Micro Exam 2

Select all of the factors that can affect a person's susceptibility to TB to test your understanding of the epidemiology of tuberculosis infection. a. Presence of mosquito vectorPresence of mosquito vector b. Inadequate nutritionInadequate nutrition c. Poor access to medical carePoor access to medical care d. Crowded living conditionsCrowded living conditions e. Compromised immune system

a, b, c, d

Select the typical symptoms that are present in cases of meningitis, regardless of the causative agent. a. Fever b. Headache c. Painful or stiff neck d. Usually decreased numbers of white blood cells in the CNS e. Mild skin rash

a, b, c, d

Select all of the statements that apply to the disease diphtheria to test your understanding of upper respiratory diseases caused by microorganisms. a. A characteristic pseudomembrane forms on the tonsils and in the pharynx. b. Pathogenesis is due to the production of an endotoxin. c. Disease can be prevented by use of a toxoid containing vaccine. d. No vaccine is available. e. Toxin can enter bloodstream and cause myocarditis and neuritis.

a, c, d

The latency period of syphilis can last up to ________. a. 20 years or more b. 10 years c. Syphilis is never a latent infection. d. 1 year e. 3 to 6 months

a. 20 years or more

Tuberculin skin testing ________. a. All of the choices are correct b. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. will be positive if the person has active TB d. will be positive if the person has had previous exposure to TB e. injects PPD intradermally

a. All of the choices are correct

Superantigens ________. a. All of the choices are correct. b. can initiate a cascade of immune responses c. include streptolysin O d. include erythrogenic toxin e. induce production of tumor necrosis factor

a. All of the choices are correct.

Staphylococcus aureus is part of the differential diagnosis of which of the following diseases? a. Impetigo b. Maculopapular rash c. Both of these skin conditions d. Neither of these skin conditions

a. Impetigo

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? a. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining b. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours c. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, and processed meats d. Food gets contaminated by a human carrier e. Symptoms come on quickly and include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

a. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with ________. a. Lyme disease b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. Q fever d. yellow fever e. plague

a. Lyme disease

Choose the microorganism that is the causative agent of the most serious acute form of bacterial meningitis to test your understanding of this disease. a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

a. Neisseria meningitidis

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? a. Secondary b. Primary c. Latent d. All of the choices are correct. e. Tertiary

a. Secondary

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ________. a. acne b. furuncles and carbuncles c. scalded skin syndrome d. meningitis e. impetigo

a. acne

The term that refers to flagella at both poles is _____ a. amphitrichous b. monotrichous c. peritrichous d. lophotrichous e. atrichous

a. amphitrichous

Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ________. a. close contact b. casual contact c. fomites d. indirect contact e. intimate contact

a. close contact

Lipopolysaccharide is a major component of gram-negative outer membranes, can stimulate shock and fever, and is also referred to as _________. a. endotoxin b. exotoxin c. peptidoglycan d. teichoic acid

a. endotoxin

Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the ________. a. eustachian (auditory) tubes b. nasal cavity c. auditory canal d. subarachnoid space e. sinuses

a. eustachian (auditory) tubes

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is ________. a. exfoliative toxin b. toxic shock syndrome toxin c. hemolysin d. enterotoxin e. erythrogenic toxin

a. exfoliative toxin

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all of the following except ________. a. it is viral in origin b. it can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain c. a purulent exudate over the tonsils d. it can lead to serious sequelae e. it causes difficulty in swallowing and fever

a. it is viral in origin

The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of ________. a. mononuclear cells b. polymorphonuclear leukocytes c. basophils d. antibodies e. neutrophils

a. mononuclear cells

In anthrax, Bacillus anthracis gains access to the bloodstream where it multiplies in large numbers resulting in death from an overwhelming ________. a. septicemia b. viremia c. skin infection d. state of dehydration

a. septicemia

The rash of secondary syphilis ________. a. usually disappears spontaneously after a few weeks b. causes severe itching c. only lasts a few days d. appears within 1 to 2 days of infection e. is intensely painful

