Micro Study Guide

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The hemolytic reactions of the viridans streptococci on blood agar are said to be? a) aplha b) beta c) gamma d) double zone e) sigma f) omega

The most common endogenous infection caused by opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae is: a) urinary tract infection b) pneumonia c) diarrheal disease d) meningitis

The optimal temperature for E. Coli growth is 37 degrees. They belong to: a. Mesophiles b. Psychrofiles - c. Hyperthermophiles d. Thermophiles

The term "non-fermentative Gram- rod" refers to: a) pseudomonas b) haemophilus c) egionella d) brucella

Toxic chock syndrome most often arises from the use of superabsorbent tampons and is caused by a superantigens produced by which organism? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. E. Coli

Treponema pallidum infections may be diagnosed: a) By darkfield microscopy b) By Gram staining method c) In artificial media d) In a cell structure

Helicobacter pylori: A. Is the presumed cause of colon cancer B. Is the cause of most cases of acute food poisoning in the U.S. C. Is the cause of about 90% of peptic ulcers in the U.S. D. Is urease negative

Infections caused by anaerobes are: A. Usually confined to the abdomen B. Never seen in the lung because of its excellent blood supply C. Mixed D. Rapidly progressive

Which of the following are obligate anaerobic? a)streptococcus pyogenes b)bacteroides fragilis c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis e) Staphylococcus aureus f) Enterococcus faecalis

Which of the following pathogens frequently cause skin and soft tissue infections? a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Legionella pneumophila c. staphylococcus aureus d. streptococcus viridans

Which of the following terms is related to fungal infections of the skin? a. folliculitis b. erysipelas c.tinea d. all listed

A 22 year old female graduate student who works in a day-care center comes to the emergency room where you are on duty. The woman complains of a sore throat, which she has had for two days, and it is not getting any better; further, in the last ten hours, the sore throat has been accompanied by a headache as well as nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination you note a BP of 90/65 and a respiratory rate of 30/min; the temperature is 104 degrees F. The neck is supple but there are tiny red spots distal to the BP cuff. Considering this patient is 39;s personal risk factors (her age) and her physical examination, it is clear that the most likely organism to be causing this patient's illness is: A. Brucella abortus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Brucella suis

c (yes, bc symptoms sounds like septicemia and also the fact that it firstly colonizes nasopharynx)

33. You are interested in the microbiology culture results on one of your patients and come to the microbiology laboratory to get an update. The microbiology lab supervisor tells you that your patient is growing gram positive bacilli from both blood cultures you drew and from a urine sample. He volunteers that he doesnt think you ought to worry since these results aren;t likely to be important. His rationale is: A. Gram positive bacilli are so rare that they arent likely to cause disease B. Gram positive bacilli do not cause urinary tract disease C. Gram positive bacilli are common contaminants so cultures growing them are not of much value D. Gram positive bacilli cause infections that patients usually resolve without antibiotic therapy, so there is no need to pursue this situation further

A 25 year old woman has a 4 year old son who is now recovering from Group A strep pharyngitis. Out of curiosity, the pediatrician does a throat culture on the mother which is positive for Group A strep even though she doesn& t have a sore throat. The pediatrician also does an ASO titer and anti DNAse B assay on her both of which are negative. At this point we would say that she: A. Has asymptomatic infection B. Has opportunistic infection C. Is a carrier D. Is immunosuppressed

All Enterobacteriaceae share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Ferment glucose B. Reduce nitrates to nitrites C. Oxidase positive D. Gram negative E. Rod-shaped (bacilli)

Which of the following structure of the bacteria is the least likely to act as the antigen? a. Envelope b. Lipopolysaccharide c. Pili d. Ribosomes

he normal habitats of nonfermentative bacteria include the following except: A. Contact lens solutions B. Hospital water sources C. House plants D. Reptiles

132. Which of the following serological tests is certainly quialitative? a. Tube agglutination b. Passive haemagglutination c. Slide agglutination d. All of them

A person who has a normal healthy immune system acquires a new strain of E. coli that now lives in his gastrointestinal tract. This individual is not ill. A second person with an acute leukemia and no white blood cells acquires the same organism, develops diarrhea followed by hypotension, bacteremia, sepsis, and death. This organism is: A. Normal flora for both individuals B. A pathogen for both individuals C. An opportunistic pathogen for both individuals D. One with a low degree of virulence

The given strain of Staphylococcus aureus is beta-lactamase positive. This indicates that the organism is resistant to which of the following antibodies? a. Trimethoprim-sulfamaethoxazole b. Erythromycin, clarithromycin c: Cefazolin and ceftriaxone d. Penicillin G

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR): A. Has been adapted for accurate quantification of viruses B. May yield false positive results when amplicons contaminate clinical samples C. Offers detection sensitivity which often but not always exceeds that of culture D. All of the above

Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A streptococci is called spreadingfactor,an enzyme important in skin and soft tissue infection? A. Streptokinase B. Hyaluronidase C. M Protein D. Deoxyribonuclease C E. None of the above

Which of the following is matched incorrectly? a. Biological transmission - transmission of a disease by an arthropod's bite b. Noncommunicable diseases - cannot be transferred from one host to another c. Index case - the first reported patient in a disease outbreak d. Index case - all reported patients in a disease outbreak

Fill up gaps in sentence with one word. Effective protection against tetanus can be obtained by immunization with Clostridium tetani_____________.

deactivated toxin

S. mutans is the primary cause of _______.

dental caries

Clostridium difficile infection causes what symptoms and is most frequently due to?

diarrhea caused by antibiotics

Fill up gaps in sentence with one word. The bacteria belong to Enterobacteriaceae family have __________ nutritional requirements. All species can ferment _________.

different glucose (some ferment lactose but not salmonella, shigella or pseudomonas aeruginosa)

The zone of bacterial inhibition can be observed in _________ ____________ method?

disc diffusion

What do Helicobacter pylori cause?

duodenal ulcers. (In a chronic infection the acidity will go up, forming gastritis leading to carcinoma. )

Which group of antibiotic should be excluded from consideration in therapy then MRSA strain is detected? a) b-lactams b chinolones c) aminoglycosides d) macrolides e) lincosamides f) non

Which of the following are characteristics that are shared by Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum? A. Both cause post-partum fever. B. Ampicillin would be a reasonable choice for treatment. C. Both organisms are identified by production of urease. D. Both stimulate production of cold agglutinins. E. Both organisms grow well on sheep blood agar.

Which of the following is an intracellular parasite? a. Rickettsia b. Mycobacterium c. Bacillas d. Staphylococcus

Which of the following is an intracellular parasite`? a) Rickettsia b) Mycobacterium c) Bacillus d) Staphylococcus e) Mycoplasma f) Corynebacterium

Which of the following is not a recognized route of transmission for HIV? a. Fecal-oral b. Male homosexual c. Mother to baby d. Heterosexual

Which of the following is not true about scientific nomenclature? a. Names vary with geographical location b. Each name consists of a genus and specific epithet c. Each name is specific d. It was first designet by Linnaeus.

Which of the following is transmitted by lice: A. Rickettsia prowazekii B. Rickettsia typhi ticks C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

Which of the following organisms causes neonatal sepsis? a. Group B streptococci b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Enterococcus faecalis d. Viridans streptococcus

Which of the following pairs is matched correctly? A) alpha hemolysis - viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus species - catalase positive C) Streptococcus pneumoniae - beta hemolysis D) Streptcoccus agalactiae - scarlet fever

Which of the following pairs is matched correctly? a. Alpha hemolysis viridians streptococci b. Streptococcus species catalase positive c. Streptococcus pneumoniaà beta hemolysis d. Streptococcus agalactiaeà scarlet fever

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Spirochete - Helicobacter b. Anaerobic endospore-forming Gram-positive rods - Clostridium c. Facultatively anaerobic Gram-negative rods - Escherichia d. Pleomorphic gram-positive rods - Corymebacterium

Which of the following statements about Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) is not correct? A. They are important causes of toxic strep syndrome. B. They are frequent colonizers of the female genital tract. C. Screening for this pathogen during pregnancy has reduced the incidence of neonatal sepsis. D. These organisms are b-hemolytic. E. They are important causes of urinary tract infections and bacteremia in elderly and diabetic adults.

Which of the following components of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is used for skin testing? a. cord factor b. mycolic acid c. purified protein derivative (PPD) d. Wax D e. none of the above

Which of the following organisms produces a potent toxin most similar to shiga toxin? a. Salmonella typhi b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Escherichia coli O157:H7 d. Clostridium perfingens e. Enterococcus faecalis

The following statements are clearly true about enteroviruses EXCEPT: A. There are many serotypes B. They can cause a variety of diseases which imitate bacterial infection C. They are an important cause of meningitis D. They are an important cause of diarrhea

The infection most often associated with Cryptococcus neoformans is: A. Septic arthritis B. Sinusitis C. Pneumonia D. Meningitis

The main purpose of performing a throat culture is to detect the presence of: a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Streptococcus pyogenes

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: a) Endotoxin b) Microcapsule c) Coagulase d) Exotoxin

The most likely infection to occur following exposure to Sporothrix is: A. A urinary tract infection B. Pneumonia C. Meningitis D. An ulcerating skin lesion

The only streptococci that are sensitive to the drug optochin are A) enterococci B) group A streptococci C) Viridans streptococci D) Pneumococci

The only streptococci that are sensitive to the drug optochin are? a. Enterococci b. Group A streptococci c. Viridans streptococci d. Pneumococci

The patient was a 38-year old woman who was admitted to the hospital with a 1-month history of cough, fever and night sweats. Her medical history was notable for positive PPD skin test at age 18 and chest X-ray at the same age demonstrating right upper lobe volume loss. Isoniazid was taken as the medication but the patient had taken it only for one month. The patient had more recent history of heavy cocaine use. A chest X-ray demonstrated a right upper lobe infiltrate. The acid-fast stain of sputum showed pink rod shaped bacteria. Which organism is supposed to be the most probable causative agent? a. Klebsiella pneumonia b. Mycoplasma pneumonia c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

The viruses are transmitted via sexual contact except: a. HIV b. HPV c. HSV d. VZV

This is the most pathogenic species of the genus staphylucoccus and is implicated in a variety of infections. Some of them involve the skin. The most serious infections are bacteremia, pneumonia, ostemyelitis, acute endocarditis, meningitis, scalded skin syndrome and abscesses. Which of the following species BEST fits the described one? a) staph. haemolyticus b) staph. saprophyticus c) staph. intermedius d) staph. aureus e) staph. epidermidis f) staph pathogenus

This microorganism is frequently transmitted to humans via raw eggs: a. Cryptosporidium b. Escherichia c. Trichinella d. Salmonella

This year a report from India indicates that a single dose of Amphotericin B can result in the cure of Leishmania donovani rather than prolonged treatment by fairly toxic medication. If confirmed this will be a major advance in the treatment of Kala-azar. Which of the following statements is false regarding systemic Leishmaniasis? A. It is spread by the bite of the sand fly B. Macrophages ingest the organism and move about the body facilitating its spread C. Diagnosis can often be made by identifying amastigotes in cells aspirated from the spleen or bone marrow D. Untreated patients frequently recover on their own E. Kala-azar should be considered as one of the possibilities in someone who has lived in an endemic area and has an enlarged spleen

Important in the laboratory detection of Haemophilus influenzae is that it is: A. Beta hemolytic on sheep blood agar B. Catalase positive C. Anaerobic D. Fastidious

D (because it needs growth factor V and X)

This microorganism is frequently transmitted to humans via raw eggs: a. Cryptosporidium b. Escherichia c. Trichinella d. Salmonella

D (also raw chicken)

Which of the following is not transmitted by ticks: A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever B. Ehrlichiosis C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Q feve

D (Caused by coxiella burnetti, transmitted via inhalation)

Which of the following is true regarding Rickettsia rickettsii: A. Highest attack rates occur in Colorado and Utah B. It can be transmitted by flying squirrels C. Sheep and cattle are important reservoirs D. It is transmitted by ticks

D (causes rocky mountain spotted fever)

Write the name of species which cause this disease atypical pneumonia (D) and way of transmission of the disease (E).

D - Mycoplasma pneumoniae E - respiratory droplets

Write the missing words: If Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the CSF shows acid-fast bacili the isolated bacteria belongs to the genus? (D) Listeria monocytogenes causing neonatal meningitis is transmitted by (E) mode of transmission.

D -Mycobacterium tuberculosis E - transplacentally

Which of the pathogens can produce a neurotoxin Clostridium botulinum Borrelia recurrentis Treponema pallidum Clostridium tetani

D, A

A 33-year old patient recently returned from Africa has been febrile for 5 days and now has abdominal pain. Her blood cultures grow out Salmonella Typhi. What was the most likely source of her infection? A) raw chicken B) undercooked hamburger C) contact with baby goats on a farm and then eating without washing hands D) a food prepared by someone with bad personal hygiene

A 6-month old child developed a persistent cough and fever, physical examination and x-ray suggest pneumonia. Which of the following organisms is least likely to cause this infection? a. RSV b. Adenovirus c. Parainfluenza virus d. Rotavirus

Antigen-antibody interactions have developed into an important part of laboratory diagnosis. The basic principle is that for each microbial antigen there is a specific antibody. The antigen- antibody reaction created must be made visible (e.g by labelling of the specific antibodies with radioactive. Fluorescent or enzyme probe) and can be achieved by various techniques. In which of the following tests labelled specific antibodies are used? A) DFA B) complement ficiation C) ELISA D) both a and c

Influenza virus hemagglutinins play a significant role in which of the following phases of viral replication? A. Uncoating B. Virion Assembly C. Release by budding D. Adsorption E. Production of mRNA

Serological tests may be used for. estimation of titer of antibodies identification of antigens detection of antibodies a and c are correct all are correct

T/F: Specimen sent to laboratory: urine sample taken from the foley catheter collection bag.

T/F: The staphylococci are catalase negative.

T/F: Tinea pedis the infections are most frequently presenting warts on feet.

T/F: Ureaplasma urealyticum causes invasive joint disease in immunocompromised hosts.

The capsule acts as major virulence factor of strep. pneumoniae because... a) contains proteins than can cause lysis of host immune cells b) facilitates the host cell protein synthesis inhibition c) inactivate elongation factor EF-2 what results the cell death d) degrades hyaluronic acid present in the connective tissue and aids the streptococci in their spred e) contains lipids that can cause lysis of host immune cell f) prevents bacteria from being phagocytosed

The capsule acts as the major virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae because it: a. Contains proteins that can cause lysis of host immune cells b. Facilitates the host cell protein synthesis inhibition c. Inactivate elongation factor 2 (EF-2) what result in cell death d. Degrades hyaluronic acid present in the connective tissue and aids in the streptococci in their spread e. Contains lipids that can cause lysis of host immune cells f. Prevents bacteria from being phagocytosed

Which of the following disease is not cause by microbial protein toxin? a) Botulism b) Diphteria c) Shigella dysentery d) Tuberculosis e) Whipping cough f) teta.....

Which of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium leprae is NOT true? a) it is the causative agent of leprosy b) M. leprae is rod-shaped bacterium c) these bacteria are said to be acid-fast d) this bacteria can not be cultures on the artificial media e) division of the cells last longer than in other bacteria f) it possess LPS as all gram negative bacteria

T/F: Staphylococcus commonly cause bloody diarrhea.

F (*BLOODY DIARRHEA: E. coli Campylobacter Salmonella+shigella+yersinia)

T/F: Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum: Ampicillin would be a reasonable choice for treatment.

F (these pathogen dont have a cell wall, not affected by penicillins)

T/F: Vibrio cholerae: Watery diarrhea without blood, no PMNs in the stool and growth of curved gram-negative rods in the blood culture.

F ( V. cholerae does not grow in a blood agar, but rather in a TCBS agar. (thiosulfate-citrate-bile-salts-sucrose agar))

T/F: The HIV virus multiplies slowly with a half-life of weeks matching the slow rate of disease progression.

F ( half-life of HIV is 1 day = it multiplies rapidly and spread throughout the body. )

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae may involve an associated acute gastroenteritis.

F ( only affects the urogenital tract, not the intestines. )

T/F: rotavirus is an enterovirus.

F ( rotavirus is a dsRNA (enteroviruses are ssRNA), however it is spread via fecal contaminated food, water or hands. It is the most common cause of diarrhea disease among infants+children. )

T/F: Vibrio cholerae: Bloody diarrhea, PMNs in the stool and no organisms in the blood culture.

F ( watery diarrhea and no PMNs (neutrophils). )

T/F: Burn infections account for 30% of deaths among burn patients.

F (80%)

T/F: Chlamydia pneumoniae cause urethritis by sexual transmission.

F (C, pneumoniae cause respiratory illness and is spread via respiratory droplets. )

T/F: Appropriate stain or preparation: Chlamydia with gram stain.

F (Chlamydia cannot gram stain, because they are gram-intermediate)

T/F: Hepatitis C is an enterovirus.

F (Hepatitis C is spread via blood. Enteroviruses are spread via fecal contaminated food, water or hands. )

T/F: A major characteristic of hepatitis C is it is a DNA virus.

F (RNA virus)

T/F: Rubella is an enterovirus.

F (Rubella is a enveloped ssRNA and is spread via respiratory droplets. Enteroviruses are nonenveloped + it is spread via fecal contaminated food, water or hads. )

T/F: Matched correctly: Streptococcus agalactiae - scarlet fever

F (S. pyogenes -Scarlet fever)

T/F: A major characteristic of hepatitis C is most patients have severe symptoms when first infected.

F (Symptoms are generally mild and vague. (decreased appetite, fatigue, nausea) )

T/F: Trichomonas vaginalis: The cyst form of the life cycle is the most common method of transmission.

F (T. vaginalis does not have a cyst form. The Trophozoite is the pathogenic one. )

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiae cause toxic strep syndrome.

F (TSS is caused by S. aures or S. pyogenes)

T/F: All herpesviruses are naked virions.

F (Viruses can be intra+extracellular Virions is only extracellular All Herpes viruses have some things in common, including: they are all dsDNA, enveloped (NOT NAKED), however they are virions. )

T/F: Vibrio cholerae: Bloody diarrhea, PMNs in the stool and growth of curved gram-negative rods in the blood culture.

F (Watery diarrhea, no PMNs (neutrophils) in the stool and they do not grow in blood agar. )

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae can only grow in anaerobic conditions.

F (aerobic)

T/F: Mycoplasmas stain well with the Gram stain.

F (because they are gram-intermediate)

T/F; HBV can be transmitted by water sources.

F (blood, semen and other body fluids. HOWEVER, hepatitis A is commonly transmitted via contaminated water+food.)

T/F: enterobacteria all of them are always associated with human diseases

F (can be in humans and animals)

T/F: Mycobacterium leprae it possess LPS as all gram negative bacteria

F (cannot be gram stained)

T/F: Treponema pallidium is commonly grown in vitro (in glass).

F (cannot grow in vitro)

T/F: Bacteroides fragilis cause UTI.

F (causes pelvic abscesses)

T/F: symptoms of hepatitis: Clear urine, dark colored stools, anorexia.

F (dark urine, clear stool)

T/F: T. Pallidum cannot be visualized in microscopy

F (dark-field microscopy)

T/F: Rotavirus cause persistent cough, fever and pneumonia.

F (diarrhea)

T/F: Treponema pallidum is obligate intracellular

F (extracellular)

T/F: transmission: Sexual contact - HAV

F (hepatitis A is transmitted via contaminated water+food. HBV+HCV=sexual. )

T/F: Herpes simplex is an enterovirus.

F (herpex simplex is a ddDNA. Enteroviruses are ssRNA. )

T/F: symptoms of hepatitis: Nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant abdominal pain.

F (middle upper quadrant (stomach pain).)

T/F: symptoms of hepatitis: Fever, nausea, diarrhea

F (not diarrhea)

T/F: the infections of the upper respiratory tract are rare, although the incidence is increasing, especially in the elderly

F (not rare)

T/F: blood agar is a selective-differential medium

F (only differential because it is used to distinguish pathogenic bacteria based on the effect of bacterial enzymes known as hemolysins which lyse red blood cells)

T/F: Shigella dysentery is not caused by microbial protein toxin.

F (shiga-toxin)

T/F: Specimen sent to laboratory: midstream urine sample on a sterile swab

F (sterile container)

T/F: Specimen sent to laboratory: midstream urine sample taken with a sterile swab from a clean but not sterile container.

F (sterile container)

T/F: A major characteristic of hepatitis C is it is transmitted by eating raw oysters.

F (that's Hepatitis A)

T/F Cryptosporidium is frequently associated with systemic symptoms of fever, chills and bloody diarrhea.

F (watery diarrhea)

Which bacteria represent the normal flora of the central nervous system a) Gram negative cocci b) Gram positive cocci c) Gram negative bacilli d) Gram positive bacilli e) All of them f) None of them

F (NO normal flora of the CNS)

T/F: Shigella has flagellated forms, which are more virulent than flagellated forms

F (shigella is nonmotile)

T/F: Chlamydias lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes

F (they have a cell wall)

T/F: There is little if any immune response to HIV infection, and that is why this infection is so overwhelming

F (we produce shitloads of antibodies, but they dont help.)

All of the following statements about Listeria monocytogenes infection are correct EXCEPT? (nesten en helt lik over bare med litt andre alternativer) a) abscesses and granulomas occur in many different tissues b) laboratory isolation involves cold enrichment technique c) neonatal infections have a poor prognosis d) adults can also be infected e) direct slide examination is useful in diagnostic f) neonatal infections occur only during passage through the infected birth canal

F (?)

T/F: enterobacteria some can produce both endotoxins and exotoxins

F (?) (bare endotoxins?)

T/F Antiviral drugs currently on the market, including acyclovir and pencyclovir are active against enteroviruses.

A patient gets a positive RPR result. You suspect syphilis. What test would you use now?

FTA-ABS (This test is specific to confirm a positive screening. )

What are the oxygen requirements of enterobacteriaceae?

Facultative anaerobes

Describe the oxygen needs for Listeria.

Facultative anaerobic

How is hepatitis A transmitted?

Fecal-oral route

Name three of the most frequent symptoms and signs of infectious endocarditis:

Fever Heart murmur Malaise

What are the DNA synthesis inhibitors?

Fluoroquinolones Metronidazole

What bacteria causes tularemia?

Francisella tularensis

How does the view of the specimen appear in a fluorescent microscope?

Glow against a dark background.

How would you describe Bacillus in a gram stain?

Gram + rods/bacilli

How would you describe Clostridium in a gram stain?

Gram + rods/bacilli

Haemophilus influenzae: gram staining?

Gram - coccobacilli

How would you describe Francisella on a gram stained slide?

Gram - coccobacilli

How would you describe Haemophilus in a gram stained slide?

Gram - coccobacilli

How would you describe Campylobacter in a gram staining?

Gram - comma-shaped

How would you describe Vibrio cholerae in a gram staining?

Gram - comma-shaped

How would you describe Acinetobacter in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/Bacilli

How would you describe Pseudomonas on a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

How would you describe Shigella in a gram staining slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

How would you describe Yersinia on a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

How would you describe bordetella on a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

How would you describe enterobacteriaceae in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

How would you describe salmonella in a gram staining slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

What are brucella and francisella in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

What are campylobacter, helicobacter and pseudomonas in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

What are klebsiella, enterobacter and serratia in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

What are legionella, bordetella and haemophilus in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

What are salmonella, shigella and e.coli in a gram stained slide?

Gram - rods/bacilli

Oxygen requirements for obligate aerobes? Obtain energy from..?

Grow only in the presence of oxygen. Aerobic respiration

Oxygen requirements for obligate anerobes? Obtain energy from..?

Grow only without oxygen. Anaerobic respiration or fermentation.

Oxygen requirements for facultative aerobes? Obtain energy from..?

Grow with or without oxygen (but better with) Aerobic respiration and fermentation.

What are the cell wall synthesis inhibitors?

Penicillin Cephalosporins Carbapenems Monobactams Vancomysin

What are the virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis?

Pertussis toxin adenylate cyclase toxin tracheal toxin

This urinary pathogen "swarms" across agar surfaces and may cause bladder and renal calculi (stones). A. Citrobacter freundii B. Enterobacter aerogenes C. Serratia marcescens D. Klebsiella oxytoca E. Proteus mirabilis

T/F: T. pallidum can not be gram stained

T/F: T. pallidum cannot grow on conventional laboratory medium

T/F: T. pallidum cause infection only in humans

T/F: Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis is in the rise because changing antigenicity has made the vaccine relatively ineffective

T/F: blood agar is commonly used to isolate staphylococci and many other pathogens

T/F: blood agar is commonly used to isolate streptococci

T/F: blood agar is enriched medium

T/F: blood agar it consists 5% sheep red blood cells

T/F: enterobacteria are gram negative

T/F: enterobacteria they ferment glucose with acid and often with gas production

T/F: invasive disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae is most due to strains possessing a type b polysaccharide capsule

T/F: one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus is found is the nose

T/F: streptococci classified under the Lancefield system are divided into a distinct serological groups on the basis of carbohydrate antigens in their cell wall

T/F: the major site where Bacteroides fragilis is found in the colon

T/F: the most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis

T/F: the streptococci occur in pairs and chains of varying length

T/F: Antibodies to HIV-1 antigens are generated in infected patients but are unable to eliminate infections.

T/F: Bacillus cereus is associated with food poisoning.

T/F: Burn infections are usually nosocomial.

T/F: Chlamydia trachomatis can cause pelvic inflammatory disease.

T/F: Chlamydia trachomatis cause urethritis by sexual transmission.

T/F: Clostridium botulinum is associated with food poisoning.

T/F: E.coli Transmission occurs from ingestion of contaminated food and water.

T/F: E.coli are important causes of traveler's diarrhea.

T/F: E.coli cause UTI

T/F: E.coli is part of the normal flora of the colon.

T/F: Endemic trachoma is a major cause of blindness worldwide.

T/F: Enteroviruses can cause a variety of diseases which imitate bacterial infection.

T/F: Gonorrhoea can lead to cervicitis.

T/F: HPV is transmitted via sexual contact.

T/F: Haemophilus influenzae can cause diarrhea.

T/F: Haemophilus influenzae can cause otitis media.

T/F: Herpes simplex virus type II cause neonatal meningitis and is transmitted transplacentally.

T/F: Infection of the urinary tract with Proteus mirabilis is the most common disease produced by this genus.

T/F: It has been difficult to treat Cryptosporidium in immunocompromised patients and usually persists for the duration of the patient's life.

T/F: Klebsiella pneumonia although is a cause of pneumonia is part of the normal flora.

T/F: Klebsiella pneumoniae cause UTI.

T/F: Mycoplasma hominis and genitalium cause urethritis by sexual transmission.

T/F: Mycoplasmas are common commensals of the respiratory and urogenital tracts.

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae May predispose women to ectopic pregnancy

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be transmitted during gestation.

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause pelvic inflammatory disease.

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae results in mucous membrane infections, primarily in the anterior urogenital tract

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Repeated infections may cause scarring with subsequent sterility.

T/F: Proteus mirabilis cause UTI.

