadenopathy) or "buboes"

Trichomoniasis is an underdiagnosed, underreported disease. Wet mount preparations can be used to confirm infection

Which of the following statements concerning trichomoniasis is/are true? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Trichomoniasis is an underdiagnosed, underreported disease. A non-pregnant patient infected with trichomoniasis should be given a combination therapy of ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Wet mount preparations can be used to confirm infection Women afflicted by trichomoniasis often report vaginal itching, burning, and a "cottage cheese-like" discharge.

Norovirus gastroenteritis (No vaccine)

Two days after disembarking on a Caribbean cruise, twenty percent of the passengers aboard an American cruise ship became violently ill with profuse vomiting and diarrhea. Gastrointestinal symptoms lasted up to 3 days. Patients ranged in age from toddler to senior, and the majority of those infected were up-to-date on all vaccinations. Which of the following infections was the most likely cause of illness aboard the ship? Hepatitis B Virus Rotaviral gastroenteritis Norovirus gastroenteritis Hepatitis A Virus

Blood flow to a part of the brain is blocked.

What causes a cerebrovascular accident? Blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Blood flow to a part of the brain is blocked. The heart stops. A clot forms and blocks blood flow to skeletal muscles.

Ebola

What disease was Jennifer trying to ascertain risk of when she asked Lauren about contact with ill people showing symptoms of bleeding? Ebola Human T lymphotropic virus infection Burkitt's lymphoma Malaria

septicemic plague

Which form of a Yersinia pestis infection can result in acral gangrene caused by intravascular coagulation? cardiatic plague hepatic plague septicemic plague bubonic plague pneumonic plague

hepatitis D

Which hepatitis virus requires an additional hepatitis infection in order to be virulent? hepatitis A hepatitis B hepatitis C hepatitis D hepatitis E

Plasma diffuses from capillaries into the interstitial tissue space, whereas lymphatic vessels funnel lymph toward venous blood supply.

Which of the following accurately states how the lymphatic system and cardiovascular system are connected? The right atrium funnels plasma toward the lymphatic system, whereas the left atrium funnels lymph back toward venous circulation. Plasma travels toward interstitial tissue space via the lymphatic vessels, whereas lymph enters back into venous circulation via the aorta. Plasma diffuses from capillaries into the interstitial tissue space, whereas lymphatic vessels funnel lymph toward venous blood supply. The right ventricle funnels plasma toward the lymphatic system, whereas the left ventricle funnels lymph back toward venous circulation.

right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, rest of the body

Which of the following describes how blood travels through the heart? right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, rest of the body right atrium, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, left ventricle, rest of the body left atrium, right atrium, lungs, left ventricle, right ventricle, rest of the body left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, rest of the body left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, rest of the body

Biofilms on the surface of the teeth ferment sugars (especially sucrose), and the resulting acid degrades the tooth enamel and damages dentin.

Which of the following explains the mechanism of dental cavity formation? Biofilms growing on the surface of the teeth metabolize peptides found in the mouth, creating an alkaline environment that dissolves the supporting collagen structure. Biofilms secrete fluoride, which causes tooth mineralization, resulting in tooth decay. Anaerobic biofilms on the gumline of the teeth displace oxygen gas with anaerobic gasses, leading to bone damage. Biofilms on the surface of the teeth ferment sugars (especially sucrose), and the resulting acid degrades the tooth enamel and damages dentin.

Vaginal and cervical mucus is enriched with antimicrobial peptides and lysozyme that combat bacteria.

Which of the following features of the female reproductive system help to limit infection by pathogenic microorganisms? The close physicality of the anus to the urethra The urethra of females is relatively short, preventing access to the upper urinary tract. The vaginal epithelium is rich in nitrates, which many vaginal flora reduce to nitrite, effectively increasing the vaginal pH and limiting growth of pathogenic microorganisms. Vaginal and cervical mucus is enriched with antimicrobial peptides and lysozyme that combat bacteria.

