Microbiology Final
cell membrane
plasma membrane that lines the inside of a cell wall of many bacteria.
toxins
poisonous substances of plant, animal, bacterial, or fungal origin.
nonmotile
unable to move itself.
respiratory system
what is the portal of entry for smallpox?
digestive tract
what is the portal of entry for the Bacteroide species?
C. diphtheriae
what organism is highly pleomorphic?
N. meningitidis
which organism is Part of Natural Flora in 10% of Adults?
Bacteroide Species
which species do membranes contain sphingolipids?
Lymphocytes
white blood cells involved in immunity
boiling
will sterilize water that does not contain endospores and kill vegetative bacteria, most viruses, and fungi.
rash
with measles a ___ eventually forms.
vaccine
A ___ is commonly used for poliomyelitis.
communicable
A disease that may be transmitted directly or indirectly from one individual to another
Chlamydia
A large group of non-motile, gram-negative intracellular parasites. Spherical shape. Replicate in host cells. Ridged cell wall with large amount of lipids.
binary fission
A method of asexual reproduction involving halving of the nucleus and cytoplasm of the cell followed by the development of each half into a new individual cell.
Sanitation
A process to promote and establish conditions which minimize or eliminate biohazards.
parasitism
A symbiotic relationship between two organisms of different species where one benefits and the other is harmed
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
Y. pestis
disinfectant
a chemical or physical agent that destroys or inhibits disease-causing microorganisms
capsules
a coating that surrounds some bacterial cells; a loose gel-like structure that, in pathogenic bacteria, helps to protect against phagocytosis (immune response). Helps protect bacterium from the host's immune system or other environmental extremes.
capsule
a coating that surrounds some bacterial cells; loose gel like structure that, in pathogenic bacteria, helps to protect against phagocytosis
epidemic
a disease that is currently in higher than normal numbers in a given community.
endemic
a disease that occurs continuously in a particular region
sporadic
a disease which occurs occasionally in a random or isolated manner
acute
a disease with rapid onset and short duration.
chronic
a disease with slow onset and long duration.
antigen
a foreign substance that stimulates the formation of antibodies that react specifically with it
Nonmotile
Chlamydia psittaci is what?
fecal-oral
Giardiasis is spread via _____ route.
mesosome
folded area of the plasma membrane that assists in DNA replication
proteinaceous
made of protein
alcohol
often added to other disinfectants to enhance germicidal power.
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
S. typhi
organs
Smallpox can affect the what?
B. burgdorferi
What organism causes Lyme disease?
Which of the following do not form endospores?
M. avium
Which of the following is an aerobe?
M. avium
Which of the following is bacillus?
M. avium
Which of the following is gram positive?
M. avium
Which of the following is nonmotile?
M. avium
Which of the following's portals of entry are the respiratory and digestive tracts.
M. avium
Which of the following are humans the only known reservoir?
M. tuberculosis
environmental reservoirs
Most commonly in water and soil
antibiotics
Mycoplasmas are resistant to many _____.
cocci
Mycoplasmas are what?
nonmotile
Mycoplasmas are what?
cannot form endospores
Mycoplasmas can or cannot form endospores?
bronchitis, pharyngitis, and atypical pneumonia
Mycoplasmas may cause what?
What organisms is able to grow inside neutrophils?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following do not form endospores?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following have pili?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following is an aerobe?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following is diplococci?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following is gram negative?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following organisms have a capsule?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following produce enzymes?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following produce toxins?
N. gonorrhoeae
Which of the following's portal of entry is the genitourinary tract?
N. gonorrhoeae
Exotoxins
N. gonorrhoeae produces what?
Which of the following does not form endospores?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following is an obligate aerobe?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following is diplococci?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following is gram negative?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following is part of the natural flora?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following organisms have pili?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following produce toxins?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following s nonmotile?
N. meningitidis
Which of the following's portals of entry are the sin/mucous membranes, respiratory tract, digestive tract, and genitourinary tract?
N. meningitidis
poor hygiene, contaminated food and water, and flies.
Shigella species are commonly associated with what?
normal gastrointestinal flora
Shigella species are part of the what?
bacilli
Shigella species are:
Shigellosis or Bacillary Dysentery
Shigella species cause what?
do not form endospores
Shigella species do or do not form endospores?
inflammation and tissue damage in the colon
Shigella species produce toxins that cause what?
motile
Some species of Bacteroide species are _____
necrobiosis
The process by which the epithelial layer of the skin continuously dies, sloughs off, and is replaced.
how infections are carried
The reservoir of a microorganisms its natural habitat. The ability of a microorganism to spread disease depends on its specific reservoir. Microorganisms may have more than one reservoir.
MMR
The vaccine for epidemic parotitis is included in ____ vaccine.
vaccine
There is a ____ available for HPV
25%
There is a ____ fatality rate for viral encephalitis.
vaccine
There is a ______ available for smallpox.
vaccine
There is no ___ available for Hepatitis C.
cure
There is no ____ for HIV but treatments are available.
S. pneumoniae
This organism causes Lobar pneumoniae?
S. pneumoniae
This organism causes otitis media:
S. pneumoniae
This organism is drug resistant:
Which of the following have pili?
V. cholerae
Which of the following is bacillus?
V. cholerae
Which of the following is gram negative?
V. cholerae
Which of the following is motile?
V. cholerae
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
V. cholerae
which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
V. cholerae
which of the following produce toxins
V. cholerae
T. pallidum
V. cholerae and _____ have a flagellum.
Hexachlorophene
Very effective germicide, Common embalming chemical ingredient
Factors that influence the occurrence of disease
Virulence of the organisms, Portal of entry and exit, Number of organisms present, Resistance of the host
Aerobe
What are Rickettsia rickettsii's oxygen requirements?
Aerobe
What are Rickettsia typhi's oxygen requirements?
secondary infections, often cause infections of burns, urinary tract infections, and contributor to decomposition.
What are the conditions associated with the proteus species?
Dermatomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, Histoplasmosis, Candidiasis, Cryptococcosis (fungal meningitis), Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP)
What are the fungal diseases and organisms?
aerobes
What are the oxygen requirements for mycoplasmas.?
aerobe
What are the oxygen requirements of Coxiella burnettii?
influenza and the common cold
What are the pneumotropic diseases?
respiratory tract and urogenital tract
What are the portals of entry for mycoplasmas?
skin/mucous membranes and the genitourinary tract.
What are the portals of entry for the proteus species?
skin/mucus membranes, digestive tract, respiratory tract
What are the portals of entry of the Coxiella burnettii species?
Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery), Malaria, toxoplasmosis, giardiasis,
What are the protozoal diseases?
Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton
What are the three subtypes of dermatophytes?
Rickettsia rickettsii
What can be found in the saliva of a tick?
skin and mucous membranes
What is Rickettsia ricketsii's portal of entry?
skin and mucous membranes
What is Rickettsia typhi's portal of entry?
M. pneumoniae
What is a common species of mycoplasmas that is responsible for atypical pneumonia?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What is a common species of the pseudomonas species?
The chicken pox
What is an acute inflammatory disease associated with lesions?
influenza
What is associated with fever, chills, headache, and respiratory symptoms?
Cytomegalovirus
What is associated with fever, fatigue, and sore throat in adults?
Giardiasis
What is caused by Giardia lamblia?
Herpes Simplex II
What is caused by herpes simplex virus type II?
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
What is caused by lentivirus?
infectious mononucleosis
What is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (herpes 4 virus)?
Smallpox
What is caused by the Variola virus?
Cryptococcosis (fungal meningitis)
What is caused by the cryptococcus neoformans?
Human Papaloma Virus (HPV)
What is caused by the human papilloma virus?
Influenza
What is caused by the influenza virus?
Malaria
What is caused by the plasmodium: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae?
German measles
What is caused by the rubella virus?
Toxoplasmosis
What is caused by toxoplasma gondii?
chickenpox
What is caused by varicella-zoster virus?
hepatitis C
What is spread through direct contact with blood/bodily fluid.
Aerobe
What is the oxygen requirement for pseudomonas species?
the respiratory system
What is the portal of entry for measles?
skin/mucous membranes
What is the portal of entry for pseudomonas species?
bacterial infections
What kind of infections to Bacteroid species cause?
Rickettsia species
What kind of species is Rickettsia prowazekii?
H. pylori
What organism can cause cancer?
F. tularensis
What organism can survive for several weeks at low temperatures?
Y. pestis
What organism can survive in phagocytes?
B. anthracis
What organism causes Anthrax?
V. cholerae
What organism causes Asiatic cholera (epidemic cholera)?
C. diphtheriae
What organism causes Diphtheria?
M. avium
What organism causes Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)?
S. enteritidis
What organism causes Salmonellosis?
C. perfringens
What organism causes Tissue gas (postmortem condition)
S. typhi
What organism causes Typhoid fever?
E. coli
What organism causes enteritis?
N. meningitidis
What organism causes eye infections?
C. perfringens
What organism causes gas gangrene?
H. pylori
What organism causes gastritis?
N. gonorrhoeae
What organism causes gonorrhea?
L. interrogans
What organism causes leptospirosis?
K. pneumoniae
What organism causes respiratory infections?
M. tuberculosis
What organism causes tuberculosis?
H. pylori
What organism causes ulcers?
N. meningitidis
What organism causes urogenital infections?
M. tuberculosis
What organism does not gram stain?
N. gonorrhoeae
What organism has a cell wall that is high in proteins?
C. perfringens
What organism has a filamentous body?
M. tuberculosis
What organism has a mycolic acid outer coating?
N. meningitidis
What organism has adhesion proteins?
C. difficile
What organism has an adhesion factor?
B. burgdorferi
What organism is arthropod-borne?
Y. pestis
What organism is fairly resistant?
B. anthracis
What organism is found in soil and water?
S. pyogenes
What organism is part of the natural microflora but is usually pathogenic?
M. avium
What organism is somewhat resistant?
S. pyogenes
What organism produces Hyaluronidase
Coxiella burnetii
What species is Similar to rickettsia and sometimes classified as such but may be listed as their own classification in some sources?
Coxiella burnetii
What species is highly resistant to environmental factors?
in the human intestinal tract
Where does hepatitis A live?
C. perfringens
Which nonmotile organism has Filamentous body that allows for some movement?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following is part of the natural microflora?
C. tetani
Which organism Produces Exotoxins. Tetanospasmin- neurotoxin that causes muscle contractions?
F. tularensis
Which organism can be spread via fomites?
V. cholerae
Which organism cause Higher Electrolyte levels, high blood viscosity?
H. influenzae
Which organism causes Influenza meningitis?
T. pallidum
Which organism causes Syphilis?
C. jejuni
Which organism causes gastroenteritis?
K. pneumoniae
Which organism causes infected wounds?
N. meningitidis
Which organism causes pneumonia?
F. tularensis
Which organism causes tularemia?
K. pneumoniae
Which organism causes urinary tract infections?
C. botulinum
Which organism has Heat Resistant Endospores?
H. influenzae
Which organism has a capsule containing antigens that paralyze respiratory cilia?
E. coli
Which organism is an opportunist?
B. burgdorferi
Which organism is arthropod transmitted?
K. pneumoniae
Which organism is encapsulated?
B. burgdorferi
Which organism is highly flexible?
H. influenzae
Which organism is highly virulent?
S. pneumoniae
Which organism is part of Normal Microflora of the nose and mouth, may become pathogenic?
K. pneumoniae
Which organism is resistant to phagocytosis?
M. tuberculosis
Which organism is very resistant?
S. pneumoniae
Which organism occurs in chains of cocci but are usually diplococci?
C. botulinum
Which organism produces Botulinum toxin?
C. diphtheriae
Which organism produces Diphtheria exotoxin- able to alter protein function?
N. meningitidis
Which organism produces Exotoxin that can Destroy RBCs?
C. perfringens
Which organism produces Exotoxins that cause Necrosis and Hemorrhaging. Carbon dioxide gas, hydrogen gas, Alpha toxin
C. difficile
Which organism produces Exotoxins: Hyaluronidase, toxins that can damage intestinal mucosa and cause inflammation.
T. pallidum
Which organism's oxygen requirements are unknown?
Y. pestis
Which organisms is responsible for the bubonic plague?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which species has a rigid cell wall?
Which of the following do not form endospores?
Y. pestis
Which of the following is bacillus?
Y. pestis
Which of the following is gram negative?
Y. pestis
Which of the following is nonmotile?
Y. pestis
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin/mucous membranes?
Y. pestis
Dermatomycosis
____ is a fungal skin infection.
epidemic parotitis (mumps)
____ is caused by several organisms.
mosquitos
______ usually transmit viral encephalitis to humans.
C. diphtheriae
_______ are found all over.
exotoxin
a bacterial toxin produced within a living cell and secreted into its surrounding medium
endotoxin
a bacterial toxin that is liberated only when the cell producing it disintegrates. May also be released when the bacterium is actively dividing. Found only in gram-negative bacteria.
vector
a carrier that transmits the causative organism of a disease from infected to noninfected individuals. Usually an insect or an arthropod.
cremation
a form of incineration for human remains.
