Microbiology Final

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What is false concerning iron ad a nutrient? A. It is abundant, but often not in a form easily utilized by bacteria, so they "go shopping" for it with siderophores (hydroxamates and phenolates) B. In the body, siderophores steal iron from iron- binding proteins smtransferrin & lactoferrin C. Another mechanism to steal iron from the host is hemolysins which break RBCs releasing hemoglobin (iron containing oxygen transporter of vertebrates) D. Bacteria (like us) require iron for catalase and cytochromes E. All of the above are true of iron

E

Which is false concerning microbes? A. They are found at extremes of temperatures, pH, and high concentrations of salt. B. In deep drillings into the earth and high altitudes above earth. C. They produce fuels (e.g., methane and ethanol) D. They produce recombinant human proteins and vaccines. E. All of the above are true of microbes.

E

Which microscope is best used to rapidly observe the agent of syphilis in a wet mount aspirate of a chancre? A. transmission electron microscope B. darkfield microscope C. phase contrast microscope D. brightfield microscope E. scanning electron microscope

E

Which of the following is false concerning Coronaviruses? A. 7 different human Coronaviruses types B. Generally cause upper respiratory (URT) infections C. 4 types ar associated with mild to moderate URT infections= "common colds" D. common colds are also caused by multiple Rhinoviruses and Adenoviruses E. All of the above are true of Coronaviruses

E

Which of the following is false concerning Escherichia coli? A. indicator of fecal pollution in water quality testing. B. most common cause of urinary tract infections. C. common cause of neonatal meningitis D. modern geneticists prokaryotic tool and used to produce recombinant proteins. E. all of the above are true

E

Which of the following is false concerning Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 1 and 2 infection? A. Cold sores are caused by HSV-1 and up to 90% are infected by older ages. B. HSV-1 remains latent in trigeminal nerve ganglia with recurrences with stress, illness, etc. C.Genital herpes is generally caused by HSV-2 and about 1 in 5 in the US are infected. D. HSV-2 remains latent in sacral nerve ganglia with recurrences with stress, illness, etc. E. None of the above is false.

E

Which of the following is not true of influenza viruses? A. Family Orthmyxoviridae, SS RNA, -strand, with multiple RNA trands B. H mediates attachment to host receptors, N is involved in replication & release C. Influenza viruses are enveloped making hand disinfection easily possible D. Influenza vaccines commonly consist of a mixture of attenuated "live" viruses grown in adult chickens E. The 2017/2018 influenza vaccine reportedly was perhaps 36% effective in the US, but much less effective in the southern hemisphere

D

Which of the following is the correct decreasing order in resistance to heat and chemicals? A. endospores-prions-fungi-mycobacteria-protozoan cysts-enveloped viruses-E. coli B. endospores-prions-fungi-mycobacteria-protozoan cysts-E. coli- enveloped viruses C. endospores-prions- protozoan cysts-fungi-mycobacteria- enveloped viruses -E. coli D. prions-endospores-mycobacteria - protozoan cysts-fungi-E. coli - enveloped viruses E. prions-endospores- mycobacteria-fungi-protozoan cysts- enveloped viruses -E. coli

D

Which of the following would be the most effective for sterilizing air in a hospital surgical suite during an operation? A. Membrane Filtration B. Ethylene oxide gas C. Autoclaving D. HEPA filtration E. Gamma irradiation

D

With respect to the action of physical/chemical agents, which of the following is false? A. Alcohols and heat coagulate proteins. B. Oxidizing agents and metals may oxidize and remove free sulfhydryl groups. C. It take just as long to kill the last organism in a population of one million as it did to kill the first 900,000. D. The presence of extraneous excess organic matter increases the effectiveness of killing. E. All of the above are true.

D

Which of the following is false concerning the Acid Fast Stain? A. Mycoplasma species have a high content of waxy lipids in their cell wall, thus AFBs. B. The waxy lipids in the wall of AFBs make them difficult to stain. C. Heat is used to drive carbol fuchsin (red dye) into cells- everything stained red. D. After washing, acid alcohol is used to destain everything but AFBs, followed by counterstaining with methylene blue (everything blue except red AFBs). E. All of the above are true of the Acid Fast Stain.

