Microbiology Chapters 22 & 23 (FSCJ Mandal), Hybridized SG 4 Set [18-22]

Tuberculin skin testing uses a purified protein filtrate of _____ _____

A purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is used in _____ _____ testing

Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include A) Gilchrist's disease B) Valley Fever C) Rose Gardener's disease D) Teapickers lung E) Farmers lung

A) Gilchrist's disease

Which of the following is acquired when amoebas are forced into human nasal passages during swimming? A) Naegleria fowleri B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Balantidium coli D) Giardia lamblia E) Entamoeba histolytica

A) Naegleria fowleri

Which is mismatched? A) Tinea capitis- ringworm of the beard B) Tinea pedis- ringworm of the foot C) Tinea cruis- ringworm of the groin D) Tinea corporis- ringworm of the body E) Tinea unguium- ringworm of the nails

A) Tinea capitis- ringworm of the beard

Mycetoma is A) a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor B) also called athletes foot C) caused by dermatophytes D) only seen in the Midwest E) all of the choices are correct

A) a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor

The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes A) balantidiasis B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis C) elephantiasis D) trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis E) crytosporidiosis and malaria

A) balantidiasis

Amebiasis symptoms include A) bloody, mucus filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss B) fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain C) urinary frequency and pain, vaginal discharge D) chills, fever, and sweating E) sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

A) bloody, mucus filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss

All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except A) candida B) histoplasma C) blastomyces D) caccidioides E) paracoccidioides

A) candida

Blastomyces dermatitidis A) causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease B) is transmitted by skin contact with fomites C) is a dermatophyte D) usually enters through the gastrointestinal tract E) all of the choices are correct

A) causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease

Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except A) commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia B) a capsulated yeast C) in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings D) usually enters body by inhalation E) primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, or diabetes

A) commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia

Symptoms of crytosporidiosis include A) headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea B) a circular rash that appears on the trunk and spreads to the extremities C) loss of hair D) a red skin papule that spreads to a larger ulcer E) none of the choices are correct

A) headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea

Chromoblastomycosis A) is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores B) is caused by dimorphic fungi C) is a systemic infection D) is a serious respiratory tract infection E) has a peak incidence in Alaska

A) is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores

Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water? A) Schistosoma Manson's B) Dracunculus medinesis C) Fasciola hepatica D) Taenia saginata E) Taenia gondii

B) Drancunculus medinesis

Which of the following relationships is mismatched? A) T. brucei gambiense and Gambian sleeping tick B) T.b. rhodesiense and Gambian sleeping sickness C) Tsetse fly and African sleeping sickness D) Teania solium and swine E) black flies and Onchocera volvulus

B) T.b. rhodesiense and Gambian sleeping sickness

Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite? A) Naegleria fowleri B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Balantidium coli D) Giardia lamblia E) Entamoeba histolytica

B) Toxoplasma gondii

African sleeping sickness is caused by A) Trypanosoma cruzi B) Trypanosoma brucei C) Leishmania brasiliensis D) Isospora belli E) Plasmodium falciparum

B) Trypanosoma brucei

River blindness is A) caused by Wuchereria bancrofti B) a disease in which worms can invade the eyes C) caused by a blood fluke D) transmitted by mosquito vector E) all of the choices are correct

B) a disease in which worms can invade the eyes

The form lacking a free flagellum in the developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A) epimastigote B) amastigote C) trypomastigote D) promastigote E) none of the choices are correct

B) amastigote

Human asymptomatic carriers are common in A) balantidiasis B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis C) elephantiasis D) trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis E) crytosporidiosis and malaria

B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis

The terms used for the four levels of fungal infection include the following except A) cutaneous B) bloodborne C) systemic D) subcutaneous E) superficial

B) bloodborne

Which is not correct about kala azar? A) it is fatal in untreated cases B) chemotherapy with chloroquine is usually effective C) death is partly due to anemia, destruction of blood forming tissues, and secondary infections D) it is transmitted by the sand fly E) it is a form of leishmaniasis

B) chemotherapy with chloroquine is usually effective

Outbreaks of this apicomplexan disease have been associated with fecal contaminated imported raspberries and also fresh greens and drinking water A) crytosporidiosis B) cyclosporiasis C) Babesiosis D) toxoplasmosis E) none of the choices are correct

B) cyclosporiasis

Paracoccidioides is A) a superficial mycosis B) endemic to regions of Central and South America C) only seen in immunocompromised patients D) also known as Valley Fever E) all of the choices are correct

B) endemic to regions of Central and South America

If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility. A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. N. meningitidis C. N. gonorrhoeae D. Streptotoccus pyogenes E. Staphylococcus aureus

C. N. gonorrhoeae

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is A. Salmonella typhimurium. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Pasteurella multocida. D. Brucella suis. E. Francisella tularensis.

C. Pasteurella multocida.

Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to ___infection. A. Yersinia pestis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Pseudomonas D. E. coli 0157:H7

C. Pseudomonas

All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except: A. Enterobacter. B. Citrobacter. C. Shigella. D. Klebsiella. E. Serratia

C. Shigella.

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A. Coagulase B. Penicillinase C. Staphylokinase D. Hyaluronidase E. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

C. Staphylokinase

Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities? A. Morganella B. Providenci C. Citrobacter D. Serratia E. Legionella

D. Serratia

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Actinomyces israelii? A. Important for compost production B. Found in soil C. Rods with colonies displaying hyphael growth D. Strict aerobe E. Non-endospore former

D. Strict aerobe

T/F Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue

False

T/F The most common route of transmission for true pathogenic fungi is ingestion of spores

False

T/F Thermal dimorphism is associated with opportunistic fungi and never seen in true fungal pathogens

False

T/F Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor

False

Actinomyces israelii are _____ _____ that grow in clusters called _____ _____ in infected tissue

Filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in the infected tissue is a description of _____ _____

Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with _____ _____

Gas gangrene treatment involves _____ of diseased tissue

MacConkey Agar is used to select for _____ bacteria that can ferment _____

Gram negative bacteria that can ferment lactose are selected by _____ agar

The viridans group of streptococci and the pneumococcus produce _____ hemolysis on blood agar

Green hemolysis on blood agar is indicative of the ____ group of streptococci and pneumococcus

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by strains of _____ Streptococcus

Group A _____ species cause necrotizing fasciitis

Streptococcus agalactiae is known as a Group _____ streptococci

Group B streptococci include _____, which causes neonatal pneumonia

Trypanosoma and Leishmania are called ______ because they often live in the blood and tissues of their hosts.

