Module 9 Monitoring for Health Problems

A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn in the morning for a fasting blood glucose determination. What does the nurse tell the client that it is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test? A. Water B. Tea without any sugar C. Coffee without any milk D. Clear liquids such as apple juice

A Rationale: A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose level draw should not eat or drink anything except water after midnight. This is done to ensure accurate test results, which forms the basis for adjustments or continuation of treatment. The other options are inaccurate, and the client should not consume these items before the test. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a "fasting" blood glucose. Think about the effects that each of the options will have on the body. Review the client instructions for preparation for a fasting blood glucose test.

A young adult asks the nurse about the normal cholesterol level. The nurse tells the client that the total cholesterol level should be maintained at less than which value? A. 140 mg/dL (<3.64 mmol/L) B. 200 mg/dL (<5.2 mmol/L) C. 250 mg/dL (<6.5 mmol/L) D. 300 mg/dL (<7.8 mmol/L)

B Rationale: A normal cholesterol value ranges between 140 and 199 mg/dL (Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal cholesterol level. Recalling the normal range for cholesterol will direct you to the correct option. Review cholesterol level.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at risk for nephrotoxicity because of medications being taken. Which serum creatinine result does the nurse document as normal? A. 0.2 mg/dL (17.6 μmol/L) B. 1.0 mg/dL (88.3 μmol/L) C. 2.8 mg/dL (247.3 μmol/L) D. 3.9 mg/dL (344.5 μmol/L)

B Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level ranges from 0.6-1.3 mg/dL (53- 115 μmol/L). A result of 0.2 mg/dL (17.6 μmol/L) represents a low value; the other incorrect options are high values. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal serum creatinine level. Note the word "normal," which tells you that the correct option will be within the normal range. Knowledge of this normal range will direct you to the correct option. Review the normal range of serum creatinine value.

A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client? A. Pupil constriction B. Increased urine output C. Complaints of dry mouth D. Complaints of feeling sweaty

C Rationale: Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, often causes the side effects of dry mouth, urine retention, decreased sweating, and pupil dilation. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the side effects of scopolamine. Recalling the classification of this medication and that this medication dries body secretions will direct you to the correct option. Review the expected side effects of scopolamine

A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than which value? A. 7% B. 9% C. 10% D. 15%

A Rationale: An acceptable measure of diabetic control is present if the client's glycosylated HbA1C is 7.0% or less. Specific values may vary slightly, depending on the laboratory and the procedure. The other options indicate poor control of diabetes. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, adequate diabetic control. To answer this question accurately, you must be familiar with this test and its normal values. Think about the subject and select the lowest value. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the significance of the glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C).

A client has just undergone lumbar puncture. Into which position does the nurse assist the client after the procedure? A. Flat B. Semi-Fowler C. Side-lying, with the head of the bed elevated D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated

A Rationale: After lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat for as long as 12 hours to help prevent post-procedure spinal headache and leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they all involve elevation of the client's head. Review care of the client after lumbar puncture

A client who has undergone an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) returns from the endoscopy department. After checking the client's gag reflex, which action should the nurse take? A. Taking the client's vital signs B. Giving the client a drink of water C. Monitoring the client for a sore throat D. Being alert to complaints of heartburn

A Rationale: The nurse would first assess the client for the return of the gag reflex, which is part of managing the client's airway. The client's vital signs should be checked next; a sudden sharp increase in temperature could indicate perforation of the gastrointestinal tract (this would be accompanied by other signs, such as pain, as well). Monitoring the client for sore throat and heartburn is also important but is of lesser priority than ensuring a patent airway. Water or any other fluid would not be given to the client until the gag reflex had returned and the client was stable. Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review care of the client after EGD.

A nurse is reading the radiology report of a client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system who has undergone a chest x-ray. The report states that the client's affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the assessment of the chest tube system will reveal which finding? A. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber C. Increased drainage in the collection chamber D. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber

A Rationale: When the client's lung is fully reexpanded, the drainage system will no longer drain and fluctuation in the water seal chamber will be absent. This is because the lung has reexpanded and the pleural space is again a potential space. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber means that suction is being applied to the system. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, chect tube drainage findings associated with a fully expanded lung. To answer this question correctly, you must recall the principles involved in a correctly functioning closed chest tube drainage system. Remember that when the lung has reexpanded, the system no longer functions. Also note the words "no fluctuation" in the correct option. Review assessment of a client with a chest tube.

A nurse has a prescription to apply a Holter monitor to a client for continuous cardiac monitoring for a 24-hour period. What steps should the nurse take to initiate this prescription? Select all that apply. A. Giving the client a device holder to wear around the waist B. Giving the client a diary in which to record activity and symptoms C. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours D. Instructing the client to enclose the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath E. Telling the client that occasional slight shocks from the monitor will be felt but that they are harmless

AB Rationale: The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio-sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring.

A nurse is watching as a nursing student suctions a client through a tracheostomy tube. Which actions on the part of the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate correct procedure? Select all that apply. A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg B. Applying suction throughout the procedure C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure E. Hyperoxygenating the client with 100% oxygen before suctioning

ABD Rationale: The client with a tracheostomy tube should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Correct suction pressure for the adult client is 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction is applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal. Breath sounds should be assessed before the procedure to help determine the need for suctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated with 100% oxygen before suctioning. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, incorrect suctioning procedure. Noting the words "to intervene," which should tell you that the correct answer is an incorrect nursing action. Visualizing the procedure and recalling the principles of suctioning will direct you to the correct options. Review the procedure for suctioning.

A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to implement which measure? A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test

B Rationale: A barium swallow, or esophagography, is an x-ray in which a substance called barium is used to provide contrast to highlight abnormalities in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The client is told to remove all jewelry before the test so it won't interfere with x-ray visualization of the field. The client should fast for 8 to 12 hours before the test, depending on health care provider instructions. Most oral medications are withheld before the test. The client should self-monitor for constipation, which may occur as a result of the presence of barium in the GI tract, after the procedure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client preparation for a barium swallow. Knowing that the procedure is a type of x-ray that involves the use of barium for contrast will allow you to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review the preprocedure instructions for a barium swallow.