E

Which of the following is false concerning Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 1 and 2 infection? A. Genital herpes can be caused by either HSV-2 or by HSV-1 (through oral-genital sex). B. Mucosal sores are the common sign of an active infection. C. HSV can infect the eyes causing keratitis, which may lead to blindness, or the brain resulting in encephalitis or meningitis. D. HSV also can produce cutaneous lesions (e.g., around nails of fingers and toes) a condition referred to as herpetic whitlow. E. None of the above is false.

E

Which of the following is false concerning MERS? A. Fever, dry cough, difficulty breathing B. Usually progresses to pneumonia C. Most severe of SARS, 2019-nCoV, and MERS D. About 2500 cases, 35% deaths E. Contained with no new cases

E

Which of the following is false concerning NASA's interest in a possibility of Martian life? A. The interest was originally sparked by internal features of meteorite ALH 84001(the oldest of about 50 known mars-derived meteorites). B. These features included bacterial fossil-like structures, complex organics, and magnetite structures like that produced by magnetotactic bacteria on earth. C. NASA recently announced discovery of organics in >3 billion y/o "mudstone." D. They also reported "seasonal" spikes in methane above the ancient crater lake-bed. E. All of the above are true.

E

Which of the following is false concerning biofilms? A. They are polymer encased communities of microorganisms growing together. B. They are more susceptible to host defenses and antimicrobials because the microbes are together rather than spread out. C. Dental plaque is an example of a complex biofilm. D. Biofilms would also be important in industry where their accumulation in pipes, drains, etc., could interfere with processes and damage equipment. E. All of the above are true.

E

Which of the following is false concerning monomeric antibody structure? A. has two long (i.e., heavy, specific for class) and two short (i.e., light) chains B. the four polypeptide chains are held together by disulfide bonds C. the Fc region binds to receptors on phagocytic cells, & also activates complement D. the end of the variable region (paratope) is associated with antigen (epitope) binding E. all of the above are true of antibody structure.

E

Which of the following is false concerning special stains for external bacterial structure? A. Capsules are antiphagocytic & can be visualized by negative staining (e.g., India Ink). B. Capsules are antiphagocytic & can be visualized with specific antibody (Quellung). C. Flagellar filaments are too thin to be visualized by the light microscope. D. Flagellar stains adhere to & coat flagella making them thicker & visible by light microscopy. E. All of the above are true.

E

Which of the following is false concerning 2019-nCoV? A. First identified in Wuhan, Hubei Province, China in 2019 B. Fever, dry cough, difficulty breathing C. About 1/3 of 2019-nCoV cases are now in 23+ countries outside of China as of 02/05/2020 D. Incubation period (initial infection to symptoms) like MERS as short as 2 to as long as 14 days E. 28,276 cases confirmed, about 2% deaths (565 deaths) as of 02/05/2020

C

What were the major causes of death in the US at the beginning of the 20th century?

1. Influenza and Pneumonia 2. Tuberculosis 3. Gastrointestinal Infections 4. Heart Disease 5. Cerebrovascular Disease (Stroke)

Concerning helminthes, which of the following is false? A. Nematodes have a body cavity, digestive tube ending in anus, males and females. B. Cestodes have no body cavity, no digestive tube, and are hermaphroditic. C. They are all chemoheterotrophs. D. Trematodes have no body cavity, have digestive tract ending in cecum. E. None of the above is false.

E

Concerning "Ancient biotechnology" which of the following is false? A. Depends on the activities of the yeast Candida albicans. B. Has been practiced for thousands of years. C. Lactic acid bacteria are used in cheese and yogurt production, sauerkraut, pickles and production of dry and semidry sausages. D. Wine and bread making E. All of the above are true.

A

In the United States, flu season occurs in the fall and winter. The peak of flu season generally occurs between December and February, but activity can persist through May. A. True B. False

A

Pregnant women may receive any licensed inactivated or subunit influenza vaccine. A. True B. False

A

The 2017-18 influenza season was a high severity, A (H3N2)- predominant season. Influenza activity indicators were notable for the volume and intensity of influenza cases that occurred in most of the country at the same time. Record hospitalization rates and high numbers of influenza- associated pediatric deaths also were reported. A. True B. False

A

Which microscope type would be best used to rapidly and specifically identify a particular microbe in a mixed microbial specimen on a slide? A. direct fluorescent antibody microscopy B. darkfield microscope C. phase contrast microscope D. brightfield microscope E. scanning electron microscope

A

Which of the following if false concerning SARS? A. First reported in Saudi Arabia in 2012 (orgin from camels vs MERS from civet cats) B. Fever, dry cough, difficulty breathing C. Usually progresses to pneumonia D. About 800 cases, 10% deaths E. contained with no new cases

A

Which of the following is false concerning infection with Chlamydia trachomatis? A. Most infected females and males are symptomatic (have symptoms). B. Certain serovars cause lymphogranuloma venerum, a rare but serious STD. C. Small G- obligate intracellular pathogen transmitted by contact D. It has a complex life cycle with external elementary bodies and intracellular replacing reticulate bodies E. the most common cause of bacterial STD& preventable blindness (trachoma).