Hemoflagellates

The leprosy bacillus is not _____ _____

Highly virulent strains of leprosy do not include the _____ _____

Staphylococcus aureus produces _____ _____, which is also known as the spreading factor

Hyaluronidase is produced by _____ _____

Staphyloccus aureus produces the enzymes _____, _____, _____

Hyaluronidase, staphylokinase, and coagulase are enzymes produced by _____ _____

Erysipelas is an infection caused by _____ _____ that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular legion

The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is _____

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is the _____ _____

The anterior nares is the most common site where carriers of _____ _____ carry the pathogen

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the _____ test

The catalase test is used to differentiate between staphylococci and _____

Clostridium difficile infection is due to _____

The overuse of broad spectrum antibiotics can lead to endogenous infection by _____ _____

The production of the enzyme _____ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus

The production of coagulase is key characteristic of _____ _____ and is used to identify it from other _____

T/F All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes

True

T/F Blastomycosis begins as a respiratory infection that can spread to the skin

True

T/F Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites

True

T/F Fungal spores are common allergens that cause hypersensitivities

True

T/F Hookworms and threadworms usually enter the body by penetrating into the skin

True

T/F In temperate zones, pinworms are the most common helminth infection

True

T/F Most mycoses are not communicable

True

T/F Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis

True

T/F Patients with Madura foot develop swollen, ulcerative, tumor-like skin lesions called mycetomas

True

T/F Sabourauds dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi

True

T/F Trichophytan species infect hair, skin, and nails, whereas Microsporum species infect hair and skin but not nails

True

Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid.

True

The Enterobacteriaceae do not produce oxidase compared to the pseudomonads that do produce oxidase. True False

True

The IMViC series of biochemical tests are used to identify the Enterobacteriaceae. True False

True

The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens can destroy muscle structure in myonecrosis.

True

The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.

True

The pathogen that causes Legionnaires pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. True False

True

The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response.

True

Bacillus cereus is not capable of causing a(n) _____

Zoonoses are not caused by _____ _____

Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold general that cause the disease ______.

Zygomycosis

Coagulase is an enzyme that _____ plasma

_____ is an enzyme that coagulates plasma

Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods.

False

Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut.

False

Most strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce penicillinase

False

Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever.

False

T/F Amphotericin B is an over the counter drug to treat athletes foot

False

T/F Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water

False

T/F Chagas' disease is treated with chloroquine

False

T/F Fungi cannot be found growing in nutritionally poor and adverse conditions

False

T/F Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms

False

T/F Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food

False

T/F Plasmodium species are hemoflagellates

False

T/F Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm

False

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is: A. not as virulent as tetanospasmin. B. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood. C. the cause of rigid paralysis. D. only produced under anaerobic conditions. E. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.

. only produced under anaerobic conditions.

People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.

False

Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include A) it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano B) it is a yeast with a capsule C) it is a dermatophyte D) it grows in dry, arid soil E) none of these choices are correct

A) it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano

Which of the following is incorrect about Sporotrichosis? A) it is also known as Valley Fever B) humans and other mammals are susceptible C) heat packs applied to skin lesions can resolve some infections D) a prick of a thorn is the classic mode of infections E) the sporotrichin skin test can be used to determine prior infection

A) it is also known as Valley Fever

Which is incorrect about malaria? A) merezoites enter and multiply in liver cells B) trophozoites develop in RBCs C) the mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites D) gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws blood meal from a human E) none of the choices are correct

A) merezoites enter and multiply in liver cells

Chagas' disease involves transmission of the pathogens by the A) reduviid "kissing" bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) phlebotomine (sand) fly E) hard bodied tick

A) reduviid "kissing" bug

Trichinella spiralis is a/an ______ that invades the _________. A) roundworm, intestine and muscle B) ameba, intestine C) flagellate, large intestine D) flatworm, heart E) tapeworm, lungs

A) roundworm, intestine and muscle

All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except A) the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano B) fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected C) it is transmitted by inhalation of anthrospores D) it often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise E) it is also called Valley Fever

A) the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano

Aspergillosis includes all the following except A) there are no effective drugs to treat the infection B) noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals C) a pneumonia that disseminates to the brain D) most cases are due to A. fumingatus E) life threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients

A) there are no effective drugs to treat the infection

Pregnant women should never change cat litter due to the risk of contracting A) toxoplasmosis B) malaria C) trypanosomiasis D) amebic dystentery E) Chagas' disease

A) toxoplasmosis

Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission? A) toxoplasmosis B) trichomoniasis C) giardiasis D) malaria E) balantidiasis

A) toxoplasmosis

Which is mismatched? A) whipworm- trematode B) pinworm- nematode C) threadworm- nematode D) fluke- trematode E) tapeworm- cestode

A) whipworm- trematode

What is the causative agent of Farmer's Lung and Bagossis? A. Actinomyces israelii B. Nocardia C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Bacillus anthracis E. Clostridium perfringens

A. Actinomyces israelii

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A. All are pathogenic B. Gram negative C. Helical shape D. Always motile E. Endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space

A. All are pathogenic

Treponea pallidum subspecies pallidum A. All of the choices are correct. B. has humans as the reservoir. C. can cross the placenta. D. is the cause of syphilis. E. is transmitted by direct sexual contact.

A. All of the choices are correct.

Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. B. Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. C. Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it. D. It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. E. It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations.

A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. Clostridium botulinum.

Which is mismatched? A. H antigen - fimbriae B. K antigen - capsule C. O antigen - cell wall, somatic D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. H antigen - fimbriae

A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Haemophilus ducreyi. C. Haemophilus aegyptius. D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. E. Haemophilus aphrophilus.

A. Haemophilus influenzae.

Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A. It has birds as a reservoir. B. It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia. C. Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. D. After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. E. Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall.