T/F: Rotavirus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children. The infections are often severe and life-threatening

T/F: Screening for Streptococcus agalactiae during pregnancy has reduced the incidence of neonatal sepsis.

T/F: Specimen sent to laboratory: midstream urine sample taken to a sterile container.

T/F: Staphylococcal aureus food poisoning has a rapid onset (1-6hrs), nausea, explosive vomiting and diarrhea

T/F: Staphylococci are often found in the human nasal cavity.

T/F: Staphylococci are often found on mucous membrane as well as on the skin

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiae are b-hemolytic.

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiae are frequent colonizers of the female genital tract.

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiae are important causes of urinary tract infections and bacteremia in elderly and diabetic adults.

T/F: The staphylococci are gram-positive cocci.

T/F: The staphylococci occur singly, in pairs, in short chans and in irregular grape-like clusters.

T/F: There are five species of staphylococci commonly associated with clinical infection.

T/F: Tinea pedis are superficial infections that are limited to the epidermis of feet.

T/F: Trichomonas vaginalis: Men are most likely asymptomatic but efficient transmitters of this organism.

T/F: Trichomonas vaginalis: Patients found to have Trichomonas should be evaluated for other venereal transmitted diseases.

T/F: Trichomonas vaginalis: Simultaneous treatment of the patient and her sexual contacts will decrease the chance of recurrences.

T/F: Ureaplasma urealyticum cause urethritis by sexual transmission.

T/F: Vibrio cholerae: Watery diarrhea without blood, no PMNs in the stool and no organisms in the blood culture.

T/F: chlamydia trachomatis can be transmitted during gestation.

T/F: shigella dysenteriae type 1 secretes a potent, heat-labile protein exotoxic (shiga toxin) that causes diarrhea and acts as a neurotoxin.

T/F: staphylococcus aureus is associated with food poisoning.

T/F: symptomatic infections that are confined to the upper respiratory infections include rhinitis, pharyngitis and epiglottitis.

T/F: transmission: Blood - HBV

T/F; There is rapid dissemination of HIV virus within the first few weeks of infection to all tissues.

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiae cause neonatal infection sepsis and meningitis.

T ( these babies can become blind, deaf and retarded. )

T/F: Tetracycline's are useful for treatment of C. trachomatis infections.

T (+macrolides)

T/F: The clinical spectrum of C. trachomatis sexually transmitted diseases is similar to N. gonorrhoea

T (Chlamydial infections is easily confused with gonorrhea, because the symptoms of both diseases are similar and the diseases can occur at the same time. )

T/F: Treponema pallidum can be transmitted during gestation.

T (Congenital syphilis is transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy. This can be seen in developing countries. Most of the kids are born without symptoms but will develop it later: Congenital-Saber shin (bowing of the tibia), saddle-nose, Hutchinson's teeth (fucCked up incisors) and mulberry molars. )

T/F: Cryptosporidium is fairly resistant to chlorine treatment in municipal water treatment centers and is a recognized cause of waterborne outbreaks of diarrhea.

T (Cryptosporidium spp. Can resist many common antibiotics, including chlorine-based disinfectants + gives watery diarrhea. )

Once tuberculosis is inside the host it will start to proliferate inside ______.

macrophages

Is salmonella: motile or nonmotile?

motile

Chlamydia lacks ______ acid in its cell wall.

muramic

Fill up gaps in sentence with one word. M.tuberculosis has a large amount of _____ in its cell wall. M.tuberculosis appears as a a __________ in acid-fast stained specimens.

mycolic acid acid-fast bacilli

The acid-fastness of Mycobacteria is due to high ______a____ content of their ____b___.

mycolic acid cell wall

Acinetobacter: oxidase positive/negative?

negative

Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase: positive or negative?

negative

Fill up gaps in sentence with one word. Endotoxin is a component of the cell wall of Gram _____ bacteria. The cells of this bacteria stain in _______ color in Gram staining.

negative Red or pink

Bordetella: motile or nonmotile?

nonmotile

Is Shigella: motile or nonmotile?

nonmotile

Chlamydia are ______intracellular bacteria.

obligate

Rickettsia are ______intracellular bacteria.

obligate

Bordatella: oxygen requirements?

obligate aerobe

Francisella tularensis oxygen requirements?

obligate aerobe

What are the oxygen requirements for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

obligate aerobe

What is the oxygen requirements for Pseudomonas?

obligate aerobe (Most of the other enterobacteriaceae are facultative anaerobes. )

What is S. pneumoniae sensitive to?

optochin

T/F: Person to person transmission in Cryptosporidium is common and it is seen frequently in outbreaks in daycare centers.

T (Cryptosporidium spp. Commonly affects HIV/AIDS patients and children. )

T/F: E.coli Disease is caused by production of one or both of two types of enterotoxins.

T (Enteroinvasive (EIEC) types produce disease resembling shigellosis in adults & children. Enteroinvasive E.coli contains invasive factors which destroy mucosa resulting in bloody diarrhea.)

T/F: hepatitis A is an enterovirus.

T (Hepatitis A is an enterovirus because it is a ssRNA and is spread via fecal contaminated food, water or hands. )

T/F: A major characteristic of hepatitis C is it is highly likely to cause chronic ongoing infection.

T (Hepatitis B and C cause chronic infection. Especially in the liver. )

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae reflects various types of infections, including: urethritis, endocervicitis, rectal infections

T (If the gonorrhoeae was transmitted anally it can cause rectal infections.)

T/F: KOH microscopy is the method of choice for visualizing hyphae

T (KOH microscopy is the easiest and most cost effective method used to diagnose fungal infections of the hair, skin and nail)

T/F: All gram - bacteria contain the endotoxin LPS.

T (LPS is the major component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, contributing greatly to the structural integrity of the bacteria, and protecting the membrane from certain kinds of chemical attack. LPS also increases the negative charge of the cell membrane and helps stabilize the overall membrane structure.)

T/F: Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum cause postpartum fever.

T (Postpartum fever is bacterial infections of the female reproductive tract after childbirth or miscarriage.)

T/F: Trichomonas vaginalis: In severe cases the regional mucosa may be red with petechial lesions and the cervix has been described as a strawberry cervix

T (T. vaginalis causes cervicitis that will give a super red colour, like a strawberry. )

T/F: all shigella contain an endotoxin LPS

T (all gram - bacteria contain LPS)

T/F: Haemophilus influenzae is fastidious.

T (important in laboratory detection)

T/F: symptoms of hepatitis: Malaise, anorexia, jaundice.

T (malaise=general feeling of sickness)

T/F: Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause urinary tract infections

T (normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract and cause UTIs + kidney stones. )

T/F: Treponema pallidum doesn't have an animal reservoir

T (only humans!!)

T/F: Mycoplasmas are resistant to cell wall active antibiotics.

T (penicillins act on the bacterial' cell wall. Mycoplasma spp. Does not have a cell wall. They need broad-spectrum penicillins, but even these antibiotics will only inhibit the replication not totally remove it. :/)

Is botulism caused by a microbial toxin?

Yes

Is shigella dysentery caused by a microbial toxin?

Yes

Is tuberculosis caused by a microbial toxin?

Yes

Is whooping cough caused by toxins?

Yes

A common type of nosocomial infection is: A. Urinary tract infection B. Meningitis C. Cellulitis D. Gastroenteritis

Inflammation of the small and large intestine is called? a. enterocolitis b. colitis c. hepatitis d. enteritis

The single most important characteristic of diarrhea caused by Vibrio cholera is: A. Profound watery diarrhea B. Severe abdominal pain C. Massive bloody diarrhea D. Renal insufficiency

Which of the following media is NOT used for enterobacteriae include? a. Chapman agar b. SS agar c. Bismuth sulphite agar d. MacConkey agar

While you are on your obstetrics rotation you deliver a healthy appearing bouncing baby boy to a 19 year old mother. Three days later the baby becomes lethargic, has a high temperature and vomits. A lumbar puncture shows that the infant has bacterial meningitis. A gram stain of spinal fluid shows short gram positive rods. This organism is: A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Group B streptococcus C. Most likely a contaminant D. Anaerobic

*BRONCHIAL AND BRONCHOALVEOLAR WASHES* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) Sterile container b) 2-8 C

*CSF* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) Sterile tub b) 37 C

*PUS* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) Sterile tub / transport medium b) Room temp

*BLOOD* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) Transport and culture medium b) 37 C

*SWABS* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) Transport medium b) Room temp.

*URINE* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) sterile container b) 2-8 C

*STOOL* a) to collect sample b) storage (2+ hours)

a) sterile tub b) 2-8 C

Write the names of bacteria which may aquire the following mechanisms of resistance abbreviated as: a. HLAR b. VRE c. PRSP

a. Enterococcus b.Enterococcus c.Streptococcus pneumoniae

Write full name of bacterial species responsible for the following diseases: a. scarlet fever - _________ b. syphilis___________ c. tetanus___________

a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Treponema pallidum c. Clostridium tetani

Complete the following sentences? a. The USR test is used for the laboratory diagnosis of infection caused by___________ b. the urea breath test is used to identify infections caused by_________ c. all acid-fast bacilli belongs to the genus named__________

a. Treponema pallidum b. Helicobacterium pylori c. Mycobacterium

Write a risk factor which is the most common for the listed diseases below? a. pseudomembranous colitis b. infection of the urinary system in hospitalized patients c. hospital acquired pneumonia

a. antibiotic treatments b. bad hygiene c. mechanical breathing

Specify the most common route of transmission (in adults) for the following bacteria: a. Borrelia burgdorferi __________ b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae _____________ c. Campylobacter jejuni __________

a. bites - of tickes b. sexual transmitted c. fecal oral

What specimen should be collected for culture if you suspect a. typhoid fever (the first week/stage) b. endocarditis c. community-acquired pneumonia

a. blood b. blood c. sputum

For each of the species below, choose one of the following modes of transmission: fecal-oral, vector borne, air borne, direct contact, blood or other body fluids. a. Hepatitis C virus b. Human papillomavirus c. Poliovirus

a. blood or other b. direct contact c. fecal oral

Write full latin name of microid species which cause the disease below a. acute bacterial pharyngitis b. viral acute diarrheal disease in six month old children c. whooping cough

a. streptococcus pyogenes b. Rotavirus c. bordetella pertussis

Name an organ of area of anatomical system most frequently and numerous colonized by? a. Lactobacillus acidophilus b. staphylococcus epidermis c. bacteroides fragilis

a. vagina b. skin c. GI tract

Write the specific disease name assigned to the following bacteria: a. Salmonella typhi ______________ b. Clostridium perfringens ___________ c. Bordetella pertussis

a.Typhoid fever b. Gas gangrene c. Whooping caugh

On the same day the clinical laboratory identifies two strains of the same bacterial species. One of these strains has pili on the surface; the other does not. In terms of the clinical status of the two patients it is likely that: A. The patient with the piliated strain is ill, the other patient is not B. The patient with the piliated strain is not ill, the other patient is C. Both patients are ill since pili do not correlate with virulence D. The patient with the piliated strain is a child, the other patient is an adult

Mycobacteria is difficult to stain, because they are _____-_____.

acid-fast

Bacterial pili mediate __________ to mucosal epithelium and facilitate_________.

adherence attachment

Haemophilus influenza is transmitted via ____________.

aerosol

How is Yersinia pestis transmitted in pneumonic plague?

airways

Klebsiella commonly affects people who are ____a____, it can create _____b_____ and often get transmitted from _____c_____.

alcoholics abscesses aspiration

S. pneumoniae and S. viridans show a ________ hemolysis on blood agar.

alpha

Leptospira is found in water contaminated with _____ ______.

animal urine

Fill in blanks: Helicobacter infection lab results shows ____ in faeces and ___ in serum?

antigen in stool antibody in blood

A group of chemicals used for surgical hand disinfection is named__________.

antiseptics

___________ is the main reservoir of Mycobacterium Leprae.

armadillo

Chlamydia pneumoniae cause ________ ____________

atypical pneumoniae

What do Mycoplasma pneumonia cause?

atypical pneumoniae

The group bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes is: a. Chlamydias b. Mycoplasmas c. Rickettsias d. Mycobacteria e. Treponema f. None of the above

131. Which of the following laboratory rules is not correct? a. Culture tubes should be stored upright in racks or beakers, while petri plates should be stacked and incubated upside down b. The oil of microsope immersion lens should be cleaned with a piece of paper towel c. Used glass pipettes, plastic tips and swabs should be put in the containers with disinfectant solution d. The benchtop should be disinfected with disinfectant after each lab period

Species of Treponema are part of the normal flora of the ___________ but Treponema pallidum causes ___________.

oral cavity syphilis

How will Salmonella stain on Hektoen agar?

black

The enriched growth medium in basic (routine) microbiological examination is ________.

blood agar

EHEC cause _____ diarrhea.

bloody

Shigella causes _____diarrhea.

bloody

Which 3 species are spirochetes?

borrelia treponema leptospirosis

Clostridium botulinum cause _________.

botulism

Diphtheria toxin is produced by a. Streptococcus b. Listeria c. Corynobacterium d. Mycobacterium e. Mycoplasma f. All listed bacteria¨

Fill up gaps in sentences. An aerotolerant anaerobe is one which is capable of growth in ___________ atmosfere, but grows best in an _________ atmosphere?

oxygen oxygen free

Infection of the female genital tract of this virus is associated with intraepithelial cervical neoplasia and cancer. To which group of viruses the causative agent of these changes belongs? _________________.

papovavirus→ human papilloma virus belongs to this group which is no longer used in taxonomy

In the interpretation of the presence of bacteria in the air using the sedimentation technique one should consider the number of bacteria per cubic meter of air and presence of____________.

pathogen

Salmonella typhi causes ______ diarrhea.

pea-soup

Enterococcus faecalis frequently causes infections within the _____cavity.

peritoneal

EAEC cause _____ diarrhea.

persistent

What type of microscopy let us watch unstained preparations?

phase-contract microscopy.

What are the symptoms of Haemophilus influenzae?

pneumonia otitis media epiglottitis meningitis

Newborns born to Chlamydia trachomatis infected mothers can develop __________ and __________.

pneumoniae conjunctivitis

All curved bacilli are oxidase _______.

positive

Neisseria gonorrhoeae: oxidative ________.

positive

The capsule acts as the major virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae because it ________ bacteria from ________?

prevents phagocytosis

You can treat Helicobacter pylori with _______-_______ inhibitor and ____________.

proton-pump antibiotics

If mycobacterium tuberculosis is in an immunosuppressed person, he will get __________ tuberculosis.

reactivation

Borrelia recurrentis cause ____________ fever

recurrent

Bordetella is highly contagious and spread via ________.

respiratory droplets

Fill up gaps in the sentences. Cholerae toxin causes __________ of ions and ___________ to the intestinal lumen.

secretion water

In the lancefield system, the streptococci are divided into a number of ____a____groups on the basis of ____b____ in their cell wall.

serologic carbohydrate antigens

EHEC produces a cytokine, quite similar to Shigella's. What is the name?

shiga-like toxin (Produced hemolytic uremic disease)

Death, due to endotoxins, is a result of what is called the ___a___cascade. That is the result of an excessive inflammatory response from _____b_____.

shock cytokines

To visualise Legionella we would use a _________ staining.

silver

Match the mechanism of acquired antibiotic resistance and the group of bacteria: MRSA

staphylococcus

Enterobacteriaceae can ferment ____.

sugars

____ is the vector of Borrelia burgdorferi.

tick

A type of vaccine containing bacterial toxin which toxicity has been weakened or suppressed is named ______________.

toxoid vaccine??? → bacterial toxin is weakened (attenuated→ microorganism is weakened, but alive. One dose inactive vaccine→ microorganisms is dead. Several doses)

What type of microscopy let us watch internal cellular structures?

transmission electron microscope.

Which one do we have a vaccine against? a) Salmonella enteritidis b) Salmonella typhi c) both d) none

Which one is always transmitted from a human source? a) Salmonella enteritidis b) Salmonella typhi c) both d) none

Rabies virus produces infection of A. Astrocytes B. Oligodendrocytes C. Neurons D. Macrophages

Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune disease which may develop after a group A streptococcal infection. Choose an answer correctly describing the reason of the heart tissue destruction; a) rheumatic fever occurs when bacteria in the bloodstream (bacteremia) lodge on abnormal heart valve or other damaged heart tissue. It causes the afflux of inflammatory cells at disease sites resulting in tissue destruction b)group A streptococci produce exotoxins directly affecting myocardial tissue c) the antibodies which the immune system generates against the streptococcal antigens may cross react with cardiac myofiber proteins- myosin, causin tissue destruction d) group A streptococci produce endotoxins directly affect myocardial tissue

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is associated with: a) Clumping factor b) Toxic shock syndrome toxin -1 c) Exfoliative toxins d) catalase

Staphylococci are? a) obligate aerobes b) facultative aerobes c) facultative anaerobes d) facultative aerobes

Susceptibility to which of the following should be verified in the gram positive, catalase negative cocci revealed alpha hemolysis on blood agar? a) novobiocin b) bacitracin c) optochin d) penicillin e) meticylin f) oxacilin

The Ixodes tick is a disease vector for? a. Clostridium tetani b. polio virus c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Cytomegalovirus

The eclipse period of a one-step viral multiplication curve is defines as the period of time between the: a. Uncoating and assembly of the virus b. Star of the infections and the first appearance of the extracellular virus c. Start of the infection and the first appearance of the intracellular virus d. Start of the infection and uncoating of the virus

The hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by: a) Salmonella typhi b) Enterotoxigenic E.coli c) Shiga-toxin producing E.coli d) Yersinia enterocolitica

The lesions of bacillary angiomatosis in AIDS patients are very similar to the hemangiomatous nodules caused by: A. Rickettsia prowazekii B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Bartonella bacilliformis D. Coxiella burnetii

The most common way in which tuberculosis is acquired is via the: a. Skin b. GIT c. Respiratory tract d. Genital tract

The picture of Negri bodies in neurons are symptomatic for the detection of infection caused by: A) Enteroviruses B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Rabies virus D) Mumps viruses

The use of superabsorbent tampons has been associated with increased risk for: A) glomerulonephritis B) pyelonephritis C) toxic shock syndrome D) trichinosis

There is an outbreak of watery diarrhoea in 6 members of a party of 20 who ate at a chinese restaurant last evening. Fried rice is implicated. What is the most likely causative agent? a) Shigella sonnei b) salmonella enteritidis c) bacillus cereus d) rotavirus

This organism is associated with rheumatic fever. Which of the following is the one? a) Staphylococcus aureus b)enterococcus faecalis c) streptococcus pyogenes d) streptococcus pneumoniae e) haemophilius influenzae f) klebsiella pneumoniae

This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children. The infections are often severe and life-threatening a. Rubella b. Hantavirus c. Rotavirus d. Dengue

We want to culture an anaerobic organism, how is the material best obtained? a) Needle b) Syringe c) Both d) None

Which are not motile: a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None.

Which causes "patients cough up a current, red, jelly sputum"? a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None.

Which is the least likely pathogens to cause bloody diarrhea? a. E. Coli 0157 b. Campylobacter spp. c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Salmonella spp.

Which medium is suggested for diagnosis the pathogen causing genital tract infection suspected to belong to Candid sp? a. chocolate agar medium b. Thayer martin medium c. Sabouraud dextrose medium d. MacConkey agar medium

Which of the following are INCORRCTLY paired? a) Autoimmune dieases - rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis b) Pharyngitis - the most common infection causes by Streptococcus pyogenes c) Streptococcus agalactiae - the group A beta haemolytic streptococcus d) A disulphide protein that enchances B-hemolysis of S.aureus - CAMP factor

Which of the following bacteria cannot be detected by the routine (basic) microbiological examination? a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Streptococcus viridans c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. none of the above

Which of the following bacteria species of doesn't belong to the normal flora representatives: a. viridans streptococci b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. salmonella enteritidis d. bacteroides fragilis

Which of the following cell components contributes to virulence by protecting the bacteria from the immune response? a. Fimbriae (pili) b. Peptidoglycans c. Capsule d. Teichoic acid

Which of the following diseases is caused by bacterial exotoxin? a. acne b. tuberculosis c. diphtheria d. syphilis e. a and c are correct

Which of the following is NOT a recognized route of transmission of HIV infection? a) Heterosexual intercourse b) Male homosexual intecourse c) Fecal-oral d) Mother to baby

Which of the following is an anaerobic spore-forming bacteria? a. Fusobacterium b. Bacillus c. Clostridium d. Corynebacterium e. b and C are correct

What are enterococci (Gram+ bacteria) resistant to?

*Aminoglycosides* , because enterococci lack sufficient oxidative metabolism. *All cephalosporins* , because they are beta-lactams that bind to PBPs, and enterococci lacks it.

Name 5 pathogens of the respiratory tract with the names of diseases which they cause:

*Pharyngitis* -S. pyogenes *Epiglottitis* -Haemophilus influenzae *Whooping cough* -Bordatella pertussis *Common cold* - Rhinovirus *Otitis media* -S. pneumoniae

Name 3 viruses able to cause a disease of nervous system and the disease which they cause:

*Rabies* - rabies virus *Viral encephalitis* -Herpes simplex virus *Viral meningitis* -Mumps virus

Temperature for psychrophiles?

-5-15C

Syphilis may progress through 3 distinct stages, to exchange it:

1) Primary phase 2) Secondary phase 3) Tertiary phase

Reagon used for DNSes production ?

1N HCL

Temperature for mesophiles?

25-45C

Lyme disease has ____ stages.

______C is the optimum temperature for Listeria.

37 (Listeria's optimum temp. Is 37 celsius, however it can survive and multiply near freezing temperatures like -4 → -8. )

Temperature for thermophiles?

45-70C

Minimum time required to get final report (identification of bacterial species and result of susceptibility test) from the delivery of clinical sample to the laboratory is _______ hours.

48h

Temperature for hyperthermophiles?

70-110C

Which of the following statements is true regarding naked virions? A. They release from infected cells by budding. B. They are almost exclusively RNA viruses. C. Their release from infected cells may cause cell lysis. D. All herpesviruses are naked v

???

34. A 3-month old infant developed a respiratory illness that the pediatrician diagnosed as bronchiolitis. The most likely cause of the disease is: A) Respiratory syncytial virus B) Rotavirus C) Influenza virus D) Measles virus

A 2-year old was admitted to the hospital with acute meningitis. The CSF gram stain revealed gram-negative cocci. What is most likely the cause of this disease? a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Haemophilus influenza

A 22 year old diabetic with poor control of blood glucoses comes into clinic with a 2 month history of nasal congestion and low grade fever. Over the past 3 days he has also had a painful right eye-it hurts to look from side to side. In addition he feels that his vision is impaired now in that eye. On exam his right eye appears red and swollen and seems to be pushed forward. His nasal mucosa on that side appears dark and almost necrotic. You should be worried about: A. A zygomycete infection B. Toxic shock syndrome C. Meningococcemia D. Trachoma

A 54-year old man develops a pyogenic infection after his knee surgery. The laboratory gives a preliminary report of a beta-hemolytic, catalase positive, coagulase positive, gram-positive coccus. This is probably: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A 74-year old World War II Veteran who was a prisoner of war in the Philippines is admitted to the VAH with a Group A Streptococcal cellulitis resulting from massive swelling of both lower legs from elephantiasis. Which of the following is false regarding elephantiasis caused by Wuchereria bancrofti? A. If these infections are not treated early they rapidly progress to massive swelling of the involved lymphatic drainage area B. It is transmitted to humans by the mosquito C. Humans are the definitive host D. The microfilaria in the blood stream of man can be transfused to another person without establishing a new infection E. The adult organisms live in the lymphatic channels of man and can result in scarring of the Lymphatic channels

A burn patient has an infected area with odiferous, blue-green pus. What is the most likely causative agent a) pseudomonas aeruginosa b) staph. aureus c) streptococcus pyogenes d) staph. epidermis

A lactose-fermenting-glucose fermenting, Gram-negative rod isolated from a previously healthy child with bloody diarrhea is most likely to be: A) Escherichia coli B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Salmonella enterica D) Shigella sonnei

A patient develops diarrhoea 5 days after starting antibiotic treatment for a serious anti-staphylococcal infection. What is the most likely causative agent? a) Clostridium difficile b) Clostridium botulinum c) Shigella sonnei d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A patient has an infected area with blue-green pus. What is the most likely causative agent? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A patient with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea withing 5 hours after eating most likely has: a. Staphylococcal food poisoning b. E. Coli gastroenteritis c. Cholera d. Shigellosis

Ability to produce toxic shock syndrome toxin - 1 (TSST-1) is a characteristic of which one of the following bacteria? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Enterococcus faecalis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Staphylococcus epidermidis f. Enterococcus facium

Ability to produce toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) is a characteristic of which of the following bacteria? a) staphylococcus aureus b) staphylococcus pyogenes c) staphylococcus faecalis d) staphylococcus pneumoniae e) staphylococcus epidermidis d) staphylococcus faecium

All of the following statements of Listeria monocytogenes infection are correct except: a. Neonatal infections occur only during passage through the infected birth canal b. Abscesses and granulomas occur in many different tissues c. Laboratory isolation involves cold enrichment techniques d. Neonatal infections have a poor prognosis

An 18-month-old male patient presents with fever, lethargy, malaise, productive coughing and vomiting. Culture of CSF samples with Staph aureus on blood agar reveals the presence of "satellite colonies". Serology has indicated that the organism is poloribitol phosphate (PRP) positive. Gram stain of the colonies indicates the presence of a Gram-negative coccobacillus. Which one of the following organism is most likely responsible for the disease? a. Haemophilus influenzae type B b. Bordetelle pertussis c. E. Coli d. Pasteurella multocida

An aerotolerant anaerobe is one which: a. Is capable of growth in oxygen, but grows best in anaerobic atmosphere b. Requires CO2 for growth c. Is capable of growth either in the presence of abscence of oxygen d. Requires O2 for growth e. Is damaged by CO2 at normal atmospheric levels f. Is damaged by oxygen at normal atmospheric level

An aerotolerant anaerobe is one which? a) is capable of growth in oxygen, but grows best in an anaerobic atmosphere b) requires Co2 for growth c) is capable of growth either in the presence or absence of oxygen d) requires O2 for growth e) is damaged by CO2 at normal atmospheric level f) is damaged by oxygen at normal atmospheric level

An elderly Tongan male was diagnosed with multiple myeloma (a form of cancer) and has been treated with chemotherapy agents for two months. He was then admitted to the hospital with new-onset asthma symptoms that became worse when he was treated with steroids. Many small larvae were found in his sputum and he was found to have a hyper-infection with Strongyloides stercoralis. Which statement is false regarding Strongyloides? A. Strongyloides is a common cause of iron deficiency anemia just like hookworm B. The initial infection occurs when larvae penetrate the skin from the soil C. Auto infection occurs when the ova hatch and mature in the intestinal tract and then penetrate the intestine to establish a persistent infection D. Eosinophilia is present during the migrating phase of the life cycle E. Recurrent bacterial infections can develop when bacteria are carried by the larvae into sterile areas of the body