A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which action should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client? A. Administering a laxative B. Encouraging fluid intake C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours

B Rationale: After CT scanning, the client may resume all usual activities. The client should be encouraged to consume extra fluids to replace those lost during diuresis of the contrast dye. Medications do not have to be withheld. There is no reason to administer a laxative; also, a health care provider's prescription is needed for this intervention. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, aftercare following CT scanning. Note the words "contrast medium" in the question. Recalling the importance of flushing the dye from the system after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care after a CT scan

Blood is drawn from a male client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level? A. 1.7 mg/dL (101.2 μmol/L) B. 4.4 mg/dL (262 μmol/L) C. 8.9 mg/dL (529.9 μmol/L) D. 12.8 mg/dL (762.1 μmol/L)

B Rationale: The normal range for uric acid is 4.4 to 7.6 mg/dL (262 to 452 μmol/L)for males and 2.3 to 6.6 mg/dL (137 to 393 μmol/L)for females. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal uric acid reference range for a male. To answer this question correctly, you must be familiar with the normal range of values for serum uric acid. Review the normal reference range for uric acid for males and females

A client has undergone pericardiocentesis to treat cardiac tamponade. For which signs should the nurse assess the client to determine whether the tamponade is recurring? A. Decreasing pulse B. Rising blood pressure C. Distant muffled heart sounds D. Falling central venous pressure (CVP)

C Rationale: After effective pericardiocentesis, an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in CVP are expected. The pulse may slow because less cardiac work is needed to produce adequate cardiac output. Distant muffled heart sounds that were noted before the test should become clear with effective pericardiocentesis. A return of distant muffled heart sounds indicates returning pericardial effusion and possible tamponade. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, recurring cardiac tamponade. This tells you that the correct option is a symptom of the original problem, cardiac tamponade. Recalling the signs of cardiac tamponade will direct you to the correct option. Review these signs of cardiac tamponade.

A nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client in respiratory distress. The pH is 7.32 and the PaCO2 is 50 mm Hg (6.65 kPa). Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse recognize in these findings? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

C Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal PaCO2 is 35-45 mm Hg (4.66-5.98 kPa). . In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low and the PCO2 is increased. This is an expected finding in a client with respiratory distress, because the client may retain carbon dioxide as a result of ventilatory failure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the acid-base imbalance that is present. Recalling that pH is reduced in acidotic conditions will assist you in eliminating respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis. To select from the remaining options, remember that in a respiratory imbalance you will find opposite responses in pH and PCO2. This will direct you to the correct option. Review interpretation of acid-base laboratory results.

A client who is mouth breathing is receiving oxygen by face mask. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) asks the nurse why a water bottle is attached to the oxygen tubing near the wall oxygen outlet. The nurse responds that the primary purpose of the water is to promote which goal? A. Prevent the client from getting a nosebleed B. Give the client added fluid by way of the respiratory tree C. Humidify the oxygen that is bypassing the client's nose D. Prevent fluid loss from the lungs during mouth breathing

C Rationale: The purpose of the water bottle is to humidify the oxygen that is bypassing the nose during mouth breathing. The remaining options are incorrect; additionally, a client who is breathing through the mouth is not at risk for nosebleeds. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, primary. Begin to answer this question by visualizing the oxygen therapy as described in the question. Eliminate the prevention of fluid loss and giving the client added fluid via the respiratory tree because they are comparable or alike in that they are related to fluid balance. Choose from the remaining options by recalling the primary purpose of humidifying oxygen and noting that the client is mouth breathing. Review the principles of oxygen therapy.

A nurse is watching as an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) measure the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client. Which actions on the part of the UAP would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply. A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level C. Used a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles at least 60% of the limb D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup (236 ml) of coffee. E. Allowing the client to talk as the blood pressure is being measured

CDE Rationale: The client should not smoke tobacco or drink a beverage containing caffeine for at least 30 minutes before having the BP measured. The bladder of the cuff should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured. The client should be seated with the arm bared, positioned with support and at heart level. The client should sit with the legs on the floor, feet uncrossed, and not speak during the recording. The client should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, actions that would interfere with accurate BP measurement. Visualizing this procedure and reading each option carefully will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review the principles related to blood pressure measurement.

A client has made an appointment to for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should provide which information to the client? A. Vaginal douching is required an hour before the test B. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test C. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it D. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating

D Rationale: A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. The test is usually painless but may be slightly uncomfortable during placement of the speculum or while the cervical scraping is obtained. The client should not douche for at least 24 hours before the test. There is no reason to restrict consumption of spicy foods on the day of the test. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client preparation for the Papanicolaou test. Eliminate the option indicating that spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test first, because this is unrelated to the test in question. Eliminate the option that states that the test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it next because of the close-ended words "absolutely no" in that option. To choose between the remaining options, recall that douching and menstruation can interfere with accurate test results. Review client preparation for the Papanicolaou test.

A client is scheduled to undergo computerized tomography (CT) with contrast for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The nurse should provide the client with which information about the test? A. The test may be painful B. The test takes 2 to 3 hours C. Food and fluids are not allowed for 4 hours after the test D. Dye is injected and may cause a warm flushing sensation

D Rationale: A contrast-aided CT scan involves the injection of dye to enhance the images that are obtained. The dye may cause a warm flushing sensation when it is injected. If an iodine dye is used, the client should be asked about allergies to seafood or iodine. The CT scan, which causes no pain, generally lasts between 15 and 60 minutes. Fluids are encouraged after the procedure to help eliminate dye by way of the kidneys. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client information about a computerized tomography (CT) with contrast. Note the word "contrast" in the question. This should provide you with the clue that the subject is dye and direct you to the correct option. Review the teaching points related to computerized tomography (CT) with contrast.

A woman has been scheduled for a routine mammogram. The nurse should provide the client with which information about the test? A. That mammography takes about 1 hour B. Not to eat or drink on the morning of the test C. That there is no discomfort associated with the procedure D. That deodorants, powders, or creams used in the axillary or breast area must be washed off before the test

D Rationale: The client should avoid using deodorants, powders, or creams on the day of the mammogram; such products used in the axillary or breast must be washed off before the test. The client may experience some discomfort because it is necessary to compress the breast tissue to obtain a clear image. The client may eat and drink before the procedure, which generally takes 15 to 30 minutes to complete. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions for a mammogram. Think about the location on which the test is focused to identify the correct option. Review client instructions for a mammogram.