A

Which of the following is false concerning viral replication? A. in the uncoating step of viruses, there is enzymatic removal of capsid proteins and the capsid outside of animal cells prior to entry of animal virus nucleic acid by injection. B. in the entry phase of viruses, animal virus capsids enter by endocytosis or fusion. C. in the uncoating step of viruses, uncoating is not required of phages. D. spikes and tail fibers (if present) are often associated with attachment of the virus. E. in the entry phase of viruses, phages inject the nucleic acid and the capsid stays outside.

A

Which of the following is not true of characteristics of necrotizing fasciitis? A. Hyperbaric oxygen is not recommended for treatment as it promotes microbial growth B. Predisposing factors include smoking, alcoholism, diabetes, obesity, chronic liver kidney disease, peripheral artery disease, malignancy, and other severe immunosuppressive conditions (e.g., HIV/AIDS), and open wounds exposed to dirty water, pool water or seawater C. In absence of early treatment (surgery and combined antibiotics) the risk of death can approach 100% D. Amputation may be required E. All of the above are true

A

Which of the following would be the most likely and available choice for sterilizing heat labile liquids in different research and teaching labs at UTSA, while still retaining the materials in a usuable state? A. Membrane filtration B. Gamma radiation C. Autoclaving D. Hot air oven E. HEPA filter

A

which of the following is FALSE concerning congenital syphilis (CS)? A. on the rise in the US with an 5% increases from 2014. B. babies exposed can have deformities, delays in development, seizures, etc. C. Up to 40% of babies born to women with untreated syphilis may be still born, or die from the infection as a newborn. D. All pregnant women should get a syphilis test at the first prenatal visit and reduce the risk of getting syphilis before and during pregnancy. E. Deformities in CS include in the bones (e.g., sabre shins), palate, saddle nose (collapse of bony part), Hutchinson's teeth, ect.

A

Concerning strictly applying Koch's postulates, all of the following would be a problem in application today except A. opportunistic pathogens B. mixed infections C. inability to culture in vitro D. lack of a suitable animal test model E. all of the above would be problems

E

In which of the following situations would you not expect a lag phase? A. old cells used as an inoculum B. damaged cells used as an inoculum C. log phase cells transferred to the same medium D. cells transferred from a rich to a nutritionally poor medium E. a lag phase would occur in all of the above situations

E

The normal (indigenous) microbiota of an animal body does all of the following except: A. Antagonizes pathogens. B. Helps in training and development of the host immune system. C. Contributes to nutrition and normal physiology. D. Contributes to normal anatomy. E. The indigenous microbiota does all of the above.

E

What is false concering capnophiles? A. Mammalian cells in culture B. Neisseris C. Have a requirement for increased carbon dioxide D. Hemophilus E. All of the above are true

E

Which of the following is FALSE concerning syphilis? A. Caused by the spirochete Troponema pallidum B. Diagnosis by cultivation on appropriate selective media C. The initial lesion (chancre) at the site of the entry looks like a fever blister D. Secondary syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular rash on pals of hands and soles of feet. E. Untreated primary/secondary syphilis leads years later to tertiary syhpilis with destructive granulomas (gummas), dementia, and aortic aneurisms

B

Comparing bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins, which of the following is false? A. Exotoxins are more potent (lower LD) than endotoxins. B. Both exotoxins and endotoxins have been converted to toxoids and both exo- and endo-toxin toxoids are commonly used today for vaccines. C. Exotoxins are proteins. D. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides (LPS). E. Endotoxins only G-, whereas exotoxins may be produced by G+ & G- bacteria.

B

Examples of innate host defenses are all of the following except: A. The muco-ciliary escalator. B. Cytotoxic and Helper T cells. C. Phagocytic cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. D. Intact skin and mucous membranes. E. The normal microbiota.