An important means of preventing hospital acquired infections is: A. For health care workers to wash their hands between patient contacts B. For all patients to be placed in single rooms C. For all patients to receive a single dose of antibiotics at the time of admission D. An infection control program with one nurse for every 100 patients in the hospital

At the first step in antigen-capture ELISA test the microtitre well should be coated with: a. Specific antibody b. Specific antigen c. Irrelevant protein antigen blocking remaining space d. Enzyme labelled anti-human antibody

Bacteria which belong to family Pseudomonadaceae can be distinguished from acinetobacter by? a) oxidase production b) glucose fermentation c) red colour pigment production in broth culture d) being gram positive cocci

Broth culture means: a. A tube containing a liquid medium b. Medium which is inoculated by "stabbing" the inoculum c. Organisms growing in a liquid medium d. Selective medium giving excellent differentiation between coliforms with complete inhibition of gram positive cocci

Chlamydia trachomatis is well know cause of venereal disease. The microorganism is also implicated in which of the following? a) classic trachoma infection b) middle ear infection in young children c) sexually transmitted cardiac disease in adults d) perinatal retinitis e) wound infection f) ostitis

Chlamydia trachomatis is well-known cause of veneral disease. The organism is also implicated in which of the following? A) classic trachoma infection B) middle-ear infection in young children C) Sexually transmitted cardiac disease in adults D) perinatal retinitis

Choose a proper specimen which should be sent to microbiology laboratory: a) freshly passed stool with blood presence b) stool collected from a patient 3 hours ago which was first kept in room temperature for 2 hours and then sent to the laboratory c) swab moistened with washes of anus collected to a sterile container d) swab of the skin are on which the liquid stool of a patient was present (in case when there was no other stool except the liquid one)

Coagulase test is the primary test for identification of: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Legionella pneumophilia d. Neisseria meningitidis e. Bacillus anthracis

Each of the following organisms is an important cause of UTI, except: a. Bacteroides fragilis b. Proteus mirabilis c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Escherichia coli

Each of the following statements (except one) is true regarding malaria. Which one is false? A. Once someone has malaria infection, they will have it for the rest of their life in spite of treatment B. All persons who contract P. vivax malaria have Duffy Antigen present on their red blood cells C. Persons with sickle cell trait or disease are more resistant to serious malaria D. Schuffner's dots in red cell cytoplasm are most consistent with P. vivax or ovale malaria E. One way to help diagnose P. malariae is to carefully record the pattern of symptoms since it is the only species to have a 72 hour interval of symptoms

Each of the following statements concerning Gram-NEgative rods is correct, EXCEPT: a) Escherichia coli does not cause diarrhea b) E.coli is part of the normal flora of the colon c) Klebsiella pneumonia although is a cause of pneumonia is part of the normal flora c) Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause urinary tract infections

Each of the following statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT: A. Rash is a prominent feature B. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol C. Sheep and cattle are in important reservoir D. It is caused by Coxiella burnetii

Elek-test is useful for detection: a) Diphtheria toxin b) TSSS toxin -1 c) Staphylococcal leukocidin d) Enterotoxin of S. aureus

HIV is the same as: A. HTLV III B. HTLV II C. HTLV I D. None of the above

Helicobacter: a) motile b) nonmotile

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by? a. shiga - toxin producing E.coli b. enterotoxigenic E.coli c. urease producing Proteus mirabilis d. B-hemolytic Streptococcus group A e. a and b are correct

Humans are only reservoir for? a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Enterococcus faecalis d) All answers are correct

Humans are the definitive host for Diphyllobothrium latum or the fish tapeworm which competes for Vitamin B12 with its human host. Vitamin B12 deficiency can result in an anemia with production of very large red blood cells, called macrocytic anemia. All of the following would prevent the spread of this disease but one. Which one would not be a method of prevention? A. Avoid swimming in fresh waters that are endemic for Diphyllobothrium latum B. Cook freshwater fish well before eating C. Freeze fish that is going to be consumed raw which will kill the parasite D. Provide sewage treatment plants that treat raw sewage before dumping it into fresh water E. Avoid eating fresh water fish

In the Gram stained slide Enterococci are described as? a) Gram positive cocci b) Gram negative cocci c) Gram positive roods d) Gram negative roods e) Gram negative bacilli

In the Gram stained slide streptococcus are described as? a) Gram positive cocci b) Gram negative cocci c) Gram positive roods d) Gram negative roods e) Gram negative bacilli

Infections with these bacteria can result in two autoimmune diseases- rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following organisms is known to cause these diseases? a) streptococcus pyogenes b) streptococcus pneumoniae c) streptococcus mutans d) streptococcus anginosus e) staphylococcus aureus f) staphylococcus epidermidis

Is S. pyogenes: A) encapsulated B) unencapsulated

It is very important that the patient infected with mycobacterium tuberculosis also has to be evaluated for: a. HIV/AIDS b. Typhoid fever c. Liver abscess d. Malaria

Kuru is fatal disease of certain New Guinea natives and is characterized by tremors and ataxia (failure of muscle coordinations). Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD) is characterized by both ataxia and dementia. These diseases are thought to be caused by: a) Prions b) Environmental toxins c) Cell wall-deficient bacteria d) Slow viruses What is the major host defence against both urinary tract infections (UTI's) and some of the sexually transmitted diseases (STDS's)? A) IgA B) mucosal surface washing of urine C) IgG D) cell-mediated immunity

Legionella infection is more common in patients who: A. Are smokers with COPD B. Are diabetics C. Are premature infants D. Are patients on broad spectrum antibiotics

Lesions containing clear fluid are called a) vesicles b) pustules c) macules d) crusts

Lyme disease is: a) Slowly progressive b) relapsing

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows comma-shaped bacteria. These bacteria require 2-4% NaCl to grow. The bacteria probably belong to the genus? a. Vibrio b. Escherichia c. Shigella d. Campylobacter

Most humans become infected with legionella by: A. A water source B. By tick exposure C. By mosquito exposure D. By direct contact with another person who is infected

Movement of DNA from one bacteria to another through a tubular bridge or pilus: A. Conjugation B. Transposition C. Transfection D. Transduction

Mycolic acids are present in the cell wall of a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Borrelia burgdorferi c) Treponema pallidum d) Leptospira interrogans

Positive result of rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test suggests which one of the following diseases? a. Syphilis b. Scarlet fever c. Atypical pneumonia d. Glomerulonephritis

Pseudmonase oxidase: a) positive b) negative

Pseudomonas catalase: a) positive b) negative

Pseudomonas: a) encapsulated b) nonencapsulated

Several pathogens are transmitted either during gestation ( a process by which a child develops inside its mother's body before birth or at birth). Which of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted at these times? a. haemophilus influenzae b. treponema pallidum c. neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Chlamydia trachomatis

Several years ago there was an outbreak of Trichinosis among a group of Vietnam immigrants in New York that had made their own pork sausage. About 30 people who ate the sausage all become ill. Which of the following statements is false about Trichinella spiralis? A. It can be spread by eggs passed in the stool B. It is a tissue nematode that induces a high eosinophil response C. It is a disease of meat eating animals D. It is usually self limiting E. Heavy infection causes symptoms of diarrhea and abdominal pain that progresses to fever, facial and periorbital edema and myalgias

Staphylococci are? a) gram positive cocci b) gram negative cocci c) gram positive rods d) gram negative rods

The S. pyogenes belong to the serological group: a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

The capsule acts as major virulence factor of strep. pneumoniae because it: a) prevents bacteria from being phagocytosed b) contains proteins that can cause lysis of host immune cells c) facilitates the host cell protein synthesis inhibition by inactivting elongation factor EF-2 what results the cell death d) degrades hyaluronic acid present in the connective tissue and aids the streptococci in their spread

The group B streptococci usually cause a. UTI b. Pharyngitis c. Otitis mdia d. Septic arthritis e. Respiratory tract infection f. Wound infections

The group B streptococci usually causes? a) urinary tract infections b) pharyngitis c) otitis media d) septic arthritis e) respiratory tract infection f) wound infections

The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is the major cell wall antigen of Enterobacteriaceae and on of their virulence factors. Which of the following components of an LPS complex is responsible for its toxic activity? a) lipid A b) outer part of core oligosaccharide c) inner part of core oligosaccharide d) O-specific polysaccharide e) lipid B f) A-specific polysaccharide

The hemolytic reactions of the viridans streptococci on blood agar are said to be: a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Double-zone

Which of the following statements about the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine is not correct? A. It is a protein-conjugated, polysaccharide vaccine. B. It is poorly immunogenic in young children and immunocompromised hosts. C. It is routinely recommended for immune competent adults and children >2 yrs. of age at risk for serious pneumococcal disease. D. It protects against the major serotypes of pneumococci causing infection. E. An adult with asplenia would be a candidate for this vaccine.

Which of the following statements concerning staphylococci is NOT correct? a) the staphylococci are catalase negative b) they are often found in the human nasal cavity c) they are often found on mucous membrane as well as on the skin d) there are five species of staphylococci commonly associated with clinical infections e) they staphylococci are gram positive cocci f) the staphylococci occur singly, in pairs, in short chains and in irregular grape-like clusters

Which of the following statements concerning staphylococci is not true? a. The staphylococci are catalase negative b. They are often found in the human nasal cavity c. They are often found on r mucous membrane as well as on the skin d. There are five species of staphylococci commonly associated with clinical infection e. The staphylococci are gram-positive cocci f. The staphylococci occur singly, in pairs, in short chans and in irregular grape-like clusters

Which of the following statements is false a. Bacterial protein toxin are produced only by Gram- positive bacteria b. The production of protein toxins is generally specific to a particular bacterial species c. Usually only virulent strains of the bacterium produce the toxin (or range of toxins) d. Bacterial protein toxins are the most potent poisons known and may show activity at very high dilutions.

Which of the following statements regarding streptococci is NOT true? a) streptococcus pneumoniae belongs to the Lancefield serological group D b) the streptococci are gram-positive cocci that occur in pairs and chains c) the streptococci occur in pairs and chains of varying length d) they are usually classified based on their hemolytic properties on blood agar e) they are usually classified according to their serological groups f) streptococci classified under the Lancefield system are divided into a distinct serological groups on the basis of carbohydrate antigens in their cell wall

Which of the following statements regarding streptococci is not true? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae belongs to the lancefield serologic group D b. The streptococci are gram-positive cocci that occur in pairs and chains of varying lenght c. The streptococci occur in pairs and chains of varying lenght d. They are usually classified basing on their hemolytic properties on blood agar e. They are usually classified according to their serologic groups f. Streptococci classified under the lancefield system are divided into a distinct serologic groups on the basis of carbohydrate antigents in their cell wall

Which one can form endospores: a) Gram + bacteria b) Gram - bacteria c) Both d) none

Which one is coagulase positive? a) S. Aureus b) S. saprophyticus c) S. epidermis d) S. hominis e) S. haemolyticus

Which one is transmitted by eating undercooked chicken? a) Salmonella enteritidis b) Salmonella typhi c) both d) none

Which one of the bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is transmitted transplacentally? a) listeria monocytogenes b) escherichia coli c) strept. agalactiae d) herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV type 2)

Which one of the following is not a recognized route of transmission of HIV infection? a) fecal oral b) male homosexual c) mother-to-baby d) heterosexual intercourse

Which one of the following media is used for isolation of staphylococci? a) MSA b) SS agar c) Bismuth sulphite agar d) MacConkey agar e) Sabouraud agar f) Bile Esculin agar

Whooping cough is caused by bacteria of genus: a) bordetella b) brucella c) yersinia d) pseudomonas

You suspect that a child has strep throat. A throat swab is taken. The sample is mixed with beads that are coated with antibodies againt the bacterium. If the child has strep throat, tje bacteria in the sample will react with the antibodies on the beads giving positive reaction (beads clump together into visible particles). This is quick test and results are obtained in 15 minutes to an hour. Which of the following tests is described above? A) latex agglutination B) complement fixation C) slide agglutination D) clumping factor

Which group of streptococci can cause tonsillitis leading to "strep throat"?

A ( if Streptococcus group A in the throat spread to the lower RT, they may cause laryngitis and bronchitis. )

Which of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis infections is NOT correct? A. Serology is the diagnostic test of choice in the diagnosis of acute infection. B. 50% of infants born to infected mothers during labor develop infections. C. Tetracycline's are useful for treatment of C. trachomatis infections. D. The clinical spectrum of C. trachomatis sexually transmitted diseases is similar to N. gonorrhoea

A ( serology is for chlamydia pneumoniae)

Anaerobic infections are: A. Often continuous to mucosal surfaces B. Associated with highly vascularized tissue C. Gram negative D. Most likely to occur in the lung with its high oxygen level

A (Anaerobic bacteria constitute a significant proportion of the normal microbiota colonizing skin and various mucosal surfaces of human body)

BACTEC-aerobic/ anaerobic culture vials are used for culture and recovery microorganisms from: A) blood B) spinal fluid C) Urine D) faeces

A (BD BACTEC™ Automated Blood Culture System. Detection of blood-borne pathogens is one of the most important functions of the microbiology laboratory. ligner litt på sweet chilli flaske egnt.)

68. Which of the following statements concerning the nervous system is NOT true? A) the CNS is well protected by the resident normal flora from invasion by pathogens (the inhibitory effect - the resident bacteria occupy attachment sites that can interfere with colonization by pathogenic bacteria) B) the peripheral nervous system consists of sensory and mother neurons C) CNS infections are relatively infrequent in comparison with other infections, but high mortality and serious sequelae D) phagocytes of the nervous system called microglial cells can destroy the invaders that reach the brain and spinal cord

A (CNS has no normal bacteria daym)

Which of the pathogens frequently cause bacterial meningitis: a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Escherichia coli c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Streptococcus pyogenes e) Streptococcus agalactiae f) Mycobacterium leprae

A, B, E

Which produces a red pigment when cultured? a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None.

Which of the following is not correctly matched? a. Passive haemagglutination test - direct serological test b. Known antibodies against unknown antigen - direct serologic testing c. Microbial exotoxins - antigens d. Serum - the liquid fraction of the blood after clotting

A (Direct serologic testing uses a preparation *known antibodies*, called antiserum, to identify an *unknown antigen* such as a microorganism. In passive hemagglutination you wanna find the unknown antibody, so this is wroooong)

A 22-year old Tibetan female is found to have a large multiloculated cyst of the pelvis that is removed and found to be due to Echinococcus granulosus. This is most unusual since most cysts occur in the liver or lung. Which of the following is false regarding Echinococcus granulosus? A. The diagnosis in humans can be made by looking for the eggs in human stool B. Dogs are the definitive host C. Sheep are intermediate hosts D. Humans are incidental hosts E. Humans contract disease from eating the eggs excreted in dog feces

A (Dogs, which are the definitive host of E. granulosus, can be diagnosed with eggs in stool. However, when a person has it the parasite will form *hyadtid cysts* in liver that we can *diagnose with CT*.)

What type of suspected infection and specimen for bacteriological evaluation is matched up incorrectly? a. pneumonia- saliva b. impetigo- skin swab c. gonorrhea- swab from urethra d. cystitis- urine

A (Husk at: *Sputum* is mucous that you cough up from deep inside your lungs. *Saliva* comes from your mouth.)

Which group of antibiotic should be excluded from consideration in therapy then MRSA strain is detected? a) b-lactams b) chinolones c) aminoglycosides d) macrolides e) lincosamides

A (MRSA bacteria are resistant to beta-lactams)

Which of the following anaerobic is most responsible for vaginosis? a. Mobiluncus b. Prevotella c. Fucobacterium

A (Mobiluncus spp. are isolated from 97% of women with bacterial vaginosis and is rarely found in the vagina of healthy women)

Virulence factors for staphylococcus aureus include? a) toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) b) endotoxin (LPS) c) adhesin called protein F d) M protein that resist phagocytic engulfment e) polysaccharide A

A (Protein A Coagulase TSST-1 Exfoliatin Leukocidin Alpha and delta toxins. Microcapsules)

Each of the following is correctly paired, except: a. Disinfection - the process of destroying all forms of life b. Antiseptic agent - Chemical agent that kills microbes but is not harmful to human tissues c. Bacteriecidal agent - An agent that kills bacteria d. Chemotherapeutic antimicrobial chemical - A synthetic chemical that can be used therapeutically

A (Sterilization is a chemical that destroys all forms of life)

21. Which one of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes? a. Yellow fever virus b. Hantavirus c. Orbivirus d. Ebola virus

A B--> RATS C--> MOSQUITOS AND OTHER SPECIES

Which of the pathogens does NOT transmit the infection via blood? a) Hepatitis A virus b) Hepatitis B virus c) Hepatitis C virus d) Hepatitis virus

A (Hepatitis A transmit fecal-orally)

Hepatitis A can be transmitted by: A. Changing diapers on an infected baby B. Having sex with someone who is infected C. Eating cooked meat D. Needle stick injuries from infected patients

A (fecal oral route)

A (?)

A gynecologist suspects cystitis at a 30-year old woman in the 18th month of gestation. Light pain and burning on urination, subfebrile temperature 37-37.5 degrees celsius for 2 days and tenderness over the womb area. What bacterial species is likely to cause the disease. (A) What kind of sample should be collected to prove it? (B) What temperature should be provided during transport to the lab? ©

A - E.coli? B - Urine sample (sterile container) C -room temp

A 67 year old hospitalized man with foley catheter in his urinary tract has got fever 38.5 C two days after a urological operation. His urine is turbid, which reflects a urinary tract infection. What bacterial species is likely to cause the disease ?(A). What kind of sample should be collected to prove it? (B) What temperature should be provided during transport to the lab ©?

A - Pseudomonas aeruginosa B - Urine sample (sterile container) C - 2-8

Write the missing words: A) scarlet fever is caused by___________ species B) positive results of rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test suggests__________ diseases.

A - Streptococcus pyogenes B - Syphilis

The 5-year old boy has an acute redness of throat with spots and white exudates around tonsils, red rush in the upper parts of chest (suspicion of scarlet fever). What is the likely etiological agent of the disease (A). What kind of sample should be collected to prove it (B)) what temperature should be provided during transport to the lab ©

A - Streptococcus pyogenes B - throat swab (transport medium) C - room temp

A 10-year old boy, moderate lower respiratory tract infection, cough, fever of 37.5 degrees. No microbes detected in sample. Write the name of the species which is likely to cause the disease (A). What test should you perform?(B)

A = mycoplasma pneumoniae B = serological testing - specific antibody by complement fixation

137. Fluorescent microscopes use: a. Readiation which wavelengths are shorter than those of visible light b. Radiation which wavelenghts are longer than those of visible light c. Electron beams and magnets d. Visible light

A confirmed

Antistreptolysin O test is used to confirm? a) Rheumatic fever b) Glomerulonephritis c) Scarlet fever d) Cellulitis

A eller B ifølge boken

Which groups in the Lancefield system are beta-hemolytic?

A, B, C

Which serologic groups in the Lancefield system are the ones that normally infect humans?

A, B, C, D, F, G

Which of the following are recognized causes of viral encephalitis? a) Rabies virus b) West nile virus c) Echovirus d) Measle virus

A, B, D

Which of the following is not a method of horizontal gene transfer? a. Binary fission b. Conjugation c. Transduction d. Transformation

PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) is primarily a disease of young, sexually active woman. Which of the following pathogens AT LEAST cause PID? a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Streptococcus pyogens c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Salmonella Enteritidis

A, C

Which of the pathogens can produce a neurotoxin a) Clostridium botulinum b) Borrelia recurrentis c) Treponema pallidum d) Clostridium tetani

A, D

Which of the pathogens can produce a neurotoxin Clostridium botulinum Borrelia recurrentis Treponema pallidum Clostridium tetani

A,D

In an 80-years old female patient from a social care home, immobilized after breaking her femur, doctor suspects dermatitis and impetigo (there is a non-fading rash in the area of the sacral bone and on her buttocks, surficial edema and painful bullae, over the time, the damage covered also the subcutaneous tissue with symptoms of necrosis) Write the name of the species which is likely to cause the disease (A). What kind of sample should be collected to prove it (B) What temperature should be provided during transport to the lab ©.

A- staphylococcus aureus because of bullae B- skin swab in transport medium C- room temp

Your patient is a 30-year-old woman who was a part of a tour group visiting a central american country. The day before leaving, several members of the group developed fever, abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhoea. Of the following, which ons is the least likely organism to cause this infection? a. shigella dysenteriae b. salmonella enteritidis c. vibrio cholerae d. campylobacter jejuni

A/D? (Jeg tror det er C, fordi den lager spesisfikt *Watery diarrhea, with NO blood*. )

A/D? C because it cause watery diarrhea, no abdominal cramps or fever

65. In the antibiotic susceptinlity disk diffusion test the bacterial isolate is inoculated uniformaly onto the surface of an agar plate. The size of the zone of inhibition is dependent on all the following factors, EXCEPT: A) the diffusion rate of the antibiotic B) the degree of sensitivity of the microorganism C) the growth rate of the bacterium D) the bacterium ability to capsule production

A 36-year old male patient has an abscess with a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is beta-lactamase-positive. This indicates that the organism is resistant to which of the following antibiotics? a. Penicillin G, ampicillin and piperacillin & vancomycin b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole c. Erythrymycin, crarithromycin and azithromycin d. Cefazolin and ceftriaxone

A commercial vaccine consisting of virion subunits prepared by recombinant technology exists for: a. Hep B virus b. Rabies virus c. Rotavirus d. Varicella-zoster virus

All of the following are true statements regarding viruses EXCEPT: A. They contain both RNA and DNA B. The nucleic acid may be single or double stranded C. They are obligate intracellular parasites D. They reproduce using host cell energy E. The infectious particle is called a virion

CSF taken from the patient by lumbar puncture is turbid. It indicates the infection caused by: a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Prions d. Parasites

Each of the following statements concerning viruses except one is correct A) some viruses can posses both DNA and RINA nucleic acids B) Temperate bacterua phage can be induced by UV, X rays C) nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein capsid D) envelope of many animal viruses come from the host cell membranes

Foodborne intoxication may be caused by: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium difficle c. enterococcus faecalis d. Streptococcys agalactiae e. a and b are correct

Foscarnet interacts with which of the following viral enzymes: A. Pyrophosphate-binding site of the polymerase B. Protease C. Nucleoside reductase D. Reverse transcriptase A

Infantile diarrhea is usually attributable to: a. Rotavirus b. Coronavirus c. Rhinovirus d. Adenovirus

The flow of genetic material in mibrobial cells usually takes place from: a. RNA through DNA to proteins b. Urine culture c. Gram stain of urethral swab d. A and B

The major groups of arthropod-borne viruses include A. Togaviruses, Flaviviruses, and Bunyaviruses, B. Togaviruses, Rhabdoviruses, Reoviruses C. Reoviruses, Enteroviruses, Rhabdoviruses D. Retroviruses, Enteroviruses, Togaviruses

The major pathological features in Yellow Fever include A. Midzonal hepatic necrosis and Councilman bodies B. Midzonal hepatic necrosis and Negri bodies C. Glomerular and renal papillary necrosis D. Midzonal hepatic necrosis and diffuse encephalitis

Trichomoniasis is caused by what type of organism? a. Protozoan b. Bacterium c. Virus d. Helminth

Two daughter cells are most likely to inherit which one of the following from the parent cell? a. A change in nucleotide in mRNA b. A change in nucleotide in tRNA c. A change in nucleotide in DNA d. A change in protein

Which of the following bacteria is especially sensitive to ambient condition and requires immediate processing? a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Which of the following best characterizes antiviral chemotherapy in comparison to bacterial chemotherapy? A. Few drug targets, toxicity problematic B. Sensitivity tests of limited value C. Toxicity a minor problem, multiple enzymatic targets D. Many more drug options are available to treat viral infections

Which of the following statements is correct? a) Streptococcus pyogenes is highly sensitive to bacitracin b) streptococci are catalase positive c) growth of streptococcus pneumoniae is not sensitive to optochin d) streptococci are obligat anaerobes

Which one of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes? a. Yellow fever virus b. Hantavirus c. Orbivirus d. Ebola virus

he most frequent cause of viral meningitis in the United States is A. Enteroviruses B. Rhabdoviruses C. California/Lacrosse virus D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

n clinical laboratories a more common test for antibiotic susceptibility is: a. Disk diffusion test b. Agar diffusion test c. Macro broth dilution test d. Micro broth dilution test

A 36-year old male patient has an abscess with a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is B-lactamase positive. This indicates that the organism is resistant to which of the following antibiotics? a. penicillin G, ampicillin, and piperacillin b. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole c. eryhtromycin and clarithromycin d. cefazolin and ceftriaxone e. azithromycin

A 40-year old woman has blurred vision and slurred speech. She is afebrile. She is famous in her neighborhood for her home-canned vegetables and fruits. Which are bacteria are the MOST likely cause? a. Clostridium botulinum b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Campylobacter jejuni d. E.coli

A 63-year old alcoholic was taken to the hospital with obvious gangrene of both feet. What virulence factor is involved in trismus symptom? a. Neurotoxin b. Leucocidin c. Hyaluronidase d. Endotoxin e. Enterotoxin

A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma (impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive cocci. If you found the catalase test to be negative, which one of the following organisms would you MOST probably have isolated? a. (A) Streptococcus pyogenes b. (B) Staphylococcus aureus c. (C) Staphylococcus epidermidis d. (D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Each of the following statements concerning cholera toxin is correct EXCEPT: a. Cholera toxin inhibits elongation factor 2 in the mucosal epithelium b. Binding of cholera toxin to the mucosal epithelium occurs via interaction of the B subtrait of the toxin with a ganglioside in the cell membrane c. Cholera toxin acts by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein d. Cholera toxin activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase in the mucosal epithelium

Infection initiated when aerosols are inhaled and the bacteria become attached to and proliferate on the ciliated epithelial cells. After an incubation period of 7-10 days, the patient experiences the first of three stages of disease. Catarrhal, Paroxysmal coughing, Convalescent Stage? a. pertussis b. diphtheria c. pneumoniae tularaemia d. legionnaires disease

Inflammation of the small and large intestine is called? a. enterocolitis b. colitis c. hepatitis d. enteritis

Mycoplasma differ from majority of the bacteria because? a) they do not possess cell wall at all b. the cell wall is rich in lipids which make them impossible to stain c. lipopolysaccharides are as thick as teichoic acids in the cell wall d. peptidoglycan is extremely thin e. they do not possess peptidoglycan in the cell wall

Nonfermentative gram negative bacilli are: A. Strict aerobes B. Catalase negative C. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar D. Spore forming

Symptoms of reactivation tuberculosis include: A. Weight loss B. Hypotension C. Nausea and vomiting D. Headache

The biological activity of endotoxin is associated with: a. lipopolysaccharide b. peptidoglycan c. polypeptide d. steroids e. b and c are correct

The pathogenesis of which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of the intestinal mucosa? a. (A) Vibrio cholerae b. (B) Shigella sonnei c. (C) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli→ ETEC d. (D) Clostridium botulinum

What is the pathogen that causes Whooping cough: a. Bordetella pertussis b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which of the following body areas do not contain normal flora: a. bladder b. mouth c. skin d. vagina e. a and c are correct

Which of the following specimens should not be refrigerated before transport to bacteriological examination? a. cerebrospinal fluid b. feces c. sputum d. urin e. a and b are correct

Which of the following viruses cause common warts or plantar warts? a. human papillomaviruses b. poxviruses c. human polyomaviruses d. human herpesviruses e. rotaviruses

Which of the following would not be considered a disease vector? a. handkerchief b. mosquitoes c. ticks d. b and c are correct e. all of the above

Which one of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means? a. (A) Q fever b. (B) Pulmonary tuberculosis c. (C) Gonorrhoeae d. (D) Actinomycosis

Which of the following microorganisms has higher resistance to temperature 100`C than the others: a. Bacillus b. Escherichia c. enterococcus d. pseudomonas e. staphylococcus

AA (*Bacillus* is a spore forming bacteria that allows them to survive in very poor environment)

A patient with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea within 5 hours after eating most likely has: a. Staphylococcal food poisoning b. E. Coli gastroenteritis c. Cholera d. Shigellosis

AA B--> 24-72 HOURS C-->2-5 DAYS D--> 12-96 H

The effects of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT: a. Opsonization b. Fever c. Activation of the coagulation cascade d. Hypotension

AA SHOCK!!!