A. It has birds as a reservoir.

Which is incorrect about Lyme disease? A. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. B. Its reservoirs are mice and deer. C. It is transmitted by ticks. D. It is nonfatal. E. It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.

A. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.

Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. Legionellosis B. Pertussis C. Brucellosis D. Plague E. Traveler's diarrhea

A. Legionellosis

Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector? A. Leptospirosis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Epidemic typhus

A. Leptospirosis

The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the enzootic transmission cycle, associated with A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis.

A. Lyme disease.

The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).

Which is mismatched? A. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus B. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever C. Bartonella quintana - trench fever D. Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease E. Rickettsia typhi - endemic (murine) typhus

A. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus

Which pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophytic-us D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

A. Staphylococcus aureus

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

A. Staphylococcus aureus.

The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? A. Transmitted by lice B. Pathogen produces resistant spores C. Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread D. Causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia E. Is a zoonosis

A. Transmitted by lice

In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death: A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori

A. Vibrio vulnificus

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except: A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. B. it is a reportable infectious disease. C. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. D. females can have asymptomatic infection. E. symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.

Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A. all species are human pathogens B. cell walls have waxy lipids C. acid fast D. usually have a slow growth rate E. long, slender rods

A. all species are human pathogens

Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. B. are sexually transmitted. C. are caused by arthropod vectors. D. are caused by Vibrio species. E. are respiratory tract infections.

A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.

Tuberculoid leprosy: A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. B. is the most disfiguring. C. pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas such as nose, ears, testes. D. complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. includes all of these choices.

A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation.

Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their: A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. B. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar. C. ability to produce catalase. D. gram stain appearance. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: A. diphtheria. B. listeriosis. C. tuberculosis. D. erysipeloid. E. botulism.

A. diphtheria.

The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of A. endothelial lining of blood vessels. B. gastrointestinal lining. C. dermis of the skin. D. stomach mucosa. E. urinary tract.

A. endothelial lining of blood vessels.

Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A. enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli. B. Salmonella. C. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli 0157:H7. E. enteroinvasive E. coli.

A. enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli.

The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is: A. erysipelas. B. impetigo C. necrotizing fasciitis. D. scarlet fever. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. erysipelas.

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. gram negative B. produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C. curved rods D. lives in the stomach E. produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

A. gram negative

The tertiary stage of syphilis A. is when gummas develop in tissues. B. is when the patient is highly infectious to others. C. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. D. has no symptoms E. is when a chancre develops.

A. is when gummas develop in tissues.

Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A. it is a zoonosis B. humans can be healthy carriers C. it is prevented with the DTaP vaccine D. it is an upper respiratory infection E. it can be transmitted via contaminated milk

A. it is a zoonosis

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except: A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. B. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. C. it often has an endogenous source. D. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. E. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals

A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.

Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except A. it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces. B. it is transmitted by ingesting fecal contaminated food and water. C. it can cause chronic carriers to have pathogens in their gallbladder. D. it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. E. it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses.

A. it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces.

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A. it is transmitted by human feces. B. it is caused by Yersinia pestis. C. the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D. the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness. E. it can progress to a septicemia.

A. it is transmitted by human feces.

Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.

False

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. B. it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. C. it infects the stomach. D. it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea. E. it has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.

A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except: A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. it causes a bloody diarrhea. D. it is reservoir is cattle intestines. E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

All species of Staphylococcus: A. lack spores. B. are motile. C. are motile. D. produce coagulase. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. lack spores.

Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following? A. nongonococcal urethritis B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever C. periodontal disease D. Q fever E. endemic typhus

A. nongonococcal urethritis

Gingivitis is A. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora. B. erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion. C. caused by Streptococcus mutans. D. also called NUG. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.

This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease": A. pulmonary. B. gastrointestinal. C. cutaneous. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. pulmonary.

Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane. B. lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall. C. a cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin. D. coagulase. E. a neurotoxin similar to botulin.

A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane.

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. tick-borne relapsing fever. B. ornithosis. C. epidemic typhus. D. Q fever. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. tick-borne relapsing fever.

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. Legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis.

A. tularemia.

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is A. water and electrolyte replacement. B. antimicrobics. C. antitoxin. D. surgery. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. water and electrolyte replacement.

Erysipeloid is transmitted by _____

An abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals can lead to _____

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is only produce under _____ conditions

Anaerobic conditions cause the production of _____, the toxin of botulism

Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to _____ _____

Antibodies to Group A Streptococci that cross react with patient tissues could be the cause of _____ and _____

Tuberculoid leprosy causes _____ skin lesions with _____

Asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation are caused by _____ leprosy

Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allow growth and transmission of A) Cryptococcus B) Aspergillus C) Candida D) Dermatophytes E) Pneumocytis

B) Aspergillus

Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard bodied tick? A) crytosporidiosis B) Babesiosis C) toxoplasmosis E) none of the choices are correct

B) Babesiosis

Oral thrush is caused by A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Candida albicans C) Malassezia furfur D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci E) none of the choices are correct

B) Candida albicans

Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba A) is a free-living ameba of fresh waters B) enters typically through broken skin or the conjunctiva C) is the cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis D) enters through the nasal mucosa E) is acquired by swimming in contaminated water

B) enters typically though broken skin or the conjunctiva

Elephantiasis includes all the following except A) it is caused by filarial nematodes B) helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors C) larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels D) severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum E) microfilafiae are in the blood

B) helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors

Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor? A) it is a superficial mycosis B) it is often transmitted by fomites C) it is caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur D) it causes disruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance E) it occasionally causes systemic infections in compromised patients

B) it is often transmitted by fomites

Menthol and camphor (VicksTM) are effective treatments against A) chromoblastomycosis B) ringworm C) histoplasmosis D) tinea versicolor E) blastomycosis

B) ringworm

Which is incorrect about chromoblastomycosis? A) it is characterized by highly visible verrucous lesions B) treatment is with pentamidine C) it's etiological agent are soil saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores D) sclerotic cells are produced E) it is frequently confused with yaws, cancer, and syphilis

B) treatment is with pentamidine

Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease? A) toxoplasmosis B) trichomoniasis C) giardiasis D) malaria E) balantidiasis

B) trichomoniasis

The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the A) reduviid "kissing" bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) phlebotomine (sand) fly E) hard bodied tick

B) tsetse fly

Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis? A. It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds. B. A vaccine is not available. C. Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D. It is a zoonosis. E. Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.

