Med-Surg Chapter 15 Oncology
The drug interleukin-2 is an example of which type of biologic response modifier?
Cytokine Explanation: Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.
A nurse is administering a chemotherapeutic medication to a client, who reports generalized itching and then chest tightness and shortness of breath. The nurse immediately a) Gives prednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV b) Administers diphenhydramine (Benadryl) c) Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion d) Places the client on oxygen by nasal cannula
Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion The client may be experiencing a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which may progress to systemic anaphylaxis. The most immediate action of the nurse is to discontinue the medication followed by initiating emergency protocols.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin (DaunoXome) to a patient with lung cancer. Which situation requires immediate intervention?
The I.V. site is red and swollen. Explanation: A red, swollen I.V. site indicates possible infiltration. Daunorubicin is a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent and can be very damaging to tissue if it infiltrates. The nurse should immediately stop the medication, apply ice to the site, and notify the physician. Although nausea, WBC count of 1,000/mm3, and shivering require interventions, these findings aren't a high priority at this time.
A newly diagnosed cancer client is crying and states the following to the nurse: "I promised God that I will be a better person if I can just get better." What is the appropriate assessment of this comment by the nurse?
The cancer is viewed as a punishment from past actions
The nurse evaluates teaching as effective when a female client states that she will a) Use sunscreen when outdoors. b) Decrease tobacco smoking from one pack/day to half a pack/day. c) Exercise 30 minutes 3 times each week. d) Obtain a cancer history from her parents.
Use sunscreen when outdoors.
The physician is attending to a 72-year-old patient with a malignant brain tumor. The physician recommends immediate radiation therapy. Which of the following is a reason for the physician's recommendation?
To prevent the formation of new cancer cells Explanation: Radiation therapy helps in preventing cellular growth. It may be used to cure the cancer or to control malignancy when the tumor cannot be removed or when lymph node involvement is present; also, it can be used prophylactically to prevent spread. Biopsy is used for analyzing the lymph nodes or for destroying the surrounding tissues around the tumor. (less)
Which of the following is the single largest preventable cause of cancer? a) Arsenic b) Asbestos c) Pesticides d) Tobacco
Tobacco Tobacco remains the single largest preventable cause of disease and early death and accounts for at least 30% of all cancer deaths. The list of suspected carcinogens, such as pesticides, arsenic, and asbestos, continues to grow.
Your client is receiving radiation therapy. The client asks you about oral hygiene. What advice regarding oral hygiene should you offer?
Use a soft toothbrush and avoid an electronic toothbrush.
Your client is receiving radiation therapy. The client asks you about oral hygiene. What advice regarding oral hygiene should you offer?
Use a soft toothbrush and avoid an electronic toothbrush. Explanation: The nurse advises the client undergoing radiation therapy to use a soft toothbrush and avoid electronic toothbrushes to avoid skin lacerations. Gargling after each meal, flossing before going to bed, and treating cavities immediately are general oral hygiene instructions. (less)
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which nursing action is most appropriate for handling chemotherapeutic agents?
Wear disposable gloves and protective clothing. Explanation: A nurse must wear disposable gloves and protective clothing to prevent skin contact with chemotherapeutic agents. The nurse shouldn't recap or break needles. The nurse should use a sterile gauze pad when priming I.V. tubing, connecting and disconnecting tubing, inserting syringes into vials, breaking glass ampules, or other procedures in which chemotherapeutic agents are being handled. Contaminated needles, syringes, I.V. tubes, and other equipment must be disposed of in a leak-proof, puncture-resistant container
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a bone marrow transplant (BMT) procedure?
blood studies
Which of the following occurs when there is accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that compresses the heart
cardiac tamponade
Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth?
control
The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer and recommends changes when the client states she a) eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day b) uses the treadmill for 30 minutes on 5 days each week c) drinks 1 glass of wine at dinner each night d) works as a secretary at a medical radiation treatment center
eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day
The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer and recommends changes when the client states she
eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day Explanation: Dietary substances such as nitrate-containing, nitrite-containing, and red meats appear to increase the risk of cancer. Exercising 30 minutes on 5 days or more is recommended for adults. Measures are taken to protect those people who work around radiation. It is OK to drink 1 glass of wine per day.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
i floss my teeth every morning
The nurse is invited to present a teaching program to parents of school-age children. Which topic would be of greatest value for decreasing cancer risks?