Your patient is a 27-year-old woman who was treated with oral ampicillin for cellulitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Several days later, she developed bloody diarrhea. You suspects that she may have pseudomembranous colitis. Regarding the causative organism of pseudomembranous colitis, which one of the following is the MOST accurate? a. it is an anaerobic Gram-positive rod that produces exotoxins b. it is a comma-shaped Gram-negative rod that grows 41`C c. it is an obligate intracellular parasite d. it is a yeast that forms germ tubes when incubated in human serum at 37`C e. it is an anaerobic Gram-negative rod that produces exotoxins

AA → Clostridium difficile (C. difficile produces *spores* that are easily transferred from patient to patient. Can often occur after an *antibiotic-treatment* (especially w/ clindamycin) because it will wipe out normal flora making patients *immunocompromised*, then C. difficile will colonise and produce its *exotoxin*.)

A 6-year old boy was admitted to the hospital. His body was covered with sand-paper rash (largerly peripheral) and a tongue that became raw (strawberry tongue). He spiked fever 38.5 `C. The swab throat was taken and the culture on the blood-agar revealed B-hemolytic colonies, bacitracin-sensitive. According to the symptoms which of the following diseases was recognized? a. scarlet fever b. whooping cough c. diphtheria d. epiglottis e. sepsis

AA → S.pyogenes

All of the following statements about Listeria monocytogenes infection are correct EXCEPT. a. neonatal infections occur only during passage through the infected birth canal b. abscesses and granulomas occur in many different tissues c. neonatal infections have a poor prognosis d. adults can be also infected e. direct slide examination is useful in diagnostic

AA → also transplacental

All of the following features are associated with bacterial microscopic morphology except? a. pigmentation b. ability to retain the gram stain c. arrangement of the flagella d. presence of spores, capsules and inclusion bodies

AA?

Bacterial colonies differ in their morphological appearance. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with macroscopic appearance of bacterial colonies? a. arrangement b. optical characteristics c. pigmentation d. elevation and the appearance of the margin e. size

AA?

An example of serological test in which hemolysis indicates a lack of specific antibodies in a patient's serum is____________ test?

ASO ELISA

What are anaerobic bacteria resistant to?

Aminoglycosides ,because aminoglycosides are transported into the bacteria via oxygen-dependent process.

What are the protein synthesis inhibitors?

Aminoglycosides Tetracyclines Macrolides Lincozamides

What are Klebsiella sp. resistant to?

Ampicillin (penicillin) , because its a semisynthetic broad-spectrum penicillin that is sensitive to beta-lactamases, which klebsiella sp. produce.

Chlamydia psittaci cause _______ _____________.

Atypical pneumoniae.

What are the Gram+ bacteria resistant to?

Aztreonam (monobactam) , because its a beta-lactam that bind to PBPs in the membrane. However, many gram+ have become resistant by altering their PBPs themselves.

All of the following are caused by S.aureus EXCEPT: a. pseudomembranous colitis b. bullous impetigo c. food poisoning d. osteomyelitis e. scalded skin syndrome

A→ clostridium difficile

"Patients get rose-like spots on their stomach": a) Salmonella enteritidis b) Salmonella typhi c) both d) none

30. What is the most likely causative agent of gastroenteritis starting day five of clindamycin treatment? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Clostridium difficile c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Shigella sonnei

31. 6-year old boy was admitted to the hospital. His body was covered with sand paper rash (largely peripheral) and tongue that became raw (strawberry tongiue). He spiked fever 38.5°c. The swab throat was taken and the culture on the blood-agar revealed ß-hemolytic colonies, bacitracin sensitive. You suppose the causative agent is: A) Streptociccus pneumoniae B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus mitis D) Streptococcus agalactiae

61. Which of the following antibiotics is used for the determination of Streptococcus pneumoniae? a. Bacitracin b. Optochin c. Penicillin d. Vancomycin

88. Which procedure is most frequently used for mycobacterium staining? A) Gram staining B) Acid-fast procedure C) Direct staining using basic dye D) Indirect staining using nigrosin dye

9. Which of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium leprae is not true? a. It is causative agent of leprosy b. It possesses LPS as all gram-negative bacteria c. M. Leprae is rod-shapen bacterium d. These bacteria are said to be acid-fast

A 20 year old college student is part of an archeological team traveling to northeastern Arizona to help excavate Indian ruins. One month after returning she develops a flu-like illness with cough, myalgias, and low grade fever. A chest x-ray shows a small localized infiltrate in the right mid lung field. An organism to consider would be: A. Histoplasma B. Coccidioides C. Legionella D. Brucella

A 20 year old patient comes to the homeless clinic with a skin abscess on the right arm. A swab from the intact skin overlying this abscess grows coagulase negative staphylococci. An aspirate obtained sterilely with a needle and syringe grows Staphylococcus aureus. About these 2 organisms in this patient you can say: A. Both are normal flora and contaminated the specimens sent to the lab B. The staph aureus is a pathogen and the coagulase negative staph is not C. The coagulase negative staphylococcus is a pathogen D. The coagulase negative staphylococcus is an opportunistic pathogen

A 30 year old patient with advanced HIV infection (AIDS) is admitted to the hospital with a high fever. Blood cultures are performed and you receive a report from the laboratory that they are growing a mycobacteria. The one that is most likely is: A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Mycobacterium avium C. Mycobacterium kansasii D. Mycobacterium marinum

In the Gram stained slide neisseria are described as? a) Gram positive cocci b) Gram negative cocci c) Gram positive roods d) Gram negative roods e) Gram negative bacilli

Which procedure is most frequently used for mycobacterium staining? a. Gram staining b. Acid fast procedure c. Direct staining using a basic dye d. Indirect staining using nigrosine dye

A 42 year old woman with a history or urinary tract infections comes to the emergency room with burning on urination along with frequency and urgency. Which of the following miroorganisms probably caused this infection a) yersinia enerolitica b) proteus mirablis c) salmonella typhi d) borelia burgdorferi

A 42-year old woman with a history of UTIs comes to the ER with burning on urinaton along with frequency and urgency. Which of the following microorganisms probably caused this infection? a. Yersinia enterocolitica b. Proteus mirabilis c. Salmonella typhi s d. Borelia burgdorferi

A 47-year old man in India is becoming blind due to repeated infections with Chlamydia trachomatis. There is some pus draining from his eyes. What can be seen in the pus staining with immunofluorescence? a. Negri bodies b. Inclusion bodies c. Elementary bodies d. Gram-negative diplococci

A cholera epidemic in Peru had all of the following characteristics. Which one led to the others? a. Including fish intestines with edibles b. Sewage contamination of water c. eating raw fish d. Vibrio in fish intestine

A common characteristic of Capnocytophaga, Moraxella, and Eikenella is that they: A. Are anaerobic B. Are part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract C. Cause urinary tract infections D. Are gram positive

A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely caused by: a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae e. Streptococcus pneumoniae f. Staphylococcus aureus

A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely caused by? a) klebsiella pneumoniae b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Neisseria meningitidis d) mycoplasma pneumoniae e) streptococcus pneumoniae f) staphylococcus aureus

A major characteristic of hepatitis C is: A. It is transmitted by eating raw oysters B. It is highly likely to cause chronic ongoing infection C. Most patients have severe symptoms when first infected D. It is a DNA virus

A positive Rapid Plasma Reagin test suggest an infection caused by: a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Treponema pallidum c) Borrelia burgdorferi d) Leptospira interrogas

All Yersinia infections are zoonotic, with humans as the accidental hosts. Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of plaque. Human plaque can be bubonic or pneumonic. The primary epidemiologic difference between the two clinical forms of plaque is? a) season of the year b) route of infection c) geographic location of the animal vector d) age of patient e) sex of patients f) immune condition of the patient

All Yersinia infections are zoonotic, with humans the accidental hosts. Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of plaque. Human plaque can be bubonic or pneumonic. The primary epidemiologic difference between the two clinical forms of plaque is: a. Season of the year b. Route of infection c. Geographic location of the animal vector d. Age of patient e. Sex of patients f. Immune condition of the patient

All staphylococci produce a) Coagulase b) Catalase c) Clumping factor d) Leukocidin

An infection of the CNS which primarily affects the spinal cord is called: A) encephalitis B) myelitis C) subdural empyema D) menigitidis

Bacteroides fragilis is the most common cause of anaerobic infections in humans. It mainly causes? a) gas gangrene b) wound infection c) cellulitis d) botulism e) tetanus f) scarlet fever

Blood banks in Southern California and Texas have done studies to evaluate how often blood containing Trypansoma cruzi is found in their blood donor pool. They have found that the incidence varies between 1:8,000 to 1:40,000 donors. If you were making up a list of questions to ask blood donors, which of the following questions would be least helpful in screening to exclude this organism from persons that have grown up in an endemic area? A. Have you ever been bitten by a reduvid bug? B. Have you ever eaten pigs, dogs, or other animals that are reservoir hosts for Chaga's disease? C. Have you lived in an adobe hut with a thatched roof? D. Have you ever had swelling of your eye that lasted more than 3 days? E. Have you ever had a blood test positive for Chaga's disease?

Bordatella oxidase: a) positive b) negative

Cell wall is not present in: a) Rickettsia b) Mycoplasma c) Chlamydia d) Mycobacterium

Each of the following is true regarding Pneumocystis carinii. Which statement is false? A. It lives as a commensal in most humans B. It is a common cause of community acquired pneumonia C. It is an AIDS defining illness in patients with HIV D. It caused pneumonia in malnourished children after World War II E. The most sensitive way of making the diagnosis is with a direct immunoflourescence stain on sputum or Bronchoalveolar lavage

Each of the following statements concerning the normal flora is correct except: a) the most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat c) the major site where Bacteroides fragilis is found in the colon d) one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus is found is the nose

Francisella tularensis oxidative: a) positive b) negative

Haemophilus influenzae have several capsulated serotypes, but only Type _____ capsular form cause meningitis.

If you Gram-stained the bacteria that live in the human intestine, you would expect to find mostly: a. Gram-positive cocci b. Gram-negative rods c. Gram-positive, endospore-forming rods d. Gram-negative, nitrogen-fixing bacteria

In the 1920's, the Rockefeller Foundation funded a physician to go throughout the Pacific Islands to decrease the incidence of hookworm. Each of the following but one would help decrease the incidence of this disease. Which one would not make any change in incidence of Ancylostoma duodenale or Necator americanus? A. Wearing shoes B. Washing hands after using the bathroom C. Using latrines for defecation D. Treating those found to be infected E. Establishing sewage treatment facilities

In the following pairs of organisms, which two are the easiest to distinguish from each other by Gram staining? a) Salmonella and Shigella b) Listeria and Proteus c) Haemophilus and Escherichia d) Clostridium and Bacillus

Infection caused by Treponema pallidum may be diagnosed by a) Gram staining b) Serological tests c) Bacterial growth in artificial meda d) Bacterial growth in cell culture

It is extremely difficult to eradicate staphylococcal infection in the presence of a foreign body. Thus, infected artificial joints and infected intravenous lines often must be removed in conjunction with optimal intravenous anti-staphylococcal therapy with oxacillin or nafcillin (sometimes in combination with rifampin) in order to eradicate such staphylococcal infections (and these attempts are not always successful). Staphylococcal infection of bone may persist for many years despite what should be optimal antimicrobial therapy. The most likely reason for this tenacity of staphylococcal osteomyelitis is: A. The Staphylococcal pilus gene is up-regulated by oxacillin B. Fragments of dead bone, called involucrum; may act as a foreign body, and may have to be removed foroptimal eradication of the staphylococcal infection. C. Staphylococci may be perceived by the patient immune system as a positive factor, because the staphylococci produce an extracellular enzyme, obtundokinase, which makes the patient more alert. D. Staphylococci are such an integral part of our normal flora that they are treated as self rather than non-self and no immune reaction to them occurs.

Itching around the rectum is commonly caused by the pinworm, Enterobius vermicularis. Which of the following is false regarding pinworms? A. It has a simple rectum to mouth life cycle (do not scratch your bum and suck your thumb) B. Diagnosis is best made by a stool O&P exam C. It is highly contagious infecting a number of members of a family at the same time D. Spread can be prevented by good hygiene E. The egg is oval, flat on one side and contains a single larvae folded over like a safety pin

Lancefield system basis on :a. Capsular antigen b. Carbohydrate antigens c. Sugar fermentation d. Flagella antigen e. Oxygen consumption f. Toxin structure

Lancefield system basis on? a) capsular antigens b)carbohydrate antigens c) sugar fermentation d) flagella antigen e) oxygen consumption f) toxin structure

Lesions containing pussy fluid are named a) vesicles b) pustules c) macules

Listeria infections in adults are spread by? a. a vector b. eating food contaminated with bacteria c. droplet transmission d. direct contact e. all are correct

Most of RNA viruses replicate in the: a. Nucleus b. Cytoplasm c. Plasmid d. Cell wall vicinity

Negri bodies are associated with: a. Cytomegalovirus infections b. Rabies virus infections c. HSV infections d. Rubella virus infections

Of the following components of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used for skin testing? a. Cord factor (LAM) b. Purified protein derivative (PPD) c. Mycolic acid d. Wax D

Of the following components of mycobacterium tuberculosis, which one is used for skin testing? a) cord factor b) purified protein derivative (PPD) c) mycolic acid d) wax D e) techioid acid f) DNA

One of the infectious childhood disease with the symptoms of strawberry tongue, maculopapu rash and desquamation of palm skin is called: a. Rubella b. Scarlet fever c. Diphteria d. Smallpox

Recurrent fever is: a) Slowly progressive b) relapsing

Shigellosis is common in travelers to developing countries. Infection is commonly acquired through the? a) skin b) gastrointestinal tract c) respiratory tract d) genital tract e) wounds f) urinary trac

Streptolysins are produced by: A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Clostridium perfringes

Streptolysins are produced by? a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Enterococcus faecalis d. Clostridium perfringes

The S. agalactiae belong to the serological group: a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

The bacteri colonies that appeared on the modified Thayler Martines Chocolate agar after 43 hours incubation at 35°c to 37°c under increased tension, were examinaded by oxidase test, Gram staining and carbohydrate fermentation reactions. They were found to be oxidating positive, only glucose fermenting Gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following bacteria have been isolated? A) Myobacterium tuberculosis B) Neisseria Gonorhoea C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Enterococcus faecalis

The group A streptococci usually causes? a) urinary tract infections b) pharyngitis c) otitis media d) septic arthritis e) respiratory tract infection f) wound infections

The group bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes is: a. Chlamydias b. Mycoplasmas c. Rickettsias d. Mycobacteria e. Treponema f. None of the above

The group of bacteria the lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes is? a) chlamydias b) mycoplasmas c) rickettsias d) mycobacteria e) treponema f) none of the abov

The lipid A of the LPS gram- bacteria functions as: a) exotoxin b) endotoxin c) Anatoxin d) invasin

The major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae type b is: A. Its surface pili B. Its surface polysaccharides C. Its cell wall D. Its cell membrane

The most common etiological agent of community acquired pneumonia in non-hospitalized patients is? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. streptococcus pneumoniae c. staphylococcus epidermidis d. enterococcus faecalis

The patient is a 50-year old woman who returned from a vacation in Bangladesh where is an epidemic cholera. She now has multiple episodes of diarrhea. Of the following, which one is most compatible with cholera? a. Watery diarrhea without blood, no PMNs in the stool and growth of curved gram-negative rods in the blood culture b. Watery diarrhea without blood, no PMNs in the stool and no organisms in the blood culture c. Bloody diarrhea, PMNs in the stool and growth of curved gram-negative rods in the blood culture d. Bloody diarrhea, PMNs in the stool and no organisms in the blood culture

The process by which a nontoxigenic Corynebacterium diphteriae cell is changed into a toxigenic cell is called: a. Conjugation b. Lysogenic conversion c. Transduction d. Transformation

This bacteria colonies that appeared on the modified Thayer Martin Chocolate agar after 48 hours incubation at 35c to 37c under increased tension, were examined by oxidase test, gram staining and carbohydrate fermentation reactions. They were found to be oxidizing positive, only glucose fermenting gram negative diplococci. Which of the following bacteria have been isolated? a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) neisseria gonorrhoeae c) staphylococcus aureus d) enterococcus faecalis

This microorganism is a short gram positive bacillus, Is beta-hemolytic on blood agar, has characteristic "tumbling motility" in 25c broth cultures, is catalase positive and psychrophile, even growing at refrigeration temperatures. Point which of the following organisms is the one? a) coxiella burnetii b) listeria monocytogenes c) haemophilus influenzae d) neisseria gonorrhoeae e) staphylococcus aureus f) treponema pallidum

This microorganism is a short gram-positive bacillus, is beta-hemolytic on blood agar, has characteristic "tumbling motility" in 25 degrees broth cultures, is catalase positive and is a psychrophile, even growing at refrigeration temperatures. Point which of the following organisms is that one: a. Coxiella burnetti b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae e. Staphylococcus aureus f. Treponema pallidum

Ticks are vectors for the transmission of each of the following diseases except: a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever b. Epidemic typhus c. Tularemia d. Lyme disease

Vaccination protects human population from? a. syphilis b. diphteria c. scarlet fevet d. a and b are correct

What is the major host defence against both urinary tract infections (UTI's) and some of the sexually transmitted diseases (STDS's)? A) IgA B) mucosal surface washing of urine C) IgG D) cell-mediated immunity

Which has a longer wavelength: a) Leptospira b) treponema

Which of the following are obligate anaerobic? a) streptococcus pyogenes b) bacteroides fragilis c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis e) Staphylococcus aureus f) Enterococcus faecalis

Which of the following group A streptococcal diseases is highly communicable? a. Glomerulonephritis b. Impetigo c. Rheumatic fever d. Cellulitis

Which of the following is not associated with food poisoning? a. staphylococcus aureus b. francisella tularensis c. clostridium botulinum d. bacillus cereus

Which of the following is the main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae? a. lipopolysaccharide b. capsule c. fimbriae d. leukocidin toxin e. all answers are correct

Which of the following is used by Klebsiella spp, to avoid the normal defense mechanisms of the lung? a) Replication inside cells b) Capsule formation c) Molecular mimicry d) Spore formation

Which of the following microorganisms can be observed under the darkfield microscope but not brightfield microscope? a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) treponema pallidum c) Neisseria meningitidis d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Which of the following microorganisms is an obligate anaerobe? a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. bacteriodes fragilis c. Bordetella pertussis d. Salmonella enteritidis e. none of the above

Which of the following microorganisms is strongly associated with peptic ulcers? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Helicobacter pylori c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Listeria monocytogenes e. none of the above

Which of the following organisms causes a relatively mild form of gastroenteritis? a. Vibrio cholerae b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus c. Salmonella typhi d. Shigella sonnei

Which of the following organisms causes relapsing fever and is transmitted by lice or ticks? a. Treponema b. Borrelia c. Leptospira d. Mycoplasma

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Staphylococcus aureus - carbuncules B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae - pertussis C) streptococcus pneumoniae - lobar pneumonia D) Pseudomonas aeurginosa - swimmer's ear

Which of the following pathogens causes invasive joint disease in immuno-compromised hosts? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Mycoplasma hominis C. Ureaplasma urealyticum D. Chlamydia pneumoniae E. None of the above

Which of the following statements concerning Bartonella henselae is correct: A. Causes Trench Fever B. Causes Bacillary Angiomatosis in AIDS patients C. Causes Oroya Fever D. Causes Veruga Peruana

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning human infections by Staphylococcus aureus? a) primary infection typically occurs after inhalation of the organisms b) some strains produce exfoliatin, an exotoxin that causes scalded skin syndrome c) a petichial skin rash is caused by endotoxin in the blood, and appears in most septic cases d) a fulminating form of the disease, called Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome can be fatal within several hours due to massive intravascular coagulation and resulting shock, probably as a result of massive endotoxin release

Which of the following test can differentiate Enterobacteriaceae from Pseudomonas? A) CAMP test B) oxidase test C) coagulase test D) PYR test

Which of the organisms does NOT belong to the HACEK group? a) Haemophilus spp. b) Clostridium spp. c) Eikenella spp. d) Kingella sp.

You see a 20-year old female for complaints of vaginal itching, discharge, pain with intercourse and discomfort with urination. She has had 3 different sexual partners over the past 2 years. As part of your workup, you do a wet mount of vaginal secretions and see a flagellated organism about the size of a white blood cell with "twitching motility" that makes you think of Trichomonas vaginalis. Which statement is false regarding Trichomonas? A. Men are most likely asymptomatic but efficient transmitters of this organism B. The cyst form of the life cycle is the most common method of transmission C. Simultaneous treatment of the patient and her sexual contacts will decrease the chance of recurrences D. In severe cases the regional mucosa may be red with petechial lesions and the cervix has been described as a "strawberry cervix" E. Patients found to have Trichomonas should be evaluated for other venereal transmitted diseases

dentification of this microorganism is based on the observation of oocysts in feces. a. Campylobacter b. Cryptosporidium c. Escherichid d. Trichinella

induction is needed for A) transferring phagal nucleic acid through the bacteria cell wall of the host cell B) the release of prophage C) the contraction of bacteria phage tail D) the release of phage

Which of the following viruses can be carcinogenic for human? a. Poliovirus b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Hepatitis A virus d. B and C are correct

B (HepB+C som kan gi kreft)

Under the electron microscope you keep at home next to your MP3 player you look at a single bacterium living in your mouth. You see a single polar flagellum stretching off from one end looking very much like a tail. A characteristic of this organism should be: A. An ability to stay in one place for a very long time B. An ability to move in the direction opposite the flagellum C. An ability to avoid ingestion by PMNs D. An ability to induce a large antibody response

B (Jeg tror D , se på bildet / k sjuuuuukt timewasting spørsmål btw, snart kommer jo 00 på skolen, vet de egnt hva en MP3 er?)

Which of the following diagnostic methods is not useful for detection of a viral infection? a. Serological methods b. Culture on microbiological media c. Molecular methods d. Microscopic examinations

B (Microbiological media, or bacterial culture media, is a growth medium used to grow bacteria. *Virus needs living cells for replication*)

Susceptibility to which of the following should be verified if the gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci revealed alpha hemolysis on the blood agar? a. Novobiocin b. Optochin c. Meticylin d. Bacitracin e: Penicillin f. Oxacilin

B (Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram + cocci that is catalase - and has alpha-hemolysis. It is sensitive to optochin.)

Your patient is 30-year old woman with non-bloody diarrhea for the past 14 days. Which one of the following organisms is least likely to cause this illness? a. Clostridium difficile b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Salmonella enteritidis

B (all of the others cause diarrhea. S. pyogenes does not.)

Rabies reaches the central nervous system by A. Hematogenous distribution B. Neurotropic spread C. Entry into brain within macrophages D. Both A and B

B (travels via the nerves)

Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct except: a. The toxicity of endotoxins is often due to the lipid portion of the molecule b. Endotoxins are found in most Gram-positive bacteria c. Endotoxins are located in the cell wall d. The antigenicity of somatic (O) antigen is due to repeating oligosaccharides

B LPS=Endotoxin=Only on G neg

Each of the following mechanisms is used by invaders to avoid the normal defence mechanisms of the lung, EXCEPT: a) capsule production b) replication inside cells c) spore formation (sporulation) d) molecular mimicry

B (?)

Which of the microbes frequently represent the normal flora of skin? a) Borrelia burgdorferi b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) staphylococcus aureus d) candida albicans

B, C

Which of the microorganisms frequently cause respiratory tract infections? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Haemophilus influenzae type b c) Neisseria meningitidis d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B,D

101. Microorganisms can be controlled (among others) by means of physical agents. The following statements concerning the physical agents are correct except: a. Physical agents can cause the inhibition of microorganisms: b. They enhance binding of the RNA polymerase to the promoter thus allowing an increase in the frequency of microorganisms transcript initiation c. Physical agents can be used for microorganisms destruction d. Removal of microorganisms can be caused by physical agent

39. Which of the following are used as the carriers for antibody/ antigen in serological tests? A) liposomes B) red blood cells C) complement component C1q D) white bloode cells

A 30 year old male comes to the hospital complaining of ;stiffness. He was fine until 2 days ago when he started to have trouble opening his mouth. Later the same day his neck became stiff, and since then he has had increasing trouble with respirations. On exam he has a temperature of 101 degrees, his pulse is 110, his respirations are shallow and at 24/minute. His blood pressure the first time taken by a nurse was 90/50, but now is 120/80. He appears flushed and is sweating profusely. He does appear quite rigid and his face appears to be in a grimace. His reflexes are all hyperactive. You should be worried that this patient has: A. Food borne botulism B. Tetanus C. Gram negative sepsis D. Toxin mediated food poisoning

A 30 year old patient comes in with symptoms of hepatitis. The following serological results are obtained: Hepatitis A IgM antibody negative, Hepatitis A IgG antibody positive, Hepatitis B surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B surface antibody negative, Hepatitis C antibody negative. This set of results suggests that the patient has acute: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis A and B

All of the following are syndromes associated with enteroviruses EXCEPT: A. Conjuctivitis B. Coronary artery disease C. Myocarditis D. Pericarditis E. Pleuritis

Choose the item that correctly matches the microorganism with an appropriate stain or preparation. a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis with India ink b. Fungi with KOH c. Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF with Ziehl-Neelsen (classic acid fast stain) d. Chlamydia with gram stain

Common symptoms of hepatitis include: A. Fever, nausea, diarrhea B. Malaise, anorexia, jaundice C. Nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant abdominal pain D. Clear urine, dark colored stools, anorexia

Division in cocci in one plane produces: a. Staphylococcus b. Diplococcus or streptococcus arrangement c. Streptococcus or sarcina arrangement d. Diplococcus or tetrad arrangement

Each of the following materials is acceptable for anaerobic culture, except: a. Blood taken by venipuncture b. Stool or rectal swabs samples c. Suprapubic aspirated urine d. Bone marrow taken by aspiration

Each of the following mechanisms is used by respiratory invaders to avoid phagocytosis EXCEPT: A) capsule production B) production of flagella situated over the entire bacterial cell surface C) toxin production D) replication inside the cells

Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of the bacteria is correct, except: a. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium b. Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative cocci have lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin) in their cell wall c. Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis d. Flagella are involdes in bacterial motility

Electron microscope function exactly as their optical counterparts except that they use a focused beam of electrons instead of light. They are used to "image" the specimen and gain valuable information about all the following, EXCEPt: a) the surface features of an object b) the optical density of the examined object c) the elements and compounds that the object is composed of d) the shape and size of the particles making up the object

Fluorescent microscopes use: a. Readiation which wavelengths are shorter than those of visible light b. Radiation which wavelenghts are longer than those of visible light c. Electron beams and magnets d. Visible light

One of the characteristics of HIV infection is that: A. The virus multiplies slowly with a half-life of weeks matching the slow rate of disease progression B. There is rapid dissemination of virus within the first few weeks of infection to all tissues C. In early infection the virus is most actively multiplying within the bloodstream D. There is little if any immune response to HIV infection, and that is why this infection is so overwhelming

Phage typing evaluates A) the potency of vaccines against viral diseases B) the susceptibility or resistance of bacteria isolates to set of selected bacteriophages C) the bacteria culture inoculation on agar plate D) the proper atmospheric conditions essential for isolating and identifying bacteria

Physical findings and other factors that should suggest the presence of septicemia in a particular patient are all of the following except: A. Shaking chills, spiking fevers B. Conjunctivitis C. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea D. In elderly patients, decreased urine output or mental changes (confusion)

R factors: A. Are small plasmids which encode resistance to only one type of antibiotic B. Contain plasmid elements (replication origins, incompatibility determinants, etc.) that were widespread in the pre-antibiotic era C. Represent genetically engineered cloning vectors which have escaped into pathogenic bacteria D. All of the above are correct

Serologic conversion to a positive test for HIV infection occurs: A. In 2-3 days B. In 3-4 weeks C. In 3-6 months D. May take up to 10 years

The ability of spore formation exhibit: a. All the bacteria in harsh conditions b. Some gram-positive bacteria c. Some gram-negative bacteria d. The bacteria that can enhance their metabolic activity

The following represent intracellular pathogens, except: a. Mycobacterium spp. b. E. Coli c. Salmonella Typhi d. Chlamydia spp.