B

In the growth curve of a bacterial population, the bacteria are most susceptible to antibiotics and other inhibitors in the A. lag phase. B. exponential (log) phase. C. stationary phase. D. decline phase. E. susceptibility is the same in all phases.

B

It can be difficult to distinguish between the common cold and influenza in the early stages of infection. however, colds can be identified by a high fever with sudden onset, headache, body/ muscle aches, and extreme fatigue, whereas flu is slow onset cough, runny nose, and sore throat most often with diarrhea. A. True B. False

B

Relenza (zanamivir) and Tamiflu (oseltamivir) are antiviral medications used to treat flu symptoms caused by influenza virus in patients who have had symptoms for less than 2 days. Relenza and Tamiflu may also be given to prevent influenza in people who may be exposed but do not yet have symptoms. A. True B. False

B

Two major targets for antibiotics against bacteria pathogens are the peptidoglycan and 70S ribosomes. True or False: Peptidoglycan inhibiting antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, and the cabapenems) would be effective against the influenza. A. True B. False

B

Two major targets for antibiotics against bacterial pathogens are the peptidoglycan and 70S ribosome. True or False: 70S inhibiting antibiotics (e.g., chloramphenicol, tetracycline, aminoglycosides, macrolides) would be effective against the influenza viruses. A. True B. False

B

Urine samples (one microliter volume) are commonly spread onto blood agar and MacConkey agar. A mid-stream urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms/ml (100 colonies on the plate) is considered indicative of infection. If a urine sample containing 2,000 bacteria/ml with a generation time of 20 minutes, sits for 2 hours on a warm back of a toilet before finally being sent refrigerated to the lab and assayed, how many bacteria will then be present/ml? A. 64,000 B. 128,000 C. 256,000 D. 512,000 E. 1,024,000

B

What would be a suitable method for disinfecting expensive medical instruments (e.g., cytoscopes, endoscopes) between patients? A. Formaldehyde B. Glutaraldehyde - Cidex C. Triclosan D. Mercury E. 5% hypochlorite.

B

Which microscope is best used to rapidly observe the agent of syphilis in a wet mount aspirate of a chancre? A. transmission electron microscope B. darkfield microscope C. phase contrast microscope D. brightfield microscope E. scanning electron microscope

B

Which of the following characteristics of the 3 domains of living things (which all have the characteristic) exclude viruses, viroids and prions? A. proteins B. ribosomes C. mitochondria D. nucleic acid E. mitosis

B

Which of the following element is critical for the electron transport process? A. Zinc B. Iron C. Manganese D. Magnesium E. None of the above

B

Which of the following false concerning aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule? A. There are 3 proton pumping steps for each NAD reduced with 3 ATPs made for each in OP. B. CO_2 is produced in glycolysis, the transition (intermediate) step of Kreb's cycle and in the Kreb's cycle. C. The number of FAD reduced produced are glycolysis-0, the transition (intermediate) step-0 in the Kreb's cycle-2. D. There are 2 proton pumping steps for each FAD reduced with 2 ATPs made for each in OP. E. The number of NAD reduced produced are glycolysis-2, the transition (intermediate) step-2 in the Kreb's cycle-6.

B

Which of the following if false concerning Coronaviruses? A. single- stranded RNA, + strand, helical virus B. Enveloped making had disinfection very difficult C. Coronavirus name derived from the Latin corona, meaning crown, with a fringe of large, bulbous surface projection (or spikes) D. A receptor- binding domain on S (spikes) mediates the attachment of the virus to its cellular receptor and thus determines tropism or host range E. No vaccines or therapeutics

B

Which of the following is false concerning WHO recommendation to reduce spread of 2019-nCoV? A. Maintain distance of at least 1 meter (3ft) from any individual with 2019-nCoV respiratory symptoms (e.g., coughing, sneezing) B. A medical mask is suggested/ require for the general population C. Refrain from touching eyes, mouth, and nose D. Frequent hand- washing, especially after direct contact with ill people or their environment, using alcohol- based hand rub if hands are not visibly soiled or soap and water when hands are visibly soiled E. People with symptoms of acute respiratory infection should practice cough etiquette (maintain distance, cover coughs, and sneezes with disposable tissues or clothing, and wash hands)

B

Which of the following is false concerning differences in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A. prokaryotes lack nuclei, ER, Golgi, lysosomes and mitochondria. B. eukaryotes have circular chromosomes; prokaryotes linear with histones. C. chemolithoautrophs are bacteria that utilize inorganic sources of energy and fix CO into organic compounds D. plants and algae are photoautotrophs; the other eukaryotes are chemoheterotrophs. E. oxygenic photosynthesis, including cyanobacteria, plants and algae, produces oxygen (required for our life) by splitting water.