Exogenus
a form of infection caused by a pathogen or agent not normally present in the body
ultraviolet light
a form of nonionizing radiation that can control microorganism growth. organism must be exposed directly for it to be effective. some organisms are resistant to this method of control.
incineration
a form of sterilization that reduces waste to a more manageable amount and form
Rickettsia
a genus of gram-negative, pathogenic, obligate intracellular parasitic bacteria. Rod shaped. Cannot live outside a host cell. Spread via arthropod vectors.
staphylococci
a genus of gram-positive, nonmotile, opportunistic bacteria which tend to aggregate in irregular grape-like clusters.
Vibrio
a genus of spiral bacteria which are curved or bent rods that resemble commas
spirillum (pl. spirilla)
a genus of spiral having a corkscrew shape with rigid cell wall
s. aureus
a grape-like cluster that produces a golden colored colony when grown in a lab.
mycoplasmas
a group of bacteria that lack cell walls and are highly pleomorphic. Smallest and most simple self-replicating bacteria.
fungus (pl. fungi)
a group of diverse and widespread unicellular and multicellular organisms, lacking chlorophyll, usually bearing spores and often filamentous. Often grow on decomposing matter. Usually row in round patterns. often associated with conditions that cause immunosuppression.
mechanical vector
a living organism capable of transmitting infections by carrying the disease agent on its external body parts or surfaces.
strict (obligate) aerobe
a microbe that can live only in the presence of free oxygen
strict (obligate) anaerobe
a microbe that can only survive in the absence of free oxygen
facultative aerobe
a microorganism that prefers an environment devoid of oxygen but has adapted so that it can live and grow in the presence of oxygen
diplobacilli
a pair of bacilli, linked end to end
Sterilization
a process of completely removing or destroying all life forms and their products including endospores
bacteria
a prokaryotic, one celled microorganism of the kingdom Monera, existing as free-living organisms or parasites, multiplying by binary fission and having a large range of biochemical properties.
mutualism
a relationship in which organisms of different species live in close association to the mutual benefit of each.
symbiosis
a relationship in which organisms of different species live in close nutritional relationships.
prion
a small proteinaceous infectious particle that is believed to be responsible for spongiform encephalopathies in humans and other mammals. Non-living organism. Do not contain DNA or RNA.
cytoskeleton
a structure made of proteins that provides shape and support for cells.
germicide
a substance that destroys microorganisms
Endospore
a thick-walled body produced by a bacterium to enable it to survive unfavorable environmental conditions
endospores
a thick-walled body produced by a bacterium to enable it to survive unfavorable environmental conditions.
inflammation
a tissue reaction to irritation, infection, or injury marked by localized het, swelling, redness, pain, and sometimes loss of function.
bacterial colony
a visible group of bacteria growing on a solid medium, presumably arising from a single microorganism. requires one million bacteria begoring being visible without a microscope
gram-staining
a way of differentiating types of bacteria with dyes.
immune system
able to detect and defend against foreign organisms or items.
autotrophic bacteria
able to grow without the presence of organic compounds
80%
about ____ of people in the us are carriers of cytomegalovirus.
skin and mucous membranes
abrasions, lesions, open wounds, insect bites/appendages, animal bites, human bites, mucous membranes.
virucide
agent destructive to viruses
Glutaraldehyde
aldehyde based solution that is an effective disinfectant and a cold chemical sterilant when activated in 2% solution. Less toxic than formaldehyde but still does cause some side effects upon exposure.
liver
all strains of hepatitis cause damage to the _____.
toxins
allow microorganisms to be more virulent.
endopores
allow organisms to assume a "dormant" form.
innate immunity
also called non-specific immunity
antibody
also known as immunoglobulin
bactericide
an agent that destroys bacteria but not necessarily their spores
biological vector
an arthropod vector in which the disease-causing organism multiplies or develops within the arthropod prior to becoming ineffective.
steam under pressure
an autoclave machine is used to control microbial growth, Most effective method, Capable of killing endospores
lysozyme
an enzyme that uses water to break down peptidoglycan layer in prokaryotic pathogens.
pandemic
an epidemic that has become very widespread or is worldwide.
local
an infection confined to one area of the body
focal
an infection in which the organisms are originally confined to one area but enter the blood or lymph vessels and spread to other parts of the body.
general (systemic)
an infection that involves the whole body
virus
an intracellular, infectious parasite capable of replicating in only living cells, containing only one form of nucleic acid. Can infect almost any living cell. Many types and classifications.
Strict (obligate) saprophyte
an organism that can only survive on dead or decaying organic matter
true pathogen
an organism that due to its own virulence is able to produce disease
opportunist
an organism that exists as part of the normal flora but may become pathogenic under certain conditions.
Strict (obligate) parasite
an organism that is completely dependent on its living host for survival
facultative anaerobes
an organism the prefers the presence of oxygen but is capable of living and growing in its absence
pathogenicity
an organisms ability to survive and produce pathological changes
kingdom
animal, plant, fungi, protist, Monera.
Three main sources of infection or broad reservoirs
animals or persons ill of the infection, chronic animal or human carriers, the environment.
eukarya
animals, plants, protist (more than one type of nucleus and membrane bound organelles).
zoonoses
any disease that is communicable from animals or animal products.
fomites
any inanimate object that harbors a disease agent and may serve to transmit it.
vehicles of exit
any materials contaminated with body fluid, secretions, or blood can be a vehicle for pathogens to spread.
binary fission
asexual reproduction.
Prokaryotic
bacteria and cyanobacteria are usually prokaryotic.
sporulating bacteria
bacteria forming an endospore
light requirements
bacteria have various light requirements, some light can destroy bacteria, especially important for bacteria that convert light into a food source.
Psychrophile
bacteria that prefer cold, thriving at temperatures between 0 C and 25 C.
Mesophile
bacteria that prefers moderate temperature and develops best at temperatures between 25 C and 40 C
thermophile
bacteria that thrive best at high temperatures, between 40 C and 70 C
cyanobacteria
blue-green algae
Gutaraldehyde
can be used to sterilize embalming instruments and in situations where heat is not appropriate for the material being treated.
infectious
can cause disease.
pathogenic
can cause disease.
ultraviolet light
can destroy some bacteria
highly concentrated salt solutions
can slow down microbial growth and inhibit decomposition of proteins.