B. A vaccine is not available.

This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Clostridium perfringens

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Clostridium perfringens.

A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics and globulin. This test is indicative of A. Group A streptococci. B. Group B streptococci. C. S. saprophyticus. D. S. epidermidis. E. S. aureus.

B. Group B streptococci.

Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (X factor) in its growth medium? A. Legionella B. Haemophilus C. Brucella D. Shigella E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Haemophilus

Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Haemophilus aphrophilus C. Haemophilus aegyptius D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Haemophilus aphrophilus

Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? A. Beta-lactams B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Ansamycin E. Aminoglycosides

B. Macrolides

Causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E. Mycobacterium marinum.

B. Mycobacterium kansasii

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Latent E. All of the choices are correct

B. Secondary

Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made? A. She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics. B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made. C. She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin. D. She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up. E. She has a staphylococcal sore throat and should begin antibiotics immediately.

B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague? A. Mice, voles, and other rodents are primary long-term reservoirs. B. Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today as they were in the Middle Ages. C. It is transmitted by flea vectors. D. Less than 10 cases per year occur in the US. E. The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis.

B. Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today as they were in the Middle Ages.

Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires disease? A. L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas. B. The disease is communicable from person to person. C. Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. D. It is more common in males over 50 years of age. E. Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.

B. The disease is communicable from person to person.

An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is A. Chlamydia trachomatis. B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus. C. Vibrio cholerae. D. Campylobacter jejuni. E. Helicobacter pylori.

B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

Pseudomonas is an enteric gram negative rod. True False

False

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except: A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B. anaerobic. C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D. gram positive bacillus. E. spore former

B. anaerobic.

Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except: A. fever and muscle pain. B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. C. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. D. sunburn-like rash. E. kidney and liver failure.

B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.

Meningococcemia is: A. common during gonorrhea. B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. C. frequently seen in elderly. D. caused by a gram positive diplococcus. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except: A. pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. B. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C. early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. D. DTaP immunization will prevent it. E. transmission is by respiratory droplets.

B. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".

Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The___stage lasts 1-2 weeks, while the second stage________is when a person has severe coughing. A. primary, secondary B. catarrhal, paroxysmal C. incubation, convalescent D. Low T-cell, High macrophage

B. catarrhal, paroxysmal

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is: A. catalase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. staphylokinase. E. Dnase.

B. coagulase.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis: A. produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin. B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages. C. is a spore former. D. has a capsule. E. lives in the soil.

B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.

Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. bacterial meningitis B. influenza (flu) C. otitis media D. bronchitis E. epiglottitis

B. influenza (flu)

Ornithosis A. is caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae. B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds. C. is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness. D. has humans as a reservoir for the pathogen. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds.

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except: A. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.

B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

Salmonella are A. coliforms. B. motile. C. gram positive rods. D. lactose fermenters. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. motile.

Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection? A. gingivitis B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) C. ornithosis D. yaws

B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)

All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except: A. symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance. B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process. C. ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate. D. symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications. E. it is the most common type of botulism in the United States.

B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process.

All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except: A. gram positive B. sporeformer C. contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry D. causes foodborne listeriosis E. bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell

B. sporeformer

The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose A. chlamydiosis. B. syphilis. C. lyme disease. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. Q fever.

B. syphilis.

All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except: A. it is the coagulase-positive species. B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response. C. carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria. D. most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin. E. it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses.

B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response.

Which of the following is not true about leprosy? A. it is caused by Hansen's bacillus in honor of its discoverer B. the leprosy bacillus is highly virulent C. armadillos harbor a genetically identical M. leprae D. early signs appear as small, spotty lesions colored differently than the surrounding skin E. the number of new cases in the U.S. each year is about 100 to 200

B. the leprosy bacillus is highly virulent

The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are _____ and _____

Beta and Alpha hemolysin are the two most important hemolysins of _____ _____

According to CDC data, who is more likely to acquire a rickettsial disease? A. Tom who traveled to Arizona for the summer B. Sally who went to the beach at Big Sur, CA C. Mike who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa D. Phil who stayed home and mowed his lawn E. Harry who works in a pet store and hates fleas and ticks

C. Mike who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa

Shigellosis may not be acquired through oral-fecal routes and direct contact. True False

False

Both tetanus and foodborne botulism treatment involves _____therapy

Both _____ and foodborne _____ treatment involves antitoxin therapy

All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except A) Cryptosporidiosis B) Cyclosporiasis C) Babesiosis D) Balantidiasis E) Giardiasis

C) Babesiosis

Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following, except A) zygomycosis B) invasive aspergillosis C) Pneumocystis pneumonia D) coccidioidomycosis E) histoplasmosis

C) Pneumocystis pneumonia

Enterobius vermicularis is A) a whipworm B) common only to the tropics and subtropics C) an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites D) often fatal in heavy infestations E) all of the choices are correct

C) an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites

Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all A) mycotoxins B) fungal enzymes C) antifungal drugs D) culture media supplements for fungi E) none of the choices are correct

C) antifungal drugs

The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian intermediate hosts is also called a A) proglottids B) merozoite C) cysticerci D) amastigote E) egg

C) cysticerci

The ability of fungus to grow as a yeast or mold depending on its environmental temperature is called A) fungal virulence B) parasitism C) dimorphism D) dermatophytes E) opportunistic fungi

C) dimorphism

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the A) southeast B) southwest C) east and midwest D) northeast E) Rocky Mountains

C) east and midwest

All of the following pertain to Candida albicans except A) opportunistic yeast B) low numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin C) has a large capsule D) infections often arise from an endogenous source E) persistent moist skin influences infection

C) has a large capsule

Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics except A) are multicellular animals B) have a definitive host where the adult form lives C) have developmental forms that include cysts D) include roundworms E) include tapeworms

C) have developmental forms that include cysts

Amebiasis is a disease of the A) conjunctiva of the eye B) brain and meninges C) intestines and often the liver D) lung tissue E) skin