A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PaCO231 mm Hg (4.12 kPa), PaO2 94 mm Hg (12.45 kPa), HCO3 24 mEq/L (24 mmol/L). Which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize in these results? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

D Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal PaCO2 is 35-45 mm Hg (4.66-5.98 kPa). The normal HCO3 (bicarbonate) is 22-26 mEq/L (22-26 mmol/L). The normal PaO2 is 80-100 mm Hg (10.6-13.33 kPa). Acidosis is defined as a pH of less than 7.35; alkalosis is defined as a pH greater than 7.45. In a respiratory condition, an opposite effect will be seen between the pH and the PCO2. In respiratory alkalosis the pH is increased and the PCO2 is decreased. Metabolic acidosis is present when the HCO3 is less than 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L); metabolic alkalosis is present when the HCO3 is greater than 26 mEq/L (26 mmol/L). This client's ABG findings are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, interpreting arterial blood gas values. Remember that in a respiratory imbalance you will find an opposite response between the pH and the PCO2, as indicated in the question. Therefore metabolic alkalosis and metabolic acidosis are eliminated first. Next remember that the pH is increased in alkalosis. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the steps involved in interpreting blood gas values.

A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon's office? Select all that apply. A. Hematocrit 30% (0.30) B. Sodium 141 mEq/L (141 mmol/L) C. Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL (89 g/L) D. Platelets 210× 103/μL (210 × 109/L) E. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (70 μmol/L)

AC Rationale: Routine screening tests include complete blood cell count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood cell count includes the hemoglobin and hematocrit analysis. All of these values are within their normal ranges except the hemoglobin and hematocrit. If a client has low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, the surgery may be postponed by the surgeon. The normal hemoglobin level for a male ranges from 13.2 to 17.3 g/dL (132-173 g/L) and for a female, 11.7 to 15.5 g/dL (117-155 g/L). The normal hematocrit for a male ranges from 39% to 50% ( 0.39-0.50) and for a female, 35% to 47% ( 0.35-0.47). Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word "abnormal" in the question and focus on the subject, laboratory results that could necessitate the postponement of surgery. Recalling the normal values for the laboratory studies identified in the options will direct you to the correct ones. Review these normal laboratory values

A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the health care provider? Select all that apply. A. Unequal chest expansion B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung E. Complaints of discomfort at the needle insertion site

AD Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse assesses the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Each of these signs must be reported to the health care provider immediately. Complaints of discomfort at the needle insertion site, a pulse rate of 82 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min are expected findings after this procedure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs that the nurse would report to the health care provider. Eliminate complaints of discomfort at the needle insertion site and a pulse rate of 82 beats/min first, because these are normal or anticipated findings. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min is abnormal, but only to a slight degree, so eliminate this option as well. Remember that unequal chest expansion and diminished breath sounds on the affected side indicate pneumothorax. Review the signs of complications after thoracentesis.

A client has just undergone a renal biopsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care? A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances

B Rationale: After renal biopsy, bed rest is maintained and the client's vital signs and puncture site are assessed frequently. Urine is tested periodically for occult blood to detect bleeding as a complication. Fluids are encouraged to reduce the risk of clot formation at the biopsy site. Opioid analgesics are often needed to manage the renal colic pain that some clients feel after this procedure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, postprocedure care following renal biopsy. Think about what a biopsy entails. Recalling that pain and bleeding are potential concerns after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client after renal biopsy

A health care provider is about to perform paracentesis on a client with abdominal ascites. Into which position would the nurse assist the client? A. Supine B. Upright C. Left side-lying D. Right side-lying

B Rationale: An upright position allows the intestine to float posteriorly and helps prevent intestinal laceration during catheter insertion. The client ideally empties the bladder, and then sits upright in a chair with the feet flat on the floor. The other positions are incorrect for this procedure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the position for paracentesis. Try to visualize the steps of this procedure in order to select the correct option. Knowing that fluid will be aspirated from the abdominal cavity will assist you in identifying the correct option. Review paracentesis.

A nurse checks the residual volume from a client's nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 mL of gastric contents. What should the nurse do before administering the prescribed 100 mL of formula to the client? A. Pour the residual volume into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed B. Discard the residual volume properly and record it as output on the client's fluid balance record C. Dilute the residual volume with water and inject it into the nasogastric tube, applying pressure on the plunger D. Mix the residual volume with the formula and pour it into the nasogastric tube, using a syringe without a plunger

A Rationale: After checking the residual feeding contents, the nurse reinstills the gastric contents into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and pouring the gastric contents, with the use of the syringe, into the nasogastric tube. Removal of the contents could disturb the client's electrolyte balance. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the procedure for administering a tube feeding. Eliminate the option that calls for the residual to be discarded; remember that discarding the gastric contents could disrupt the client's electrolyte balance. Next eliminate the option that involves mixing the residual with the formula, because gastric contents are not mixed with the formula. To select from the remaining options, eliminate the one that contains the word "pressure," because pressure could cause injury. Review the the procedure for administering a tube feeding.

A client who has undergone renal biopsy complains of pain, radiating to the front of the abdomen, at the biopsy site. For which finding should the nurse assess the client? A. Bleeding B. Renal colic C. Infection at the site D. Increased temperature

A Rationale: Bleeding should be suspected if pain originates at the biopsy site and begins to radiate to the flank area and around to the front of the abdomen. Hypotension, a decreasing hematocrit, and gross or microscopic hematuria are also indicators of bleeding. Signs of infection would not appear immediately after a biopsy. There is no information in the question to indicate the presence of renal colic. Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options of increased temperature and infection at the site first because they are comparable or alike. To choose between the remaining options, recall that the information in the question is not indicative of renal colic. Review the complications associated with renal biopsy

A nurse is caring for a client who has lost a significant amount of blood as a result of complications during a surgical procedure. Which parameter does the nurse recognize as the earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume? A. Pulse rate B. Blood pressure C. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure D. Pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure

A Rationale: Cardiac output is determined by the volume of the circulating blood, the pumping action of the heart, and the tone of the vascular bed. Early decreases in fluid volume are compensated for by an increase in the pulse rate. Remember that pulse rate multiplied by stroke volume equals cardiac output. An increase in pulse is often sufficient with small amounts of volume depletion to maintain the blood pressure. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure and pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure, measurements obtained with the use of a pulmonary artery catheter, provide information about the pressures in the pulmonary artery and in the left ventricle at the end of diastole. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "earliest." Pulmonary artery systolic pressure and pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure can be eliminated first, because these measurements are obtained with the use of a pulmonary artery catheter. To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic word, which will direct you to the correct option. Review the physiology of the cardiovascular system and the means of compensation inherent in that system.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL (34.4 mmol/L). After the nurse calls the health care provider to report the finding and monitors the client closely for which condition? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A Rationale: Diabetes mellitus can lead to metabolic acidosis. When the body does not have sufficient circulating insulin, the blood glucose level rises. At the same time, the cells of the body use all available glucose. The body then breaks down glycogen and fat for fuel. The byproducts of fat metabolism, which are acidotic, can cause the condition known as diabetic ketoacidosis. The other options are incorrect and are not likely to occur in the client with diabetes mellitus. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, acid-base imbalance that occurs in diabetes mellitus. Note the client's diagnosis. This tells you that the primary problem is metabolic in nature rather than respiratory and that you should eliminate respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis. To select from the remaining options, recall the complications of diabetes mellitus; this will direct you to the correct option. Review thecomplications of diabetes mellitus.

A nurse is preparing to examine a client's skin using a Wood light. What should the nurse do to facilitate this procedure? A. Darken the examining room B. Administer a local anesthetic C. Obtain a signed informed consent D. Shave the skin and scrub it with povidone-iodine (Betadine)

A Rationale: Examination of the skin under a Wood light, or handheld long wavelength UV light, is carried out in a darkened room. The light is used to illuminate areas of skin infection, which are seen as blue-green or red fluorescence. The skin does not need to be shaved, and a local anesthetic is not necessary. This is a noninvasive examination, so informed consent is not required. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the procedure for using a Wood light to examine the skin. Recalling that this is a noninvasive procedure will assist you in eliminating each of the incorrect options. Review Wood light procedure.

A client who just returned from the recovery room after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is restless and the pulse rate is increased. As the nurse continues the assessment, the client begins to vomit a copious amount of bright-red blood. The nurse should take which immediate action? A. Notify the surgeon B. Continue the assessment C. Check the client's blood pressure D. Obtain a flashlight, gauze, and a curved hemostat

A Rationale: Hemorrhage is a potential complication after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. If the client vomits a large amount of bright-red blood or the pulse rate increases and the patient is restless, the nurse must notify the surgeon immediately. The nurse should obtain a light, mirror, gauze, curved hemostat, and waste basin to facilitate examination of the surgical site. The nurse should also gather additional assessment data, but the surgeon must be contacted immediately. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediate. Noting the words "bright-red blood" will assist in directing you to the correct option. Remember that the presence of bright-red blood indicates active bleeding. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately when bleeding occurs after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy

A nurse is caring for a client with diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder does the nurse assess the client? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A Rationale: Intestinal secretions are high in bicarbonate because of the effects of pancreatic secretions. In conditions such as diarrhea, these fluids may be lost from the body before they can be reabsorbed. The decreased bicarbonate level produces the actual base deficit of metabolic acidosis. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the acid-base disorder that occurs in a client with diarrhea. Begin to answer this question by recalling that intestinal fluids are alkaline. With this in mind, eliminate metabolic alkalosis and respiratory alkalosis first, because alkaline secretions are lost. Note that the client condition described in the question has a gastrointestinal disorder. This will direct you to choose the metabolic acidosis over the respiratory acidosis. Review the causes of metabolic acidosis.

A client has been given a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Which result does the nurse reviewing the client's laboratory findings recognize as being specifically related to this diagnosis? A. Increased calcium level B. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. Increased white blood cell (WBC) count D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow

A Rationale: Multiple myeloma is characterized by hypercalcemia, anemia, increased BUN, and an increased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow. Hypercalcemia is a result of the release of calcium from deteriorating bone tissue. An increased WBC count may or may not be present and is not specifically related to this disease. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, laboratory findings in multiple myeloma. Recalling the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma and the effects it produces on the body will direct you to the correct option. Review the manifestations of multiple myeloma.

A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test? A. "I didn't shampoo my hair." B. "I ate breakfast this morning." C. "I didn't take my anticonvulsant today." D. "It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn't, so I didn't."

A Rationale: Preprocedure care for EEG involves client teaching about the procedure, ensuring that the client's hair has been freshly shampooed, and providing a light meal and fluids to prevent hypoglycemia, which could alter brain waves. Medications such as antidepressants, tranquilizers, and anticonvulsants are withheld for 24 to 48 hours before the procedure as prescribed. Stimulants such as coffee, tea, cola, alcohol, and cigarettes are also withheld. Test-Taking Strategy: Use your knowledge of the EEG procedure to answer the question and note the strategic words "needs additional preparation." These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the purpose of an EEG and the anatomical location of this test will direct you to the correct option. Review preparation for an EEG

A nurse is preparing a client for colonoscopy. Into which position does the nurse assist the client for the procedure? A. Left Sims' position B. Lithotomy position C. Knee-chest position D. Right Sims' position

A Rationale: The client is placed in the left Sims' position, which utilizes the client's anatomy to advantage for introducing the colonoscope, for the procedure. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client preparation for colonoscopy. Use knowledge of the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract to answer this question. Visualize this procedure and remember that the correct option identifies the same position that would be used to give the client an enema while he or she is lying down. Review colonoscopy.

A client with a history of lung disease is at risk for respiratory acidosis. For which signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client? A. Disorientation and dyspnea B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

A Rationale: The client with respiratory acidosis would exhibit the symptoms identified in the correct option. The client will experience dyspnea and may be disoriented as a result of hypoxia and retention of carbon dioxide. Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis are marked by drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea and dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth, respectively. The client with respiratory alkalosis is likely to exhibit tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias of the extremities. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject,the clinical manifestations of respiratory acidosis. Noting that the client has lung disease will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs and symptoms associated with respiratory acidosis.