T cells
destroy the body's own cells that have been taken over by the foreign invader.
pH requirements
different bacteria can tolerate different pH levels
hypotonic
dilute
Attenunation
dilution or weakening of the virulence of a microorganism; reducing the abolishing pathogenicity
modes of transmission
direct transmission and indirect transmission
human reservoirs
diseases spread this way are often easier to control.
Non-communicable
diseases that do not spread from person to person.
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (Quats)
disinfect by damaging cellular membranes and denaturing proteins, deactivated by soap, can lessen surface tension of cell membranes, Common quats include benzalkonium chloride, benzethonium chloride, and cepacol
Halogens
disinfect by oxidizing microbial cells; are generally very caustic and aggressive.
Prokaryotes
do not have a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles. DNA is held in nucleoid. Cell wall composed of peptidoglycan.
indirect transmission- Milk
due to improper preparation processes.
inflammation
during this process, immune system cells are drawn towards the site of the injury, the area swells with these cells, and pus may be formed. All of this creates enough pressure to expel any foreign debris.
defense mechanism
each _____ targets a particular part of pathogen.
ovaries
epidemic parotitis can lead to inflammation of what in women?
meningitis, pancreatitis, and deafness
epidemic parotitis can lead to:
paramyxovirus; Epstein-Barr
epidemic parotitis is commonly caused by ____ and ____.
protozoa
eukaryotic, animal like, unicellular organisms (may be pathogenic). No cell wall, ridged forms that could change throughout development most prevalent microorganism.
Naming Microorganisms
first name is genus, last name is the species
indirect Transmisson
food, water, air, milk, fomites, soil, zoonoses, vector.
congenital
from mother to fetus
direct transmission
generally associated with some sort of contact.
dry heat
generally less effective than moist heat and requires higher exposure time.
Eukaryotic Cytoplasm
generally refers to the functional organelles in the cell
Prokaryotic Cytoplasm
generally refers to the internal matrix of the cell
indirect transmission
generally, from contact with inanimate objects, or fomites.
Glutaraldehyde
germicidal in 10 minutes, kills endospores in 3-12 hours.
antibody
glycoprotein substance developed by the body in response to, and interacting specifically with an antigen.
antibody (immunoglobulin)
glycoprotein substance developed by the body in response to, and interacting specifically with, an antigen
aureus
golden yellow in color
species
group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
Saphrophytic
grow and/or absorb decomposing matter.
mycoplasmas
grow in fried egg-shaped colonies.
filamentous
grows in long chains or strands.
endospore
has a highly resistant casing that can allow the bacteria inside to survuve for thousands of years.
Eukaryotes
have nuclei, a cytoskeleton, and membrane-bound organelles.
fomites
hepatitis A can survive for days on ____.
genital herpes
herpes simplex II causes what?
hypertonic
highly concentrated
bone marrow
immune cells come from?
innate immunity (natural immunity)
immunity that an individual is born with
Indirect transmission- Food
improper cooking or improper handling can contaminate foods. Poor hygiene of anyone handling food can also result in the spread of disease.
Temperature requirements
include maximum, minimum, and optimum temperatures
Acquired Immunity (adaptive immunity)
individual either forms antibodies to a pathogen or is given antibodies to a pathogen
bio
life
Formalin
liquid formaldehyde solution. can be irritating and is a possible carcinogen.
Flagella
long whip-like appendages that propel an organism
cytoplasm
material inside the cell (80% water containing enzymes, carbohydrates, and lipids that together creates
Free flowing steam
materials are incubated overnight to allow endospores to germinate then the objects are introduced to free-flowing steam the next day and this process is repeated
vegetative bacterium
may at any time form new endospore
vectors
may carry pathogen externally or internally.
pH
measures how acidic something is
order
more specific groups of classes
genus
more specific groups of families
Family
more specific groups of orders.
eukaryotic
most plant, protozoan, and algae cells are what?
colostrum
mother's first breast milk
antagonism
mutual opposition or contrary action. The inhibition of one microorganism by another
nuclear envelope
nucleus is bound by a?
Endogenous
organism disorder caused by infectious agent already present in the body.
indirect transmission- Soil
organisms like the bacterium responsible for causing tetanus can live in _____.
non-symbiotic
organisms that are free living, relationships are not required for survival.
heterotrophic bacteria
organisms that must obtain their nourishment from complex organic matter
Class
organisms with more specific similarities than phyla groups.
Phylum
organisms with similar body plans (morphological features or structures).
gastric juices
pH levels and hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
ribosome
particle that assists in protein synthesis
respiratory tract
particles released via sneezes, coughs, etc. Touching contaminated surfaces then touching the nose/mouth. Dust particles human or nonhuman waste. Inhalation of pathogenic bacterial spores
indirect transmission- air
pathogens may be spread via inhalation aerosolized particles released when someone is talking, coughing, sneezing, etc.
spongiform encephalopathy
pathological condition that affects the brain
direct transmission
physical contact, droplet infection (aerosol), sexual transmission, congenital, blood-to-blood contact.
Mechanical defenses
physical means of reduction.
contaminated water
poliomyelitis is transmitted via _____ _____.
intracellular parasite
prefers a host cell.
Facultative saprophyte
prefers living organic matter as a source of nutrition but can adapt to the use of dead organic matter under certain conditions
bacteremia
presence of bacteria in the blood
toxemia
presence of toxins in the blood. May be toxins that develop from bacteria growing in a focal or local site.
function of the human immune system
preventing infection
phagocytosis
process in which phagocytes engulf and digest microorganisms, other foreign antigens and cell debris.
B cells
produce antibodies that attack foreign invader cells.
T cells
produce cytokines which help to activate other immune responses.
archaea
prokaryotic organisms that DO NOT have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. often live in extreme environment but usually do not cause disease in humans.
bacteria
prokaryotic organisms that do not have peptidoglycan in their cell wall.
enzymes
proteins that act as biological catalysts
interferon
proteins that respond to viruses to inhibit spread of pathogenic organisms.
normal gastrointestinal biome
proteus species are part of the
motile
pseudomonas species are what?
burns
pseudomonas species can cause infection of what?
do not form endospores
pseudomonas species do or do not form endospores?
bite
rabies is spread via _____ with an infected animal.
cold
refrigeration or freezing. Do not always destroy vegetative microbes or endospores.
Virulence
relative power of an organism to produce disease
Moisture (water) requirements
requirements vary and al species have a maximum, optimum, and minimum requirement.
obligate intracellular parasite
requires a host cell.
Microaerophilic
requires very little free oxygen as found with certain bacteria.
pathological changes
resistance in the human's ability to defend against pathogens
endospores
resistant to disinfectants. Embalming will not properly take care of them. Possible for disease to spread from decedent to embalmer.