B

Which of the following is false concerning genital warts? A. HPV is the most common sexually transmitted infection globally. B. The strains of HPV that can cause genital warts usually are the same as those that cause warts on other parts of the body, such as the hands, feet, and inner thighs. C. About 90% of HPV infections cause no symptoms, and resolve spontaneously within two years. D. All HPVs are believed to be capable of establishing long-term "latent" infections in small numbers of stem cells present in the skin. E. None of the above is false.

B

Which of the following is false concerning physical methods of controlling microbes. A. Pasteurization is 63C 30 min or shorter times at higher temp (HTST method) and is used to destroy pathogens in milk, other drinks, and lunch meats. B. UV irradiation sterilizes better than ionizing (Cobalt 60 or gamma) irradiation. C. An autoclave operates at 121 C for 15 minutes (longer times for larger loads). D. A hot air oven operates at 170 C for 2 hrs. E. Membrane and HEPA filtration are used to sterilize liquids and air respectively.

B

Which of the following is false concerning replication of viruses? A. Certain bacteriophages may insert the phage genome into the host chromosome. B. If A occurs, the phage genome is referred to as a lytic phage. C. Chronic infection by a bacteriophage is called lysogeny. D. Chronic infection with animal viruses is referred to as latency. E. The production of cholera toxin, botulinum toxin, and diphtheria toxin are examples of lysogenic conversion.

B

Which of the following is false concerning the detrimental effects of microbes? A. TB was the second major cause (after #1 pneumonia and influenza) of death at the start of the 20 century. B. TB is no longer an important or significant worldwide cause of disease and death. C. Influenza (the "Spanish flu") in 1918 killed more than 1million in the US and greater than 50 million worldwide. D. Almost ½ of children <10 years of age died of infectious diseases prior to the 20 century. E. Plague destroyed more than 50% of the European population in the 14 century.

B

Which of the following is false concerning the unique properties of microbes? A. The oldest fossils are microbes. B. The smallest living cells are viruses. C. Bacteria may be chemoheterotrophs, photoheterotrophs, photoautotrophs, or chemolithoautotrophs. D. The oldest living organisms are certain microbes. E. All of the above are true.

B

Which of the following is mismatched concerning innate and adaptive immunity? A. Adaptive::Specific response to microbe B. Innate::Has memory and tolerance C. Innate::Includes "first line" of defenses D. Adaptive::Slower to respond E. Innate::Phagocytic cells

B

Which of the following is mismatchex concerenjng growth? A. Chemo(litho) autotroph: "Black smoker" bacteria of thermal vents B. Photoautotroph: Plants, fungi, and algae C. Psychrophiles: Artic and Antartic D. Psychrotroph: Grows in refrigerator E. Halophiles: Grow in high salt

B

Which of the following is not true of characteristics of Necrotizing fasciitis? A. Rapid progression to shock despite antibiotic therapy is another indication of necrotizing fasiitis B. Commonly seen on the chest, less commonly on extremities C. can result from a Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS) pharyngitis (strep throat) D. Necrotizing changes affecting the groin are known as Fournier gangrene. E. All of the above are true

B

Which of the following would be the most effective for sterilizing newly produced plastic Petri plates and pipette tips, while still retaining the materials in a useable state for sale to laboratories? A. Filtration B. Gamma radiation C. Autoclaving D. Hot air oven E. Nonionizing (UV) irradiation

B

Among the smallest living & filterable cells are: A. Small viruses. B. Mycobacteria. C. Mycoplasmas. D. Viroids. E. B&C.

C

Concerning "New Biotechnology", which of the following is false? A. New Biotechnology is also called genetic engineering. B. Facilitated by restriction endonucleases, PCR and other microbiological "tools." C. Commonly uses the bacterium Escherichia coli and the yeast Candida albicans to produce useful gene products. D. Human insulin, blood clotting factors (for hemophilia), etc. are produced by microbes. E. All of the above are true.