A nurse receives a telephone call from a nurse on the post-anesthesia care unit, who reports that a client is being transferred to the surgical unit. What should the nurse plan to do first on arrival of the client? A. Assess the patency of the airway B. Check tubes and drains for patency C. Check the dressing for bleeding D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements

A Rationale: The first action of the nurse is to assess the patency of the airway. The nurse then performs an assessment of cardiovascular function, the condition of the surgical site, the patency of tubes and drains for patency, and the function of the central nervous system. If the airway is not patent, immediate measures must be taken to help ensure the survival of the client. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). Airway patency is the priority. The incorrect options are all nursing actions that should be performed after a patent airway has been established. Review priority nursing assessments in the client who has undergone surgery

A client is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. The client is lethargic and has a fruity odor on the breath. The client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.25, PaCO234 mm Hg (4.52 kPa), PaO2 86 mm Hg (11.3 kPa), HCO3 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). Which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize in these results? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

A Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal PaCO2 is 35-45 mm Hg (4.66-5.98 kPa). The normal HCO3 (bicarbonate) is 22-26 mEq/L (22-26 mmol/L). The normal PaO2 is 80-100 mm Hg (10.6-13.33 kPa).Acidosis is defined as a pH of less than 7.35; alkalosis is defined as a pH greater than 7.45. Metabolic acidosis is present when the HCO3 is less than 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L); metabolic alkalosis is present when the HCO3 is greater than 26 mEq/L (26 mmol/L). This client's ABG values are consistent with metabolic acidosis. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting the words "fruity odor on the breath." This information will assist you in determining that the client's symptoms are compatible with diabetic ketoacidosis, which should direct you to the correct option. Review the clinical manifestations of diabetic ketoacidosis

A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to the operating room. Which action should the take in the care of this client at this time? A. Ensuring that the client has voided B. Administering all daily medications C. Practicing postoperative breathing exercises D. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

A Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the client has voided if a Foley catheter is not in place. The nurse does not administer all daily medications just before sending a client to the operating room. Rather, the health care provider writes a specific prescription outlining which medications may be given with a sip of water. The client is usually prescribed to have nothing by mouth for 8 hours before surgery, not 24 hours. The time of transfer to the operating room is not the time to practice breathing exercises. This should have been done earlier. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words "at this time." Eliminate the option that involves administering all daily medications because of the close-ended word "all." Eliminate the option that involves verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours because of the words "last 24 hours." To select from the remaining options, focus on the words "at this time"; this will direct you to the correct option. Remember that the client is likely to be anxious at this time, meaning that it would be inappropriate to practice breathing exercises. Review preoperative client care measures

A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication of which? A. The tube is patent B. There is probably a kink in the tubing C. Suction should be added to the system D. The client is retaining airway secretions

A Rationale: With normal breathing and a patent chest tube, the fluid level in the water seal chamber rises with inspiration and falls with expiration. The system should not be affected by airway secretions, because the chest tube drains fluid (not airway secretions) from the pleural space. The other options are incorrect interpretations. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, expected findings with a correctly functioning chest tube drainage system. Think about the purpose and physiological functioning of a chest tube system. Recalling that a fluctuating fluid level in the water seal chamber is expected will help you identify the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube drainage system.

A nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client. Which observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply. A. The client becomes cyanotic. B. Secretions are becoming bloody. C. The client gags during the procedure. D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed. E. The heart rate varies from 80 to 82 beats/min.

AB Rationale: The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of suctioning, which include cyanosis, an excessively rapid or slow heart rate, and the sudden appearance of bloody secretions. If any of these findings is noted, the nurse stops suctioning and contacts the health care provider immediately. The descriptions in the other options are expected findings and not a reason for concern. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the findings that should be cause for concern to the nurse. This indicates that you are being asked to select the options that constitute abnormal or unexpected findings during suctioning of a client. Gagging is expected, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate clear to opaque secretions and heart rate ranging from 80 to 82 beats/min, because these are normal findings. Review the procedure for suctioning a client and the expected findings.

A client has just been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). What should the nurse tell the client about the procedure? Select all that apply. A. That informed consent is required B. That the test takes about 4 hours to complete C. That no premedication for sedation will be necessary D. That food and fluids will be withheld before the procedure E. That multiple position changes may be necessary to pass the tube

ADE Rationale: The client must sign informed consent before the procedure, which takes about an hour to perform. Intravenous sedation is given to relax the client, and an anesthetic spray is used to help keep the client from gagging as the endoscope is passed. Food and fluids are withheld before the procedure to prevent aspiration. Multiple position changes may be necessary to facilitate the passage of the tube. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client preparation for an ERCP. Think about the procedure and how it is done. This will assist in eliminating the option that states that no premedication for sedation will be necessary and selecting the option that states multiple position changes may be necessary to pass the tube. Knowing that it is invasive will assist in selecting the option related to informed consent being required. Eliminate the option that states that test takes about 4 hours to complete because of the words "4 hours." Recalling that aspiration is a concern will assist in selecting the option that says to withhold food and fluids before the procedure. Review ERCP

A nurse assesses the closed chest tube drainage system of a client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago. The nurse notes that there has been no chest tube drainage for the past hour. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Contact the health care provider B. Check for kinks in the drainage system C. Check the client's blood pressure and heart rate D. Connect a new drainage system to the client's chest tube

B Rationale: If a chest tube is not draining, the nurse must first check for a kink or clot in the chest drainage system. The nurse also observes the client for signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift; and if such signs are noted, the health care provider is notified. Checking the heart rate and blood pressure is not directly related to the lack of chest tube drainage. Connecting a new drainage system to the client's chest tube is done once the fluid drainage chamber is full. A specific procedure is followed when a new drainage system is connected to a client's chest tube. Test-Taking Strategy: Note strategic word "first." Focusing on the subject, a lack of chest tube drainage, will direct you to the correct option. Review unexpected outcomes and related interventions in the care of a chest tube drainage system

A nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies of a client with suspected hepatitis. Which increased parameter is interpreted by the nurse as the most specific indicator of this disease? A. Hemoglobin B. Serum bilirubin C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

B Rationale: Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include increased liver enzymes, serum bilirubin level, and ESR. However, ESR is a nonspecific test that indicates the presence of inflammation somewhere in the body. An increased BUN may indicate renal dysfunction. The hemoglobin level is unrelated to this diagnosis. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, most. Focusing on the client's diagnosis and recalling that the liver is the organ involved in this disease process will direct you to the correct option. Review the expected findings in hepatitis.