Drug-fast
resistant, as in bacteria, to the action of a drug or drugs
droplet infection (aerosol)
respiratory droplets
artificially acquired passive immunity
result of injection of antibodies (via immune serums)
naturally acquires passive immunity
result of placental transfer of antibodies in the uterus or through the mother's first breast milk.
artificially acquired active immunity
result of receiving a vaccine
naturally acquired active immunity
results of developing a disease and recovering from it
Bacillus (pl. bacilli)
rod shaped bacteria.
streptobacilli
rod-shaped bacteria occurring in chains
Protozoology
science that deals with the study of protozoa
Bacteriology
science that studies bacteria
microbiology
scientific study of microorganisms and their effects on living organisms.
autotrophic bacteria
self nourishing bacteria
cell wall
semirigid structure that provides the cell with its shape.
genitourinary tract
sexually transmitted diseases, diseases of the urinary system
nonmotile
shigella species are what?
pili
short, thin attachments that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces
Monera
single celled prokaryotes.
mechanical defenses
skin (epithelium), mucus membranes, normal microbiota of the skin, oils in the skin produced by the sebaceous glands, necrobiosis, tears, ciliated epithelium in the respiratory tract, flushing of urine.
5 main portals of entry and exit
skin and mucous membranes, respiratory tract, digestive tract, genitourinary tract, and placenta.
Phenol (carbolic acid)
slightly acidic with sweet odor; flammable; exposure can cause chemical burns, liver damage, diarrhea, dark urine, and hemolytic anemia.
prokaryotic
small, simple structure, peptidoglycan membrane, no nucleus.
lesions
smallpox can cause what on the skin?
enzymes
some microorganisms can produce _____ that damage human tissues.
Placenta
some pathogens can spread across the placenta from mother to fetus.
coccus
sphere or ball shaped.
Diplococci
spherical bacteria that occurs in pairs.
streptococci
spherical shaped bacteria occurring in chains.
spirochete
spiral-shaped bacteria having a flexible cell wall
Gram-negative bacteria
stain red and have a thin peptidoglycan wall.
Gram-positive bacteria
stain violet and have a thick peptidoglycan wall. May be more resistant to changes in the environment, antibiotics, etc.
Glycocalyx
sticky coating surrounding the cell wall in prokaryotic cells
organelles
structures within a cell.
fungicide
substance that kills fungi
Cytomegalovirus
symptoms of this virus in infants can be very severe and can include enlargement of the liver and spleen, mental and motor disabilities, and death.
Virulence of an organism
tells how well an organism can cause disease.
maximum temperature
temperature above which bacterial growth will not take place
optimum temperature
temperature at which organisms grow best
minimum temperature
temperature below which bacterial growth will not take place
cremation
temperature of approximately 1600 degrees Fahrenheit must be maintained until remains have undergone complete combustion
contamination
the act of introducing disease causing microbes into an area. does not necessarily result in infection.
contamination
the act of introducing pathogens or infectious material into or on an inanimate object.
micro
very small
brain
viral encephalitis causes inflammation of the _____.
arthropod-borne
viral encephalitis is _______.
Hepatitis A-E, infections mononucleosis, cytomegalovirus (inclusions disease), epidemic parotitis (mumps)
viscerotropic diseases
Aerobe
what are Rickettsia prowazekii's oxygen requirements?
Rabies (hydrophobia), poliomyelitis, viral encephalitis
what are the neurotropic diseases?
facultative anaerobes
what are the oxygen requirements for shigella species?
anaerobe
what are the oxygen requirements of Chlamydia trachomatis?
poliomyelitis
what begins multiplying in the throat and spread to the small intestine and lymph nodes from there?
measles
what can cause encephalitis?
Cryptococcosis
what causes chronic meningitis?
Herpes simplex I
what causes cold sores and corneal infections?
skin/mucous membranes
what is Rickettsia prowazekii's portal of entry?
Poliomyelitis
what is associated with a sore throat, headache, fever, and nausea?
Rabies
what is associated with agitation, spasms of the mouth and pharynx, foaming at the mouth.
epidemic parotitis
what is associated with swelling, pain, and fever?
hepatitis
what is caused by a variety of viruses: Hepatitis A-E?
Coccidioidomycosis
what is caused by coccidioides immitis?
Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery)
what is caused by entamoeba hystolytica?
herpes simplex I
what is caused by herpes simplex virus type I?
histoplasmosis
what is caused by histoplasma capsulatum?
pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
what is caused by pneumocystis jirovecii?
Measels
what is caused by rubeola virus?
viral encephalitis
what is caused by the arbovirus?
Cytomegalovirus (inclusion disease)
what is caused by the cytomegalovirus (herpes virus)?
poliomyelitis
what is caused by the poliovirus?
humans
what is the on natural reservoir for Rickettsia prowazekii?
the genitourinary tract
what is the portal of entry for Chlamydia trachomatis?
the respiratory system
what is the portal of entry for German measles?
hypotonic
when a solution outside the cell is ____, the bacterial cell wall will draw water in and may swell and burst.
allergic reactions and autoimmune disorders
when the immune system is not functioning properly, the resulting conditions are ?
hypertonic
when the solution outside the cell is ______, the water inside the bacterium is drawn into the external fluid. results in cell membrane being drawn from the cell wall, cell membrane may collapse leaving bacterium unable to survive.
isotonic
when the solution outside the cell is the same concentration as the cell it is ____ and there is no effect
sick
wind can carry the spores of coccidioidomycosis, so passing through endemic areas can make a person ____.
the common cold
with measles, at first symptoms are similar to what?
What organism is a facultative parasite?
F. tularensis
Which of the following does not form endospores?
F. tularensis
Which of the following is an aerobe?
F. tularensis
Which of the following is bacillus?
F. tularensis
Which of the following is gram negative?
F. tularensis
Which of the following is nonmotile?
F. tularensis
Which of the following's portals of entry are the skin/mucous membranes, the respiratory tract, and the digestive tract?
F. tularensis
mild
German measles are a more ___ form of measles.
Chronic
Giardiasis can become ____.
gastrointestinal
Giardiasis is associated with ______symptoms.
water
Giardiasis is found in ____ supplies.
Which of the following does not form endospores?
H. influenzae
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
H. influenzae
Which of the following is bacillus?
H. influenzae
Which of the following is gram negative?
H. influenzae
Which of the following is nonmotile?
H. influenzae
Which of the following's portals of entry are the skin/mucous membranes and the respiratory tract?