C

Concerning the avian- adapted, highly pathogenic strain of H5N1 (called HPAI A (H5N1), for "highly pathogenic avian influenza virus of type A of subtype H5N1"), which of the following if false: A. Causes "avian influenza" or simply "bird flu" B. Has resulted in death of many millions of chickens and birds C. Has resulted in recent deaths of many hundred thousands of exposed human D. Endemic in many bird population E. All of the above are true

C

Which of the following characteristics of the 3 domains of living things (which all have the characteristics) exclude viruses, viroids, and prions? A. Protein B. Mitochondria C. Ribosome D. Nucleic acid E. Mitosis

C

Which of the following elements is critical for the water splitting system in oxygeni. Photosynthesis? A. Zinc B. Iron C. Manganese D. Magnesium E. None of the above

C

Which of the following is false concerning carbon flow in the different pathways of energy- yielding metabolism? A. Carbon flow is from organic compounds to carbon dioxide in aerobic metabolism B. Carbon flow is from organic compounds to fermentation products in the anaerobic process of fermentation. C. Carbon flow is from organic compounds to fermentation products in anaerobic respiration. D. Carbon flow is from carbon dioxide to organic compounds in lithotrophic (chemolithoautotrophic or chemoautotrophic) metabolism. E. Carbon flow is from carbon dioxide to organic compounds in photoautotrophic metabolism.

C

Which of the following is false concerning facultative anaerobes? A. Superoxide dismutase B. Catalase C. Grow better anaerobically D. Examples are members of the family Enterobacteriaceae E. All of the above are true

C

Which of the following is false concerning genital warts? A. Genital warts are caused by human papilloma virus (HPV); & 40 of 100 HPV affect the genital area. B. Most sexually active persons become infected by HPV at least once in their lifetime, most are asymptomatic. C. According to CDC, an estimated 3,500 new HPV-associated cancers and approximately 35,000 new cases of anogenital warts were associated with HPV in 2009. D. Vaccines are available that are recombinant major capsid proteins and should be given early to both females and males. E. Oncogenic, high-risk HPV (e.g., HPV types 16 and 18) infection causes most cervical, penile, vulvar, vaginal, anal, and oropharyngeal cancers and precancers

C

Which of the following is false concerning prions. A. They produce spongioform encephalopathies ("holes" in the brain). B. They have long incubation periods C. Because they are proteins, they are very easily destroyed by proteases, disinfectants, boiling and normal autoclaving procedures. D. Symptoms are loss of muscle control, tremors, dementia, and death. E. Abnormal prion protein involves a change from alpha helical to beta pleated sheet.

C

Which of the following is false concerning the STDs chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis? A. Are on the rise in the US with the greatest # ever of combined reported cases. B. Symptoms of routine chlamydial & gonococcal infections in males and females are similar; likewise the characteristics of the infections in females are similar. C. babies are infected in utero with all three and are born with the disease. D. Untreated syphilis produces the most severe consequences. E. transmission of these STDs unlikely by toilet seats.

C

Which of the following is false concerning the cyanobacteria? A. Single and multicellular forms. B. Major producers of oxygen. C. They are algae. D. Chloroplasts were derived from their relatives. E. Some are nitrogen fixing with the simplest nutritional requirement of organisms.

C

Which of the following is false concerning the domain Archaea? A. prokaryotes. B. lack peptidoglycan. C. includes pathogens that are hard to treat because of antibiotic insensitivity. D. membranes with ether linkages between glycerol & branched chain carbon (isoprene polymer) compounds. E. includes methanogens found in the gut, thermophiles, acidothermophiles and extreme halophiles.

C

Which of the following is false concerning the elemental requirements of bacteria? A. Some bacteria, but not eukaryotes, can utilize (and "fix") atmosphere nitrogen gas B. Molybdenum is a componunt if nitrogenase in nitrogen fixation C. All bacteria require sodium and calcium as major nutrients D. Trace elements are required for the proper activity of many enzymes E. Magnaese is a comoonent of superoxide dismutase

C

Which of the following is false concerning viroids? A. infectious "naked" RNA B. pathogens of plants C. humans become infected by consumption of infected plants D. requires a host RNA-dependent (redirected DNA dependent) RNA polymerase E. all of the above are true

C

Which of the following media would you use to selectively isolate fungi? A. Mannitol Salt agar B. Columbia CNA agar C. Sabouraud's Dextrose agar D. Midified Thayer- Martin agar E. MacConkey agar

C

Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?1-Alcohol-acetone; 2-Crystal violet; 3-Safranin; 4-Iodine A. 1-2-3-4 B. 2-1-4-3 C. 2-4-1-3 D. 4-3-2-1 E. 1-3-2-4