The sporeformers belong to the group of: a. Gram-negative bacteria Form endotoxins b. Gram-positive bacteria c. Mycoplasmas d. Mycobacteria

The stages of Lyme disease are reminiscent of which other disease? a. Plaque b. Meningitis c. Syphilis d. Toxic shock syndrome

Using binomial nomenclature, the first name designates the genus while the second name designates the: a. Order b. Specific epithet c. Family d. Kingdom

Verotoxin 1 of E. Coli is similar to: a. Cholera toxin b. Shiga toxin c. Heat-stable enterotoxin of E. Coli d. Heat-labile enterotoxin of E. Coli

Which of the following laboratory rules is not correct? a. Culture tubes should be stored upright in racks or beakers, while petri plates should be stacked and incubated upside down b. The oil of microsope immersion lens should be cleaned with a piece of paper towel c. Used glass pipettes, plastic tips and swabs should be put in the containers with disinfectant solution d. The benchtop should be disinfected with disinfectant after each lab period

Which of the following toxins acts on synaptosomes? a. E. Coli heat-labile toxin b. Clostridium tetani toxin Svenska: Stelkramp c. Corynebacterium diphteriae toxins d. Vibrio cholera toxin

the phage spotting place of confluent lysis with heavy secondary is called A) CI B) OI C) SCI D) <SCI

Humans are the only natural host for? a. Bordetella pertussis b. Treponema pallidum c. Shigella dysenteriae d. a and b are correct e. all are correct

B? (Jeg tror D, fordi *"whooping cough, or pertussis as it is referred to by physicians, "is a human bacterium. It does not infect animals."* og *" Its natural habitat is in the human respiratory mucosa.* /kkkk . De prøver sikkert å lure oss fordi *Bordetella broncheiseptica* kan være hos dyr)

Your patient is a 30-year-old woman with non-bloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this illness? a. (A) Clostridium difficile b. (B) Streptococcus pyogenes c. (C) Shigella dysenteriae d. (D) Salmonella enteritidis

BB (stina: a?)

Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct, except: a. The protein toxins are secreted by bacteria during exponential growth b. Production of toxins is generally specific to a particular bacterial species c. Toxins are produced only by virulens strains d. Only gram-negative bacteria produce soluble protein toxins

B? hva med D? "both G+ and G- produce soluble protein toxins=exotoxin"

A 34 year-old geologist who works with an oil-exploration team in Central America comes to your clinic three weeks after returning from a trip to a dry, prairie-dog rich part of Central America. He remembers removing a tick from his leg four days before his departure from Central America, and having his first shaking chill on the plane home. He soon had a series of shaking chills, followed by fever for four days, and before he could get medical care, the fever and chills spontaneously resolved (went away) only to return for four days, then disappear again. His physical exam reveals no rash or organomegaly (enlarged organs such as liver or spleen), but he has a temperature of 104.8o F. As part of the patient's work up, you order a complete blood count. The technician doing the count calls you because there is a long curvaceous bacterium among the red blood cells on the smear of your patient's blood. The most likely cause of your patient's fever is: A. Treponema pertinue, causing "yaws" B. Borrelia recurrentis causing "relapsing fever" C. Treponema pallidum causing secondary syphilis D. Treponema carateum causing "Pinta"

A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely to be caused by? a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae e. Staphylococcus aureus

Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPt: a. Clostridium difficile b. Enterococcus faecalis c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio cholerae e. Campylobacter sp.

Each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent infections, EXCEPT: a. Cytomegalovirus b. Hepatitis A virus c. Hepatitis B virus d. Herpes simplex virus e. Hepatitis C virus

Grandparents may get a sometimes painful disease with skin blisters in connection with chickenpox disease in their grandchildren. What is the name of the disease? a. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy b. shingles c. smallpus d. infectious mononucleosis

Infections that are acquired in a hospital or other health care facility are called: a. contagious diseases b. nosocomial infections c. staphylococcal infections d. transient infections e. pathogens

Lancefield system basis on: a. capsular antigen b. carbohydrate antigens c. sugar fermentation d.flagella antigen e. oxygen consumption

Listed below are five bacteria paired with a mode of transmission. Which one of the pairings is MOST accurate? a. Borrelia burgdorferi - mosquito bite b. Yersinia pestis - flea bite c. Coxiella burnetii - bat guano d. Rickettsia rickettsii - contaminated food e. Mycoplasma pneumoniae - contaminated food

Sample of blood for bacteriological examination should be transported: a. in solid transport medium b. in liquid transport medium c. in syringe d. in transport tube e. c and d are correct

The most important level of bacterial classification is the: a. family level b. species level c. genus level d. subspec'ies level

The ocular infections caused by these Gram-positive bacilli usually occur after traumatic penetrating injuries of the eye with a soil-contaminated object. Select the agent which, in your opinion, is MOST likely to cause this clinical presentation. a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Bacillus cereus c. Clostridium difficile d. Enterococcus faecalis e. Staphylococcus aureus

The pathogenesis of which one of the following diseases does NOT involve an exotoxin? a. (A) Scarlet fever b. (B) Typhoid fever c. (C) Toxic shock syndrome d. (D) Botulism

The process by which the nucleotide sequence of a mRNA molecule determine the primary amino acid sequence of a protein is called: a. transduction b. translation c. translocation d. transformation

Which of the following statements concerning the bacterial genome is not true? a. the bacterial genome is the total collection of genes carried by bacteria both on its chromosome and on its extrachromosomal genetic elements (if any) b. bacterial chromosomes are nonessential replicons which often determine resistance to antimicrobial agent and production of virulence factors c. the chromosome of a typical bacterium is a single, double-strand, circular molecule of DNA d. bacteria usually have only one copy of their chromosomes, they are therefore haploid

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning human infections by Staphylococcus aureus? a. primary infection typically occurs after inhalation of the organism b. some strains produce exfoliatin, an exotoxin that causes scalded skin syndrome c. a petechial skin rash is caused by endotoxin in the blood, and appears in most septic cases d. some strains produce streptolysin O, an exotoxin that causes scalded skin syndrome e. some strains produce enterotoxin that causes an infection usually seen in infants and young children

Which of the following would be present in highest numbers in the indigenous microflora of the skin? a. Candida albicans b. coagulase-negative staphylococci c. Enterococcus spp. d. Escherichia coli e. Campylobacter spp.

A 47-year old woman in India is becoming blind due to repeated infections with Chlamydia Trachomatis. There is some pus draining from her eyes. What can be seen in the pus stained by imminofluorescene? a. elementary bodies b. inclusion bodies c. Negri bodies d. gram-negative diplococci e. antibodies

BB *Elementary bodies* -infectious. *Reticulate bodies* -dividing. *Inclusion bodies* -can be seen.)

Which of the following virulence attributes is not associated with shigella? a. all shigella contain and endotoxin LPS b. has flagellated forms, which are more virulent than flagellated forms c. shigella dysenteriae type 1 secreted a poteint, heat-labile protein exotoxic (shiga toxin) that causes diarrhea and acts as a neurotoxin d. organisms possess the capacity to multiply intracellularly, resulting in focal destruction and ulceration

BB (nonmotile)

An infection of the urinary bladder is known as a) urethritis b) urethritis c) cystitis d) pyelonephritis

Doctors prescribe synergistic drug combinations to treat bacterial infection. The purpose of such treatment is to: a. change the bacteria with cell walls to L-forms lacking cell walls b. prevent drug resistant mutants from emerging c. reduce the treatment time of the disease d. b and c are correct e. all of the above

BB + broaden spectrum

A 22-year-old female graduate student at William and Mary College went to the infirmary complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. She had been feeling tired for about 10 days. Her temperature was 37.8 C and her throat was red. Her tonsils were swollen and touched at midline. what are the most common causes of sore throat/pharyngitis? a. respiratory viruses b. gram-positive bacteria c. mycoplasma d. normal flora

BB--> S. pyogenes

An experimental compound is discovered that prevents the polysaccharide capsule formation. The virulence of which of the following bacteria might be prevented with the use of this experimental compound? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Haemophilus influenzae type b c. Salmonella enteritidis d. Campylobacter sp. e. Enterococcus faecalis

BB→ vaccination

What will be stained in an indirect stain using an acidic dye?

Background will be stained.

Which bacteria does most commonly cause anaerobic infections?

Bacteroides fragilis

Herpesviruses belongs to an important group of large DNA, with what feature in common?

Basic mode of replication

Treatment of S.aureus infection with penicillin may be ineffective due to production of __________ by the strain or modification of _____________in bacterial cells.

Beta-lactamases Penicillin-binding protein

How is hepatitis B + C mainly transmitted?

Blood (can be sexual as well but less likely)

We can diagnose Leptospira interrogans by direct microscopy of _____ and _____.

Blood urine

What is the most commonly used medium to isolate streptococci?

Blood agar

How does the view of the specimen appear in a darkfield microscope?

Bright against a dark background.

What type of microscopy let us watch stained preparations/dead cells.

Bright-field microscopy.

Pseudomona aeruginosa is a significant cause of ___a____ infections, with a _____ percent mortality rate.

Burn 60

33. A 22-year old woman presents with a 2cm ulcer on her labia. The lesion has a raised border and is relatively painless. Presumptive causative agent is: A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Treponema pallidum D) Candida albicans

45. Which of the following bacteria is the common cause of pharyngitis? A) Corynebacterium dyphteriae B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

84. Many of streptococci can be classified in the: A) Kauffmann system B) ASO test C) Lancefield system D) Harris (VSRL) system

A 22 year old woman presents with a 2 cm ulcer on her labia. The lesion has a raised border and is relatively painless. Presumptive causative agent is a) chlamydia trachomatis b) neisseria gonorrhoaea c) treponema pallidum d) candida albicans

A 30-year-old patient comes to clinic complaining of a three-week history of cough. He started with a runny nose, fever and sneezing for a few days followed by a dramatic cough that keeps him up at night. He complains of episodes of coughing where he will have "fits" of coughing with 10-15 coughs during one exhalation to the point that he is afraid that he will never be able to take in a breath. These coughing episodes are so severe that his ribs are extremely sore. An organism you should consider would be: A. Staph aureus B. Tuberculosis C. Bordetella pertussis D. Haemophilus influenzae

A localized pyogenic infection of the skin, usually resulting from folliculitis is a: a) Stye b) sebum c) furuncle d) carbuncle

A patient has a gastric ulcer induced by Gram negatived, curved rod. Which characteristic appears to play a central role in the ability of the organism to colonize the stomach? a. Phospholipase C induction b. Motility c. Urease production d. Lipopolisaccharide (endotoxin)

A patient with Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection develops shock, which is triggered by a) catalase b) flagella from Gram-negative bacteria c) Lipid A d) O-specific polysaccharide side chain of endotoxin

A preterm (33-week) infant girl is born at home to a 16-year-old mom after 22 hours of labor after the rupture of the membranes. A friend helped the mother deliver the baby. The now 4 day old infant now shows signs of sepsis. What is the best description for the most likely causative agent? All organisms in the answer choices are Gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci found in pairs or short chains. a. Nonhemolytic organisms found as part of the normal fecal flora; resistant to bile and optochin; carries a high level of drug resistance b. Alpha-hemolytic diplococci sensitive to both bile and optochin c. Beta-hemolytic cocci in chains and carrying Lancefield's Group B antigen d. Alpha-hemolytic cocci in chains; resistant to bile and optochin

A small baby is born at 39 weeks gestation (a process by which a child develops inside his mother's body before birth) with a petochial rash, low birthweight, hepatosplenomegaly and bilateral cataracts. This is thought to be due to an infection acquired while the baby was still in the uterus. Select the agent that is most likely to cause this clinical presentation: a. CMV b. Group B streptococcus c. Rubella virus d. Treponema pallidum

All of the following are characteristics of Enterobactericeae, except: a. Some can produce both endotoxins and exotoxins b. May be differentiated c. All of them are always associated with human diseases d. They ferment glucose with acid and often with gas production

All of the following can be transmitted by recreational water sources except: a. Amoebic dysentery b. Cholera c. HBV d. Salmonellosis

An acid-fast staining is useful for identification of: a) Chlamydia b) Rickettsia c) Mycobacterium d) Helicobacter

Because bacterial meningitis is such a serious and often rapidly fatal disease, cereborspinal fluid (CSF) specimens are processed immediately. Important information that is learned about the specimen is immediately reported to the requesting physician, preliminary report often save patients lives. Which of the following laboratory investing is LEAST useful for diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. A) Cellular and biochemical analysis of the CSF B) Gram stain and culture of the CSF C) urine sample culture D) assays for N. Menigitidis, H. Influenzae type b and s. Pneumoniae antigens in CSF

CAMP is based on? a. Gamma reaction ( no hemolysis or discoloration of the agar) are streptococcus colonies b. A hemolysis of streptococcus mitis c. B hemolysis of staphylococci aureus enhanced by streptococcus agalactiae d. B hemolysis of S. pyogenes enhanced by enterococcus faecalis

Cellulitis are caused by? a) Neisseria b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) streptococcus pyogenes d) streptococcus viridans e) staphylococcus aureus f) treponema pallidum

Choose a proper specimen sent to microbiology laboratory? a) midstream urine sample on a sterile swab b) midstream urine sample taken with a sterile swab from a clean but not sterile container (from urine sent also for haematological tests) c) midstream urine sample taken to a sterile container d) urine sample taken from the foley catheter collection bag

Cloudy and turbid CSF indicates that the origin of causative agent of meningitis is: A) fungal B) viral C) bacterial D) all of the above

Clubbing of the fingers.. a) Can be one of the late complications of sepsis and inflammation b) Responds quickly to an effective therapy c) Both a and b are true d) Both a and b are false

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by A. JC virus B. Pumuula virus C. Prions D. SV40 virus

Diphtheria toxin is produced by? a) streptococcus b) listeria c) corynebacterium d)mycobacterium e) mycoplasma f) all listed bacteria

Each of the following childhood infections with respiratory manifestations is rare in developed countries due to vaccination, EXCEPT: a) diphtheria b) whooping cough c) otitis media d) measles

Each of the following factors predisposes towards CNS infections, except: a. Age b. Alcoholism c. Gender d. Innate of acquired immunodeficiency

Each of the following microorganisms is related to urinary tract infection, except? a. proteus vulgaris b. Escherichia coli c. Haemophilus influenzae d. enterobacter cloacae

Each of the following statements concerning certain Gram-negative rods is correct except: a)Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes wound infections that characterized by blue-green pus as a result of pyocyanin production b)invasive disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae is most due to strains possessing a type b polysaccharide capsule c)Legionella penumphila infection is acquired by inhalation of aerosols from environmental water sources d)Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertusis is in the rise because changing antigenicity has made the vaccine relatively ineffective

Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct, except: a. Superantigens are exotoxins T b. Toxoids are exotoxins that retain only toxic properties c. The genes coding toxin production can be located on plasmids of in bacteriophages d. A-B toxins interfere with host-cell function

Enterobacteriaceae are: a) Obligate aerobes b) obligate anaerobes c) facultative anaerobes d) facultative aerobes

Enterococcus is where? a) oral cavity b) thorax c) intestine d) urogenital tract

Enteroviruses are most closely related to which of the following viruses. A. Herpes simplex B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis A D. Rotavirus E. Rubella

Furuncle (boil) is most commonly caused by: a) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Coagulase -negative staphylococci

HIV reverse transcriptase, a critical target in modern antiretroviral chemotherapy, performs which critical function for the virus: A. Cleaves polyprotein precursor leading to functional assembly of viral core B. Cleaves sialic acid residue from glycoprotein permitting attachment and entry into cell C. Transcribes RNA into DNA D. Activates oligoadenylate synthetase

Helicobacter pylori can cause: a) Veneral disease b) Weil`s disease c) Peptic ulcer d) Lyme*`s diease

In Gram stained slide Corynebacterium is: a) Gram- rod b) Gram+ cocci c) Gram+ rod d) Gram- cocci

In a 12 year old boy with acute meningitis the gram stained slide of CSF revealed gram negative cocci. What is the most likely cause of the disease? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. streptococcus pyogenes c. neisseria meningitidis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

In order to cause disease, Corynebacterium diphtheriae must: a) Produce hemolysin b) Create pseudomembrane c) Be infected with a lysogenic, toxin producing bacteriophage d) Invade a blood-stream

Inclusions and reticulate bodies are present in a growth cycle of? a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Treponema pallidum c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Leptospira interrogans

Legionella transmitted by: a) person-to-person b) Uncooked meat c) contaminated water droplets d) fecal-orally

Many of the streptococci can be classified in the? a. Kauffman system b. ASO test c. Lancefield system d. Harris (VCRL) system

Of the following statements concerning blood agar medium, point this one, which is NOT true; a) blood agar is commonly used to isolate streptococci b) it consists 5% sheep red blood cells c) blood agar is a selective-differential medium d) this medium can be used to detect hemolytic properties e) blood agar is commonly used to isolate staphylococci and many other pathogens f) it is enriched medium

One of the most common sexually transmitted infections may lead to cervical carcinoma. Which of the following viruses cause this disease a) cytomegalovirus b) epstain barr virus c) papillomavirus d) herpes simplex virus (HSV)

All Enterobacteriaceae share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Ferment glucose B. Reduce nitrates to nitrites C. Oxidase positive D. Gram negative E. Rod-shaped (bacilli)

Which of the following is mismatched? a. streptococcus pyogenes→ scarlet fever b. streptococcus pneumoniae→ lobar pneumonia c. corynebacterium diphtheriae→ pertussis d. pseudomonas aeruginosa→ swimmer's ear

Which of the following is the most common clinical syndrome associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Lobar pneumonia C. Tracheobronchitis D. Bullous myringitis E. Percarditis

Which of the following is the most frequent cause of blood transfusion-associated hepatitis? a. HAV b. HBV c. HCV d. HDV

Which of the following media is most suitable for identifying Neiserria gonorrhoeae in cervical swab? a. Sheep blood agar b. MacConkey agar c. Thayer-Martin medium d. Hektoen enteric agar

Which of the following microorganism are resistant to methicillin? a. MDR-TB mycobacterium tuberculosis b. PRSp streptococcus pneumoniae c. MRSA staphylococcus aureus d. VRE enterococci

Which of the following microorganisms is not spread by droplets? a.Neisseria meningitidis b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Hepatitis B virus d. all answers

Which of the following organisms is stained with Ziehl-Neelsen method? a) Neisseria b) Mycoplasma c) Mycobacterium d) Corynebacterium e) Clostridium f) treponema

Which of the following pairs is mismatched a) acne vulgaris- propionibacterium acnes b) folliculitis- staph. aureus c) furuncule- trichophyton sp. d) impetigo - group A streptococci

Which of the following properties do viruses have that is common with the bacterial section containning Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae? a. They are both the same size b. They both have RNA strand for their genomes c. They both are intracellular pathogens d. They both contain enzymes for glucose metabolism

Which of the following staphylococci organisms cause UTIs in young sexually active female? a) S. aureus b) S. epidermidis c) S. saprophyticus d) haemolyticus

Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? a. Presence of HIV antibodies in a patient indicates that the infection will be cleared b. HIV-1 arise as an endogenous virus because HIV-1 DNA is found in normal cells c. Antibodies to HIV-1 antigens are generated in infected patients but are unable to eliminate infections d. If treatment reduces plasma viral load to undetectable, the patient is cured

Which of the following statements about Lyme disease and its clinical manifestations are correct? a. It is characterized by rash throughout the trunk and extremities Correct is erythema migrans b. The stages of the disorder are distinctive and do not overlap c. It is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi d. Manifestations of stage 3 may appear within one week of the initial infection.

Which of the following statements concerning tinea(taenia) pedis (fungus) infections is NOT true a) KOH microscopy is the method of choice for visualizing hyphae b) tinea pedis is a very common fungal infection that originates in the moisten areas c) the infections are most frequently presenting warts on feed d) superficial infections that are limited to the epidermis of feet

Which of the following statements concerning upper respiratory tract infections is NOT true? a) many systemic diseases begin in the upper respiratory tract, including measles mump and smallpox b) otitis media is a very common childhood infection that originates in the throat c) the infections are rare, although the incidence is increasing, especially in the elderly d) symptomatic infections that are confined to the upper respiratory infections include rhinitis, pharyngitis and epiglottitis

Which of the pathogens frequently cause skin and soft tissue infections? a. Haemophilius pneumoniae b. Legionella pneumophila c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Vibrio cholerae

Which of the pathogens id the most common cause of antibiotic associated diarrhoea? a. Escherichia coli O:157 b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Candida albicans d. Salmonella enteritidis

Which of the specimens named below should be refrigerated? a. internal ear specimens b. eye specimens c. blood specimens d. spinal fluid specimens

Which one has a capsule: a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None.