H. influenzae
Which of the following do not form endospores?
H. pylori
Which of the following has flagella?
H. pylori
Which of the following is a microaerophile?
H. pylori
Which of the following is coccus and curved coccus/spirillum
H. pylori
Which of the following is gram negative?
H. pylori
Which of the following is motile?
H. pylori
Which of the following is part of the natural microflora?
H. pylori
Which of the following's portal of entry is the respiratory tract and the digestive tract?
H. pylori
C. jejuni
H. pylori and ____ have the ability to change shape.
immunological
HIV is an _____ disease.
infections
HIV is associated with other _____.
acuired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
HIV leads to ____.
immunity
HIV leads to compromised ______.
asymptomatic
HPV is often _______.
fecal-oral route
Hepatitis A is spread via _______.
blood
Hepatitis A replicates in the _____.
sexual
Hepatitis B can also be spread via ____ contact and from mother to infant during childbirth.
chronic
Hepatitis B is a ____ infection.
body fluids
Hepatitis B is spread via contaminated ___ ____.
acute infection
Herpes A is always an ___ ____.
COPD
Histoplasmosis can cause _____.
Respiratory
Histoplasmosis is a _____ infection.
Inhalation
Histoplasmosis is acquired via ____ of spores.
Ohio, Missouri, Mississippi Delta
Histoplasmosis is common in what?
bats; birds
Histoplasmosis is found in the bodies of _____, and fecal matter from _____.
person to person
Histoplasmosis is not spread from _________.
orally or via the respiratory
How is Herpes simplex I transferred?
saliva and respiratory droplets
How is epidemic parotitis spread?
Sexually transmitted?
How is herpes simplex II is transmitted how?
N. gonorrhoeae
Humans are the only natural host of this organisim:
Which of the following produce toxins?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following is a facultative aerobe?
C. diphtheriae
Which of the following is bacillus?
C. diphtheriae
Which of the following is gram positive?
C. diphtheriae
Which of the following is nonmotile?
C. diphtheriae
Which of the following produce toxins?
C. diphtheriae
Which of the following's portal of entry is the respiratory tract?
C. diphtheriae
C. perfringens
C. diphtheriae and ______ are saprophytes.
Which of the following does not form endospores?
C. jejuni
Which of the following have flagella?
C. jejuni
Which of the following is an microaerophile?
C. jejuni
Which of the following is coccus and curved coccus/spirillum?
C. jejuni
Which of the following does not form endospores?
K. pneumoniae
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
K. pneumoniae
Which of the following is bacillus?
K. pneumoniae
Which of the following is nonmotile?
K. pneumoniae
Which of the following does not form endospores?
M. tuberculosis
Which of the following is an aerobe
M. tuberculosis
Which of the following is bacillus?
M. tuberculosis
Which of the following is nonmotile?
M. tuberculosis
Which of the following's portal of entry is the respiratory tract?
M. tuberculosis
liver; RBCs
Malaria multiplies in the ____ and _____.
Anopheles mosquito
Malaria's biological vector is the _____ _____.
scrubbing
Manual process by which microorganisms are removed from a surface.
contagious
Measles are highly ______.
chicken pox and smallpox
Measles are similar to what two viruses?
rash; fever
Measles are usually associated with ____ and ____.
N. meningitidis
Meningococcemia is caused by what organism?
survival in harsh conditions
The cell wall of pseudomonas species allows for what?
200
The common cold is caused by more than _____ viruses.
Foodborne
Toxoplasmosis causes ____ illness.
immunocompromised
Toxoplasmosis is more severe in what kinds of patients?
Cat
Toxoplasmosis often spread via contaminated ____ feces.
nuclear body
area containing the bacterial chromosome and the plasmids
Rickettsiology
area of science that studies rickettsia
Vaccine
there is a ___ available for hepatitis B.
Cold
these temperatures do generally inhibit growth of microbes, but once temperatures rise again, the microbes will continue to function normally.
Which of the following is gram positive?
C. difficile
Which of the following is part of the natural microflora?
C. difficile
Which of the following produce toxins?
C. difficile
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
C. difficile
Which of the following does not form endospores?
C. diphtheriae
Which of the following is gram negative?
C. jejuni
Which of the following is motile?
C. jejuni
Which of the following produce toxins?
C. jejuni
Which of the following's portals of entry are the digestive tract and the genitourinary tract?
C. jejuni
H. pylori
C. jejuni and ______ have the ability to change shape.
Which of the following are part of the natural microflora.
C. perfringens
Which of the following can form endospores?
C. perfringens
Which of the following causes food poisoning?
C. perfringens
Which of the following form endospores?
C. perfringens
Which of the following is an anaerobe?
C. perfringens
Which of the following is bacillus?
C. perfringens
Which of the following is gram positive?
C. perfringens
Which of the following is nonmotile?
C. perfringens
Which of the following produce toxins?
C. perfringens
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin and mucous membranes?
C. perfringens
which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
C. perfringens
C. diphtheriae
C. perfringens and ______ are saprophytes.
This organism causes tetanus (lockjaw)
C. tetani
Which of the following can form endospores?
C. tetani
Which of the following have flagella?
C. tetani
Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe?
C. tetani
Which of the following is bacillus?
C. tetani
Which of the following is gram positive?
C. tetani
Which of the following is motile?
C. tetani
Which of the following produce toxins?
C. tetani
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin and mucous membranes?
C. tetani
systemic
Candidiasis can cause ____ infections.
immune system
Candidiasis is associated with a weakened what?
multidrug
Candidiasis is often _____ resistant.
cresols (lysol)
Chemicals derived from toluene, Associated with various side effects upon exposure, Common disinfectant in the prep room
encephalitis; pneumonia
Chickenpox can lead to _______ and _______.
Psittacosis (parrot fever)
Chlamydia psittaci causes what?
does not form endospores
Chlamydia psittaci does or does not form endospores
coccus
Chlamydia psittaci is what?
aerobe
Chlamydia psittaci's oxygen requirements are what?
respiratory tract
Chlamydia psittaci's portal of entry is what?
Chlamydia (lyphogranulomavenerum)
Chlamydia trachomatis causes what?
coccus
Chlamydia trachomatis is what?
Which of the following does not form endospores?
S. typhi
S. aureus
Enterotoxins, Coagulase, Hyaluronidase, Lipase, TSS-I are produced by what organism?
testicles
Epidemic parotitis can result in inflammation of what in men and sterility?
Which of the following has flagella?
S. typhi
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
S. typhi
Which of the following is bacillus?
S. typhi
Which of the following is gram negative?
S. typhi
Which of the following is motile?