C

You have discovered a microbe that is about 2 micrometers in length and 500 nanometers in diameter, but you are not sure if it is a virus, eukaryote or prokaryote cell: what microscope type would give you the best answer, including internal ultrastructure? A. scanning electron microscope B. darkfield microscope C. transmission electron microscope D. brightfield microscope E. fluorescence microscope

C

Concerning obligate anaerobes, which of the following is false? A. Poisoned by oxigen in the air B. Can be grown in a Gaspak C. Lack catalase and superoxide dismutase D. Can be grown in candle jar E. Best grown in an anaerobic glove box

D

In the argument about spontaneous generation, what always was the argument of the believers against those who tried to disprove it? A. they are too small to come from other living things B. microbes can't have parents because they can't have sex C. there are no male and female microbes D. the experiments against spontaneous generation altered the vital forces in air required for life E. microbes are not multicellular

D

Sulfur is required for all if the following except: A. Thiamine B. Cysteines that make disulfide bonds C. Methionine D. Phospholipids E. Biotin

D

The "roadblock" to continued oxidation of glucose in fermentations is bypassed through production of fermentation products for the purpose of A. oxidation of NAD+ back to NADH. B. reduction of NAD+ back to NADH. C. reduction of NADH back to NAD+ D. oxidation of NADH back to NAD+. E. generating additional ATPs beyond that produced by glycolysis

D

The largest living organism in the world is: A. A giant redwood in the redwood forest of California. B. A giant whale in the ocean. C. A giant elephant. D. A humongous fungus Armillaria ostoyae in Oregon's Blue Mountains. E. The Loch Ness monster.

D

Which of the following false concerning fungi? A. Sexual and asexual spores. B. Most antifungals target ergosterol in the fungal membrane. C. septate or non-septate hypha. D. most systemic fungal infections are acquired from people. E. fungal spores are propagules for spread & reproduction.

D

Which of the following is false concerning chicken pox? A. Shingles is a consequence of being infected earlier in life with chickenpox. B. Chickenpox is caused by Varicella zoster virus, a Herpes virus C. Following chickenpox the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglion D. Reactivation of the virus occurs with age, due to weakened immune system, with shingles lesions which are exactly like the original chickenpox lesions E. Prevention of chickenpox is with a "live" attenuated vaccine and symptoms of shingles can be modulated with adult shingles vaccineE. Prevention of chickenpox is with a "live" attenuated vaccine and symptoms of shingles can be modulated with adult shingles vaccine

D

Which of the following is false concerning gonorrhoeae? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus, GC) is a fastidious G- diplococcus. B. Can be selectively isolated on Modified Thayer- Martin (i.e., supplemented chocolate + antibiotics VCN). C. Penicillin resistance, then fluoroquinolone resistance; now CDC dual therapy, im Ceftiaxone & oral Azithromycin. D. Unlikely chlamydia, does not infect eyes of newborn. E. all of the above are true of this STD.

D

Which of the following is false concerning the Calvin Benson Cycle A. utilizes both NADPH and ATP. B. requires ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase. C. is responsible for the fixation of carbon dioxide. D. oxidizes carbons. E. all of the above are true

D

Which of the following is false concerning the nucleic acids of viruses? A. DNA or RNA but not both. B. Single stranded or double stranded. C. Single stranded RNA viruses are more common than double stranded RNA viruses. D. Single stranded DNA viruses are more common than double stranded DNA viruses. E. All of the above are true.

D

Which of the following is false concerning viral replication? A. Viral genes direct host cells into replicating viral nucleic acids, capsid proteins, and viral enzymes (if present). B. DNA animal viruses replicate in the nucleus. C. RNA animal viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. D. With a single stranded - (negative) strand RNA virus, the viral genome can act directly as an mRNA. E. With the retroviruses (e.g. HIV) CD4+ T cell are infected, reverse transcriptase copies a single strand of DNA on the viral template, the DNA becomes double stranded and is inserted into the host genome.