Sun safety and use of sunscreen Explanation: Pool and water safety as well as infection prevention are important teaching topics but will not decrease cancer risk. While performing breast and testicular self-exams may identify cancers in the early stage, this teaching is not usually initiated in school-age children. Severe sunburns that occur in young children can place the child at risk for skin cancers later in life. Because children spend much time out of doors, the use of sunscreen and protective clothing/hats can protect the skin and decrease the risk.
Which of the following is the single largest preventable cause of cancer? a) Tobacco b) Pesticides c) Asbestos d) Arsenic
...
During a client's examination and consultation, the physician keeps telling the client,"You have an abdominal neoplasm." Which of the following statements accurately paraphrases the physician's statement? Select all that apply.
"You have a new growth of abnormal tissue in your abdomen." • "You have an abdominal tumor." Explanation: New growths of abnormal tissue are called tumors. Tumors may be benign or malignant; not all tumors are cancerous.
The clinic nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with a tumor. The client says to the nurse "The doctor says my tumor is benign. What does that mean?" What is the nurse's best response?
"Benign tumors don't usually cause death." Explanation: Benign tumors remain at their site of development. They may grow large, but their growth rate is slower than that of malignant tumors. They usually do not cause death unless their location impairs the function of a vital organ, such as the brain. (less)
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
"I floss my teeth every morning." Explanation: A client with a platelet count of 30,000/mm3 is at risk for bleeding and shouldn't floss his teeth. Flossing may increase the risk of bleeding in a client with a platelet count less than 40,000/mm3. Using an electric razor is appropriate because doing so helps minimize the risk of cutting when shaving. Taking a stool softener helps decrease potential trauma to the GI tract that may cause bleeding. Removing throw rugs from the house helps prevent falls, which could lead to uncontrolled bleeding.
A client is recovering from a craniotomy with tumor debulking. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse a correct understanding of what the surgery entailed?
"I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor." Explanation: Debulking is a reference made when a tumor cannot be completely removed, often due to its extension far into healthy tissue. Without complete removal, this is not a cure and, the cancer cells will continue to replicate and require adjuvant therapies to prevent further invasion. The physician, not the nurse, will need to clarify the details of the surgery.
A client receiving chemotherapy has a nursing diagnosis of Deficient diversional activity related to decreased energy. Which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of appropriate ways to deal with this deficit? a) "I'll play card games with my friends." b) "I'll eat lunch in a restaurant every day." c) "I'll bowl with my team after discharge." d) "I'll take a long trip to visit my aunt."
"I'll play card games with my friends." During chemotherapy, playing cards is an appropriate diversional activity because it doesn't require a great deal of energy. To conserve energy, the client should avoid such activities as taking long trips, bowling, and eating in restaurants every day. However, the client may take occasional short trips and dine out on special occasions.
Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?
"I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation."
Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?
"I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." Explanation: The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client's family. The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.
The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which is the best statement the nurse can make about the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced alopecia?
"The hair loss is temporary." Explanation: Alopecia associated with chemotherapy is usually temporary and will return after the therapy is completed. New hair growth may return unchanged, but there is no guarantee and color, texture, and quality of hair may be changed. There is no correlation between chemotherapy and delay in greying of hair. Use of wigs, scarves, and head coverings can be used by clients at any time during treatment plan.
A patient is scheduled for cryosurgery for cervical cancer and tells the nurse, "I am not exactly sure what the doctor is going to do." What is the best response by the nurse?
"The physician is going to use liquid nitrogen to freeze the area."
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?
Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered
Which type of vaccine uses the patient's own cancer cells that are prepared for injection back into the patient? a) Prophylactic b) Autologous c) Therapeutic d) Allogeneic
Autologous Autologous vaccines are made from the patient's own cancer cells, which are obtained during diagnostic biopsy or surgery. Prophylactic vaccines, such as polio vaccine, are given to prevent people from developing a disease. Therapeutic vaccines are given to kill existing cancer cells and to provide long-lasting immunity against further cancer development. Allogeneic vaccines are made from cancer cells that are obtained from other people who have a specific type of cancer.
Which type of vaccine uses the patient's own cancer cells that are prepared for injection back into the patient?