S. typhi
Which of the following is the human the only known reservoir?
S. typhi
chemical defenses
defenses involving chemical substances
gram positive
thick layer of peptidoglycan.
spore
thick-walled resistant layer
gram-negative
thin layer of peptidoglycan.
cysts
toxoplasmosis causes ___ to form in the muscles, tissues, heart, and brain.
bacilli
The pseudomonas species are
vehicles of exit
- feces - urine - semen - vaginal secretions - sputum - saliva - blood - pus - tears -lesion exudate
formalin
37% formaldehyde by mass and 40% by volume
Gram negativeAll of the species groups are what?
All of the species groups are what?
gastrointestinal
Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) causes ______ issues.
cysts
Amoebiasis is able to form _____.
fecal-oral route
Amoebiasis is spread via _______ and found in food and water.
Nonhuman reservoirs
Animals, insects, etc.
lymphocytes
B and T cells are major types of?
Which of the following can form endospores?
B. anthracis
Which of the following is an aerobe?
B. anthracis
Which of the following is bacillus?
B. anthracis
Which of the following is gram positive?
B. anthracis
Which of the following is nonmotile?
B. anthracis
Which of the following's portals of entry are the skin/mucous membranes, the respiratory tract, and the digestive tract?
B. anthracis
Which of the following is a spirochete?
B. burgdorferi
Which of the following is gram negative?
B. burgdorferi
Which of the following is microaerophilic?
B. burgdorferi
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin and mucous membranes?
B. burgdorferi
Domain
Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
Bacilli
Bacteroide Species are
anaerobes
Bacteroide species are obligate ____.
normal intestinal biome
Bacteroide species are often part of:
they can form endospores.
Bacteroide species can or cannot form endospores?
N. meningitidis
Both S. pneumoniae and _____ both cause meningitis.
What organism causes botulism?
C. botulinum
Which of the following can form endospores?
C. botulinum
Which of the following form endospores?
C. botulinum
Which of the following have flagella?
C. botulinum
Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe?
C. botulinum
Which of the following is bacillus?
C. botulinum
Which of the following is gram positive?
C. botulinum
Which of the following is motile?
C. botulinum
Which of the following produce toxins?
C. botulinum
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
C. botulinum
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin and mucous membranes?
C. botulinum
Which of the following an anaerobe?
C. difficile
Which of the following are bacillus?
C. difficile
Which of the following can form endospores?
C. difficile
Which of the following cause nosocomial infections?
C. difficile
Which of the following form endospores?
C. difficile
respiratory
Coccidioidomycosis is a _____ disease.
respiratory systems
Common colds are associated with _____ _____.
Candida albicans and candida auris
Common strains of Candidiasis include:
nonmotile
Coxiella burnettii are what?
Q Fever
Coxiella burnettii causes what?
does not form endospores
Coxiella burnettii does or does not form endospores?
spongiform
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) causes _______ degeneration of the brain.
incubation
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) has a long ______ period.
fatal
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is ____ within a year of symptoms presenting.
treatment
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is very rare and there is no ______ available.
inherited
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) may be transmitted or ____.
secondary
Cryptococcosis often leads to _____ fungal infections.
Dermatophytes
Dermatomycosis is caused by what?
Small pox, Measels, German measles, chickenpox, herpes simplex I, herpes simplex II, human papilloma virus (HPV).
Dermatropic Viruses
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
E coli
Which of the following do not form endospores?
E. coli
Which of the following have a capsule?
E. coli
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
E. coli
Which of the following is bacillus?
E. coli
Which of the following is gram negative?
E. coli
Which of the following produce toxins?
E. coli
asymptomatic
Infectious mononucleosis is sometimes _____.
acute inflammatory disease
Influenza is a(n) ________ ________ _______.
herpes simplex II
Is associated with skin lesions but may be asymptomatic.
Which of the following causes nosocomial infections?
K. pneumoniae
Which of the following's portals of entry are the skin/mucous membranes and the respiratory tract?
K. pneumoniae
which of the following is gram negative?
K. pneumoniae
Which of the following do not form endospores?
L. interrogans
Which of the following has flagella?
L. interrogans
Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe?
L. interrogans
Which of the following is gram negative?
L. interrogans
Which of the following is motile?
L. interrogans
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin/mucous membranes?
L. interrogans
Which of the following's portals of entry are the skin and mucous membranes, the respiratory tract, the digestive tract, and the genitourinary tract?
S. pyogenes
N. gonorrhoeae
Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by what organism?
failure
PCP can lead to respiratory _____.
multidrug resistant
PCP is often ____ ____.
1%
Paralysis occurs in _____ of poliomyelitis cases.
immunosuppression
Pneumocystis pneumonia are commonly associated with what?
Lungs
Pneumocystis pneumonia commonly exists in the ____ of animals.
CNS
Poliomyelitis eventually moves into the blood and affects ____.
osmotic pressure
Pressure that develops when two solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
which of the following cause impetigo?
S. pyogenes
saprophytes
Proteus species are opportunistic ______.
bacilli
Proteus species are:
do not form endospores
Proteus species can or cannot form endospores?
Aerobe
Proteus species oxygen requirements:
secondary infections
Pseudomonas commonly cause what?
antibiotics
Pseudomonas species are resistant to _____.
skeletal
Rabies affects ___ muscles before traveling to the brain.
acute
Rabies is an _____ infection.
rhabdovirus
Rabies is caused by what?
cannot form endospores
Rickettsia prowazekii can or cannot form endospores?
Epidemic Typhus (Louse-Borne Typhus)
Rickettsia prowazekii causes what?
intracellular parasite
Rickettsia prowazekii is an obligate _____ ______.
bacillus
Rickettsia prowazekii is what?
nonmotile
Rickettsia prowazekii is what?
arthropod vector- human body louse
Rickettsia prowazekii spread via what?
bacillus
Rickettsia rickettsii are what?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Rickettsia rickettsii causes what?
Do not form endospores
Rickettsia rickettsii do or do not form endospores?
nonmotile
Rickettsia rickettsii is what?
Endemic typhus
Rickettsia typhi causes what?
do not produce endospores
Rickettsia typhi do or do not produce endospores?
Bacillus
Rickettsia typhi is what?
nonmotile
Rickettsia typhi is what?
Which of the following produce enzymes?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following cause skin conditions?
S. aureus
Which of the following cause toxic shock syndrome?
S. aureus
Which of the following causes food poisoning?
S. aureus
Which of the following causes nosocomial infections?
S. aureus
Which of the following does not form endospores?
S. aureus
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
S. aureus
Which of the following is antibiotic resistant?