a. usually disappears spontaneously after a few weeks

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is ________. a. water and electrolyte replacement b. None of the choices are correct. c. antitoxin d. antimicrobials e. surgery

a. water and electrolyte replacement

What structures are found in a gram-positive cell envelope? a. Thick layer of peptidoglycan b. Outer membrane c. Cell membrane d. Teichoic acids e. Lipopolysaccharide f. Lipoteichoic acids g. Thin layer of peptidoglycan

b, c, d, e

Helicobacter pylori causes ________. a. duodenal ulcers b. All of the choices are correct c. stomach ulcers d. gastritis e. increased risk for stomach cancer

b. All of the choices are correct

Salmonelloses are a. not caused by Salmonella typhi. b. All of the choices are correct c. treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement d. types of gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea

b. All of the choices are correct

symptoms of Cholera include ________. a. loss of blood volume b. All of the choices are correct c. copious watery diarrhea d. hypotension, tachycardia, and shock e. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst

b. All of the choices are correct

Extrapulmonary TB can involve the ________. a. brain b. All of the choices are correct. c. long bones d. kidneys e. spine

b. All of the choices are correct.

Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized by white blood cells? a. Slime layer b. Capsule c. Cell membrane d. All of the choices are correct. e. Fimbriae

b. Capsule

Which of the following organisms is most problematic with respect to the resistance to antibiotics? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Bordetella pertussis

b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which of the following is not true of cellulitis? a. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes b. Occurs in the epidermis c. Lymphangitis may occur d. Treated with cephalexin e. Causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth

b. Occurs in the epidermis

Choose the phrase that best describes septicemia. a. Occurs when bacterial toxins are found in the blood b. Occurs when microorganisms are actively multiplying in the blood c. Occurs when microorganisms are present in the blood d. Occurs when phagocytic cells release microbe debris into the blood

b. Occurs when microorganisms are actively multiplying in the blood

Which is not true of Clostridium difficile? a. Infection precipitated by broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy b. Produces "rice-water" stools c. Part of normal intestinal biota d. Also called pseudomembranous colitis e. A gram-positive, endospore forming rod

b. Produces "rice-water" stools

The most common causative agent of otitis media is ________. a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Corynebacterium d. Haemophilus influenzae e. Candida albicans

b. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Endospores are ________ a. resistant to heat and chemical destruction b. all of the choices are correct c. metabolically inactive d. resistant to destruction by radiation

b. all of the choices are correct

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is ________. a. an endotoxin b. an exotoxin c. its capsules d. endospores e. metachromatic granules

b. an exotoxin

Plasmids ________. a. are essential for growth and metabolism b. are often the site of pathogenic genes c. cannot be passed between organisms d. are found in all bacteria e. cannot be passed on to progeny

b. are often the site of pathogenic genes

The two functions of bacterial appendages are ________ a. motility and slime production b. attachment and motility c. attachment and protection d. energy reactions and synthesis

b. attachment and motility

The site(s) for most ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is(are) the _____. a. ribosomes b. cell membrane c. cell wall d. mitochondria e. inclusions

b. cell membrane

If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ________. a. endospore b. cell wall c. slime layer d. capsule e. cell membrane

b. cell wall

The movement of bacteria toward or away from a chemical stimulus is _________. a. monotrichous b. chemotaxis c. phototaxis d. peritrichous

b. chemotaxis

The chancre of syphilis ________. a. All of the choices are correct. b. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated, central crater c. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries d. is very painful e. occurs during the tertiary stage

b. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated, central crater

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in ________. a. SARS b. diphtheria c. tuberculosis d. pertussis e. pharyngitis

b. diphtheria

The secondary stage of syphilis ________. a. is when gummas develop in tissues b. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood c. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage d. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others e. has no symptoms

b. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it ________. a. is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals b. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies c. often has an endogenous source d. is a colitis that is a superinfection e. is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials

b. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked

The term that refers to the presence of flagella over the cell surface is _____. a. lophotrichous b. peritrichous c. amphitrichous d. atrichous e. monotrichous