Autologous Explanation: Autologous vaccines are made from the patient's own cancer cells, which are obtained during diagnostic biopsy or surgery. Prophylactic vaccines, such as polio vaccine, are given to prevent people from developing a disease. Therapeutic vaccines are given to kill existing cancer cells and to provide long-lasting immunity against further cancer development. Allogeneic vaccines are made from cancer cells that are obtained from other people who have a specific type of cancer.
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure?
Blood studies
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure? a) Family history b) Blood studies c) Allergy history d) Drug history
Blood studies
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a bone marrow transplant (BMT) procedure?
Blood studies Explanation: Before the BMT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the patient's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past antigen exposure, such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before a BMT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate patient's family, drug, or allergy history.
Which of the following does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure?
Blood studies Explanation: Before the HSCT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the patient's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past antigen exposure, such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before an HSCT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate patient's family, drug, or allergy history. (less)
The nurse is providing education to a patient with cancer radiation treatment options. The nurse determines that the patient understands when he or she states that which of the following types of radiation is aimed at protecting healthy tissue during the treatment? a) External b) Brachytherapy c) Teletherapy d) Proton therapy
Brachytherapy Explanation: In internal radiation, or brachytherapy, a dose of radiation is delivered to a localized area inside the body by use of an implant. With this type of therapy, the further the tissue is from the radiation source, the lower the dose. This helps to protect normal tissue from the radiation therapy
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean? a) No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis b) Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis c) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis d) Can't assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis
Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3. Primary Tumor (T) TX: Primary tumor cannot be evaluated T0: No evidence of primary tumor Tis: Carcinoma in situ (CIS; abnormal cells are present but have not spread to neighboring tissue; although not cancer, CIS may become cancer and is sometimes called preinvasive cancer) T1, T2, T3, T4: Size and/or extent of the primary tumor Regional Lymph Nodes (N) NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated N0: No regional lymph node involvement N1, N2, N3: Degree of regional lymph node involvement (number and location of lymph nodes) Distant Metastasis (M) MX: Distant metastasis cannot be evaluated M0: No distant metastasis M1: Distant metastasis is present
Which of the following occurs when there is accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that compresses the heart? a) Cardiac tamponade b) SIADH c) DIC d) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome (SVCS)
Cardiac tamponade
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of chemotherapy regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects? a) It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only. b) It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis. c) It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only. d) It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which nursing action is most appropriate for handling chemotherapeutic agents? a) Throw I.V. tubing in the trash after the infusion is stopped. b) Disconnect I.V. tubing with gloved hands. c) Wear disposable gloves and protective clothing. d) Break needles after the infusion is discontinued.
Wear disposable gloves and protective clothing. A nurse must wear disposable gloves and protective clothing to prevent skin contact with chemotherapeutic agents. The nurse shouldn't recap or break needles. The nurse should use a sterile gauze pad when priming I.V. tubing, connecting and disconnecting tubing, inserting syringes into vials, breaking glass ampules, or other procedures in which chemotherapeutic agents are being handled. Contaminated needles, syringes, I.V. tubes, and other equipment must be disposed of in a leak-proof, puncture-resistant container.
Which of the following would be inconsistent as a common side effect of chemotherapy?
Weight gain Common side effects seen with chemotherapy include myelosuppression (is the decrease in production of cells responsible for providing immunity (leukocytes), carrying oxygen (erythrocytes), and/or those responsible for normal blood clotting (thrombocytes).), alopecia, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue.
Which of the following is a sign or symptoms of septic shock?
altered mental status
While doing a health history, a client tells you that her mother, grandmother, and sister died of cancer. The client wants to know what she can do to keep from getting cancer. What would be your best response?
"You can't prevent cancer, but you can have your blood analyzed for tumor markers to see what your risk level is."
While doing a health history, a client tells you that her mother, grandmother, and sister died of cancer. The client wants to know what she can do to keep from getting cancer. What would be your best response? a) "With your family history, there is nothing you can do to prevent getting cancer." b) "Cancer often skips a generation, so don't worry about it." c) "If you eat right, exercise, and get enough rest, you can prevent breast cancer." d) "You can't prevent cancer, but you can have your blood analyzed for tumor markers to see what your risk level is."
"You can't prevent cancer, but you can have your blood analyzed for tumor markers to see what your risk level is." Specialized tests have been developed for tumor markers, specific proteins, antigens, hormones, genes, or enzymes that cancer cells release. Options B and C are incorrect, and giving the client these responses would be giving inaccurate information. Options D is incorrect because it minimizes and negates the clients concern.
