MLT Boards Questions

The protein component that surrounds the genome is called a: A) Capsid B) Spike C) Co-receptor D) Syncytia

A) Capsid

The Clinitest® reaction is based on which of the following principles? A) Copper reduction B) Ortho-toluidine oxidation C) Diazotization of sugars D) Enzyme reaction

A) Copper reduction

Zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by: A) Decreased intake and absorption B) Decreased intake and excretion C) Increased intake and excretion D) Increased excretion and decreased absorption

A) Decreased intake and absorption

Illustrated in the photomicrograph is an amebic cyst as observed in a stool specimen obtained from a patient with low-grade, intermittent diarrhea. Observe the distinctive cytoplasmic vacuole and "ball in socket" nucleus. Select from the list of responses the species identification of this amoeba. A) Iodamoeba butschlii B) Entamoeba hartmanni C) Chilomastix mesnili D) Endolimax nana

A) Iodamoeba butschlii

Which one of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE? A) It is the protein that is predominantely detected by a urine reagent strip test. B) Hyaline casts are formed by this protein in the distal tubule. C) It acts as a coating and lubricant in the tubules. D) It is produced by the tubules.

A) It is the protein that is predominantely detected by a urine reagent strip test.

Beer's law in spectrophotometry A) Only applies if absorbance is between 0.1 and 1.0 B) Means a transparent sample transmits 0% light C) Means an opaque sample transmits 100% light D) Uses a visible spectrum from 340 nm to 500 nm

A) Only applies if absorbance is between 0.1 and 1.0

MacConkey agar contains all of the following except : A) Penicillin B) Bile salts C) Lactose D) Crystal violet

A) Penicillin

A copper reduction method (e.g. Clinitest® or Benedict's) is performed on pediatric specimens in order to check for the presence of: A) Reducing substances B) Aspirin C) Protein D) Ketones

A) Reducing substances

Lipids from carbohydrate and alcohol sources are: A) Triglycerides B) Anions C) Cholesterol D) Eluent

A) Triglycerides

Which of the following reagent strip tests is based on the Ehrlich-aldehyde reaction? A) Urobilinogen B) Specific gravity C)Glucose D) pH

A) Urobilinogen

Patient 1234 has a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test with a centromere pattern at a 1:1280 titer. Surprised by the result, the clinician calls and says the patient is only having mild stiffness of her fingers and asks your opinion of the result. Which is your best reply? A) You point out that centromere antibodies have been known to occur years prior to the onset of the disease and the patient should be carefully examined and monitored for the development of other symptoms. B)You comment that it's common to over-read ANA results and since the ANA testing is not diagnostic and prone to false results it's unlikely the results are of any concern. C)You state that the ANA results alone are diagnostic of systemic sclerosis and since there is no cure for this disease the clinician is powerless to do anything.

A) You point out that centromere antibodies have been known to occur years prior to the onset of the disease and the patient should be carefully examined and monitored for the development of other symptoms.

The granules that basophils contain are composed of: A) histamine B) serotonin C) peroxidase D) a "thromboplastin-like" substance

A) histamine

To determine if an elevated APTT is caused by a factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor when the PT is normal, the FIRST step would be: A) mix 1 part patient plasma and 1 part normal reagent (pooled) plasma and repeat the APTT B) mix 1 part patient plasma and 1 part normal aged plasma and repeat the PT C) perform a Factor X assay to see if it is a Factor X deficiency D) perform a test for a lupus anticoagulant

A) mix 1 part patient plasma and 1 part normal reagent (pooled) plasma and repeat the APTT

How would one prepare 3 mL of a 5% albumin working solution from a stock 30% albumin solution? A) 0.4 mL stock 30% albumin + 2.4 mL diluent B) 0.5 mL stock 30% albumin + 2.5 mL diluent C) 2.5 mL stock 30% albumin + 2.5 mL diluent D) 2.5 mL stock 30% albumin + 0.5 mL diluent

B) 0.5 mL stock 30% albumin + 2.5 mL diluent

What is the MAXIMUM interval during which a recipient sample may be used for crossmatching if the patient has recently been transfused or was pregnant within the past 3 months? A) 24 hours B) 3 days C) One week D) Two weeks

B) 3 days

What is an unassayed control? A) A control from which the value of the analyte is known. B) A control from which the value of the analyte is unknown. C) A control that does not resemble human blood. D) A control that may contain the HIV virus.

B) A control from which the value of the analyte is unknown.