b. peritrichous

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except ________. a. rheumatic fever b. pertussis c. erythrogenic rash d. glomerulonephritis e. scarlet fever

b. pertussis

MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are ________. a. related to Streptococcus pyogenes b. resistant to penicillin derivatives c. responsive to mupirocin d. resistant to mupirocin e. responsive to penicillin derivatives

b. resistant to penicillin derivatives

The beta-hemolysis of blood agar observed with Streptococcus pyogenes is due to the presence of _______. a. M protein b. streptolysin c. hyaluronic acid d. capsule

b. streptolysin

Bacterial endospores usually function in ______. a. storage b. survival c. reproduction d. metabolism of nutrients

b. survival

Choose the statement that best describes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. a. Bacteria spread, causing necrotic damage of the tissues and gas production. b. It is caused by microbial digestion of excess sebum trapped in the pores of the skin. c. It is an exotoxin-mediated disease that can be compared to a systemic form of impetigo. d. It presents as a generalized pustular rash.

c. It is an exotoxin-mediated disease that can be compared to a systemic form of impetigo.

The predominant causative organism of dental caries seem to be ________. a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus mutans d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Streptococcus pyogenes

c. Streptococcus mutans

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? a. Latent b. Primary c. Tertiary d. All of the choices are correct. e. Secondary

c. Tertiary

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever are due to ________. a. toxic shock syndrome toxin b. exfoliative toxin c. erythrogenic toxin d. enterotoxins e. hemolysins

c. erythrogenic toxin

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of _____________ a. gram-positive bacteria b. mycoplasmas c. gram-negative bacteria d. protoplasts e. acid-fast bacteria

c. gram-negative bacteria

Lysozyme is most effective against _____. a. cyanobacteria b. mycoplasmas c. gram-positive organisms d. gram-negative organisms e. archaea

c. gram-positive organisms

Syphilitic lesions called _______ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis. a. nodules b. None of the choices are correct. c. gummas d. chancres e. ulcers

c. gummas

The enzyme _______, found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls. a. None of the choices are correct. b. All of the choices are correct. c. lysozyme d. peptidase e. penicillinase

c. lysozyme

When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue. a. granuloma b. tertiary c. necrotic caseous d. primary e. secondary

c. necrotic caseous

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except it ________. a. has a reservoir of cattle intestines b. is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger c. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals d. in some cases goes on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure e. causes a bloody diarrhea

c. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except ________. a. scarlet fever b. impetigo c. scalded skin syndrome d. necrotizing fasciitis

c. scalded skin syndrome

If you looked at a _______ under the microscope, you would likely see an irregular cluster of spherical cells. a. palisade b. diplococcus c. staphylococcus d. streptococcus e. sarcina

c. staphylococcus

A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a(an) _____. a. sarcina b. staphylobacillus c. streptobacillus d. staphylococcus e. streptococcus

c. streptobacillus

Pertussis has the following characteristics except ________. a. transmission is by droplet contact b. the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing c. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops" d. DTaP immunization will prevent it e. the disease progresses through several distinct stages

c. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"

If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ________.

cell wall

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ________. a. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum b. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA c. the cause of gonorrhea d. All of the choices are correct e. called the gonococcus

d. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following is the current effective treatment for syphilis? a. Ampicillin b. Malaria c. Mercury d. Penicillin G e. Arsenic

d. Penicillin G

Which structure plays a direct role in the exchange of genetic material between bacterial cells? a. Flagellum b. Capsule c. Fimbria d. Pilus

d. Pilus

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of ________. a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus pyogenes

d. Staphylococcus aureus

Choose the microorganism that is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults to test your understanding of this disease. a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Choose the component that provides for a stronger cell wall structure in gram-positive cells as compared to gram-negative cells. a. Lipopolysaccharide b. Outer membrane c. Teichoic acids d. Thick peptidoglycan layer e. Porin proteins

d. Thick peptidoglycan layer

"Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism? a. Vibrio parahaemolyticus b. Vibrio vulnificus c. Helicobacter pylori d. Vibrio cholerae e. Campylobacter jejuni