A nurse is caring for a client who is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

B Rationale: Loss of gastric fluid by way of nasogastric suction or vomiting results in metabolic alkalosis. This is because of the loss of hydrochloric acid, a potent acid. The situation results in an alkalotic condition. The respiratory system is not involved. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the acid-base disorder that occurs in a client who is vomiting. Eliminate metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis first, because the loss of hydrochloric acid would cause an alkalotic condition. Because the question addresses a situation other than a respiratory one, the acid-base disorder is metabolic. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the causes of metabolic alkalosis.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could cause which effect? A. Be drying to nasal passages B. Decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive C. Increase the risk of pneumonia as a result of drier air passages D. Decrease the client's carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive

B Rationale: Normally the respiratory rate varies with the amount of carbon dioxide present in the blood. In clients with COPD, this natural drive becomes ineffective after exposure to a high carbon dioxide level over a prolonged period. Instead, the level of oxygen provides the respiratory stimulus. The client with COPD cannot increase the oxygen level independently because this could halt the respiratory drive, leading to respiratory failure. Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve dry air passages. To select from the remaining options, focus on the client's diagnosis and recall that in the client with COPD the level of oxygen provides the respiratory stimulus. Review the importance of oxygen and carbon dioxide tensions in the bloodstream in the client with COPD.

A client tells the nurse that he has been experiencing frequent heartburn and has been "living on antacids." For which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize a risk? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

B Rationale: Oral antacids commonly contain sodium or calcium bicarbonate or other alkaline components. These substances bind to the hydrochloric acid in the stomach to neutralize it. Excessive use of oral antacids containing sodium or calcium bicarbonate can cause metabolic alkalosis over time. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the acid-base imbalance that occurs in a client who takes antacids. Note that the question indicates that the problem is not respiratory in nature. With this in mind, eliminate respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis first. To choose between the remaining options, remember that "antacids" work "against" acids. Review the causes of metabolic alkalosis.

A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone pulmonary angiography with catheter insertion through the right femoral vein. The nurse assesses for allergic reaction to the contrast medium by monitoring for the presence of which? A. Bradycardia B. Respiratory distress C. Hematoma in the right groin D. Discomfort in the right groin

B Rationale: Signs of an allergic reaction to contrast dye include early signs, such as localized itching and edema, followed by more severe symptoms, such as respiratory distress, stridor, and decreased blood pressure. Discomfort in the catheter insertion area is to be expected and is not a sign of allergic reaction. Hematoma formation, which is abnormal and indicates bleeding, should be reported to the health care provider. Bradycardia is unrelated to the situation set forth in the question. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs of an allergic reaction to contrast medium. Eliminate bradycardia first because it is an unrelated event. Eliminate discomfort next, because it is expected after this procedure. Choose between the remaining options by focusing on the subject, an allergic reaction. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of an allergic reaction.

Oxygen by way of nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the health care provider's prescriptions to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than which liter (L) per minute (min)? A. 1 L/min B. 3 L/min C. 4 L/min D. 6 L/min

B Rationale: Because the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia, the respiratory drive is triggered by a low oxygen level rather than by a high carbon dioxide level. Too much oxygen in this client could cause respiratory failure. The client with emphysema usually receives oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 (and no more than 3) L/min. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the safe oxygen liter flow for a client with emphysema. Recalling the physiology of emphysema and remembering that the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with emphysema.

A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which condition, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client's medical history? A. Pancreatitis B. Pacemaker insertion C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Chronic airway limitation

B Rationale: The candidate for MRI must be free of metal devices or implants. A careful history is conducted to determine whether any such metal objects, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices, are inside the client. These may heat up in the magnetic field generated by the MRI device, become dislodged, or malfunction during the procedure. The other medical problems listed do not pose a risk or contraindication for this procedure. Test-Taking Strategy: Note that each of the incorrect options are comparable or alike and are medical disorders. The correct option is the name of a procedure in which a device is implanted into the client. Remember that it is crucial to ensure that there are no metal objects in the vicinity of the MRI machine. Review contraindications to MRI

A nurse is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range? A. 2 mg/dL (0.7 mmol/L) B. 18 mg/dL (6.3 mmol/L) C. 25 mg/dL (8.75 mmol/L) D. 35 mg/dL (12.25 mmol/L)

B Rationale: The normal BUN ranges from 6 to 20 mg/dL (2.1 to 7.1 mmol/L). Therefore 18 mg/dL (6.3 mmol/L) is correct. Values such as 25 and 35 mg/dL (8.75 mmol/L and 12.25 mmol/L) are high, possibly indicating renal insufficiency. A result of 2 mg/dL (0.7 mmol/L)reflects a lower-than-normal value, which may occur with disorders characterized by fluid overload. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal BUN level. It is necessaty to remember that the normal BUN ranges from 6 to 20 mg/dL (2.1 to 7.1 mmol/L). Review the BUN value.

A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client who is infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells per cubic millimeter of blood. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating which? A. Improvement in the client B. The need for antiretroviral therapy C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV

B Rationale: The normal CD4+ count is between 500 to 1,500 cells per cubic millimeter of blood.Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count is less than 500 cells per cubic millimeter of bloodor below 25%, or when the client shows symptoms of HIV. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the incorrect options because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate a positive response to treatment. Review the CD4+ count and the interpretation of its results.

Blood for arterial blood gas determinations is drawn on a client with pneumonia, and testing reveals a pH of 7.45, PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg (3.99 kPa)., and HCO3 of 19 mEq/L (19 mmol/L). The nurse interprets these results as indicative of which disorder? A. Compensated metabolic acidosis B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

B Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal PaCO2 is 35-45 mm Hg (4.66-5.98 kPa). The normal HCO3 (bicarbonate) is 22-26 mEq/L (22-26 mmol/L). In a respiratory condition, opposite effects will be seen in pH and PaCO2. In respiratory alkalosis, pH is increased and PaCO2 is decreased. Compensation occurs when the pH returns to within the normal range, even though either the carbon dioxide or bicarbonate (or both) is abnormal value. In a metabolic condition, pH and bicarbonate move in the same direction. Clients with pneumonia are at risk for respiratory alkalosis as a result of hypoxemia. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the acid-base disorder fro a client with pneumonia. Remember that in a respiratory imbalance you will find opposite responses between the pH and the PaCO2 as indicated in the question. Therefore uncompensated metabolic alkalosis and compensated metabolic acidosis are eliminated first. Next, remember that the pH is increased with alkalosis and compensation occurs, evidenced by a normal pH. The correct option reflects a respiratory alkalotic condition and compensation and involves the kind of blood gas values indicated in the question. Review the steps for interpreting blood gas values

A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client? A. Assessing the client's chest for crepitus once every 24 hours B. Taping the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system C. Adding 20 mL of sterile water to the suction control chamber every shift D. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber every 24 hours

B Rationale: The nurse tapes all system connections to prevent accidental disconnection. Drainage is noted and recorded every hour during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter. Assessment for crepitus is performed once every 8 hours or more often if needed. Sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed to replace evaporative loss. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, planning care for a client with a chest tube drainage system. Begin to answer this question by eliminating the options that call for a particular assessment or action every 24 hours, which is much too infrequent for the client who has just had a chest tube inserted. To select from the remaining options, recall that sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube.