A young female client has received chemotherapeutic medications and asks about any effects the treatments will have related to her sexual health. The most appropriate statement by the nurse is
"You will need to practice birth control measures." Explanation: Following chemotherapy female clients may experience normal ovulation, early menopause, or permanent sterility. Clients are advised to use reliable methods of birth control until reproductivity is known.
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention? a) Withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours after chemotherapy administration b) Serving small portions of bland food c) Encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises d) Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as ordered
Administering metoclopramide (Reglan) and dexamethasone (Decadron) as ordered The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy. Serving small portions of bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours are less likely to achieve this outcome.
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?
Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered Explanation: The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy.
Which of the following is a sign or symptoms of septic shock?
Altered mental status Explanation: Signs of septic shock include altered mental status, cool and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
Which of the following is a sign or symptoms of septic shock?
Altered mental status Explanation: Signs of septic shock include altered mental status, cool and clammy skin, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
Which of the following is a term used to describe the process by which a new blood supply is formed? a) Apoptosis b) Angiogenesis c) Carcinogenesis d) Mitosis
Angiogenesis Angiogenesis is the process by which a new blood supply is formed. Apoptosis is the innate cellular process of programmed cell death. Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which cell division occurs. Carcinogenesis is the process by which cancer arises.
A client diagnosed with cancer has his tumor staged and graded based on what factors?
How they tend to grow and the cell type
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this client?
Anticipatory grieving
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this client? a) Disturbed body image b) Chronic low self-esteem c) Anticipatory grieving d) Impaired swallowing
Anticipatory grieving
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this client?
Anticipatory grieving Explanation: Anticipatory grieving is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client because few clients with gallbladder cancer live more than 1 year after diagnosis. Impaired swallowing isn't associated with gallbladder cancer. Although surgery typically is done to remove the gallbladder and, possibly, a section of the liver, it isn't disfiguring and doesn't cause Disturbed body image. Chronic low self-esteem isn't an appropriate nursing diagnosis at this time because the diagnosis has just been made.
5-Fluorouracil (5FU) is classified as which type of antineoplastic agent? a) Nitrosoureas b) Mitotic spindle poisons c) Antimetabolite d) Alkylating
Antimetabolite
The nurse is evaluating bloodwork results of a patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy. The patient's platelet count is 60,000/mm3. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action? a) Taking patient's temperature rectally b) Providing patient with a razor to shave c) Avoiding use of products containing aspirin d) Providing commercial mouthwash to patient
Avoiding use of products containing aspirin Patients with a platelet count of 60,000/mm3 are at mild risk for bleeding. Appropriate nursing interventions include avoiding use of products such as aspirin that may interfere with the patient's clotting systems; avoiding taking temperature rectally and administering suppositories; providing patient with an electric shaver for shaving; and avoiding commercial mouthwashes due to their potential to dry out oral mucosa, which can lead to cracking and bleeding.
A nurse is teaching a community class about how to decrease the risk of cancer. Which food should the nurse recommend?
Oranges Explanation: A diet high in vitamin C and citrus may help reduce the risk of certain cancers, such as stomach and esophageal cancers. Hot dogs and smoked and cured foods are high in nitrates, which may be linked to esophageal and gastric cancers. Steak is a high-fat food that may increase the risk of breast, colon, and prostate cancers. (less)
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?
Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Explanation: TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.
Which of the following occurs when there is accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that compresses the heart? a) Cardiac tamponade b) DIC c) SIADH d) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome (SVCS)
Cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. SVCS occurs when there is a compression or invasion of the superior vena cava by a tumor, enlarged lymph nodes, intraluminal thrombosis that obstructs venous circulation, or drainage of the head, neck, arms, and thorax. SIADH is the continuous, uncontrolled release of ADH. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation or fibrinolysis which results in thrombosis or bleeding.
Which of the following occurs when there is accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that compresses the heart?
Cardiac tamponade Explanation: Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. SVCS occurs when there is a compression or invasion of the superior vena cava by a tumor, enlarged lymph nodes, intraluminal thrombosis that obstructs venous circulation, or drainage of the head, neck, arms, and thorax. SIADH is the continuous, uncontrolled release of ADH. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation or fibrinolysis which results in thrombosis or bleeding.
Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth?