d. Vibrio cholerae

The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is that they ________. a. contain lipopolysaccharide b. All of the choices are correct. c. contain more peptidoglycan d. have a predominance of unique, waxy lipids e. are easily decolorized

d. have a predominance of unique, waxy lipids

The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from the same site is _____. a. atrichous b. amphitrichous c. peritrichous d. lophotrichous e. monotrichous

d. lophotrichous

The presence of variation in the size and shape of bacterial cells of the same species is known as _______. a. sarcina b. pseudomorphology c. chemotaxis d. pleomorphism

d. pleomorphism

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's _____. a.flagella b. inclusions c. ribosomes d. wall e. membrane

d. wall

Which of the following statements describes the main virulence factor of E. coli O157:H7? a. An endotoxin used for host attachment b. A pathogen-encoded exotoxin c. A hemolysin for red blood cell destruction d. A coagulase for host clotting e. A bacteriophage-encoded exotoxin

e. A bacteriophage-encoded exotoxin

Characteristics of Treponema pallidum a. has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium b. has humans as the reservoir c. is transmitted by direct sexual contact d. can cross the placenta e. All of the choices are correct

e. All of the choices are correct

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a(n) ________. a. tuberculin skin test b. chest X-ray c. sputum culture d. acid-fast stain of sputum e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

Escherichia coli infections ________. a. are often transmitted by fecal-contaminated water and food b. can be self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration c. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea d. have been due to undercooked meat e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

Bacillus anthracis exhibits characteristics that make it a model organism to be exploited as an agent of bioterrorism. Those characteristics include ________. a. the ability to produce a tripartite toxin and polypeptide capsule as virulence factors b. difficulty diagnosing and therefore treating because the manifestations mimic other, more common diseases c. the ability to infect and cause disease in several body systems including the lungs, cardiovascular system and gastrointestinal tract d. the ability to form endospores, allowing it to be stored for long periods of time without nutrients or water e. All of the choices reflect characteristics that make B. anthracis a candidate for bioterrorism.

e. All of the choices reflect characteristics that make B. anthracis a candidate for bioterrorism.

The causative organism of whooping cough is ________. a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Haemophilus influenzae e. Bordetella pertussis

e. Bordetella pertussis

Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo? a. Fomites b. Body fluids c. Mechanical vectors d. Blood e. Direct contact

e. Direct contact

Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxin? a. It can cause septic shock in the human body b. It can stimulate fever in the human body c. It is involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases d. It is a specific cell wall lipid e. It is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls

e. It is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls

Choose the substance or condition that triggers sporogenesis among endospore-forming bacteria. a. Lack of water b. Excess heat c. Presence of toxic chemicals d. Ultraviolet light exposure e. Nutrient depletion

e. Nutrient depletion

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? a. Can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate b. All of the choices are correct. c. Results in meningitis d. Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea e. Prevented by the DTaP immunization

e. Prevented by the DTaP immunization

Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)? a. Affects mostly newborns and babies b. Split in skin occurs within the epidermis c. An exotoxin-mediated disease d. Toxin causes bullous lesions e. Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis

e. Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis

Rheumatic fever is caused by ________. a. a secondary streptococcal infection with a different type of streptococcus b. a primary streptococcal infection with Streptococcus pyogenes c. a combination of infection with Streptococcus pyogenes and the rheumatic fever virus d. both a primary viral infection and a secondary streptococcal infection e. an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart

e. an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart

Gram-negative bacteria a. encompass all pathogens. b. are more susceptible to antibiotics that target peptidoglycan than gram-positive organisms. c. stain purple in the Gram stain. d. None of the choices is correct. e. are less susceptible to antibiotics that target peptidoglycan than gram-positive organisms.

e. are less susceptible to antibiotics that target peptidoglycan than gram-positive organisms.