C) intestines and often the liver

Fasciola hepatica is a A) lung fluke B) blood fluke C) liver fluke D) roundworm E) filarial worm

C) liver fluke

Which is not correct about trichinosis? A) it can be transmitted by eating undercooked pork B) it can be transmitted by eating bear meat C) numerous cases occur each year in the US D) the first symptoms mimic influenza E) a cure is not available once the larvae have encysted in the muscles

C) numerous cases occur each year in the US

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton A) produce tissue-damaging mycotoxins B) all cause athletes foot C) reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils D) frequently cause septicemia E) are dimorphic fungi

C) reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils

Giardiasis involves A) a protozoan that does not form cysts B) infection of the large intestine C) symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea D) vector transmission E) all of the choices are correct

C) symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea

The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is A) the urinary tract B) through skin C) the respiratory tract D) the nervous system E) the digestive system

C) the respiratory tract

The large, fully formed developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A) epimastigote B) amastigote C) trypomastigote D) promastigote E) none of the choices are correct

C) trypomastigote

The causative agent of Lyme disease is A. Ixodes scapularis. B. Borrelia hermsii. C. Borrelia burgdorferi. D. Ixodes pacificus. E. Leptospira interrogans.

C. Borrelia burgdorferi.

Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification? A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis B. Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis C. Cholera D. Lyme disease E. Leptospirosis

C. Cholera

Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? A. Syphilis is caused by a spirochete. B. Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages. C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted. D. Syphilis is treated with antibiotics. E. Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.

C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted.

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Latent E. All of the choices are correct.

C. Tertiary

"Rice water stools" are associated with disease caused by this organism: A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori

C. Vibrio cholerae

Streptococcus pneumoniae is: A. called the meningococcus. B. in the viridans group. C. a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule. D. a pathogen with endotoxin. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.

Erysipeloid is transmitted by: A. inhalation of spores from hides and wool of animals. B. ingestion of improperly cooked hot dogs. C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals. D. contaminated soil entering deep puncture wounds. E. respiratory secretions.

C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals.

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is: A. all over the skin. B. under the fingernails. C. anterior nares (nostrils). D. mouth. E. intestines.

C. anterior nares (nostrils).

Actinomyces israelii: A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. lives in the soil. E. causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

Necrotizing fasciitis is: A. also called impetigo. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. E. not treatable with antimicrobic drugs.

C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins.

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism? A. spores of C. botulinum B. vegetative cells of C. botulinum C. botulin toxin on contaminated food D. botulin toxoid on contaminated food E. botulin antitoxin on contaminated food

C. botulin toxin on contaminated food

The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is: A. gastrointestinal anthrax. B. Bacillus cereus intoxication. C. botulism. D. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. botulism.

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the: A. Gram stain. B. coagulase test. C. catalase test. D. fermentation of mannitol. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. catalase test.

Leprosy is a disease: A. of lung tissue. B. that has been eradicated around the world. C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab. D. can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test. E. caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.

C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. cutaneous

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except A. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. B. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. C. diarrheal illness. D. external ear infection. E. serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

C. diarrheal illness.

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is: A. capsule. B. metachromatic granules. C. exotoxin. D. endospores. E. endotoxin.

C. exotoxin.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever A. is seen in highest numbers along the west coast. B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. C. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash. D. never has severe complications. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash.

The secondary stage of syphilis A. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. B. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. D. has no symptoms. E. is when gummas develop in tissues.

C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

Which is incorrect about shigellosis? A. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers B. it is watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps C. it frequently involves septicemia D. human carriers cause fecal transmission E. it is also called bacillary dysentery

C. it frequently involves septicemia

All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except: A. humans are the only significant reservoir. B. some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens. C. most strains do not have a capsule. D. it can cause impetigo and erysipelas. E. infection is generally through direct contact.

C. most strains do not have a capsule.

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes: A. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield group A. B. gives rise to a zone of b hemolysis on blood agar. C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. D. is also called streptokinase. E. protects against lysozyme damage.

C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence.

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except: A. folliculitis. B. furuncles and carbuncles. C. sore throat. D. osteomyelitis. E. pneumonia.

C. sore throat.

Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? A. it can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. it can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. it lives in the soil. E. it causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

C. they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to A. endotoxin B. lipopolysaccharide. C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E. the presence of a capsule.

C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract.

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A. feces. B. blood. C. urine. D. respiratory secretions. E. saliva

C. urine.

All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme _____ that is easily detected in the lab

Catalase is only produced by _____ and allows for easy differentiation from _____

Mycobacterium tuberculosis has a cord factor that can prevent _____

Cord factors that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages are seen in the bacterium _____ _____

Which is mismatched? A) Diphyllobothrium latum- fish B) Taenia solium- pork C) Taenia saginata- beef D) Echinococcus granulosus- poultry E) Anisakis- fish

D) Echinococcus granulosus- poultry

Which of the following has four pairs of flagella? A) Naegleria fowleri B) Toxoplasma gondii C) Balantidium coli D) Giardia lamblia E) Entamoeba histolytica

D) Giardia lamblia

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Candida albicans C) Malassezia furfur D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci E) none of the choices are correct

D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

Tetanus can be prevented with the _____ childhood immunization and boosters of the _____ toxoid

DTap vaccination and boosters of the tetanus toxoid are used to prevent _____

Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii? A) is dimorphic B) lives in the soil C) often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns D) causes superficial cutaneous infection E) causes modules along regional lymphatic channels

D) causes superficial cutaneous infection

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are A) bloody, mucus filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss B) fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain C) urinary frequency and pain, vaginal discharge D) chills, fever, and sweating E) sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

D) chills, fever, and sweating

All of the following will kill Giardia except A) boiling B) ozone C) iodine D) chlorine in typical drinking water E) all of the methods listed will kill it

D) chlorine in typical drinking water

The usual definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus is A) humans B) pigs C) cats D) dogs E) bears

D) dogs

Which of the following is a rare mycosis caused by a mold commonly found in soil, in dairy products and on the human body? A) bark strippers disease B) Valley Fever C) sporotrichosis D) geotrichosis E) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) geotrichosis