Your patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis caused by a member of the viridans group of streptococci. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism? a. Skin b. Colon c. Oropharynx d. Urethra

___ one of sexually transmitted viruses causes 99% of cervical carcinoma? a) HIV b) CMV c) HPV d) HSV

all of the following are diseases caused by streptococcous pyogenes EXCEPT for : A)pharyngitis B)Rhumatic fever C) Gastroenteritis D)necrotic something

causes food-poisoning, skin infections, is coagulase positive: a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Escherichia coli

CAMP is based on: A) gamma reaction (no hemolysis or discoloration of the agar) are Streptococcus pyogenes colonies B) a hemolysis of Streptococcus mitis C) b hemolysis of staphylococcus aureus enhanced by Streptococcus agalactiae D) b hemolysis of S. Pyogenes enhanced by enterococcus faecalis

C (In a CAMP test we can identify group B streptococci (agalactiae). It requires the presence of S. aureus)

Which of the following bacteria are especially sensitive to low temperature (the specimen shouldn't be transported and maintained in temperature below 30 degrees)? a. E. Coli b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Salmonella enteritidis

C (E. coli + Salmonella = stool = 4C Pseudomonas aeruginosa = BAL = 4C N. meningitidis = CSF = 37C)

The patient was a 19-year old girl with a history of UTI. She developed left flank pain and fever (38,8). Urinanalysis of mid-stream urine sample was notable for >50 white cells for high power field, 3-10 RBC per high power field and bacteria. Urine culture was positive for >10000 c.f.u per ml. MacConkey agar, pink colonies were observed. a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Neisseria gonorrheae c. Escherichia coli d. Treponemia pallidum

C (E.coli is a gram - bacilli that is lactose + (turns pink in MacConkey agar). 90% of kidney infections is due to E.coli and can cause left flank pain. )

A 4-year-old child comes to the emergency room with a sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and difficulty breathing. On exam there is obvious difficulty each time the child tries to take in a breath with sounds suggesting obstruction. A lateral neck x-ray shows a swollen epiglottis. The organism most likely to cause this syndrome is: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Group A streptococcus C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Candida albicans

C (epiglottitis)

A 4th year medical student from the UofU traveled to Northern Ghana during an international rotation to Accra. He was fortunate enough to see a patient with Dracunculus medinensis in which they were extracting a worm from his leg onto a pencil. This parasite is being eradicated from the world. Which of the following is least likely to help rid the world of Dracunculus medinensis? A. Boiling surface water before drinking it B. Using a coffee filter or shirt to filter out copepods before drinking surface water C. Treating of sewage before it enters fresh surface water D. Preventing persons suspected of having Dracunculus from wading in the drinking water E. Treating ponds used for drinking water with insecticide

C (hvorfor ikke E)

A common characteristic of Legionella species is that they: A. Are gram positive rods B. Are acid fast C. Require supplemental ingredients to grow them in laboratory media D. Are extracellular pathogens

C (iron and cysteine)

A 24-year-old pigeon fancier presents with fever to 40 degrees C, severe, diffuse headache, malaise, dry hacking cough and muscle aches. Lung exam reveals bilateral crackles and there is hepatosplenomegaly. The most likely pathogen causing this infection is: A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Chlamydia pneumoniae C. Chlamydia psittaci D. Franciscella tularensis

C (transmitted by BIRDS)

The likelihood of HIV being transmitted from a pregnant woman to her infant in the absence of antiretroviral therapy is about: A. 1 in 500 B. 1 to 5 % C. 20 to 25% D. 50 to 75%

C (If mother would be treated with Zidovudine the risk reduced with ⅔ of transmitting the virus to the child)

A 25-year-old man complains of a urethral discharge. You perform a Gram stain on a specimen of the discharge and see neutrophils but no bacteria. Of the organism listed, the one MOST likely to cause the discharge is: a) Treponema pallidum b) Candida albicans c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Coxiella burnetii

C (because its obligatory intracellular)

Each of the following statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct EXCEPT: A. The disease is characterized by a rash that begins on the trunk and moves distally. B. The recrudescent form of the disease is called Brill-Zinsser C. The disease is caused by Rickettsia typhi D. The causative organism is transmitted to humans by lice

C - caused by rickettsia prowazekii

Staphylococcus aureus was inoculated on the DNase agar contains 0.2%DNA and incubated 24h at 37c. The clear zone around the bacterial growth after adding 2% HCL means that? a) bacteria do not produce enzyme which hydrolyses DNA and DNA remains in the agar b) In HCL dissolves the DNA c) DNA remained in the agar because bacteria broke down the DNA d) the DNA added to the medium disappears in the presence of HCL

C(?) (((D?? --> clear zone around growth after adding 1N HCL (no DNA remaining in the agar) cloudy around growth after adding 1N HCL (DNA remains in the agar forming a precipitate)))

Which of the pathogens frequently cause skin and soft tissue infections? a) Borrelia burgdorferi b) Legionella pneumophilia c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Streptococcus pyogenes e) Vibrio cholerae f) Propionibacterium acnes

C, D

. Cellulitis are caused by: a. Neisseria b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus viridans e. Staphylococcus aureus f. Treponema pallidum

C, E

Cellulitis are caused by: a. Neisseria b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes also H. Influenzae, Gr. A streptococcus d. Streptococcus viridans e. Staphylococcus aureus f. Treponema pallidum

C, E

Handwashing is important means of interrupting the chain of transmission from one person to another. Infection of skin by which pathogen of the following bacteria is most likely to be interrupted by hand washing? a) Borrelia burgdorferi b) Legionella pneumophila c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Streptococcus agalactiae e) Treponema pallidum f) E. coli

C, F

107. The first step in viral gene expression is synthesis of: a. DS DNA b. SS DNA c. mRNA d. tRNA

57. Which of the following statemens concerning the communication between physician and laboratory is NOT true? A) communication between laboratory and clinican is essential to the proper selection of bacteriology tests and interpretation of their results B) the physician should inform the laboratory staff of the tentative diagnosis (type of infection or infectious agent suspected) C) physician should wait for the laboratory confirmation of the clinical diagnosis and then undertake the patient treatment. D) as the laboratory staff begins to obtain results, they inform the physician

73. Influenza virus has a segmented genome, while parainfluenza virus does not. Epidemiologically, what is the significance of this? a. Paraflu can only infect children b. Flu can only infect adults c. Paraflu has stable antigenic types, flu does not d. Flu has stable antigenic types, paraflu does not

A Chinese male has had right upper quadrant pain for the past 10 years. Workup for gallbladder disease with an ultrasound shows small linear organisms. O&P exam reveals the ovoid, flask shaped egg of Clonorchis sinensis. Which of the following statements is false regarding Clonorchis sinensis? A. It is also called the oriental liver fluke B. Man is a definitive host C. This infection can best be treated with surgical removal of the gallbladder D. There are two intermediate hosts - the snail and the fish E. Long-term infection has been associated with cholangiocarcinoma (cancer of the bile duct)

All of the following are characteristics for Enterobacteriaceae except? a) some can produce both endotoxin and exotoxin b) may be differentiated according to genre and species by antigens (serology) c) all of them are always associated with human diseases d) they ferment glucose with acid and often with gas production

All the following statements about non-spore-forming anaerobes are correct, except: a. They are pleomorphic and can be either Gram-negative of Gram-positive b. They are usually found in mixed infections c. They include genes Mobiluncus, causing gingivitis d. They represent majority of the total fecal flora

Causes painful vesicular rash along the course of thoracic nerve: a. HSV type I b. Rabies virus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Measles virus

Each of the following agents is recognized cause of diarrhea, except: a. Clostridium perfringens b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Haemophilus influenza

Each of the following statements concerning gram stain is correct, except: a. Staining bacteria enhances the contrast between bacteria and the surrounding material and permits observation greater detail and resolution than wet mount procedures b. Bacteria are prepared for staining by smearning them onto a microscopic slide c. Only one staining technique is available for visualization, differentiation and separation of bacteria in terms of morphological characteristics and cellular structures d. Staining techniques may involve simple stains or differential stains

Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct, except: a. It had backbone composed of alternating units of mumaric acid and acetylglucosamine b. Cross-links between the tetrapeptides involde D-alanine c. It is thinner in gram-positive than in gram negative cells d. It can be degraded by lysosyme

Each of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of resistance to antimicrobial drugs is correct, except: a. R plasmids carry the genes coding for multiple antibiotic resistance b. Resistance to some drugs is due to alteration of the receptor for the drug in the bacterium to reduce or block binding of the antibiotic c. Resistance genes are rarely transferred by conjugation d. Resistance to some drugs is due to production of the enzyme which inactivate or detoxify the drug

If the venipuncture site is inadequately disinfected, blood cultures are most often contaminated with which of the following bacteria? a. E. Coli b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Haemophilus influenzae

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? a. Fungi b. Plantae c. Protosbacteria (Gram-negative bacteria) d. Firminicules (Gram-positive bactaria)

One of the key differences between amantidine/rimantidine and the newer neuraminidase inhibitor influenza virus drugs is: A. drug allergy B. antimetabolic effect on host cells due to lack of specificity for viral enzymes C. rate of development of drug resistance D. drug-drug interactions associated with competition for cytochrome P450 enzymes

Suppose you inoculate three flasks of minimal salts broth with E. Coli. Flask A contains glucose, flask B contains glucose and lactose, flask C contains lactose. After a few hours of inoculation, you test the flasks for the presence of B-galoctosidase. Which flask(s) do you predict will have this enzyme. a. A b. B c. C d. A and B

The "kissing disease" is a nickname for: a. Smallpox Svenska: smittkoppor b. Flaccid muscular paralysis c. EBV mononucleosis d. Hand-foot-mouth-disease

The diagnosis of septicemia should be considered in patients who are at increased risk of blood stream infection (often secondary to local disease, such as urinary tract infection or pneumonia). All of the following are factors predisposing patients to septicemia except: A. Underlying diseases that appear to compromise host defenses, such as diabetes, lymphoma, etc. B. Patients with a polymorphonuclear leukocyte count less than 1000/mm3 C. Patients with polymorphonuclear leukocyte counts of 10,000 to 20,000 D. Long term therapy with broad-spectrum antimicrobials.

The infection site helps in determining the most likely cause of patient's sepsis. Which of the following organisms does not belong to the community acquired pathogens causing lung infections that may result the sepsis development? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Coxiella burneti d. Chlamydia pneumoniae

The modes of transmission play an essential role in the pathogenesis of disease. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Transplacental - Treponema pallidum b. Fecal-oral - Salmonella enteritidis c. Sexual contact - HAV d. Blood - HBV

The pathogenesis of dengue hemorrhagic shock syndrome is distinguished from that of uncomplicated dengue by A. Excitotoxic injury of neurons B. Development of dengue virus meningiits C. Immune enhancement of infection D. Neurotropic spread of virus

Which if the symptoms listed below is NOT a late complication of sepsis: A) clubbing fingers B) amyloidosis C) inflammation D)splenomegaly

Which of the following belongs to molecular methods of microbial identification? A) slide agglutination test B) microscopic examination C) PCR D) ELISA

Which of the following organisms is stained with Ziehl-Neelsen method? a. Neisseria b. Mycoplasma c. Mycobacterium d. Corynebacterium e. Clostridium f. Treponema

Which of the following statements associated with culture techniques is NOT true? A) Specimens, possibly containing high-risk category organism, eg sputum from suspected case of tubercolosis can not be examined by culture B) most medically important bacteria and fungi can be cultured on/in laboratory media C) Culture remains the most reliable method for confirming diagnosis and optimizing treatment by the performance of antibiotic susceptibility tests D) Various media and culture conditions are utilized for different specimens, relfecting the likely pathogens

Which of the following statements concerning taenia pedis infections is not true? a. KOH microscopy is the method of coice for visualizing hyphae b. Taenia pedis is a very common fungal infection that originates in the moisten areas c. The infections are most frequently presenting warts on feet d. Superficial infections that are limited to the epidermis of feet

Which statement describing the potential advantages of DNA technologies over conventional culture- based methods is not true? A. Greater stability of samples during transport B. Potentially more sensitive detection C. More complete and accurate determination of organism resistance to antibiotics D. More rapid than culture

aenia saginata and Taenia solium are similar in many ways, but Taenia solium is more dangerous. Which of the following makes T. solium more dangerous? A. It has an armed scolex B. It has fewer uterine branches than T. saginata C. Man can be infected as an intermediate host by eating the eggs from T. solium D. The cyst or larvae form ingested from pork is more potent than the cyst from beef E. It produces more eggs than T. saginata

A child comes to an emergency room because of an infected dog bite. The wound is found to contain small Gram-negative rods. The most likely cause of infection is a. E. coli b. H. influenzae c. Pasteurella multocida d. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

A male baby is born at 39 weeks gestation with a petechial rash, low birthweight, hepatosplenomegaly and bilateral cataracts. This is thought to be due to an infection acquired while the baby was still in utero. Select the agent which, in your opinion, is the MosT likely to cause this clinical presentation. a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) b. group B streptococcus c. Rubella virus d. Treponema pallidum e. Rotavirus

A patient presents with explosive, watery, noninflammatory diarrhea along with headache, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Symptoms began the day after eating raw oysters. What is the most likely causative agent? a. Rotavirus b. Salmonella enteritidis c. Vibrio parahaemolyticus d. Staphylococcus aureus

A skin abscess or boil is most often caused by? a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Clostridium tetani c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Streptococcus pyogenes

An 18-month-old male patient presents with fever, lethargy, malaise, productive coughing, and vomiting. Gram stain indicates the presence of a Gram-negative coccobacillus. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely responsible for the disease? a. Bordetella pertussis b. Escherichia coli c. Haemophilus influenzae type b d. Pasteurella multocida e. Treponema pallidum

An important characteristic of mycobacteria is that they are: A. Gram negative B. Rapid growing (doubling time 15 minutes) C. Acid fast D. Alpha hemolytic

An inhibitor was designed to block a biologic function in H. influenzae. If the goal of the experiment was to reduce the virulence of H. influenzae, the most likely target would be a. Endotoxin assembly b. Flagella synthesis c. Capsule formation d. IgA protease synthesis

Bacteria which grow on Mannitol Salt agar in Gram stained slide will be described as: a. Gram-negative rods b. Gram-positive rods c. Gram-positive cocci d. Gram-negative cocci e. Gram-positive ling bacilli

Characteristics of a bacterial capsule include: A. All bacteria have one B. It is composed of peptidoglycan C. It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacteria against ingestion by PMNs D. It is what causes the gram stain reaction

Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT: a. Exotoxins are polypeptides b. Exotoxins are more easily inactivated by heat than are endotoxins c. Exotoxins are less toxic than the same amount of endotoxins d. Exotoxins can be converted to toxoids

Each of the following statements concerning the normal flora is correct EXCEPT: a. The normal flora of the colon consists predominantly of anaerobic bacteria b. The presence of the normal flora prevents certain pathogens from colonizing the upper respiratory tract c. Fungi, eg, yeasts, are not members of the normal flora d. Organisms of the normal flora are permanent residents of the body surfaces

Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, a 24-year-old woman and her husband both developed nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which one of the following organisms is the MOST likely to be involved? a. (A) Clostridium perfringens b. (B) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli c. (C) Bacillus cereus d. (D) Salmonella typhi

Infections of the urinary tract are the most common type of diseases they cause. They produce large quantities of urease, which splits urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia. Which of the following choose those bacteria which, in your opinion, are responsible for such infections? a. Escherichia coli b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Proteus mirabilis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus e. Enterococcus faecalis

Mark the sugar which fermentation is the base for identification of Escherichia coli on MacConkey medium: a. glucose b. mannose c. lactose d. maltose

Microscopy of CSF taken from patient with suspected meningitis shows a lymphocytosis, high protein count and low glucose. A ziehl-neelsen stain of the CSF shows acid fast bacilli. Which of the following etiologic agents of meningitis is responsible for this patient's disease. a) strept. pneumoniae b) haemophilus influenzae type b c) mycobacterium tuberculosis d) listeria monocytogenes

Noninvasive diagnostic test for detection of helicobacter pylori is called: a. CAMP test b. PYR-test c. "urea-breath" test d. "limus-milk" test

Of the organisms listed below, which one is the MOST frequent bacterial cause of pharyngitis? a. (A) Staphylococcus aureus b. (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae c. (C) Streptococcus pyogenes d. (D) Neisseria meningitidis

The coagulase test, in which the bacteria cause plasma to clot, is used to distinguish a. (A) Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis b. (B) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus c. (C) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis d. (D) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis

Which of the following statements concerning neisseria gonorrhoeae clinical disease is not true ? a. results in mucous membrane infections, primarily in the anterior urogenital tract b. repeated infection may cause scarring with subsequent sterility in either gender and may predispose women to ectopic pregnancy c. may involve an associated acute gastroenteritis d. reflects various type of infections, including: urethritis, endocervicitis, rectal infections, pharyngitis, disseminated infections

Which of the following viruses is the common cold cause? a. respiratory syncytial virus b. enterovirus c. Rhinovirus d. EBV virus

The antibiotic streptomycin inhibits bacterial growth by binding to a protein in the 30S (subunit) of the ribosome. Based on this information streptomycin inhibits a. DNA synthesis b. Transcription in eukaryotes c. Translation in prokaryotes d. Translation in eukaryotes

CC (Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines also bind to 30s)

To prevent Clostridium infections in a hospital setting, what kind of disinfectant should be used? a. Fungicidal b. Pseudocidal c. Sporicidal d. Tuberculocidal

CC (Tuberculocidal→ anything that destroys mycobacterium tuberculosis)

CC (It is transmitted via fecal-oral route)

The term bacteriostatic means that bacteria: a. are killed by the antimicrobial drug b. no longer cause disease c. can no longer multiply d. show continuous growth e. b and c are correct

CC → inhibit growth

Which one of the following toxins is implicated in staphylococcal ***(nail/hand) poisoning? a. toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) b. membrane damage α-toxin c. exfoliative toxin B (ETB) d. enterotoxin A

CC?

A toxoid is a. a toxin that acts on the small intestine b. a protein released by microbes as they mature c. non toxic, but remains immunogenic. d. a type of toxin that stimulates a large immune/inflamatory response

CC→ inactive exotoxin used in vaccines

HIV leads to low cell count of which cell?

CD4

Oxygen requirements for aerotolerant anaerobes? Obtain energy from..?

Cannot use oxygen for growth, but can tolerate it. Fermentation.

____________ is the major virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Capsule

We can perform a ____________ test, to easily differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species.

Catalase (Staph = positive Strep = negative)

What type of infection can S.Pyogenes cause if it enters injured skin?

Cellulitis

Which Chlamydia specie is sexually transmitted?

Chlamydia trachomatis

A man with chills, fever, and headache is thought to have "atypical" pneumonia. The disease is caused by _______________ or_______________.

Chlamydophila pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae

What type of agar does Haemophilus influenzae grow in?

Chocolate agar (For H. influenzae to be able to grow in a chocolate agar it requires factor 5 and 10. Factor 5 is Staphylococcus aureus, this makes "satellite colonies". )

What triggers pseudomembraneous colitis?

Clostridium difficile

Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene?

Clostridium perfringes

Rickettsia species require ______ , _________ and ______ to survive?

CoA NAD ATP

What is pigmented in a water soluble type?

Colonies and agar are pigmented.

What is pigmented in a water insoluble type?

Colonies are pigmented. Agar not.

Diphtheria toxin is produced by come strains of __________ species?

Corynebacterium

. What method should be used to sterilize materials such as (...) sera? a. Pasterurezation b. Autoclaving c. UV-light d. Filtration

114. What is the most important virulence factor of E. Coli causing UTI? a. LPS b. Flagella c. Capsule d. Fimbriae

70-year old man with long history of smoking has a fever and cough productive of greenish sputum. The gram stain preparation reveals very small Gram-negative rods. No growth on blood agar plate is observed, but the colonies are observed on chocolate agar. Which of the following bacteria is most likely the causative agent? a. Chlamydia pneumoniae b. Legionella pneumophila c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Haemophilus influenzae

A 12 year old boy presents with acute onset of sore throat, fever to 38.9 degrees C and painful anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. On exam the pharynx is red and swollen and the tonsils are covered with yellow- white exudate. The child also has halitosis. Which of the following non-suppurative complications are of concern? A. Sinusitis B. Acute rheumatic fever alone C. Acute glomerulonephritis alone D. Acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis E. Scarlet fever alone

A 44-year-old native Nigerian who has lived in the USA for 10 years returned to visit his family in Africa and now presents with a history of shaking chills, followed by high fever and then profuse sweating. He states that this is the most severe case of malaria he has ever had. His blood smear shows malaria organisms consistent with Plasmodium falciparum. Which of the following statements is false regarding P. falciparum? A. His symptoms are more severe this time because he has lost some of the immunity that comes with frequent recurrences of malaria B. Taking appropriate prophylactic medication has an 80-90% chance of preventing P. falciparum malaria C. P. falciparum causes organ damage in the brain, lungs, and kidneys because of adhesion of infected red cells to the endothelium of the capillaries which impairs the microcirculation to these organs D. P. falciparum gametocytes are ameboid shaped E. Plasmodium falciparum has the highest mortality rate of the four malaria species

A Utah congressman went to Japan as part of a delegation trying to sell the Great Basin National Park to the Japanese so that a Japanese mulching company can convert the 3000-year-old bristlecone pines in the Utah park into mulch for window boxes. About six weeks after some intense entertaining of the American delegation by the Japanese, the congressman develops a low-grade fever and a red-brown macular rash on the palms of his hand and the soles of his feet. He comes to your clinic for evaluation of the rash. He has only vague memory of a tea ceremony involving attractive young Japanese women. Which of the following actions is entirely without a rational basis in this medical situation and/or would not reflect good wisdom on your part: A. You put on gloves to exam the rash further, and wear the gloves to examine the patient's mouth. B. You order a serologic test for which the antigen is a non-organism-specific cardiolipin. If the previous test is positive, you may want to confirm it with an organism-specific test like the T. pallidum FTA-ABS test. C. You tell the patient not to have unprotected sex with anyone until the results of the serologic test in B are available. D. You tell the patient that this rash is most likely the initial manifestation of an infection that is likely to progress quickly, so immediate IV antibiotics are necessary

All of the following statements about members of the family Enterobactericae are correct, except: a. Characteristics of the organisms' colonies on different media have been used to identify common members of this family b. The heat-stable LPS is the major cell wall antigen Because they are G-neg they have LPS c. The Enterobactericeae have simple nutritional requirements, ferment glucose, reduce nitrate and are catalase positive and urease negative d. All these organisms are motile at room temperature but not at 37 degrees, and they exhibit a characteristic tumbling motion; these differential characteristics are useful for their preliminary identifications.

An anaerobic spore-forming gram positive bacillus is: a. Actinomyces spp b. Lactobacillus spp c. Propionibacterium spp d. Clostridium spp

An anaerobic spore-forming gram positive bacillus is? a) actinomyces spp b) lactobacillus spp c) propionibacterium spp d) clostridium spp e) staphylococcus spp f) enterococcu spp

At the first step in antibody-detecting ELISA test the microtitre well should be coated with A) unknown antibody B) irrelevant protein antigen blocking remaining space C) enzyme labeled anti-human antibody D) specific antigen

Available vaccination may prevent from infection caused by? a) Streptococcus. Pyogenes b) Enterococcys faecalis c) Neiseria gonoreae d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Bacteria in the genus staphylococcus tranditionally were divided in to two groups on basic of their ability A) to form a loose fitting, capsular polysaccharides layer B) to grow at a temperature 18c to 40c C) to cause infections of the skin D) to clot blood plasma

Blood sample for culture should be sent to the laboratory a. in sterile tube at 4℃ b. in a sterile tube, at 27℃ c. in a solid transport medium at 22℃ d. in a liquid transport medium at 37℃

Borrelia burgdorferi can cause: a) Veneral disease b) Weil`s disease c) Peptic ulcer d) Lyme`s disease

Bullous impetigo is associated with: a) Coagulase b) Toxic shock syndrome -1 c) Enterotoxin d) Exfoliative toxins

By this stage of syphilis the Treponema spirochete has invaded and will cause damage to various parts of the body including the blood vessels, heart and central nervous system: A) Incubation period B) Primary stage C) Secondary stage D) Tertiary period

Detection of the cell wall protein called clumping factor (CF) is the primary test for identifying? a) mycobacterium leprae b) clostridium perfringens c) neisseria gonorrhoeae d) staphylococcus aureus e) streptococcus viridans d) streptococcus pyogenes

Diarrhea may be a symptom of diseases for all of the following microorganisms except? a. Shigella dysenteriae b. rotavirus c. Vibrio cholerae d. Herpes simplex virus type 2

Each of the following parasites pass through the human lung at some time during their life cycle but only one establishes a home where it divides and causes a chronic disease state. Which one lives in the lung as a definitive host? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Paragonimus westermani E. Ascaris lumbricoides

Each of the following statements concerning Treponema is correct, EXCEPT? a) Treponems are members of the normal flora of human of oropharynx b) Patients infected with treponema pallidum produce antibodies that react with beef heart cardiolipin c) T. pallidum cannot grow on conventional laboratory medium d) T. Pallidum cannot be visualized in microscopy e) T. pallidum can not be gram stained f) T. pallidum cause infection only in humans

Food poisoning may be caused by a toxin produced by? a. Bacillus cereus b. staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium botulinum d. all answers are correct

Impetigo is most commonly caused by: a) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Listeria monocytogenes c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae d) Staphylococcus aureus

Infantile diarrhea is usually attributable to: a. Adenovirus b. Coronavirus c. Norwalk virus d. Rotavirus

Leptospira interrogans can be diagnosed with a: a) darkfield microscope b) light microscope c) fluoroscent microscope d) A and B e) All

Listeria are: a) Gram- cocci b) Gram - rods c) Gram+ cocci d) Gram+ coccobacilli

Mycobacterium and related species? a. Are obligate anaerobe b. will gro won most microbiologic media if inoculated up to f... c. are only found in humans f d. are all acid fast bacilli

Pelvic inflammatory disease is primarily a disease of young, sexually active women. Which of the following pathogens at least causes PID? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (nej) b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Salmonella enteritidis

The S. Bovis belong to the serological group: a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

The enterococcus faecalis belong to the serological group: a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

This year there have been 7 travelers to eastern Africa that have contracted Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. They have all presented in the early stage of the disease with a "chancre" of the skin associated with cellulitis (red hot swelling) around the chancre. Which of the following is false regarding Trypanosoma brucei? A. Progression of the disease is more rapid in rhodesiense than in gambiense B. Early diagnosis allows for a more effective, safer medication that can be used before the parasite reaches the brain C. Rhodesiense has multiple hosts while in gambiense, humans are the only host D. Epidemics of African sleeping sickness have occurred by person to person spread E. Both are transmitted by the Tsetse fly

To isolate single colonies of staphylococcus aureus from mixed cultures of bacteria one should spread the bacteria on: a. Nutrient agar plate b. MacConkey agar plate c. Nutrient agar slant d. Chapman agar platE

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) most often arises from the use of superabsorbent tampons and is caused by a superantigen produced by which organism? a) Escherichia coli b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Staphylococcus aureus

Trichuris trichiura or whipworm is a frequent parasite found in humans. Which of the following is false for Trichuris trichiura? A. Heavy infestations may result in diarrhea sometimes associated with blood B. Light infections may be asymptomatic C. The eggs have a barrel-like appearance with bipolar plugs D. After ingestion the eggs hatch into larvae that migrate through the lung before maturing in the duodenum E. The eggs passed in stool are unembryonated, so they require a time to mature in the soil before they become infectious

Vaccines are used to prevent human disease caused by? a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Clostridium perfringens c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Bordetella pertussis e. b and c are correct

Virulence factors of Mycobacteriacene do not include? A) intracellular survival B) cord factor C) cell wall components D) exotoxin

What bacteria can be LEAST suspected for causing otitis media? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Moraxella catarrhalis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

What of the following is the LEAST possible factor rising the risk of prosthetic joint implants infection? a) viremia b) diabetes c) prior infection d) prior surgery

Where can we find enterobacteriaceae: a) Urogenital tract of only humans b) Urogenital tract of humans and animals c) Intestine of only humans d) Intestine of humans and animals.

Which are motile: a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None.

Which bacteria do NOT represent the normal flora of respiratory tract? a) Gram-negative cocci b) Gram-positive cocci c) Corynebacterium spp d) Mycobacterium spp

Which bacteria represent the normal flora of the respiratory tract? a) Gram + cocci b) diphtheroid bacilli c) Gram - cocci d) All of the above

Which of the bacteria listed below grow only in anaerobic condition? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Enterococcus faecalis d. Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following agar is most appropriate to use for Salmonella detection? a. MacConkey b. Chapman c. Blood agar d. SS e. Sabouroud f. Esculin agar

Which of the following bacteria are the LEAST probable cause of endocarditis? A) Staphylococcus spp. B) Enterococcus spp. C) Streptococcus spp. D) Haemophilus spp.

Which of the following bacteria is the least probable cause of endocarditis? a. Staphylococcus spp b. Enterococcus spp c. Streptococcus spp d. Treponema spp

Which of the following disease is not caused by microbial protein toxin? a. Botulism b. Diphteria c. Shigella dysentery d. Tuberculosis

Which of the following diseases is NOT related to clostridial infections? a) tetanus b) botulism c) gas gangrene d) scalded skin syndrome

Which of the following diseases may be caused by Staphylococcus aureus? a) cellulitis b) toxic shock syndrome c) impetigo d) all of the above e) scalded skin syndrome f) sepsis

Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A streptococci is called "spreading factor," an enzyme important in skin and soft tissue infection? A. Streptokinase B. Hyaluronidase C. M Protein D. Deoxyribonuclease C E. None of the above

Which of the following groups of disease is always caused by a virus? a. measles, tuberculosis, gas gangrene b. erysipelas, chickenpox, botulism c. rubella, whooping cough, meningitis d. influenzae, rabies, mumps

Which of the following methods is NOT used to confirm active tuberculosis? a) chest X ray b) chest tomography c) PPD skin test d) bacterial culture on blood agar e) Lowenstein-Jensen medium f) Ziehl-Neelsen staining

Which of the following microorganisms are considered obligate intracellular pathogens? a. Chlamydias, rickettsias, mycobacterium leprae and treponema pallidum b. Mycobacterium lebrae and treponema pallidum c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and viruses d. Rickettsias, chlamydias and viruses

Which of the following microorganisms causes pneumonia plague? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Chlamydophila psittaci c. Francisella tularensis d. Yersinia pestis

Which of the following specimen collection and transport guidlines is NOT correct? A) if transport requires more than 2h, a special holding medium is required B) specimens for anaerobic culture should be stored at room temperature C) small volumes of fluid or tissue should be submitted within 15-30 minutes D) midstream urine is an appropriate sample for anaerobic vulture

Which of the following specimens should not be refrigerated? a. Nasopharyngeal swabs b. Abscess aspirate c. Blood d. CSF

Which of the following staphylococci organisms cause UTIs in young sexually active females? a. staphylococcus aureus b. staphylococcus haemolyticus c. staphylococcus epidermidis d. staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which of the following statements concerning Neisseria gonorrhoeae clinical disease is not true? a. Results in mucous membrane infections, primarily in the anterior urogenital tract b. Repeated infections may cause scaring with subsequent sterility c. May predispose women to ectopic pregnancy d. May involve an associated acute gastroenteritis

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning human infections by Staphylococcus aureus? a) primary infections typically occurs after inhalation of the organism b) a petechial skin rash is caused by endotoxin in the blood and appears in most septic cases c) a fulminating form of the disease, called Waterhouse-frederichsen syndrome can be fatal within several hours due to massive intravascular coagulation and resulting shock probably as a result of massive endotoxin release d) some strains produce exfoliation, an exotoxin that causes scalded skin syndrome e) some strains produce streptolisin O, an exotoxin that causes scalded skin syndrome f) some strains produce enterotoxin that causes an infections usually seen in infants and young children

Which of the following statements is true concerning Q fever: A. The organism is transmitted by fleas B. Headache, fever, and petechial rash are characteristic features of the disease C. The chronic disease is call Brill-Zinsser D. The disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii

Which of the following statements regarding mycoplasmas is NOT correct? A. Mycoplasmas are the smallest free-living micro-organisms. B. Mycoplasmas are resistant to cell wall active antibiotics. C. Mycoplasmas are common commensals of the respiratory and urogenital tracts. D. Mycoplasmas stain well with the Gram's stain. E. Mycoplasmas grow slowly on enriched media.