S. aureus
Which of the following is nonmotile?
S. aureus
Which of the following is part of the normal microflora?
S. aureus
Which of the following occur in clusters of cocci?
S. aureus
Which of the following produce toxins?
S. aureus
Which of the following's portal of entry is the respiratory tract?
S. aureus
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin/mucous membranes?
S. aureus
Which of the following does not form endospores?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following have flagella?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following is bacillus?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following is gram negative?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following is motile?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following is part of the natural microflora?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
S. enteritidis
Which of the following Cause nosocomial infections
S. epidermidis
Which of the following can form biofilms?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following does not form endospores?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following is antibiotic resistant?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following is gram positive?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following is nonmotile?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following is part of the natural microflora?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following occur in clusters of cocci?
S. epidermidis
Which of the following's portal of entry is the respiratory tract
S. epidermidis
Which of the following's portal of entry is the skin and mucous membranes?
S. epidermidis
S. pyogenes and ______ occur in chains of cocci
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following causes meningitis?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following have a polysaccharide capsule?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following is a facultative aerobe?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following is gram positive?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following is nonmotile?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following is part of the natural microflora?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following's portal of entry is the digestive tract?
S. pneumoniae
Which of the following's portal of entry is the respiratory tract?
S. pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae and ________ both have a polysaccharide capsule.
S. aureus and ________ cause toxic shock syndrome.
S. pyogenes
This organism causes puerperal sepsis (childbirth fever):
S. pyogenes
What is responsible for strep throat?
S. pyogenes
What organism causes Glomerulonephritis?
S. pyogenes
What organism is responsible for rheumatic fever?
S. pyogenes
Which is responsible for scarlet fever?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following does not form endospores?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following has a hyaluronic acid capsule?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following is gram positive?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following is nonmotile?
S. pyogenes
Which of the following occur in chains of cocci?
S. pyogenes
malaria
Symptoms of ____ begin with fever and chills, but can lead to anemia and hypertrophy of the liver and spleen.
Which of the following is a spirochete?
T. pallidum
Which of the following is gram negative?
T. pallidum
Which of the following is motile?
T. pallidum
Which of the following's portal of entry is the genitourinary tract?
T. pallidum
V. cholerae
T. pallidum and ______ both have flagellum.
disinfection
The destruction or inhibition of disease-causing microorganisms by chemical or physical means. Applies to inanimate objects or surfaces. Reduces microbes to a point where they are not a serious health hazard. Does not destroy or inactivate endospores.
factors influencing disinfectant action
The nature and type of disinfectant, The concentration of the disinfectant, The type of material that is being disinfected, The number and type of microbes present, The length of exposure to the disinfectant, The temperature and pH of the disinfectant during exposure
chain of infection
causative agent (any pathogenic microorganism) exists in a reservoir (natural habitat). Causative agent exits the reservoir and is transmitted to a new host through a portal of entry (i.e. human nose or mouth). new host may become ill if certain conditions are met.
fever
caused by white blood cells releasing chemicals that raise the body's internal temperature. Few pathogens can survive this increased temperature.
shingles
chickenpox virus can remain latent and lead to _____ later in life.
Hypochlorite (bleaches)
chlorine containing compounds. Irritating to the skin and mucous membranes, corrosive, require a high exposure time to kill endospores.
staphyl
clustered together
alkaline
coccidioidomycosis's spores require dry, _____ soils.
mycoplasmas
colonies adhere easily to surfaces in the respiratory and urogenital tract in what species group?
Shigella sonnei and Shigella flexneri
common species of shigella species include:
chlorophyll
component of photosynthesis
Iodophors
compounds containing iodine which is often used as a preoperative skin disinfectant. Can stain skin (stain can be removed with rubbing alcohol).
Speticimia
condition characterized by the multiplication of bacteria in the blood. sepsis is the body's response to this.
lysozyme
contained in many body fluids including tears, breast milk, saliva, and sweat.
nucleus
contains genetic information organized into chromosomes.
phagocyte
contains the ingested material for the excretion from the body.
indirect transmission- water
contaminated water commonly spreads disease especially in areas where overpopulation is occurring.
phenolic compounds
control microbes by denaturing proteins and disrupting cell membranes; generally not effective at killing endospores
alcohols
control microbial growth be denaturing proteins and dissolving lipids. Not capable of killing endospores
Aldehydes
control microbial growth by reacting with the proteins in a microorganism altering their chemical structure.
secretions
cytomegalovirus is shed in body ____.
physiological defenses
defenses due to disease or trauma
mechanical vector's
ineffective agent does not reproduce in _________ body.
terminal
infection (usually acute) occurring at the end of a disease usually resulting in death.
secondary
infection caused by a different organism than the one causing primary infection. Usually occurs after primary weakens the host.
mixed
infection caused by two or more organisms
kissing disease; college disease.
infectious mononucleosis is called the "_____" or "_____".
Strains
influenza has many various _____.
digestive tract
ingestion of contaminated food or water.
pleomorphic
irregular or "variant" forms exist.
antibody immune response
the body recognizes cells by their antigens, which are like markers on every cell - including pathogenic cells, each pathogen is "remembered" by its antigen, Antigen recognition stimulates antibody production, Antibodies then neutralize or destroy antigens on disease-causing organisms
Mycology
the branch of science concerned with the study of fungi
taxonomy
the branch of science that classifies organisms.
rhinoviruses; coronaviruses
the common cold is most commonly ______ and ______
latent
the cytomegalovirus may be ___ before emerging
primary
the first infection that a host has after a period of health from which a second infection develops.
normal flora
the microbial population that lives with the host in a healthy condition
antisepsis
the prevention of inhibiting of the growth of causative microorganisms. Applies to living tissue.
synergism
the relationship between two or more microorganisms of different species in which they grow better together but can survive alone
innate immune responses
the skin, mucous membranes, other surface barriers, protein, and phagocytic cells such as neutrophils and macrophages.
vegetative bacterium
the state occurring after an endospore germinates
Pathogenicity
the state of producing or being able to produce pathological changes and disease
infection
the state or condition in which the body or a part of it is invaded by a pathogenic agent that, under favorable conditions, multiplies and produces injurious effects
morphology
the study of different shapes, sizes, and arrangements of bacteria.
virology
the study of viruses and viral diseases
Commensalism
the symbiotic relationship of two organisms of different species in which one gains some benefit such as protection or nourishment, and the other is not harmed or benefitted.
coccus (pl. cocci)
the type of bacteria that is spherical or round in form
resistance
the way the body defends itself against infection.