Strongyloides stercoralis A) is a tapeworm B) is ingested with food and does not migrate out of the intestine C) chronic infection is very rare D) immunosuppressed patients can die from disseminated disease E) all of the choices are correct

D) immunosuppressed patients can die from disseminated disease

Ergotism is caused by A) ingesting Amanita phalloides, the death angel mushroom B) ingesting aflatoxin C) inhaling Stachbotrys spores and toxins D) ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants E) inhaling Rhizopus spores

D) ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants

Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the A) reduviid "kissing" bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) phlebotomine (sand) fly E) hard bodied tick

D) phlebotomine (sand) fly

The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are A) urinary and reproductive B) digestive and respiratory C) blood and wounds D) respiratory and cutaneous E) none of the choices are correct

D) respiratory and cutaneous

All of the following are fungal allergies except A) bark strippers disease B) farmers lung C) teapickers lung D) thrush E) all of the above

D) thrush

The parasitic disease, caused by an apicomplexan that involves infected cats in its lifecycle is A) crytosporidiosis B) cyclosporiasis C) Babesiosis D) toxoplasmosis E) none of the choices are correct

D) toxoplasmosis

Diseases transmitted by vectors include A) balantidiasis B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis C) elephantiasis D) trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis E) crytosporidiosis and malaria

D) trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis

Which of the following are other names for yaws? A. Bouba B. Frambesia tropica C. Patek D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Lemon yellow B. Red-orange C. Golden D. Blue-green E. Pale orange

D. Blue-green

Lyme disease is caused by __transmitted by ticks. A. Proteus vulgaris B. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Borrelia burghdorferi

D. Borrelia burghdorferi

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. Clostridium tetani.

Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)? A. Eterotoxigeic strains of E. coli B. Salmonella C. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli 0157:H7 E. Eteroinvasive E. coli

D. E. coli 0157:H7

Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid? A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. Haemophilus aphrophilus

D. Haemophilus ducreyi

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A. DtaP. B. Pneumovax. C. MMR. D. Hib. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. Hib.

Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? A. Coagulase B. Penicillinase C. Hemolysin D. Hyaluronidase E. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

D. Hyaluronidase

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A. syphilis. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. relapsing fever. D. Lyme disease. E. leptospirosis.

D. Lyme disease.

A client has a serious case of lung infection. A cerebrospinal fluid sample was taken. The lab tech said they isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be __. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Borrelia burgdorfer C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pnmoniae

D. Mycoplasma pnmoniae

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by: A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

What is incorrect about pertussis? A. A virulence factor of B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced. B. The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets. C. The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing. D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976. E. It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies.

D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976.

Hutchinson's teeth are A. a symptom of untreated Lyme disease. B. a symptom of untreated periodontal disease. C. a symptom of ANUG. D. a symptom of congenital syphilis. E. a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis.

D. a symptom of congenital syphilis.

People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except: A. elderly. B. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections. C. patients without a spleen. D. adolescents and young adults. E. young infants.

D. adolescents and young adults.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. Legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis

D. brucellosis.

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A. present in soil B. produce enterotoxins C. causes foodborne intoxication D. causes a zoonosis E. associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature

D. causes a zoonosis

Botulism will always be a threat for people who: A. are meat eaters. B. are vegetarians. C. have a weakened immune system. D. consume home-preserved foods. E. eat often in restaurants.

D. consume home-preserved foods.

The chancre of syphilis A. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. B. is very painful. C. occurs during the tertiary stage. D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.

The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except: A. gram negative B. obligate parasites that need host cells for growth C. elementary bodies are the infectious form D. elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP E. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies

D. elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its A. capsule. B. neurotoxin. C. invasive enzymes. D. enterotoxin

D. enterotoxin

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is: A. enterotoxin. B. hemolysin. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

D. exfoliative toxin.

Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include A. ferment lactose. B. are normal flora of human intestines. C. produce enterotoxins. D. ferment glucose. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. ferment glucose.

Shigella species have the following characteristics, except: A. not motile B. release endotoxin C. belong to Enterobacteriaceae D. infect the small intestine E. produce enterotoxin

D. infect the small intestine

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except: A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils. B. can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain. C. can lead to serious sequelae. D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E. causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.

D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.

Yersinia pestis A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B. has humans as an endemic reservoir. C. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector

All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except A. it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. it can also be caused by adenoviruses. C. it is transmitted by aerosol droplets. D. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia. E. community resistance is high.

D. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia.

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A. it results in meningitis. B. symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. C. it can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate. D. it is prevented by the DTaP immunization. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. it is prevented by the DTaP immunization.

For which of the following diseases does the "feather test" provide evidence of early infection? A. tuberculosis B. botulism C. tetanus D. leprosy E. anthrax

D. leprosy

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A. fluoride. B. lysozyme in saliva. C. antibodies in saliva. D. refined sugar. E. genetics

D. refined sugar.

Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all A. obligate parasites requiring host cells. B. curved rods. C. transmitted by arthropod vectors. D. spirochetes. E. bacteria without cell walls.

D. spirochetes.

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A. improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin B. eating unpasteurized dairy containing Listeria monocytogenes C. handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile E. living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile

Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except: A. risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis. B. development of rheumatic fever. C. appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection. D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat. E. development of acute glomerulonephritis.

D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.

Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by: A. debridement. B. wound cleansing. C. vancomycin for several weeks. D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes.