Which of the following toxins induces electrolyte loss as a result of overproduction of cAMP? a. Clostridium tetani toxin b. Corynebacterium diphteriae exotoxins c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxins d. Vibrio cholerae

Which one of the following is considered a virulence factor of staphylococcus aureus? a. A heat-labile toxin that inhibits glycine release at the internuncial neuron b. An oxygen-labile hemolysin c. Resistance to novobiocin d. Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG

You have 3 test stuff with different staphylococcus species: A, B and C. First, you test all of them with a catalase test. What result would you expect? a) A positive b) B positive c) C positive d) All positive e) none positive

You see a young child for evaluation of fever, abdominal pain, enlarged liver and eosinophilia. You suspect toxocariasis from Toxacara canis or cati. Which of the following statements is false about Toxocara? A. It can result in retinal lesions that can impair vision B. It is caused by the larvae of the "dog or cat ascaris" that wander through the body unable to find the lung to complete their life cycle C. It is associated with persons who eat dirt D. It can be spread by contact with human feces E. It is often found in young puppies or kittens

Your patient is a 25-year old man with an ulcerated lesion on his penis that is not painful. You suspect that it may be a chancre. Which of the following bacteria doesn't have an animal reservoir? a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Coxiella burnetti c. Leptospira interrogans d. Treponema pallidum

his is the most pathogenic species of the genus staphylococcus and is implicated in a variety of infections. Some of them involve the skin. The most serious infections are bacteremia, pneumonia, oesteomyelitis, acute endocarditis, meningitis, scalded skin syndrome and abscesses. Which of the following species best fits the description? a. S. Haemolyticus b. S. Saprophyticus c. S. Intermedius d. S. Aureus e. S. Epidermidis f. S. Pathogenus

which of the bacteria below grow only in anaerobic conditions? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following is not one of Koch's postulates? A. The organism is regularly found in lesions of the disease B. The organism can be isolated from diseased tissues in pure culture on artificial media C. Inoculation of this pure culture produces a similar disease in experimental animals D. Treatment of the disease with a broad spectrum oral antimicrobial dependably eradicates the organism and cures the disease

D (*Koch's postulates are four criteria designed to establish a causative relationship between a microbe and a disease.* 1. bacteria NOT present in healthy people. 2. bacteria can be isolated and grown in pure culture. 3. if you inject the cultured bacteria in to a a healthy organism, it should be sick. 4. it should be able to re-isolate again.)

Sample from lumbar puncture should be delivered ASAP to the laboratory: a. In room temparute b. In dry ice c. Below room tempature d. In temperature not lower than 30 degrees

D (CSF - sterile tub - 37C)

A disease in which there are spams of a patient's muscle, opisthotonos, risus sardonicus and stiffness of the jaw among characteristics symptoms is caused by? a) Clostridium botulinum b) Borrelia recurrentis c) Treponema pallidum d) Clostridium tetani

D (Clostridium tetani cause spasm of the muscles, including stiffness of the jaw (lockjaw), spasm of the muscles of the trunk (opisthotonos). Can prevent it by vaccination. 1mill + cases worldwide and 50% mortality rate, newborns have 90% mortality. )

Bacteria in the genus of staphylococcus traditionally were divided in two groups on basic of their ability? a. To form loose fitting capsular polysaccharides layer b. To grow at a temperature 18c to 40c c. To cause infections of the skin d. To clot blood plasma

D (Coagulase + staphylococci and coagulase - staphylococci)

Which of the following agar is most appropriate to use for Salmonella detection? a) MacConkey b) Chapman c) Blood agar d) SS e) sabouroud f) esculin agar

D (Salmonella-shigella agar)

Each of the following statements concerning hemolysis is true, EXCEPT? a) hemolysis refers to the lysis of the red blood cells in the agar surrounding bacterial colonies and is a result of bacterial enzymes called hemolysins b) reactions on blood agar are said to be beta, alpha, gamma or double zone c) double zone hemolysis refers to both a beta and an alpha zone of hemolysis surrounding the bacterial colony on blood agar d) alpha hemolysis appears as a clear, colorless zone surrounding the colony, where a complete lysis of the red blood cells by the hemolysis has occurred

D (alpha --> green)

T/F: Serology is the diagnostic test of choice in the diagnosis of acute infection of Chlamydia trachomatis.

What bacterial virulence factor is present on all organisms causing urinary tract infection and most causing sexually transmitted diseases? A) Fc receptors B) endotoxin C) capsules D) fimbriae

Which of the folliwing treatments is crucial for patients infected with V. Cholerae? a. Antibiotic treatment b. Immediate vaccination c. Laboratory examination of rice-water stoold d. Replacement of fluids and electrolytes

Which of the following condition is non-suppurative sequela of streptococcus pyogenes infections? a. Acute rheumatic fever b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Erythema nodosum d. All of these

Which of the following principles named below is LEAST important during transportation of a sample to the laboratory? A) avoiding any leakage of the specimen B) safe handling of the specimen while being transported and processed C) proper labeing of the specimen D) promoting growth of pathogenic bacteria during transportation

Which of the following serological tests is certainly quialitative? a. Tube agglutination b. Passive haemagglutination c. Slide agglutination d. All of them

here are many bacterial-antimicrobial resistance combinations. Which one of the following is the major international concern? a. Sulfonamide resistance in Neisseria menigitidis b. Penicillin G resistance in Neisseria gonorrheae c. Ampicillin resistance in Haemophilus influenzae d. Vancomycin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following statements regarding Enterotoxigenic E. coli are CORRECT? A. They are important causes of traveler's diarrhea. B. Transmission occurs from ingestion of contaminated food and water. C. Disease is caused by production of one or both of two types of enterotoxins. D. None of the above are correct. E. All of the above are correct.

D? vi tror E

A 78-year-old man, cough producing a blood-tinged sputum, and difficulty breathing. Sputum shows organism consistent with Streptococcus pneumoniae. What is the most important virulence factor? a. Endotoxin b. A phospholipase allowing Streptococcus pneumoniae To escape the phagosome quickly c. Polypeptide capsule d. Polysaccharide capsule

An anaerobic spore-forming Gram positive bacillus is: a) Actinomyces spp. b. Lactobacillus spp. c. Propionibacterium spp. d. Clostridium spp. e. Staphylococcus sp.

Attributes of pathogenicity of Listeria monocytogenes include all of the following except: a. is intracellular (i.e. within mononuclear phagocytes and epithelial cells) b. "reorganizes" host cell acti.. the resulting actin trails propel Listeria directly into other cells, avoiding the extracellular environment c. produces listeriolysin O, which facilitates the rapid phagosomal egress of Listeria into the cytoplasm prior to phagosome-lysosome fusion, allowing protected intracellular replication d. has an endotoxin

Bacteria that require moderate to large amounts of salt for their survival are known as: a. Capnophiles b. Barophiles c. Mesophile d. Halophiles

Bacterial fimbriae are used for: a. cellular motility b. exchange of genetic information c. cell wall synthesis d. adherence to surfaces e. b and d are correct

Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections EXCEPT: a. (A) Escherichia coli b. (B) Proteus mirabilis c. (C) Klebsiella pneumoniae d. (D) Bacteroides agilis

Each of the following statements concerning chlamydiae is correct EXCEPT: a. (A) Chlamydiae are strict intracellular parasites because they cannot synthesize sufficient ATP b. (B) Chlamydiae possess both DNA and RNA and are bounded by a cell wall c. (C) C. trachomatis has multiple serotypes, but C. psittaci has only one serotype d. (D) Most chlamydiae are transmitted by arthropods

Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct EXCEPT: a. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium b. Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis c. Both gram-negative rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide ("endotoxin") in their cell wall d. Bacterial flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they closely resemble human flagella in chemical composition

Heat sensitive items (e.g. rubber, plastic) can be sterilized by: a. autoclaving b. dry heat c. UV radiation d. gaseous ethylene oxide e. none of these

The MOST important protective function of the antibody stimulated by tetanus immunization is: a. (A) To opsonize the pathogen (Clostridium retain) b. (B) To prevent growth of the pathogen c. (C) To prevent adherence of the pathogen d. (D) To neutralize the toxin of the pathogen

Which of the following is the metabolically active form of Chlamydia trachomatis? A. Elementary body B. Jolley body C. Extracellular body D. Reticulate body E. None of the above

You would expect the time course of a typical patient with reactivation tuberculosis before they reach a point requiring hospitalization to take: A. A few hours B. 4 to 5 days C. 1-2 weeks D. Several weeks

Your patient is a 20-year-old woman with severe diarrhea that began yesterday. She has just returned from a 3 week trip to Peru, where she ate some raw shellfish at the farewell party. She now has watery diarrhea, perhaps 20 bowel movements a day, and is feeling quite weak and dizzy. There were no trace of blood in the stool. A Gram stain of the stool reveals curved gram-negative rods. Of the following organisms, which one is MOST likely to be the cause of her diarrhea? a. Campylobacter Jejuni b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Vibrio cholerae

Which one of the following organisms that infects the gastrointestinal tract is the MOST frequent cause of bacteremia? a. (A) Shigella flexneri b. (B) Campylobacter jejuni c. (C) Vibrio cholerae d. (D) Salmonella typhi

DD (*Bacteremia* is bacteria in the blood.)

You receive a urine culture report from the laboratory on a 45 year old patient who is a quadriplegic with an indwelling urinary tract catheter. The urine culture is growing >100,000 oxidase positive gram negative bacilli. The most likely organism is: A. E. coli B. Enterococcus C. Klebsiella D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

DD (E.coli - oxidase negative) (Enterococcus - gram + cocci) (Klebsiella - oxidase negative)

Each of the following events involves recombination of DNA EXCEPT: a. Transduction of a chromosomal gene b. Transposition of a mobile genetic element c. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage d. Conjugation, eg, transfer of an R (resistance) factor

DD (jeg tror C /k)

Inhibition of bacterial nucleic acid synthesis is the mode of action of? a. aminoglycosides b. macrolides c. penicillins d. quinolones e. tetracylines

DD A→ protein synthesis B→ protein synthesis C→ cell wall synthesis E→ protein synthesis

Which one of the following BEST describes the mode of action of endotoxin? a. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes b. Inactivates elongation factor 2 c. Blocks release of acetylcholine d. Causes the release of tumor necrosis factor

DD (and interleukin-1)

Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct EXCEPT a. They are more stable on heating than exotoxins. b. They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not c. lipid A is responsible for endotoxin toxicity d. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not

DD → remember to appreciate that endotoxins are not the same as exotoxin;;;)

Advantage to the bacterium trying to colonize the bladder or the intestine is a. toxin production b. capsule c. urease production d. motility

DD?

A 74-year old woman is hospitalized with community-acquired pneumonia. Blood and sputum cultures grew a-hemolytic catalase negative, bile-soluble, optochin-sensitive organism. what is the major virulence factor of this microorganism? a. hemagglutinin b. neuraminidase c. pyocyanin d. capsule e. pili

DD→ S. pneumonia

How does the view of the specimen appear in a brightfield microscope?

Dark against a black background.

How does the view of the specimen appear in a phase-contrast microscope?

Dark against a light background.

What type of microscope is used to visualise Treponema pallidum?

Darkfield ( The cells in Treponema are too small to be visualised by brightfield. )

What type of microscopy let us watch cells that are too difficult to stain?

Darkfield microscopy.

Name the factors which predispose a man to a RTI: OPEN

Diabetes mellitus Smoking Immunosuppressive therapy

The virulence factor of Corynebacterium is ____________ toxin.

Diphtheria (The virulence factor Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an exotoxin (diphtheria toxin) with 2 subunits: A and B. A=active subunit, B=binding subunit. A-B exotoxin will inhibit elongation factor 2 (EF-2) → inhibits ribosome functioning → inhibits protein synthesis → cell death)

Clostridium will show a __________________hemolysis.

Double-zone

155. Scalded skin syndrome is caused by staphylococci producing a. TSST-1 b. Leukocidin c. Protein A d. Verotoxin e. Exfoliatin f. Aflatoxin

A 22-year old college student is seen because he has had severe chronic diarrhea and a stool for O&P is positive for Giardia lamblia. He has lost 50 pounds in weight and has been treated for Giardia on 6 occasions only to have it reoccur. You are concerned that he has an immunodeficiency and lab results demonstrate a very low IgA level. Which of the following statements would be false regarding Giardia? A. It is one of the causes of H2S or rotten egg gas B. It is often a self-limiting disease C. A weight loss of 50 pounds due to Giardia is very unusual D. You are not surprised when 5 of 11 dorm mates are found to have Giardia because it is spread from person to person easily E. It often results in iron deficiency anemia due to gastrointestinal blood loss

A 42-year old patient from Ecuador is admitted with fever, right upper abdominal pain and is found to have a cystic mass of the liver. You suspect an amebic abscess and order stool exams that are reported as positive for E. histolytica and an ameba serology is positive at 1:256. Which statement is false regarding ameba? A. He should be treated with two medications. One to kill the active trophozoites and a second to kill the cysts. B. Transmission is by fecal-oral means C. Amebic liver abscess can usually be treated with medication and do not need to be drained D. Transmission to a new person is generally done by the more resistant cyst form of the life cycle E. Aspirate from liver cysts can be used to make the diagnosis because they are loaded with white blood cells and E. histolytica cysts

All of the following statements about the M-protein of Group A Streptococci are correct EXCEPT: A. The amino terminal portion (distal portion) is variable, accounting for over 80 distinct serotypes. B. M proteins allow streptococci to resist phagocytosis. C. Antibodies to M protein confer type-specific immunity. D. M protein is the major virulence factor of Group A streptococci. E. M protein is the major constituent of the capsule of Group A streptococci.

An ophthalmologist from Cameroon, Africa describes the microfilaria seen in the eye of patients with Onchocerciasis. He states that he treats only after finding 30+ microfilaria because of the toxicity of Diethyl- Carbamazine that was used for treatment. Now with a less toxic agent, (Ivermectin) a major attempt is being made to eradicate Onchocerca volvulus. Which statement is false regarding Onchocerca volvulus? A. It is transmitted by the Simulian Black fly that reproduces in rapidly moving water B. Itching of the skin is a prominent feature of this disease C. The adults live in a nodule on the skin with the female producing large numbers of microfilaria that migrate under the skin D. Diagnosis can sometimes be made by finding the microfilaria in a skin snip or skin biopsy E. The microfilaria mate in the human skin and develop into the adult parasite

This July a group of 30 volunteers went to Kenya to help build a school and all of them took prophylaxis to prevent malaria. They claim that they took the medication as prescribed 2 weeks before, during their stay, and for 4 weeks after returning home. In October, one person developed malaria and by April of this year, 9 of the 30 volunteers had been treated for malaria. Which of the following is the least likely explanation for this apparent failure of prevention? A. This is most likely P. vivax or ovale which have a latent stage in their life cycle that persists in the liver and can result in disease weeks to months after exposure B. Most of the medication used for prophylaxis of malaria acts only on the red blood cell stage of the infection C. This could be P. malariae which is known to result in a more chronic malaria state D. This could be P. falciparum that was not completely treated by the prophylaxis E. The nine who got malaria must not have taken the medication as prescribed since this should have prevented malaria

What nonsuppurative complications may develop as a result of a localized infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes? a. impetigo b. rheumatic fever c. acute glomerulonephritis d. a and b e. b and c are correct

Which can ferment sugars: a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None.

You have just examined a patient from Brazil who has a chronic ulcer of his ear that has been present for 6 months. You are concerned that he has Leishmaniasis and want to differentiate L. mexicana from L. braziliensis. Which of the following statements about these 2 organisms is false? A. They are both transmitted by the sand fly B. Both appear as amastigotes in macrophages on biopsy C. Both can start as a cutaneous ulcer that eventually heals on its own D. Both heal with a residual scar E. Both will eventually cause lesions of the mucous membranes

Which of the following bacteria are unable to grow on artificial media? a. enterococcus b. staphylococcus c. chlamydia d. rickettsia e. c and d are correct

E (Chlamydia + rickettsia + viruses need a living host.)

Which can cause nosocomial infections: a) Enterobacter b) Serratia c) Klebsiella d) A and B e) All of them f) None

E (Enterobacter, serratia and klebsiella are normal flora of the intestinal tract. When a person is immunosuppressed, commonly in the hospital, these bacteria can start to cause infections. )

What is the O antigen of Enterobacteriaceae? A. Cell surface polysaccharide B. A channel controlling substance taken into the organism. C. A flagellar protein D. A peptidoglycan matrix important for cellular rigidity E. Cell wall lipopolysaccharide

E (The group O streptococcal group antigen was shown to be a polysaccharide located in the cell wall of the organism)

A physician calls from an outlying hospital to report that his patient has passed a large, white, round worm with pointed ends that is about 8 inches long. He is concerned this could be Echinococcus but the only parasite that matches this description is Ascaris lumbricoides. Which of the following is false regarding Ascaris lumbricoides? A. Most infected humans are asymptomatic B. Large numbers of larvae passing through the lung can cause asthma type symptoms C. Large numbers of adult worms in the gut can cause obstruction D. The fertilized unembryonated egg passed in the stool requires a period of time to embryonate before it becomes infectious E. Heavy infection has been associated with rectal prolapse

E (Trichuris trichiura is the one that causes rectal prolapse)

What is the #1 cause of urinary tract infections?

E. coli

Name three pathogens which can be the reason of diarrhea.

E. coli Salmonella Shigella

A student returns from a student teaching assignment in Zimbabwe. On the way home she swam in Lake Malawi. She is found to have schistosomiasis. Four of the following answers are good advice on how to prevent schistosomiasis. Which one is bad advice? A. In risk areas, don't swim in fresh water rivers or lakes B. Swimming in chlorinated pools is safe C. Swimming in ocean salt water is safe D. Toweling off vigorously after contact with potentially contaminated water decreases your risk E. Wading in water up to your knees is safe for brief periods of time

Which of the following antibiotic should be excluded from therapy of MRSA infections. a. penicillins b. cephalosporins (1 to 4th generation) c. carapenems d. penicillins with B-lactamase inhibitors e. all answers are correct

Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections? A. Aerobactin B. Alpha hemolysin C. Urease D. K1 antigen E. Pili

A 3-year old child presents at the physician's office with symptoms of cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, high fever, and Koplik's spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses? a. Herpesviruses b. Picornaviruses c. Orthomyxoviruses d. Rotaviruses e. Paramyxoviruses

Bacteria can acquire antibiotic resistance genes by: a. conjugation b. mutation c. transformation d. a and c are correct e. all of the above

Fever of unknown origin in a farmer who raises goats would most likely be caused by which of following organisms? a. Treponema pallidum b. Clostridium perfringes c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Brucella melitensis

The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is the major cell wall antigen of Enterobacteriaceae and one of their virulence factors. Which of the following components of an LPS complex is responsible for its toxic activity? a. lipid B b. outer part of core oligosaccharide c. inner part of core oligosaccharide d. O-specific polysaccharide e. lipid A

Which of the following microorganisms are considered obligate intracellular pathogens? a. chlamydias, rickettsias, Mycobacterium leprae, and Treponema pallidum b. Mycobacterium leprae, Treponema pallidum c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, viruses d. Mycobacterium leprae, chlamydiae sp. e. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses

Which of the following pathogens is unlikely to be a cause of nongonococcal urethritis? A. Ureaplasma urealyticum B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Mycoplasma hominis D. Mycoplasma genitalium E. Chlamydia pneumoniae

These microorganisms produce Shiga toxin causing sporadic cases and outbreaks of colitis characterized by bloody diarrhoea. They may also cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) particularly in young children. Which of the following microorganisms best fits the description given above?__________________.

EHEC Shigella dysenteriae

What test is commonly used to detect Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Elek-test

What are the 3 lifeforms of Chlamydia in its life cycle?

Elementary bodies (infectious) Reticulate bodies (replicates) Inclusion bodies (microscope)

Is E.coli: encapsulated or unencapsulated?

Encapsulated

S. bovis and E. faecalis are among the most common organisms causing ______.

Endocarditis

What do EIEC stand for?

Enteroinvasive e.coli

What kind of inflammation is: sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and difficulty breathing?

Epiglottitis

What waste product cause scalded skin syndrome?

Exotoxin/exfoliation

All of the following are characteristics of Corynebacterium diphtheriae except: a. It is a gram-positive, club-shaped rod b. Often occuring in V-, Y-, and L-shaped arrangements ("Chinese letters") c. Produces large volutin (polyphosphate) granules d. Causes diphteria e. Colonize upper respiratory and elaboration of a potent exotoxin f. Has a cell wall but the cell wall lacks peptidoglycan

All of the following are characteristics of corynebacterium diphtheriae EXCEPT a) it is gram +, club shaped rod b) often occuring in V, Y, and L shaped arrangements "chinese letters" c) produces large volutin (polyphosphate) granules d) causes diphteria e) colonize upper respiratory and elaboration of a potent exotoxin f) has a cell wall, but the cell wall lacks peptidoglycan

All of the following statements about Listeria monocytogenes infection are correct, except: a. Abscesses and granulomas occur in many different tissues b. Laboratory isolation involves cold enrichment technique c. Neonatal infections have a poor diagnosis d. It is a facultative anaerobic bacterium e. It can grow and reproduce inside the host's cells f. Neonatal infections occur only during passage through the infected birth canal

All of the following statements about listeria monocytogenes infection are correct EXCEPT A) abcesses and granulomas occur in many different tissue b) laboratory isolation involves cold enrichment technique c) neonatal infections have a poor prognosis d) is is a facultative anaerobic bacterium e) it can grow and reproduce inside the host cells f) neonatal infections occur only during passage through the infected birth canal

An anaerobic spore forming gram positive bacillus is? a) Actinomyces spp b) Lactobacillus spp c) Propionibacterium spp d) Pseudomonas e) Staphylococcus f) Clostridium spp

Mark the statements as true or false? Answer the false one. a) anthrax is primarily a disease of herbivores b) humans are infected through exposure to contaminated animals or animal products c) B.anthracis is a large gram positive organism d) human B. anthracis disease is acquires by inoculation, ingestion and inhalation e) B. anthracis is arranges as single or paired bacilli in clinical specimens f) B. anthracis is the second most common cause of community-acquired meningitis in adults

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae may involve an associated acute gastroenteritis?

T/F: Corynebacterium diphtheria has a cell wall, but the cell wall lacks peptidoglycan

T/F: Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat

T/F: Listeria monocytogenes neonatal infections occur only during passage through the infected birth canal

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiae - the group A beta haemolytic streptococcus

T/F: Streptococcus agalactiaeà scarlet fever

T/F: Streptococcus pneumoniaà beta hemolysis

T/F: Streptococcus species catalase positive

T/F: streptococcus pneumoniae belongs to the Lancefield serological group D

T/F: A common characteristic of Capnocytophaga, Moraxella, and Eikenella is that they Cause urinary tract infections.

T/F: Escherichia coli does not cause diarrhea,

T/F: Francisella tularensis is associated with food poisoning.

T/F: HIV-1 arise as an endogenous virus because HIV-1 DNA is found in normal cells.

T/F: HIV/AIDS: If treatment reduces plasma viral load to undetectable, the patient is cured

T/F: In early infection the HIV virus is most actively multiplying within the bloodstream.

T/F: Neisseria meningitidis can cause diarrhea.

T/F: Presence of HIV antibodies in a patient indicates that the infection will be cleared.

In tertiary syphilis the patient will develop _______-______ growth that can occur everywhere. The pupils will not react to __________ and the aorta will get a "_____-_____" appearance.

Gummas-soft light Tree-bark

SYMPTOMS OF TERTIARY SYPHILIS

Gummas-soft growth, that can occur anywhere. "Tree-bark" appearance of the ascending aorta. Aneurysm (widens). Degeneration of the nerves in posterior spinal cord. Argyll Robertson pupils → pupils do not react to light. (If the syphilis is not treated after 3-5 years, it will develop into tertiary syphilis. )

BCG vaccination is not recommended for___________ patients.

HIV

What is the major cause of cervical cancer?

HPV

What is the most common cause of viral encephalitis?

HSV

What is another name for HIV?

HTLV III

Haemophilus influenzae type B

Peptic ulcer was diagnosed in a 45-year old salesman. What is the MOST likely causative agent of his disease?

Helicobacter pylori

Which sexually transmittable virus causes warts, condylomata acuminata, cervical cancer?

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

_________ acid makes the capsule in S. pyogenes.

Hyaluronic

The class of antibody molecules that has ability to cross the placenta is Ig_______.

IgG

What is stenotrophomonas maltophila resistant to?

Imipenem (carbaoenem) , because its sensitive to beta-lactamases, which this bacteria produce.

Name factors which predispose a man to a CNS disease

Immunosuppressed Neurosurgery Elderly and children Newborns Respiratory tract infections

Name 5 skin and soft-tissue infections with pathogens which cause them:

Impetigo - S. aureus + S. pyogenes Cellulitis - S. pyogenes Folliculitis - S. aureus Furuncle - S. aureus Cutaneous diphtheria - C.diphtheriae Lupus vulgaris - M.tuberculosis

What do we use PCT (procalcytonin) for ?

In diagnosis of sepsis

The anaerobic specimen must be sent to the ____a_____ ASAP, and will be placed in an anaerobic transport ____b____, containing oxygen-free _______c____ or _____d____.

Laboratory tube CO2 nitrogen

Many of the streptococci can be classified under the ______ system.

Lancefield

Where in our body do we have the most microbes?

Large intestine

What is diarrhoea?

Loose, watery stools 3+/day

What are aerobic bacteria resistant to?

Metrondiazole , because it acts by accepting electrons under anaerobic conditions, so it cannot reduce the drug to its active form.