Ascaris lumbricoides

Which of the following helminths is known for moving out of the body through the anus, nose, or mouth? Schistosoma haematobium Trichinella spiralis Ascaris lumbricoides Necator americanu Enterobius vermicularis

Heavy antibiotic usage Because Psudomembranous colitis is commonly associated with C. difficile, which can cause infection when normal microbiome is altered due to abx use.

Which of the following is a plausible mechanism for contracting pseudomembranous colitis? Consumption of undercooked poultry Consumption of unpasteurized fruit juices Ingestion of raw, contaminated eggs Heavy antibiotic usage

Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following is one of the most common agents to cause endocarditis? Rickettsia rickettsii Yersinia pestis Francisella tularensis Borrelia burgdorferi Staphylococcus aureus

Effective rodent control and storing food in rodent-proof containers

Which of the following may help in controlling outbreaks of Lassa virus? Limiting visitations to Ugandan caves containing large bat populations Discouraging consumption of bushmeat Effective rodent control and storing food in rodent-proof containers Use of bed nets

Toxoplasma gondii

Which of the following microorganisms is a TORCH agent? Toxoplasma gondii Coccidiodomycosis Hantavirus Rubeola

Diarrhea accompanied by pain, blood, and/or mucus

Which of the following provides the best definition for the term dysentery? Low blood volume due to loss of blood or severe dehydration that can lead to organ failure Diarrhea accompanied by pain, blood, and/or mucus Inflammation of the intestines Inflammation of the stomach

Extreme fatigue Splenomegaly Enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and armpits

Which of the following signs and symptoms of infection is/are observed in a patient suffering from mononucleosis? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Extreme fatigue Splenomegaly Enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and armpits Bloody-tinged coughing

Foodborne infections are due to pathogen establishment, whereas food poisoning is a toxigenic infection.

Which of the following statements accurately compares foodborne infections to food poisoning? Foodborne infections are due to pathogen establishment, whereas food poisoning is a toxigenic infection. Clinical symptoms due to foodborne infections have a more rapid onset than clinical symptoms of food poisoning. Foodborne infections typically resolve much faster than food poisoning. Foodborne infections typically present as nausea and vomiting, whereas food poisoning presents as nausea accompanied by fever, headache, muscle aches, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

Chronic Hepatitis B viral infections can promote cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinomas.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a chronic Hepatitis B viral infection? Chronic Hepatitis B viral infections can promote cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinomas. Chronic Hepatitis B viral infections are typically undetectable. Chronic Hepatitis B viral infections are usually asymptomatic. Chronic Hepatitis B viral infections are typically untreatable.

Both men and women infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae are often asymptomatic. Neonatal exposure to gonorrhea can lead to ophthalmia neonatorum and sepsis.

Which of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is/are correct? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Both men and women infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae are often asymptomatic. The incubation period of disease is between 10 and 90 days, but symptoms often appear around 21 days post-exposure. Neonatal exposure to gonorrhea can lead to ophthalmia neonatorum and sepsis. Gonorrhea is relatively easy to treat and can be completely cured with two doses of Bicillin-LA.

Neonatal herpes symptoms typically present within the first month of life. Administering antiviral drugs early on can prevent the virus from spreading to the central nervous system or progressing to a full-blown disseminated infection.

Which of the following statements concerning neonatal herpes is/are true? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer. Neonatal herpes symptoms typically present within the first month of life. Administering antiviral drugs early on can prevent the virus from spreading to the central nervous system or progressing to a full-blown disseminated infection. Skin, eye, and mouth manifestations are the most dangerous clinical presentations of neonatal herpes infections. Mothers experiencing a re-emergent herpes infection are more likely to transmit HSV-2 to their baby than are mothers who experience a first-time infection.

Once inside the body, the Chlamydia trachomatis reticulate body replicates before converting back to the elementary body.

Which of the following statements concerning the life cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis is correct? Once inside the body, the Chlamydia trachomatis reticulate body replicates before converting back to the elementary body. Hosts are infected when the reticulate body form of Chlamydia trachomatis gains access to the host through sexual contact. The elementary body form of Chlamydia trachomatis is noninfectious yet metabolically active, whereas the reticulate body form is infectious but dormant. The life cycle is complete once the reticulate body lyses from infected host cells.