Control Explanation: The range of possible treatment goals may include complete eradication of malignant disease (cure), prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth (control), or relief of symptoms associated with the disease (palliation).
Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth? a) Palliation b) Control c) Cure d) Prevention
Control The range of possible treatment goals may include complete eradication of malignant disease (cure), prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth (control), or relief of symptoms associated with the disease (palliation). Prevention is not a treatment goal when the patient has already been diagnosed with cancer. Prevention of metastasis to a secondary site may be a goal.
Which of the following is a type of procedure that uses liquid nitrogen to freeze tissue that causes cell destruction?
Cryoablation Explanation: Cryoablation uses liquid nitrogen or a very cold probe to freeze tissue to cause cell destruction. Electrosurgery, chemosurgery, and laser surgery do not use liquid nitrogen to freeze tissue.
While administering cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) to a client, the nurse assesses swelling at the insertion site. The first action of the nurse is to
Discontinue the intravenous medication.
While administering cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) to a client, the nurse assesses swelling at the insertion site. The first action of the nurse is to a) Administer a neutralizing solution. b) Discontinue the intravenous medication. c) Apply a warm compress. d) Aspirate as much of the fluid as possible.
Discontinue the intravenous medication. If extravasation of a chemotherapeutic medication is suspected, the nurse immediately stops the medication. Depending on the drug, the nurse may then attempt to aspirate any remaining drug, apply a warm or cold compress, administer a neutralizing solution, or all these measures.
You are an oncology nurse caring for a client who tells you that their tastes have changed. They go on to say that "meat tastes bad". What is a nursing intervention to increase protein intake for a client with taste changes?
Encourage cheese and sandwiches. Explanation: The nurse encourages the clients with taste changes to eat cheese and sandwiches. The nurse advises the client to drink protein beverages.
What intervention should the nurse provide to reduce the incidence of renal damage when a patient is taking a chemotherapy regimen?
Encourage fluid intake to dilute the urine. Explanation: The nurse should ensure adequate fluid hydration before, during, and after drug administration and assess intake and output. Adequate fluid volume dilutes drug levels, which can help prevent renal damage.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin through a peripheral I.V. line when the client complains of burning at the insertion site. The nurse notes no blood return from the catheter and redness at the I.V. site. The client is most likely experiencing which complication?
Extravasation Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of extravasation, which occurs when the medication leaks into the surrounding tissues and causes swelling, burning, or pain at the injection site. Erythema is redness of the skin that results from skin irritation. Flare is a spreading of redness that occurs as a result of drawing a pointed instrument across the skin. Thrombosis is the formation of clot within the vascular system.
You are the nurse caring for a client with cancer. The client complains of pain and nausea. When assessed, you note that the client appears fearful. What other factor must you consider when a client with cancer indicates signs of pain, nausea, and fear?
Fatigue Explanation: Clients with cancer experience fatigue, which is a side effect of cancer treatments that rest fails to relieve. The nurse must assess the client for other stressors that contribute to fatigue such as pain, nausea, fear, and lack of adequate support. The nurse works with other healthcare team members to treat the client's fatigue. The above indications do not contribute to infections, ulcerations, or high cholesterol levels.
The nurse is caring for a thyroid cancer client following oral radioactive iodine treatment. Which teaching point is most important? a) Use disposable utensils for the next month. b) Prepare food separately from family members. c) Shield your throat area when near others. d) Flush the toilet twice after every use.
Flush the toilet twice after every use.
The nurse is working with a patient who has had an allohematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) and notices a diffuse rash and diarrhea. The nurse contacts the physician to report that the patient has symptoms of which of the following?
Graft-versus-host disease Explanation: Graft-versus-host disease is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have had allogeneic transplant. Clinical manifestation of the disease include diffuse rash that progresses to blistering and desquamation, and mucosal inflammation of the eyes and the entire GI tract with subsequent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly
The nurse is working with a patient who has had an allohematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) and notices a diffuse rash and diarrhea. The nurse contacts the physician to report that the patient has symptoms of which of the following? a) Nadir b) Graft-versus-host disease c) Acute leukopenia d) Metastasis
Graft-versus-host disease Graft-versus-host disease is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have had allogeneic transplant. Clinical manifestation of the disease include diffuse rash that progresses to blistering and desquamation, and mucosal inflammation of the eyes and the entire GI tract with subsequent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly.