A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning and suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Continue suctioning to remove the blood B. Check the degree of suction being applied C. Encourage the client to cough out the bloody secretions D. Remove the suction catheter from the client's nose and begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth

B Rationale: The return of bloody secretions is an unexpected outcome of suctioning. If it occurs, the nurse should first assess the client and then determine the degree of suction being applied. The degree of suction pressure may need to be decreased. The nurse must also remember to apply intermittent suction and perform catheter rotation during suctioning. Continuing the suctioning or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth will result in increased trauma and therefore increased bleeding. Suctioning is normally performed on clients who are unable to expectorate secretions. It is therefore unlikely that the client will be able to cough out the bloody secretions. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Eliminate the options of continuing the suctioning to remove the blood and removing the suction catheter from the nose to begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth, because they are comparable or alike. Next eliminate the option that involves encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions, because it is unlikely that the client will be able to do so. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning

A nurse is caring for a client who has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The health care provider has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which item does the nurse ensure is available in the client's room before allowing the client to drink? A. Straw B. Napkin C. Suction equipment D. Oxygen saturation monitor

C Rationale: Aspiration is a concern when fluids are offered to a client who has just undergone surgery. It is possible that the swallow reflex is still impaired as an effect of anesthesia. The nurse checks the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids to the client, but suction equipment still must be available. An oxygen saturation monitor is unnecessary when fluids are being administered, nor is a napkin or straw necessary; in fact, the straw could contribute to the formation of flatus, resulting in gastrointestinal discomfort. Test-Taking Strategy: The subject of the question is protecting the client's gag and swallow reflexes. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer this question. The correct option helps maintain airway clearance. Review care of the client who has recently undergone surgery and is beginning a clear liquid diet.

A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client's urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. On the basis of this finding, the nurse should take which action first? A. Call the health care provider B. Increase the rate of the IV infusion C. Check the client's overall intake and output record D. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)

C Rationale: Clients are at risk for becoming hypovolemic after surgery, and often the first sign of hypovolemia is decreasing urine output. However, the nurse needs additional data to make an accurate interpretation. Neither an increase in the rate of the IV infusion nor administration of a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%) would be implemented without a prescription from the health care provider. The health care provider is called once the nurse has gathered all necessary assessment data, including the overall fluid status and vital signs. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "first." Try to visualize the situation and use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option addresses the process of assessment. Eliminate increasing the rate of the IV infusion and administering a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%), because each requires a health care provider's prescription. In this situation, the nurse needs to gather additional information before contacting the health care provider. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes

A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further teachingif the client indicates that he plans to do what as part of aftercare? A. Use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed B. Return in 7 days to have the sutures removed C. Apply cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes D. Call the health care provider if excessive drainage from the wound occurs

C Rationale: Cool compresses are not used on biopsy sites. After a skin biopsy, the nurse instructs the client to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. After dressing removal, the site is kept clean and dry but may be cleansed daily with tap water or saline solution. The health care provider may prescribe an antibiotic ointment to minimize local bacterial colonization, and the ointment should be used as directed. The nurse instructs the client to report any redness or excessive drainage at the site. Sutures are usually removed 7 to 10 days after biopsy. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, needs further teaching. These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the biopsy site should be kept dry will direct you to the correct option. Review aftercare instructions for skin biopsy.

A nurse is monitoring the respiratory status of a client who has just undergone surgery and is wearing a pulse oximeter. Which coexisting problem is cause for the nurse to suspect that the oxygen saturation readings are not entirely accurate? A. Infection B. Hypertension C. Low blood pressure D. Loss of cough reflex

C Rationale: Hypotension, shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications may each result in inaccurate pulse oximetry readings because of the impairment of peripheral perfusion. The other options listed would not produce inaccurate readings. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, factors that affect pulse oximetry readings. Recall that pulse oximetry is a means of measuring oxygen saturation in blood flowing through the blood vessels in the periphery of the body. Any factor that impairs blood flow in this area may produce inaccurate measurement. With this concept in mind, you should be able to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review the factors that affect a pulse oximetry reading.

A pelvic ultrasound is prescribed to evaluate a client's ovarian mass. What should the nurse giving preprocedure instructions tell the client that it important to do before the procedure? A. Eat only a light breakfast B. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes C. Drink 6 to 8 glasses of water without voiding D. Stop eating or drinking at midnight before the test

C Rationale: Pelvic ultrasound requires the ingestion of a large volume of water just before the procedure. A full bladder helps ensure that the bladder is easily visualized and not mistaken for a pelvic growth. A client undergoing abdominal (not pelvic) ultrasound may have to refrain from eating or drinking for several hours before the procedure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client preparation for a pelvic ultrasound. Recalling the ultrasound procedure will help you eliminate the option of wearing comfortable clothing and shoes. To select from the remaining options, note the word "pelvic" in the question; this will direct you to the correct option. Review preparation for a pelvic ultrasound.

Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A. Administering a cleansing enema. B. Calling the health care provider C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts

C Rationale: Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution, also known as GoLYTELY, is a bowel evacuant used in preparation for colonoscopy to cleanse the bowel. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea and will clear the bowel in 4 to 5 hours. Therefore the nurse should document the results in the medical record. The other options are incorrect or unnecessary. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the action of polyethylene glycol- electrolyte solution. Recalling the purpose of this solution will assist you in eliminating the administration of a cleansing enema and calling the health care provider. Choose documenting the results over giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts, because the effects of the solution (diarrhea) are self-limiting. Review the action of polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution

A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about to take which action? A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor C. Administering oxygen by way of nasal cannula D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent

C Rationale: Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen is immediately administered nasally to relieve hypoxemia, respiratory distress, and central cyanosis, and the health care provideris notified. IV infusion lines are needed to administer medications or fluids. A perfusion scan, among other tests, may be performed. The electrocardiogram is monitored for the presence of dysrhythmias. Additionally, a urinary catheter may be inserted and blood for arterial blood gas determinations drawn. The immediate priority, however, is the administration of oxygen. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the client's diagnosis and use the skills of prioritizing. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to find the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of pulmonary embolism

A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above which value? A. 85% B. 89% C. 95% D. 100%

C Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected reading is at least 95%. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Readings of 85% and 89% are lower than what is desired in the postoperative period. A level of 100% is most desirable, but the level should remain at least 95% Test-Taking Strategy: Note the information in the question and that the client is without a history of respiratory disease. Familiarity with the pulse oximeter and normal readings is needed to answer this question. Noting the word "above" in the question will help you answer correctly. Review the purpose and expected results of pulse oximetry.