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in _____

Diptheria causes the formation of a _____ in the back of the throat

DTap is a vaccine used to prevent _____

Diptheria is prevented by the vaccine _____

This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts, and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin: A) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci B) Fusarium species C) Rhizopus species D) Geotrichum candidum E) Aspergillus flavus

E) Aspergillus

Ascaris lumbricoides A) is an intestinal roundworm B) spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food C) larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines D) larvae migrate to the pharynx, got swallowed, and return to intestines to mature E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Candidiasis includes A) intertriginous infection of skin sites B) vulvovaginal infection C) oral cavity and esophageal infections D) skin and nail infections E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Cryptococcosis can include A) pulmonary infection B) septicemia C) meningitis D) bone infection E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Dermatophytoses are A) fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails B) also called ringworm C) all called tineas D) often time-consuming to eradicate completely E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by A) ingestion of cysts of the pathogen B) contaminated food C) contaminated water D) sexual contact E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Hookworms A) include Necator americanus B) include Anclyostoma duodenale C) have filariform larvae in soil that get transmitted into bare feet D) have oral cutting plates by which they anchor to the intestines E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci A) has protozoan and fungal characteristics B) lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane C) is an obligate parasite D) causes serious infection in elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Schistosomiasis involves A) a blood fluke B) eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidium C) snails allow development into cercaria D) cercariae enter hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Transmission of tineas include A) human to human B) animal to human C) soil to human D) fomites to human E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Trichinosis includes all the following except A) encysted larvae get ingested B) associated with undercooked pork or bear meat C) migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues D) the first symptoms are diarrhea, nausea, fever, and pain E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Trichomonas vaginalis A) does not produce cysts B) in males causes urethritis C) in females causes vaginitis with a foul smelling discharge D) has four flagella and an undulating membrane E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections? A) cancer B) AIDS C) tuberculosis D) malnutrition E) all of the choices are correct

E) all of the choices are correct

All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections except A) between folds of the groin B) under breasts C) in the armpits D) behind the knees E) chest

E) chest

Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus? A) ketoconazole (Nizoral) B) fluconazole C) terbinafine (Lamisil) D) amphotericin B E) griseofulvin

E) griseofulvin

Toxoplasmosis includes all the following except A) ingesting pseudocysts from contaminated raw or undercooked meat B) ingesting or inhaling oocysts from infected cats or cat feces C) tachyzoites can cross the placenta D) immunocompromised patients often develop a fatal, disseminated infection E) intrauterine infections are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues

E) intrauterine infections are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis? A) pathogen grows inside macrophages B) transmitted by inhalation of spores C) respiratory infections range from mild to severe D) chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis E) never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract

E) never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract

Salmonelloses are A. not caused by Salmonella typhi. B. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. C. gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. D. enteric fevers that often include septicemia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the following pertain to tapeworms except A) scolex is the head B) strobila is made up of proglottids C) proglottids are reproductive segments D) cysticerci are young infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat E) one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs

E) one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs

Most cases of toxoplasmosis in patients that are not immunocompromised have the following symptoms A) bloody, mucus filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss B) fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain C) urinary frequency and pain, vaginal discharge D) chills, fever, and sweating E) sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

E) sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths? A) freezing foods B) thoroughly cooking foods C) proper sewage disposal D) avoiding human feces as fertilizer E) these are all effective ways

E) these are all effective ways

Which is the most common type of virulence gene transferred between fecal bacteria? A. toxin production B. capsules C. fimbriae D. hemolysins E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation of affected limb D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves: A. chest X-ray. B. acid fast stain of sputum. C. sputum culture. D. tuberculin skin test. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Anthrax is: A. a zoonosis. B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion. C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia. D. only seen sporadically in the United States. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Brucellosis is A. a zoonosis. B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. C. associated with pathogen in the blood. D. an occupational illness of people that work with animals. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Characteristics of chancroid include: A. sexually transmitted B. occurs mostly in the tropics and subtropics C. lesion develops at portal of entry D. bubo like swelling of the lymph nodes E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Characteristics of rickettsias include A. obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth. B. arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors. C. gram negative coccobacilli. D. host cells are required for ATP metabolism. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Chlamydia trachomatis causes A. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males. B. cervicitis in females. C. congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis. D. ocular trachoma. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Cholera symptoms are A. copious watery diarrhea. B. loss of blood volume. C. acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst. D. hypotension, tachycardia, shock. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include: A. otitis media. B. meningitis. C. lobar pneumonia. D. bronchial pneumonia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Escherichia coli infections A. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. B. include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains. C. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. D. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Helicobacter pylori causes A. gastritis. B. duodenal ulcers. C. stomach ulcers. D. increased risk for stomach cancer. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Legionella pneumophila A. requires special lab growth media. B. often lives in close associations with amoebas. C. causes fever, cough, and diarrhea. D. causes a severe pneumonia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Lyme disease involves A. early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck. B. crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems. C. people having contact with wooded or forested areas. D. treatment with antimicrobics. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is: A. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. B. the cause of gonorrhea. C. called the gonococcus. D. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface A. develop a biofilm. B. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere. C. include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque. D. lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Plague includes: A. septicemic form - called Black Death. B. bubonic form - buboes develop. C. pneumonic form - sputum highly contagious. D. disease control - control of rodent population. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is A. found in soil and water. B. an opportunist that produces manydiverse enzymes C. highly chemical resistant. D. motile. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Relapsing fever involves A. soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii. B. initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue. C. campers and forestry personnel. D. human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Salmonella typhi A. multiplies within phagocytes. B. is not a coliform. C. can be treated with antimicrobics. D. causes invasive infection of the small intestine. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Scarlet fever involves: A. high fever. B. bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue. C. eventual desquamation of epidermis. D. septicemia as a complication. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

The viridans streptococci are: A. not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology. B. the most numerous residents of the oral cavity. C. opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis. D. introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Treatment and control of anthrax includes: A. use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. B. vaccination of livestock. C. toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure. D. proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Tuberculin skin testing: A. injects PPD intradermally. B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure. D. will be positive in active TB. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following are symptoms of septic shock? A. Tachycardia B. Reduced blood flow to vital organs C. Respiratory failure D. Weak pulse E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

After being bitten by a tick on a hiking trip, Amy had chills, headache, muscle pain, nausea, lethargy, and rash. Before further testing, Amy's healthcare provider gave her information about which of the following diseases? A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum and human granulocytic anaplasmosis B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis and human monocytic ehrlichiosis C. Shigella and dysentery D. Streptococcus pyogenes and strep throat E. Both A & B

E. Both A & B

Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of Treponema pallidum? A. Requires mammalian host B. Microaerophilic C. Causative agent of syphilis D. Solely utilizes glycolysis for energy E. Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory

E. Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory

Which is mismatched? A. Epidemic typhus - body louse feces B. Murine typhus - flea feces C. Rickettsial pox - mite bite D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever - tick bite E. Human ehrlichiosis - flea bite

E. Human ehrlichiosis - flea bite

A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. Chocolate agar D. MacConkey agar E. Mannitol salt agar

E. Mannitol salt agar

Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

E. Mycobacterium marinum.

Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

E. Streptococcus agalactiae

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for: A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except: A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries. E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.