If Mycobacterium tuberculosis enters the bloodstream, we will get _________ tuberculosis.

Miliary

Spirochetes: motile or nonmotile?

Motile

What are the smallest free-living microorganisms?

Mycoplasma

Which sexually transmittable bacteria causes non-gonococcal urethritis?

Mycoplasma genitalium Ureaplasma urealyticum

You can diagnose chlamydia with ________.

NAAT

What are the normal flora of circulatory system?

NONE

Where is Streptococcus pneumonia is frequently found as normal flora in healthy carriers?

Nasopharynx

Which specie is gram - cocci?

Neisseria

Name bacteria which most frequently cause encephalitis:

Neisseria meningitidis

Acinetobacter: ferment sugar?

Can Chlamydia synthesise ATP?

Can Pseudomonas ferment sugars?

Chlamydia vaccination?

Are Enterobacter, serratia and klebsiella easily treated with antibiotics?

No (Multidrug-resistant)

We perform ___________ test to differentiate between S. epidermis and S. saprophyticus.

Novobiocin

Name 3 risk factor that predispose a man to skin and soft-tissue infections.

Obesity Age Malnutrion

What is the oxygen requirements for Bacillus?

Obligate aerobe

What is the oxygen requirement for Clostridium?

Obligate anaerobe

What will be stained in a direct stain using basic dye?

Organism becomes directly stained.

A patient comes in to the hospital and you suspect he has tuberculosis. You decide first to perform a ________ skin test.

PPD

The symptoms of primary syphilis is ________ __________ ________

Painless genital chancre

SYMPTOMS OF PRIMARY SYPHILIS

Painless genital chancre / ulcer (Primary syphilis occur ca. 3 weeks after sex with infected partner. If it is treated it will last for 3-6 weeks, if it is not treated it will develop to secondary syphilis. )

In secondary syphilis the patient will develop rashed on ________ and __________. And __________ ________ can occur on mucous membranes

Palms soles condyloma latum

What is the most common infection S. pyogenes cause?

Pharyngitis (S. Pyogenes most commonly cause pharyngitis, but it can spread to other areas of the respiratory tract, resulting in: laryngitis, bronchitis and pneumonia. If the bacteria enters lymph or blood it can cause meningitis, endocarditis osv. )

Name 3 pathogens of nervous system against which a vaccine is used in prophylaxis (prevention):

Polio virus Measles virus Clostridium tetani

You get a patient, which you suspect have Syphilis. You will start off having microscopic examination of fluid from ______ ___________ and on __________.

Primary lesions serology

A 42-year old woman with a history of urinary tract infections comes to the emergency room with burning on urination along with frequency and urgency. Which of the microorganisms probably caused this infection? _________________-

Proteus Mirabilis

Which pathogen can cause kidney stones?

Proteus mirabilis

Kidney stone - which bacteria?

Proteus mirablis

The most common Gram- non-fermentative rod that causes human infections is _________.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which pathogen(s) cause UTIs via catheter?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What is the prime cause of life-threatening burn infections?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Treating burn infections are really, really difficult. When a patient is burned, a thick crust called eschar will form. The bacteria growing above this eschar is no real threat, HOWEVER bacteria below can cause a severe infection, because it can move to the blood. It is not easy to treat it, because the eschar blocks the antibiotics. Then we need to scrape it off.)

S.agalactiae - what does it do in newborns?

Puerperal sepsis septicemia pneumonia meningitis

SYMPTOMS OF SECONDARY SYPHILIS

Rash on palms and soles. It is now systemic, not locally as it was in primary. Condyloma latum can occur on mucous membranes.

How is Yersinia pestis transmitted in bubonic plague?

Rat fleas

Oxygen requirements for microaerophiles? Obtain energy from..?

Require a low conc. of oxygen. Anaerobic respiration

S. pyogenes can result in which 2 autoimmune diseases?

Rheumatic fever glomerulonephritis

What is the #1 cause of severe diarrhea in children/infants?

Rotavirus

What streptococci spc. Is in Group B?

S. agalactiae

Which of the staphylococcus species is the most pathogenic one? (Answer S. __________)

S. aureus

You perform a blood agar test on an unknown Staphylococcus species. It is beta hemolytic. What specie is it?

S. aureus (S. aureus produces Beta hemolysin, which will break down RBCs and hemoglobin → clear zone in the blood agar.)

You perform a coagulase test on an unknown Staphylococcus species. It turns positive. What specie is it?

S. aureus (S. aureus produces the enzyme coagulase. Coagulase will convert: Soluble fibrinogen → insoluble fibrin. → plasma turns "gel-like".)

Name 4 frequently cause cardiovascular infections.

S. aureus S. epidermidis S. saprophyticus Enterococci Viridans streptococci Coxiella burnetti

What streptococci spc. Is in Group D?

S. bovis E. faecalis

Which staphylococcus species commonly infect prosthetic joints, prosthetic heart valves and can cause endocarditis?

S. epidermis S. hominis S. haemolyticus (S. epidermidis, hominis and haemolyticus are good at infecting protheses and implanted heart valves, because they are good at sticking to metal using biofilm. Biofilm is polysaccharides that "coat" the that staphylococci and protects it from antibiotics and immune cells. That is why vancomycin is the suggested treatment.)

You perform a novobiocin test on a Staphylococcus specie. We get a *zone of inhibition*. What specie is it?

S. epidermis.

Optochin sensitivity, which bacteria?

S. pneumoniae

Give 2 examples of a Streptococcus species that cannot be identified in the Lancefield system.

S. pneumoniae S. viridans

What is responsible for the most acute human streptococcal infections?

S. pyogenes

What streptococci spc. Is in Group A?

S. pyogenes

You perform a novobiocin test on a Staphylococcus specie. We get *no zone of inhibition*. What specie is it?

S. saprophyticus

Which staphylococcus species can cause urinary tract infections, especially in healthy, young women?(Answer S. ________)

S. saprophyticus.

What type of microscopy let us watch structures in 3D?

Scanning electron microscope

If streptococcal pharyngitis is not treated it can cause _______ and ______ fever.

Scarlet Rheumatic

Treponema pallidum is ___________ transmitted and cause _________.

Sexually syphilis

Which 3 species are gram + cocci?

Staphylococcus streptococcus enterococcus

A 54-year old man develops a pyogenic infection after knee surgery. The laboratory gives a preliminary report of a B-hemolytic, catalase positive, coagulase positive, Gram-positive coccus. The most likely causative agent is _____________.

Staphylococcus aureus

What is the most common pathogen of normal flora in the NOSE?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which 4 main bacteria is associated with food poisoning?

Staphylococcus aureus Bacillus cereus Clostridium perfringens Clostridium botulinum

Fill up gaps in sentence. The patients become violently ill approximately 2 hours after eating sandwiches prepared by a person with a boil on his neck. MOST likely bacteria that cause the symptoms is _________ producing the toxin called________.

Staphylococcus aureus Enterotoxin A-E

The most likely etiological agent of bone infection belong to the species (D) in the therapy _____(E) name the group, antibiotic may be considered.

Staphylococcus aureus Vancomysin (Noen S. aureus kan være MRSA (methicillin-resistant S.aureus). De er resistante mot penicillin-binding proteins (PBP), derfor bruker vi vancomysin.)

What are the most important normal flora pathogen of the skin?

Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Corynebacterium

How should BAL be correctly sampled and transported?

Sterile container, 4 degrees

How should urine be correctly sampled and transported?

Sterile container, 4 degrees.

How should pus be correctly sampled and transported?

Sterile tube or transport medium, room temp.

How should CSF be correctly sampled and transported?

Sterile tube, 37 degrees

How should stool be correctly sampled and transported?

Sterile tube, 4 degrees

Which species of bacteria is associated with rheumatic fever? __________.

Streptococci→ pyogenes

What is the most common pathogen of normal flora in the TEETH?

Streptococcus mutans

On patients suspected of having rheumatic fever ASO titer is determined. The elevated level of antibodies against virulence factor is due to: streptolysin O produced by____________.

Streptococcus pyogenes

What is the major cause of bacterial pharyngitis, scarlet and rheumatic fevers?

Streptococcus pyogenes

What are the folic acid syntact inhibitors?

Sulfonamides Trimethoprim

What is pseudomonas aeruginosa resistant to?

Sulfonamides, trimethoprim, tetracycline and chloramphenicol , because all of these have to be transported across the cell wall and P.aeruginosa has developed an efflux resistance. *Lack of uptake*

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae may predispose woman to ectopic pregnancy?

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae results in mucous membrane infections, primarily in the anterior urogenital tract?

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae: repeated infection may cause scarring with subsequent sterility?

T/F: Patients infected with treponema pallidum produce antibodies that react with beef heart cardiolipin

T/F: Treponems are members of the normal flora of human of oropharynx

T/F: the streptococci are gram-positive cocci that occur in pairs and chains

T/F: A disulphide protein that enchances B-hemolysis of S.aureus - CAMP factor

T/F: Alpha hemolysis viridians streptococci

T/F: Autoimmune dieases - rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis

T/F: Blood agar can be used to detect hemolytic properties

T/F: Corynebacterium diphtheria colonize upper respiratory and elaboration of a potent exotoxin

T/F: Corynebacterium diphtheria it is gram +, club shaped rod

T/F: Corynebacterium diphtheria often occuring in V, Y, and L shaped arrangements "chinese letters"

T/F: Corynebacterium diphtheria produces large volutin (polyphosphate) granules

T/F: Legionella pneumophila infection is acquired by inhalation of aerosols from environmental water sources

T/F: Listeria monocytogene adults can also be infected

T/F: Listeria monocytogene direct slide examination is useful in diagnostic

T/F: Listeria monocytogenes abcesses and granulomas occur in many different tissue

T/F: Listeria monocytogenes is is a facultative anaerobic bacterium

T/F: Listeria monocytogenes it can grow and reproduce inside the host cells

T/F: Listeria monocytogenes laboratory isolation involves cold enrichment technique

T/F: Listeria monocytogenes neonatal infections have a poor prognosis

T/F: Mycobacterium leprae division of the cells last longer than in other bacteria

T/F: Mycobacterium leprae is rod-shaped bacterium

T/F: Mycobacterium leprae it is the causative agent of leprosy

T/F: Mycobacterium leprae these bacteria are said to be acid-fast

T/F: Mycobacterium leprae this bacteria can not be cultures on the artificial media

T/F: Pharyngitis - the most common infection causes by Streptococcus pyogenes

T/F: Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes wound infections that characterized by blue-green pus as a result of pyocyanin production.

T/F: Streptococcus are usually classified according to their serological groups

T/F: Streptococcus are usually classified based on their hemolytic properties on blood agar

Do gram - bacteria have adhesins?

Yes

Haemophilus influenza: vaccination?

Yes

T/F: Shigella possess the capacity to multiply intracellularly, resulting in focal destruction and ulceration.

T (shigella cells multiply intracellularly and spread to neighbouring epithelial cells, causing shigellosis (ulceration, rectal bleeding) )

T/F: Most people who have Cryptosporidium are symptomatic.

T (symptoms are watery-diarrhea, dehydration, weight loss, fever. )

T/F: Mycoplasmas grow slowly on enriched media.

T (they are fuuucking slow)

T/F: Gram positive bacilli do *not* cause urinary tract disease.

T (they cause PID)

T/F: Clostridium perfringens can cause diarrhea.

T (via food poisoning!!)

T/F: Mycoplasma pneumoniae can cause diarrhea.

T virkelig???

T/F: tinea pedis is a very common fungal infection that originates in the moisten areas

T (Tinea pedis is the most common *fungal* infection seen in developing countries)

T/F: Neisseria gonorrhoeae reflects various types of infections, including: pharyngitis, disseminated infections

T (If the gonorrhoeae was transmitted orally, it can cause pharyngitis. )

T/F: enterobacteria may be differentiated according to genera and species by antigens (serology)

T(?)

T/F: enterobacteria may be differentiated according to genera and species by biochemical characteristics

T(?)

F/T: A cytolytic virus would be expected to cause cytopathic effect in cell culture.

Virulence of Staphylococcus aureus can be determined by _________ or ________ protein that binds to the Fc portion of IgG.

TSST-1 protein A

Clostridium tetani cause ____________.

Tetanus

In tuberculoid, ________ cells stimulate macrophages to engulf bacteria in cell-mediated immunity.

Th1

In lepromatous, ______a___cells is activated and have a humoral-mediated immune response. This results in a failure of __b___ cells activation, so bacteria is unable to be contained within macrophages.

Th2 Th1

what type of medium would you choose to culture Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Thayer martin agar (type of chocolate agar)

What type of agar is used to culture Neisseria gonorrhoea?

Thayer-Martin medium

What do chlamydia, rickettsia and viruses have in common?

They are small and *obligate intracellular organisms* that use the host cell for their own reproduction..

Chlamydia trachomatis is well-known cause of ___________ disease?

Trachoma Chlamydia

How should blood be correctly sampled and transported?

Transport culture media, 37 degrees

How should swabs be correctly sampled and transported?

Transport medium, room temp.

A 22-year old woman presents with a 2 cm ulcer on her labia. The lesion has a raised border and is relatively painless. Presumptive causative agent is: ______________.

Treponema pallidum

Which sexually transmittable bacteria causes syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

Which of the following agents represents occasional residents of oropharynx? a) alfa haemolytic streptococci b) veillonella pavula c) neisseria meningitis d) dipheroid bacilli

Tror a ifølge boken - I&H

What is the most common infection S. agalactiae cause?

Urinary tract infection

Haemophilus require factor _____ and factor _____ added to the chocolate agar.

V (NAD) X (hemin)

We have have several serological diagnostic tests for syphilis. What type of test would you start off with?

VDRL RPR (These tests are not specific for Treponema pallidum, but will give a positive result if the patient has Syphilis. The doctor takes a blood sample.)

What are Gram- bacteria resistant to?

Vancomycin , because its too large to pass through the pores in the membrane of Gram- cells. Therefore, its only effective against Gram+.

What are lactobacilli and leuconostoc resistant to?

Vancomycin , because vancomycin attached to our cell wall D-ALA D-ALA, however in these bacterias it has changed to D-LAC. Vancomycin has no target it can attach to. *Lack of appropriate cell wall precursor target.*

Which virus causes varicella (chickenpox) ?

Varicella-zoster virus (After chickenpox, this virus can stay in the sensory nerves and remain there "asleep" for many years and then be reactivated. Usually this happens from age 50-80 and in people who are immunocompromised. )

Five adults in a village in South Africa were admitted to the local clinic with voluminous watery diarrhea containing mucus. They show signs of the dehydration. What is the most likely etiology of this outbreak?_____________.

Vibrio cholerae

Which pathogen gives the most explosive diarrhea?

Vibrio cholerae

What is the most common pathogen of normal flora in the MOUTH?

Viridans streptococci

What type of diarrhea does cholera cause?

Watery diarrhea

To diagnose a Rickettsia infection, a ____-______ agglutination test is used.

Weil-felix

Bordetella pertussis cause _________ ___________ in humans, also called pertussis.

Whooping cough

IS diphtheria caused by a microbial toxin?

YEs

What bacteria produces neurotoxins?

Yersinia pestis Clostridium perfringes

Are Clostridium spp. Able to produce spores?

Yes

Bordetella vaccination?

Yes

22. A 13 year old boy appears in your emergency room complaining of blurred vision and a dry mouth. His companions say that he has been muttering about a white condor that is going to pick him up and take him to a mountain top. He was a member of a scout troop that has been hiking and camping in the Capitol Reef area of Utah. On physical examination he is afebrile, has a rather ruddy complexion and his pupils are dilated and fixed. He adamantly denies eating any canned food or processed meat, but confesses that on a dare he ate a large trumpet-like white flower that his patrol members brought back from a hike in the desert. The most likely explanation for his illness is: A. A food-borne infection with E. coli 0157:H7 B. Ingestion of Datura stramonium with a resulting anticholinergic and hallucinogenic reaction C. He has a malignant brain tumor D. He has been bitten by a brown recluse spider

A 13 year old boy appears in your emergency room complaining of blurred vision and a dry mouth. His companions say that he has been muttering about a white condor that is going to pick him up and take him to a mountain top. He was a member of a scout troop that has been hiking and camping in the Capitol Reef area of Utah. On physical examination he is afebrile, has a rather ruddy complexion and his pupils are dilated and fixed. He adamantly denies eating any canned food or processed meat, but confesses that on a dare he ate a large trumpet-like white flower that his patrol members brought back from a hike in the desert. The most likely explanation for his illness is: A. A food-borne infection with E. coli 0157:H7 B. Ingestion of Datura stramonium with a resulting anticholinergic and hallucinogenic reaction C. He has a malignant brain tumor D. He has been bitten by a brown recluse spider

A 30 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with a fever. She was recently diagnosed with acute leukemia and finished a course of chemotherapy last week. As a result of her treatment she now has essentially no white blood cells. As part of her workup you perform 2 blood cultures, a sputum culture, a urine culture, and you obtain a chest x-ray. Of all of these tests, the only positive result is one blood culture growing a gram positive bacillus. This bacillus is: A. The most likely cause of the fever B. Most likely a contaminant C. An indication that the patient has meningitis D. Most likely an organism she acquired from the hands of a health care provider the last time she was in the hospital

A 42 year old woman who was complaining of shaking chills and fever went to the Salt Lake City Homeless clinic. She had enlarged lymph nodes in the right axilla. Upstream rom the enlarged nodes was an ulcer on the top of the patients right hand. When carefully questioned, the patient said she remembered being bitten there by an insect resembling a horsefly, but with yellow stripes on its abdomen. ;Its what we used to call a deerfly, she added laconically. The patient denied any contact with rats or fleas. The patientdisease was most likely to be: A. Brucellosis B. Ulcero-glandular tularemia C. Pneumonic plague D. Relapsing fever

The laboratory reports that both blood cultures that are drawn from a 15 year old girl are growing Bacteroides fragilis. She was admitted to the hospital because of acute abdominal pain. You should be concerned that: A. She has acute gastroenteritis and the organism is entering the blood from the inflamed bowel endothelial surface B. She has a bowel perforation and intraabdominal tissue destruction with impaired vascular flow C. She has gram negative sepsis and the Bacteroides is a contaminant D. She has pelvic inflammatory disease with gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease, and the Bacteroides is a contaminant

The most likely organism to be causing septicemia depends, among other things, on the patients personal risk factors (e.g., their underlying disease), or lab data (e.g. their leukocyte count), community riskfactors (such as what particular organisms inhabit the unit on which they happen to be in the hospital); and the physical examination. In a bone marrow transplant patient with a fever of 104 F, who has a white blood cell count of 345/mm3, there are scattered skin lesions comprised of a central blue area with an areola of redness (inflammation). You vaguely remember seeing such a lesion before in a lecture Ecthyma something or the other is the best you can do..Oh yes, with the blue, gangrene-like center, ecthyma gangrenosum, is your mental conversation. In this patient the most likely organism is: A. Reimerbacterium deaniium B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Flavobacterium aniseum D. Godzillobacterium resistium

Which of the following diseases are not transmitted by ticks: A. Ulceroglandular tularemia B. Bubonic plague C. Relapsing fever D. Lyme disease

S. agalactiae show a _______hemolysis on blood agar.

beta

S. pyogenes will show a ______hemolysis on blood agar.

beta

________ can transmit Chlamydia psittaci.

birds

As a budding basic scientist you work in a research laboratory and discover a chemical that removes the cell wall from bacteria but leaves the organism undamaged otherwise. Things that the bacteria will lose because of this include: A. The ability to stain gram positive: all will look gram negative B. The ability to move C. The ability to have a gram stain result D. The ability to attach to other cells

Specific organisms that are considered strict anaerobes include: A. E. coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Bacteroides and Klebsiella C. Fusobacterium and Clostridium D. Peptostreptococcus and Nocardia

You are interested in the microbiology culture results on one of your patients and come to the microbiology laboratory to get an update. The microbiology lab supervisor tells you that your patient is growing gram positive bacilli from both blood cultures you drew and from a urine sample. He volunteers that he doesnt think you ought to worry since these results aren;t likely to be important. His rationale is: A. Gram positive bacilli are so rare that they arent likely to cause disease B. Gram positive bacilli do not cause urinary tract disease C. Gram positive bacilli are common contaminants so cultures growing them are not of much value D. Gram positive bacilli cause infections that patients usually resolve without antibiotic therapy, so there is no need to pursue this situation further

A viral particle consist of genetic material surrounded by a protein shell, called ___________.

capsid (some have envelope around capsid)

From epidemiological point of view, individual who harbor an infectious agent without having any observable clinical signs or symptoms of infection is called____________.

carrier

Varicella-zoster virus is the etiologic agent of:____________?

chicken pox and Shingles

The major component of fungal cell wall is _____________-

chitin

Which 3 species are gram intermediate?

chlamydia mycoplasma rickettsia

Haemophilus should grow on a __________ agar.

chocolate

Mycoplasma pneumonia is the only bacteria that contain _______ in their cell membrane.

cholesterol

The virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are _______ and ________

cord factor sulfatides

Which 4 species are gram + bacilli?

corynebacterium listeria clostridium bacillus

Resistance to one type of drug may imply resistance to a similar drug. This process is called _________?

cross-resistance??

Legionella require charcoal yeast in the agar, in the presence of __________ and __________.

cysteine iron

Shigella may produce ______a_______ that destroy ______b______cells causing abscesses and ulcers to appear in the ____c______ intestines.

cytokines intestinal epithelial large

A 15 year old boy comes in to clinic with pain in his right ear. He is on his school swim team and spends about 2 hours per day in the pool. Along with the pain in his ear, he has watery drainage coming from the ear canal. On exam his vital signs are normal, and he appears healthy, but his left external ear looks quite red and there is copious watery, slightly green drainage coming from the ear. The organism mostly likely causing this is: A. Staph aureus B. Viridans group streptococci C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A 45 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain. On the second hospital day it is clear that she has had a myocardial infarction. Unfortunately, on the same day she develops acute diarrhea. A stool culture grows Salmonella. This infection is: A. Hospital acquired B. Nosocomial C. Iatrogenic D. Community acquired

Each of following statements about anaerobic organisms is correct EXCEPT? a. Growth of anaerobic organism requires special techniques not emplyes in routine bacteriology b. Anaerobic organism must be kept in an environment free of oxygen from the time of acquisition until and during incubation c. Anaerobic cocci such as peptostreptococcus, peptococcus and veillonella are normal flora of the body d. They are strongly catalase positive, reduce nitrates to nitrites and generally tolerate relatively high concentrations of sodium chloride (7.5-10%) and tellurite

MacConkey agar medium? a. Is a good medium for staphylococci b. Is said to be selective for gram positive organisms c. Has the antibiotic solution and nucleic acid added which inhibit growth of gram negative but --- the growth of gram positive bacteria d. Is a gram negative organism selective medium giving ... differentiation between lactose and non-lactose fermentation with complete inhibition of gram positive organisms

Chlamydia has 3 lifeforms. __________ bodies is the infectious one. __________ bodies is the dividing one. ____________ can be seen with a microscope.

elementary Reticulate inclusion

Is salmonella: encapsulated or unencapsulated?

encapsulated

EPEC cause _____ diarrhea.

endemic

Main components of biological indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of sterilization are ______________.

endospores or bacterial spores→ hardest to kill;))))

In the outer membrane of the Gram - cell wall, the lipid A moiety of the LPS functions as an _______.

endotoxin

What do EAEC stand for?

enteroadherent e.coli

Match the mechanism of acquired antibiotic resistance and the group of bacteria: MBL

enterobacteriaceae

Match the mechanism of acquired antibiotic resistance and the group of bacteria: HLAR

enterococcus

What do EHEC stand for?

enterohemorrhagic e.coli

What do EPEC stand for?

enteropathogenic e.coli

What do ETEC stand for?

enterotoxigenic e.coli

Scalded skin syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus producing__________toxin?

exfoliatin

Francisella is a _______ intracellular bacteria.

facultative

Brucella are ________ intracellular bacteria.

facultative (Brucella are facultative intracellular, which means that they can live inside or outside of host cells. This is bad, because when phagocytes eat them, they can still survive. )

The _______ of spirochetes distinguishes these bacteria from others.

flagella

An example of serological test useful for identification of bacteria directly in a clinical sample is-______________?

fluorescent test complement fixation (latex) agglutination

Chronic carriers of Salmonella typhi will get the infection in the _______.

gallbladder

Clostridium perfringens cause _____ ______.

gas gangrene.

E.coli is a part of the normal bacterial flora in our __________________ tract.

gastrointestinal

____a____ from S. pneumoniae Gram + cell wall, can lead to excessive ___b___ production and a massive inflammatory response.

glycopeptides cytokine

How will Shigella stain on Hektoen agar?

green

hahahah wtf b

Leptospirosis affects multiple different organs by _________.

hematogenous spread

Kids under 10 years old infected with Shigella can develop _____________ ___________ disease.

hemolytic uremic (Bloody diarrhea Red blood cell hemolysis Acute renal failure)

Salmonella enteritidis causes ______ diarrhea.

inflammatory

Fill up gaps in sentence with one word. Human B.anthracis disease is acquired by one of the following three routs:___________________.

ingestion, inhalation or inoculation of anthrax spores

S. bovis and E. faecalis are normal flora of the ______tract.

intestinal

EIEC is quite similar to shigella: EIEC destroy ______a_____cells, causing inflammation called ____b____ of the intestines.

intestinal epithelial dysentery

Some gram - bacteria also produce _______, allowing the bacteria to penetrate host cells.

invasins

E.coli ferments ____a_____, so it stains ____b____ on MacConkey agar.

lactose pink

Borrelia recurrentis is transmit person-to-person by _______.

lice

Borrelia is visible by ______microscope.

light

Leptospirosis can cause dysfunction in the _________ and _________.

liver Kidney

Leprosy is a _____-term infection of Mycobacterium Leprae.

long

Where will the infection be located in pneumonic plague?

lungs

Borrelia burgdorferi will transmit _______ disease.

lyme

Where will the infection be located in the bubonic plague?

lymph nodes

A tick infected with Francisella tularensis bites you. The bacteria enters at the site of the bite and causes a painful _____a_____. Then it enters macrophages, travels through the _____b_____system and causes enlarging of ____c_____.

ulcer lymph lymph nodes

Is Shigella: encapsulated or unencapsulated?

unencapsulated

_________ is the major virulence factor of Helicobacter pylori.

urease

How can you test if a patient has an urease positive organisms in his body?

urease breath test

The group B streptococci usually cause _______ infection.

urinary tract infections!! skin? sepsis? meningitis?

Certain microorganisms are never considered to the members of the normal flora. They are always considered to be pathogens. Which one of the following organisms fits into the category?_________________-?

viruses

ETEC cause _____ diarrhea.

watery

Obligate anaerobes usually cause ________ infections

wound

We would use ______ stain and _______ stain to visualise Borrelia burgdorferi.

wright giemsa

UTIs, natural barrier defences: OPEN→ 3 answers were necessary

•Washing of urine •Acidity of urine •Lysozyme •Vaginal lactic acid •Mucous secretions

Micro Study Guide

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