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
Indigestion Explanation: Indigestion is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. The other six are a change in bowel or bladder habits, a sore that does not heal, unusual bleeding or discharge, a thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere, an obvious change in a wart or mole, and a nagging cough or hoarseness. Persistent nausea may signal stomach cancer but isn't one of the seven major warning signs. Rash and chronic ache or pain seldom indicate cancer. (less)
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the care plan?
Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift Explanation: Because thrombocytopenia impairs blood clotting, the nurse should inspect the client regularly for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, and bleeding gums. The nurse should avoid administering aspirin because it may increase the risk of bleeding. Frequent rest periods are indicated for clients with anemia, not thrombocytopenia. Strict isolation is indicated only for clients who have highly contagious or virulent infections that are spread by air or physical contact.
What does the nurse understand is the rationale for administering allopurinol for a patient receiving chemotherapy?
It lowers serum and uric acid levels. Explanation: Adequate hydration, diuresis, alkalinization of the acid crystals, and administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim) may be used to prevent renal toxicity.
The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing an incisional biopsy. Which of the following statements does the nurse understand is true about an incisional biopsy?
It removes a wedge of tissue for diagnosis.
A decrease in circulating white blood cells (WBC) is referred to as which of the following?
Leukopenia Explanation: A decrease in circulating WBCs is referred to as leukopenia. Granulocytopenia is a decrease in neutrophils. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in the number of platelets. Neutropenia is an abnormally low absolute neutrophil count (ANC).
Which of the following is a growth-based classification of tumors? a) Leukemia b) Carcinoma c) Sarcoma d) Malignant
Malignant Explanation: Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias. Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant.
A patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer underwent surgery for removal of a malignant tumor in his pancreas. Despite the tumor being removed, the physician informs the patient that he needs to start chemotherapy. Which of the following may be a reason for the physician to opt for chemotherapy?
Metastasis
Cancer has many characteristics. What is one of the most discouraging characteristics of cancer?
Metastasis Explanation: Metastasis is one of cancer's most discouraging characteristics because even one malignant cell can give rise to a metastatic lesion in a distant part of the body. Not all cancerous tumors are large in size. Carcinogenesis is the process of malignant transformation and it is not a characteristic of cancer. Cancer grows rapidly, not slowly.
In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur? a) Mitosis b) S phase c) G1 phase d) G2 phase
Mitosis Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase.
In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur? a) G1 phase b) S phase c) Mitosis d) G2 phase
Mitosis Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase.
The nurse working on a bone marrow unit knows that it is a priority to monitor which of the following in a client who has just undergone a stem cell transplant? a) Monitor the client closely to prevent infection. b) Monitor the client's physical condition. c) Monitor the client's heart rate. d) Monitor the client's toilet patterns.
Monitor the client closely to prevent infection. Until transplanted stem cells begin to produce blood cells, these clients have no physiologic means to fight infection, which makes them very prone to infection. They are at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent infection. Monitoring client's toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client getting an infection.
The nurse working on a bone marrow unit knows that it is a priority to monitor which of the following in a client who has just undergone a stem cell transplant?
Monitor the client closely to prevent infection. Explanation: Until transplanted stem cells begin to produce blood cells, these clients have no physiologic means to fight infection, which makes them very prone to infection. They are at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent infection.
According to the TNM classification system, T0 means there is a) no distant metastasis. b) no regional lymph node metastasis. c) distant metastasis. d) no evidence of primary tumor.
No evidence of primary tumor
The nurse at the clinic explains to the patient that the surgeon will be removing a mole on the patient's back that has the potential to develop into cancer. The nurse informs the patient that this is what type of procedure?
Prophylactic Explanation: Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk of developing cancer. When surgical cure is not possible, the goals of surgical interventions are to relieve symptoms, make the patient as comfortable as possible, and promote quality of life as defined by the patient and family. Palliative surgery and other interventions are performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusions (Table 15-6). Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Diagnostic surgery, or biopsy, is performed to obtain a tissue sample for histologic analysis of cells suspected to be malignant.
You are a clinic nurse. One of your clients has found she is at high risk for breast cancer. She asks you what can be done to reduce her risk. What is a means of reducing the risk for breast cancer?
Prophylactic surgery Explanation: Prophylactic or preventive surgery may be done if the client is at considerable risk for cancer. Palliative surgery is done when no curative treatment is available. Curative surgery is performed to cure the disease process.