E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.

All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except: A. it inhibits cellular protein synthesis. B. it must be neutralized with antitoxin. C. it primarily targets the heart and nerves. D. it is an exotoxin. E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.

E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.

All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except: A. normal flora of the human large intestine. B. increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics. C. cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias. D. can cause endocarditis. E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except: A. most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs B. pathogen is a spirochete C. infects kidneys, liver, brain, eyes D. humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes E. can be transmitted by animal bites

E. can be transmitted by animal bites

All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except: A. it causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat. B. it causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, and infants. C. intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death. D. adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention. E. enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.

E. enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to: A. enterotoxins. B. hemolysins. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

E. erythrogenic toxin.

Which is not associated with tularemia? A. listed as a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents B. transmitted by arthropod vector C. reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels D. symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia E. in animals, infects the placenta and fetus

E. in animals, infects the placenta and fetus

Humans are the reservoir for Borrelia hermsii.

False

Legionellosis is a zoonosis. True False

False

Lepromatous leprosy: A. can cause lepromas. B. is the most disfiguring. C. pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. D. complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. includes all of these choices.

E. includes all of these choices.

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except: A. virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. B. it causes serious meningitis. C. the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. D. it is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

E. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A. exhibit bipolar staining B. gram-negative rod C. produces coagulase D. has a capsule E. produces enterotoxin

E. produces enterotoxin

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except: A. necrotizing fasciitis. B. erysipelas. C. impetigo. D. scarlet fever. E. scalded skin syndrome.

E. scalded skin syndrome.

All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except A. non-typhoidal strains of salmonella are zoonotic in origin B. foods contaminated by rodent feces may cause outbreaks. C. outbreaks have been caused by eggs. D. drug resistance of salmonella is on the rise. E. strains are normal flora in dogs and cats.

E. strains are normal flora in dogs and cats.

The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis.

E. tertiary syphilis.

All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except: A. they often from an endogenous source. B. they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. C. catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection. D. the organism is coagulase negative. E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism? A. it occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds B. it is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen C. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release D. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy

E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy

An amoeba trophozite with visible ingested RBCs that is seen in a microscopic examination of a fecal smear would likely be the pathogen _____________.

Entamoeba histolytica

Staphylococcus aureus produces the toxins _____, _____, _____, _____

Enterotoxin, alpha toxin, beta toxin, and exfoliative toxin are produced by _____ _____

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to _____ toxin

Erythrogenic toxin is causes the bright red rash in _____ _____

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is _____toxin

Exfoliative toxin is produced by strains of _____ _____

A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with erysipeloid.

False

A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease. True False

False

An individual with asymptomatic N. gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease

False

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw.

False

Chlamydias and rickettsias are unusual bacteria because they do not have cell walls.

False

Impetigo involves _____

Itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust are symptoms of _____

The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called __________.

Kala Azar

Dermatophytes digest the protein ______, found in the skin, hair, and nails.

Keratin

Local _____ infections often involve the formation of an abscess

Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve the formation of a(n) _____

Tetanus is often called _____

Lockjaw is a common name for _____

Control of _______ revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.

Malaria

Vascular hemorrhaging and petechiae are associated with ____

Meningococcemia is associated with _____ and _____

Opthalmia neonatorum is caused by _____ _____

Neisseria gonorrhoeae will cause _____ _____ in newborn's eyes

No species of Saphylococcus produce _____

No species of _____ produce spores

Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram negative cocci that produce _____

Oxidase is produced by fastidious, gram negative cocci Neisseria _____ and Neisseria _____

______ are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft.

Piedras

Neisseria meningitidis related diseases can be prevented by vaccination with _____

Pnuemovax is a vaccine for the prevention of disease caused by strains of _____ _____

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as _____ cocci

Pyrogenic cocci such as _____, _____, and _____ tend to stimulate pus production

Listeria monocytogenes is incapable of forming _____

Spore forming bacteria do not include Listeria _____

Staphylokinase, produced by _____ _____, digests blood clots

Staphyloccocus aureus produces _____, which digests blood clots

Skalded skin syndrome is caused by _____

Staphylococcus aureus causes _____ syndrome

Penicillinase is produced by species of _____

Staphylococcus can produce the enzyme _____, a beta lastamase

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of _____ _____

Strains of Staphylococcus aureus that can produce _____ are responsible for a common food intoxication

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of _____ _____

Strains of Streptococcus pyogenes cause _____ _____

The pathogen that is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States is _____ _____

Streptococcus agalactiae is the most common cause of _____ _____, _____, and _____ in the United States

The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with _____ _____

Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for the majority of _____ _____ in children

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for _____ _____

Streptococcus pneumoniae will produce a positive _____ reaction, or capsular swelling

_____ is an enzyme used to break down blood clots

Streptokinase is an enzyme used to break down _____

The active, feeding form of a protozoan is called the ________.

Trophozoite

Botox injections contain botulin toxin.

True

Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity.

True

Chlamydiosis can lead to endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

True

Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene.

True

Dental caries is the most common human disease.

True

Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.

True

In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death.

True

In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips.

True

It is theorized that rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with patient tissues.

True

Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess.

True

NGU is a syndrome among males with chlamydial infections of the urethra.

True

Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase.

True

Plague is a quarantinable disease. True False

True

Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin.

True

Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. True False

True

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. True False

True

T/F A person carrying one gene for sickle-cell hemoglobin will be resistant to Plasmodium infection

True

T/F Adding salt and sugar can control the growth of certain bacteria but not fungi

True

Many protozoan species can form a _____ that can survive for periods outside a host.

cyst

The nodular, tumor like fungal growths seen in certain chronic lung infections are called ________.

fungomas

Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called ________.

helminths

Fungi that exhibit dimorphism grow as _____ at 30 C and as _______ at 37 C.

molds, yeast

Diseases caused by fungi are termed _______.

mycoses

The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is the inhalation of _______.

spores