E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that ferments lactose and glucose, but not sucrose. It is motile and does not utilize citrate or urea.

Which of the following tests would be useful in identifying Escherichia coli? E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that ferments lactose and glucose, but not sucrose. It is motile and does not utilize citrate or urea. E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that ferments glucose and sucrose, but not lactose. It is motile and does not utilize citrate or urea. E. coli is a Gram-negative diplococcus that ferments lactose and glucose, but not sucrose. It is motile and breaks down citrate. It cannot produce urease. E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that ferments glucose and sucrose, but not lactose. It is nonmotile and can produce urease, but it does not utilize citrate.

Taenia saginata

Which of the following uses cows as the intermediate host? Necator americanu Taenia solium Taenia asiatica Enterobius vermicularis Taenia saginata

hepatitis A and hepatitis E

Which two hepatitis viruses primarily use the fecal-oral route for infection? hepatitis C and hepatitis D hepatitis B and hepatitis D hepatitis B and hepatitis C hepatitis A and hepatitis E hepatitis D and hepatitis E

Yellow fever

While working at a clinic in Angola, you attend to a patient who presents with jaundice, high fever, and severe headache. Upon close inspection, several mosquito bites are observed on the patient's arms and legs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms? Chikungunya Dengue fever Zika Yellow fever

immunocompromised individuals who have underlying conditions such as cancer, diabetes mellitus, AIDS, or who are taking medication that suppresses the immune system

Who is primarily at risk for a candidiasis infection? immunocompromised individuals who have underlying conditions such as cancer, diabetes mellitus, AIDS, or who are taking medication that suppresses the immune system elderly patients patients with long hospital stays patients with cancer patients confined to a bed

Hemorrhagic features may develop and lead to shock, organ failure, and eventually death.

Why is the second stage of a dengue infection of concern? Body aches and extreme abdominal pain can indicate an intestinal perforation. Vomiting can lead to dehydration. A high fever can lead to dehydration. Nausea can be a symptom of the virus getting past the blood brain barrier, infecting the brain, and quickly killing the patient. Hemorrhagic features may develop and lead to shock, organ failure, and eventually death.

Corticosteroids are immunosuppressive.

Why were corticosteroids contraindicated in this case? Corticosteroids produce bronchoconstriction. Corticosteroids are a type of antibiotic. Corticosteroids are immunosuppressive. Corticosteroids increase the permeability of blood vessels, causing tissue swelling.

Sporozoites within infected liver cells, and merozoites emerging from affected, lysed liver cells

Your patient from Zambia presents with shivering, fever, sweats, hypotension, headaches, body aches, fatigue, nausea, and vomiting. You presumptively diagnose the patient with malaria and then perform a liver biopsy. Which of the following forms of the malarial parasite would you most likely observe within the patient's liver biopsy? Gametocytes within liver cells, and sporozoites emerging from affected, lysed liver cells Merozoites within liver cells, and gametocytes emerging from affected, lysed liver cells Sporozoites within infected liver cells, and gametocytes emerging from affected, lysed liver cells Sporozoites within infected liver cells, and merozoites emerging from affected, lysed liver cells

Septicemic plague

Your patient presents to your New Mexico clinic with blackened fingertips and toes, along with fever and chills. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Septicemic plague Pneumonic plague Bacterial endocarditis Bubonic plague

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Your twenty-year-old, sexually-active female patient presents with an urgency to urinate, dysuria, pyuria, and pain in the lower abdomen. The patient has a negative urine dipstick test result, but a bacteriological culture has confirmed the presence of a UTI. A Gram stain analysis of the bacteriological culture reveals Gram-positive bacteria. Based on the evidence and the patient's case history, which of the following pathogens is the most likely etiological agent of disease? Uropathogenic Escherichia coli Proteus mirabilis Staphylococcus saprophyticus Leptospira interrogans

Periodontal disease

_________ is characterized by tender, swollen gums with a bright red or purplish coloration; the gums may also pull away from teeth, and bad breath and tooth loss are also frequent manifestations. Thrush Oral yeast infection Gingivitis Periodontal disease Dental caries