A normal kidney function study shows a: A) Amylase 56 to 190 international units/L B) Serum aspartate aminotransferase 5 to 40 international units/L C) BUN to creatinine ratio between 15:1 and 20:1 D) Alkaline phosphatase 30 to 85 international milliunits/mL

C) BUN to creatinine ratio between 15:1 and 20:1

Biochemistry usually requires: A) Red, pink, and yellow blood collection tubes B) Lavender, light blue, and black blood collection tubes C) Green, gray, and marbled serum-separator tube (SST) blood collection tubes D) Navy, purple, and brown blood collection tubes

C) Green, gray, and marbled serum-separator tube (SST) blood collection tubes

Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following except: A) MB B) MM C) MBM D) BB

C) MBM

Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in... A) Myocardial infarction B) Kidney disease C) Obstructive jaundice D) Liver disease

C) Obstructive jaundice

Parasites which can be found in urinary sediment include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichomonas vaginalis C) Plasmodium malariae D) Schistosoma haematobium

C) Plasmodium malariae

The dimorphic molds exist in both mold and yeast forms depending on the temperature of incubation. In the laboratory, when cultures are incubated at 30o C, all of the dimorphic fungi will produce mold colonies, usually with prolonged periods of growth ranging from 10 - 14 days. When cultures are incubated at 35o - 37o C, yeast colonies develop usually within 3 - 5 days, with the exception of one of the dimorphic species. From the options shown below, select the genus that does not produce yeast colonies when cultures are incubated at the higher temperature. A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Coccidioides immitis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Sporothrix schenckii

B) Coccidioides immitis

Warfarin-based (coumarin derivative) oral anti-coagulant therapy is commonly monitored with : A) APTT B) PT/INR C) APTT and PT D) Thrombin time

B) PT/INR

When serum proteins indicates disease, the doctor usually follows up with: A) Total protein, albumin, and globulin B) Protein electrophoresis C) Ascites D) Bilirubin

B) Protein electrophoresis

The recall rate is also known as the: A) Aliquot B) Sensitivity C) Specificity D) Circadian rhythm

B) Sensitivity

Illustrated in the photomicrograph is the tail portion of an adult worm of a filarial nematode. Human infections with this nematode are more commonly found among those living in Southeast Asia, but may be observed in recent travelers there and to surrounding regions. These adult worms measure up to 300 um, occupy lymphatic channels and may cause lymphatic obstruction. Varying degrees of fever and chills may be experienced. The species indicated in this exercise by the orientation of nuclei within the tail section (arrows), more commonly involves the lymphatics of the genital tract resulting in orchitis and hydrocele. From the nematode species listed below, indicate the most likely species identification. A) Brugia malayi B) Wuchereria bancrofti C) Loa loa D) Dirofilaria immitis

B) Wuchereria bancrofti

The shelf-life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1 is: A) 7 days B) 28 days C) 35 days D) 48 days

C) 35 days

What is the corrected WBC if a differential count shows 20 nucleated erythrocytes per 100 leukocytes and the uncorrected leukocyte count is 12,000/ mm3? A) 1,000/ mm3 B) 2,000/ mm3 C) 10,000/ mm3 D) 12,000/ mm3 E) 14,000/ mm3

Corrected WBC count = uncorrected WBC count x 100 # NRBCs (per 100 WBC) + 100 C) 10,000/ mm3

A laboratory refrigerator used to store volatile, flammable liquids can hold: A) 200 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids B) 50 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids C) 180 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids D) 120 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids

D) 120 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids

Which of the following best describes a hemoglobinopathy ? A) Any problem involving hemoglobin destruction. B) Any problem associated with hemoglobin production. C) A deletion of the loci of one or more hemoglobin chains. D) A substitution of an amino acid in the hemoglobin chain.

D) A substitution of an amino acid in the hemoglobin chain.

A newborn's jaundice could be caused by: A) Erythroblastosis fetalis B)Kernicterus C) Physiologic jaundice from poor fluid intake D) All of the above

D) All of the above

MOST pathogens enter the body through: A) Skin abrasions B) GI tract C) Lungs D) Mucous membranes

D) Mucous membranes

The assay which is most helpful in identifying specific allergens is: A)Complement fixation B) C-reactive proteins C) RIA D) RAST

D) RAST

A laboratory test flags as a critical result. The technologist repeats the test and it again flags as a critical result. Which of these scenarios correctly describes all the actions that need to be taken after this occurs? A) The technologist immediately releases the result. B) The technologist phones the clinical person handling the patient's care (caregiver) and reports the critical test result. C) The tech phones the patient's caregiver, reports the critical result, documents his placement of the call, who was notified, time and date of notification. D) The tech phones the patient's caregiver, reports the result and asks the caregiver to read back the information; documents his placement of the call, who was notified, time and date of notification.

D) The tech phones the patient's caregiver, reports the result and asks the caregiver to read back the information; documents his placement of the call, who was notified, time and date of notification.