D

Which of the following is false concerting viruses? A. Obligate intracellular parasites B. Contain DNA or RNA, NOT both C. No ATP- generating mechanism& not cellular in structure D. Have ribosomes for protein synthesis E. contain a protein coat (capsid composed of capsomeres)

D

Which of the following is mismatched concerning the early great microbiologists? A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek = First observations of the microbial world B. Paul Erlich = Father of chemotherapy, worked on soluble substances in blood (i.e., antibodies), stained mycobacteria, discovered Salvarsan 606 for syphilis C. Joseph Lister = Antiseptic surgical practice D. Dmitri Iwanowski = Role of phagocytosis in combating bacterial infections E. None of the above is mismatched.

D

All of the following are true of Louis Pasteur except: A. Contributed to development of the "germ theory of disease." B. Developed "Pasteurization." C. Studies of fermentations and anaerobic life. D. First to develop multiple ways to make pathogens into vaccines. E. All of the above are true.

E

Concerning "Industrial Microbiology" Biotechnology, which of the following is false? A. Involves large scale "fermenters" (bioreactors) with special control of microbial growth parameters. B. Microbes creating industrial products in mass quantities. C. Production of antibiotics by microbes. D. Using microorganisms to synthesis vitamins, amino acids and organic solvents. E. All of the above are true.

E

Concerning bacterial defenses against bacterial viruses, which of the following is false? A. Restriction-Modification systems provide a mechanism analogous to an innate defense. B. Bacteria have many restriction enzymes (also used in recombinant DNA technology) that recognize and cut specific nucleotide sequences of incoming phage DNA; Modification enzymes methylate bacterial (host) sequences normally recognized by restriction enzymes and protect the bacterial DNA. C. CRISPR system provides a mechanism somewhat analogous to an adaptive response. D. Incoming phage DNA is cut into fragments by Cas protein and short phage spacer DNA segments are inserted into CRISPR array on the host DNA providing a record. The surviving bacterium transcribes the CRISPR array and after RNA processing the different crRNAs complex with Cas protein and newly invading phage DNA, if recognized, is inactivated by the Cas-crRNA complex. E. All of the above are true

E

Which of the following is mismatched concerning microscopy. A. SEM: 3D representation of surface features of cells and other objects, individual components in microbial communities, microbial environmental interactions. B. Confocal: uses laser light sources to scan differentially labeled specimens producing 3D-like images assembled by a computer C. Darkfield: can visualize motility of living cells including spirochetes in wet mounts D. Differential Interference Phase Contrast: similar to phase contrast but adds prisms providing additional detail and quasi-3D effect. E. Limit of resolution human eye: 0.2 mm; conventional light microscopy: 2 nm

E

Which of the following is not true of causes of necrotizing fasciitis? A. Vibrio vulnificus from exposure to sea water B. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep) alone or in combination with Staphylococcus aureus (& MRSA) C. Mixture of bacteria types at sites of gut penetration, abscess, surgery or trauma D. Clostridum perfringens gas gangrene (clostridial myonecrosis) E. All of the above are true

E

Which of the following is not true of entry of agents causing necrotizing fasciitis? A. Entry through cut or wound B. Often results from extension from a primary skin lesion that is often minor C. Initial skin include abrasions and puncture wounds, insect bites, minor skin abscess, injection sites of i.v. drug users D. can be a complication of surgical procedures or childbirht E. all of the above are true

E

Which of the following is not true of influenza viruses? A. the Influenza A virus undergoes minor changes (antigenic drift) in H&N spikes due to replication errors B. The influenza virus undergoes major changes (antigenic shift) in H and N when different viruses (e.g., human, avian, pig) infect the same host cell and recombine C. Influenza killed more than 1 million in the US and greater than 50 million worldwide in 1918 D. Pneumonia and influenza where the number one cause of death in the US at the start of the 20th century E. All of the above are true

E

Which of the following microscope types would be most useful in viewing different components, and their interactions with each other and surroundings, of the microbial population on a piece of small intestine with bacterial overgrowth? A. phase contrast (or DIC) B. transmission electron microscope C. bright-field D. dark-field E. scanning electron microscope

E

which of the following is NOT a symptom of both chlamydia and gonorrhea? A. Cervicitis in women and urethritis and proctitis in both men and women. B. Infections in women can lead to serious consequences including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), tubal factor infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. C. Men who have sex with men (MSM) are at risk since both can be transmitted by oral (pharyngeal infection) or anal (rectal infection) sex. D. Men who are symptomatic typically have urethritis with a burning sensation when urinating with a urethral discharge. some ( a minority) of infected men develop epididymitis (with or without symptomatic urethritis), presenting with testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling. E. All of the above symptoms common to both diseases

E


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