When the client complains of increased fatigue following radiotherapy, the nurse knows this is most likely to be related to which factor?
Radiation can result in myelosuppression. Explanation: Fatigue results from anemia associated with myelo suppression and decreased RBC production. The spreading of cancer can cause many symptoms dependent on location and type of cancer but not a significant factor to support fatigue with radiotherapy. The production of healthy cells can increase metabolic rate, but death of cancer cells does not support fatigue in this case. Fighting infection can cause fatigue, but there is no evidence provided to support presence of infection in this client.
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a chemotherapy-induced complication? a) Serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L b) Sodium level of 142 mEq/L c) Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg d) Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
Serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting, which may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Signs of fluid loss include a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L, decreased urine output (less than 40 ml/hour), and abnormally low blood pressure. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours, serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L, and a blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg aren't abnormal findings.
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a chemotherapy-induced complication?
Serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L Explanation: Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting, which may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Signs of fluid loss include a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L, decreased urine output (less than 40 ml/hour), and abnormally low blood pressure. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours, serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L, and a blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg aren't abnormal findings.
What should the nurse tell a female client who is about to begin chemotherapy and anxious about losing her hair?
She should consider getting a wig or cap before she loses her hair
What should the nurse tell a female client who is about to begin chemotherapy and anxious about losing her hair?
She should consider getting a wig or cap before she loses her hair. Explanation: If hair loss is anticipated, purchase a wig, cap, or scarf before therapy begins. Alopecia develops because chemotherapy affects rapidly growing cells of the hair follicles. Hair usually begins to grow again within 4 to 6 months after therapy. Clients should know that new growth may have a slightly different color and textures
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment finding places the client at the greatest risk for an infection?
Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel Explanation: A stage 3 pressure ulcer is a break in the skin's protective barrier, which could lead to infection in a client who is receiving chemotherapy. A client who is malnourished is at a greater risk for infection.
A patient with brain tumor is undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. Of late, the patient is complaining of swelling in the gums, tongue, and lips. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Stomatitis Explanation: The symptoms of swelling in gums, tongue, and lips indicate stomatitis. This usually occurs 5 to10 days after the administration of certain chemotherapeutic agents or radiation therapy to the head and neck. Chemotherapy and radiation produce chemical toxins that lead to the breakdown of cells in the mucosa of the epithelium, connective tissue, and blood vessels in the oral cavity.
A nurse is administering a chemotherapeutic medication to a client, who reports generalized itching and then chest tightness and shortness of breath. The nurse immediately
Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion Explanation: The client may be experiencing a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which may progress to systemic anaphylaxis. The most immediate action of the nurse is to discontinue the medication followed by initiating emergency protocols
A decrease in circulating white blood cells is
leukopenia
A decrease in circulating white blood cells is a) granulocytopenia. b) leukopenia. c) neutropenia. d) thrombocytopenia.
leukopenia.
A decrease in circulating white blood cells is
leukopenia. Explanation: A decrease in circulating WBCs is referred to as leukopenia. Granulocytopenia is a decrease in neutrophils. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in the number of platelets. Neutropenia is an abnormally low ANC.
A serum sodium level lower than 110 mEq/L is associated with a) seizure. b) weight gain. c) myalgia. d) anorexia,
seizure. Correct Explanation: Serum sodium levels lower than 110 mEq/L is associated with seizures, abnormal reflexes, papilledema, coma, and death. Anorexia, weight gain, and myalgia are associated with serum sodium levels lower than 120 mEq/L.
A patient, age 67 years, is admitted for diagnostic studies to rule out cancer. The patient is Caucasian, married, has been employed as a landscaper for 40 years, and has a 36-year history of smoking a pack of cigarettes daily. What significant risk factors does the nurse recognize this patient has? (Select all that apply.)
• Age • Cigarette smoking • Occupation
The nurse is preparing to assess a patient whose chart documents that the patient experienced extravasation when receiving the vesicant Vincristine on the previous shift. The documentation also notes that an antidote was administered immediately. The nurse prepares to assess for which of the following? Select all that apply. a) Tissue necrosis b) Sloughing tissue c) Effectiveness of antidote d) Active bleeding
• Sloughing tissue • Tissue necrosis • Effectiveness of antidote