Impetigo is caused by ________. a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Propionibacterium acnes e. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

e. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its ________. a. neurotoxin b. invasive enzymes c. capsule d. All of the choices are correct. e. enterotoxin

e. enterotoxin

The function of bacterial endospores is ________. a. storage of excess cell materials b. to act as sites for photosynthesis c. reproduction and growth d. to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants e. protection of genetic material during harsh conditions

e. protection of genetic material during harsh conditions

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be ________. a. material would not be able to cross the cell membrane b. destruction of the cell's DNA c. loss of the capsule d. formation of glycogen inclusions e. protein synthesis would stop

e. protein synthesis would stop

True or false: Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis, while harder to treat because some antibiotics are ineffective, has a similar prognosis and recovery rate compared to nonresistant tuberculosis.

false

Rheumatic fever

Due to an immunological cross reaction between the streptococcal M protein and heart muscle

True or false:

true

True or false: the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani blocks the inhibition of muscle contraction resulting in spastic paralysis.

true

Scarlet fever

Results from a Streptococcus pyogenes strain that is infected with a toxin-coding bacteriophage and is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash

glomerulonephritis

Results from streptococcal proteins forming immune complexes which are deposited on the basement membranes of the kidney

Psoriasis

Streptococcal toxins that act as superantigens and cause skin issues

Select all of the statements that apply to gonorrhea to test your understanding of genitourinary tract diseases characterized by discharge. It is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus. It is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus. Correct Infection can render both males and females sterile. Infection can render both males and females sterile. Correct It can result in eye and respiratory infections of neonates during birthing process. It can result in eye and respiratory infections of neonates during birthing process. Correct Penicillin is used for treatment. Penicillin is used for treatment. Correct Condoms are ineffective at reducing transmission. Condoms are ineffective at reducing transmission. Correct

all are correct

The main contributing factor to the evolution of MDR-TB is ________. a. the abundance of antibiotics available in the United States and other developed countries makes it a particular problem for resistant strains to emerge in those parts of the world b. the slow growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires antibiotic therapy for months rather than days, which is hard to sustain in some populations; cutting the regimen short allows the resistant bacteria to flourish c. the organisms that develop multidrug resistance have a different cell wall composition to the drug-susceptible organisms d. certain species of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to undergo bacterial transformation at a faster rate than other species, resulting in the transfer of resistance genes

b. the slow growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires antibiotic therapy for months rather than days, which is hard to sustain in some populations; cutting the regimen short allows the resistant bacteria to flourish

Select all of the sequelae associated with group B Streptococcus infections in infants. a. Meningitis b. Pneumonia c. Impaired senses d. Club feet or missing digits e. Developmental disabilities

c & e

What structures are found in a gram-negative cell envelope? a. Thick layer of peptidoglycan b. Outer membrane c. Cell membrane d. Teichoic acids e. Lipopolysaccharide f. Lipoteichoic acids g. Thin layer of peptidoglycan h. Periplasmic space

c, d, e, f

Lyme disease involves ________. a. treatment with antimicrobials b. people having contact with ticks c. All of the choices are correct d. crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems e. early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck

c. All of the choices are correct

Meningococcemia is ________. a. started from a nasopharyngeal infection b. best treated with ceftriaxone, penicillin or chloramphenicol c. All of the choices are correct d. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus e. associated with high fever, vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae

c. All of the choices are correct

The causative agent of Lyme disease is ________. a. Ixodes scapularis b. Leptospira interrogans c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Borrelia hermsii e. Ixodes pacificus

c. Borrelia burgdorferi

Which of the following is not true of whooping cough? a. Caused by a small gram-positive rod b. Incubation period is 3-21 days c. Coldlike symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage d. An uncontrollable cough occurs during the paroxysmal stage e. Secondary infections can occur during the convalescent phase

c. Coldlike symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage

Choose the bacterial appendage that enables bacteria to stick to one another, to inanimate surfaces, and to host cells. a. Cell wall b. Pili c. Fimbriae d. Axial filaments e. Flagella

c. Fimbriae

Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes? a. Group A streptococcus b. Gram positive c. Forms spores d. Beta hemolytic e. Sensitive to bacitracin

c. Forms spores