A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned? A. Oxygen saturation of 97% B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min

C Rationale: The absence of cough and gag reflexes is of greatest concern to the nurse because it indicates that the client does not have protective airway reflexes and is at risk of aspiration. Bilaterally equal breath sounds are a normal finding indicating an absence of complications such as hemothorax or pneumothorax. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 97% are normal measurements. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, most, which indicate the need to select the option that is cause for concern. Eliminate the normal assessment findings. Review care of the client after bronchoscopy.

A nurse is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm Extra Credit HESI Module 9 above the carina. The nurse interprets that the tube is positioned above which anatomical area? A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx

C Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus as a result of the natural curvature of the airway. This is hazardous because only the right lung will be ventilated. It is easily detected, however, because only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the anatomical location of the endotracheal tube. To answer this question correctly, you must be familiar with the anatomy of the respiratory system. Recalling the location of the carina will direct you to the correct option. Review the anatomy of the respiratory system.

A nurse has a prescription to discontinue a client's nasogastric tube. The nurse auscultates the client's bowel sounds, positions the client properly, and flushes the tube with 15 mL of air to clear secretions. The nurse then instructs the client to take a deep breath and do what? A. Exhale during tube removal B. Bear down during tube removal C. Hold the breath during tube removal D. Breathe normally during tube removal

C Rationale: The client is asked to take a deep breath because the airway will be temporarily obstructed during tube removal. The client is then asked to hold the breath while the tube is being withdrawn. Bearing down and exhaling could each interfere with tube removal by increasing intrathoracic pressure. Normal breathing could result in aspiration of gastric secretions during inhalation. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the procedure for nasogastric tube removal. Try to visualize the process of tube removal to answer this question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., bearing down and exhaling) in that they would both increase intrathoracic pressure. Choose correctly between the remaining options by recalling that breathing normally could result in aspiration. Review the procedure for removing a nasogastric tube.

A nurse in a health care provider's office has just made an appointment for a client to undergo an exercise stress test. The nurse, in providing pre-procedure teaching, should provide which information to the client? A. Wear sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt B. Eat a small meal just before the procedure C. Wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes such as sneakers D. Avoid consuming caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure

C Rationale: The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled, such as sneakers, for the procedure. The client wears light, loose, comfortable clothing; a shirt that buttons in front is helpful for electrocardiogram (ECG) lead placement. The client should be NPO after bedtime, or for a minimum of 2 hours before the test, and should avoid tobacco, alcohol, and caffeine on the day of the test. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client teaching for an exercise stress test. Eliminate options that could interfere with test results, such as digestion, alcohol, caffeine, smoking, and restrictive or uncomfortable clothing. This will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching for exercise stress testing.

A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client? A. Disorientation and dyspnea B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

C Rationale: The client who is anxious is at risk for respiratory alkalosis as a result of hyperventilation. The client is likely to exhibit tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias of the extremities. The client with respiratory acidosis would exhibit disorientation and dyspnea. The client with metabolic acidosis or alkalosis would exhibit symptoms such as drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea and dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth, respectively. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. To answer this question accurately, you must be familiar with the signs and symptoms exhibited in the various acid-base disturbances. Recalling that the client who is anxious is at risk for respiratory alkalosis as a result of hyperventilation will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs and symptoms associated with respiratory alkalosis.

A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 88 seconds (88 seconds). The client's baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds (30 seconds). Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed? A. Shutting off the heparin infusion B. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion C. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion D. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

C Rationale: The normal aPTT varies between 25 and 35 seconds (25 and 35 seconds), depending on the type of activator used in testing. The therapeutic dose of heparin for treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. Therefore the client's aPTT is somewhat increased but does not indicate a critical value. The infusion rate should be slowed and the aPTT rechecked as prescribed. A persistently increased aPTT indicates a risk for bleeding. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. To answer this question accurately, it is necessary to be familiar with both the normal aPTT level and the therapeutic level needed after the institution of heparin therapy. Noting that the client's baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds and recalling that the therapeutic dose for this client is intended to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal will direct you to the correct option. Review the content related to heparin therapy.

A client with histoplasmosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 58 mm Hg (7.72 kPa), PaO2 75 mm Hg (9.93 kPa), HCO3 26mEq/L (26 mmol/L). Which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize in these results? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

C Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal PaCO2 is 35-45 mm Hg (4.66-5.98 kPa). The normal HCO3 (bicarbonate) is 22-26 mEq/L (22-26 mmol/L). The normal PaO2 is 80-100 mm Hg (10.6-13.33 kPa). Acidosis is defined as a pH of less than 7.35; alkalosis is defined as a pH greater than 7.45. In a respiratory condition, an opposite effect is seen between the pH and the PCO2. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is decreased and the PCO2 is increased. Metabolic acidosis is present when the HCO3 is less than 22 mEq/L (22mmol/L); metabolic alkalosis is present when the HCO3 is greater than 26 mEq/L (26 mmol/L). This client's ABG values are consistent with respiratory acidosis. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, interpreting blood gas values. Note the client's diagnosis and recall that this client will have difficulty exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. This will help you eliminate metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis. To select from the remaining options, remember that the pH is decreased with acidosis. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the steps involved in interpreting blood gas values.

A nurse reviews a client's urinalysis report. Which finding does the nurse recognize as abnormal? A. pH of 6.0 B. An absence of protein C. The presence of ketones D. Specific gravity of 1.018

C Rationale: The normal pH range of urine is 4.5 to 7.8, and normal specific gravity ranges from 1.016 to 1.022. The urine is typically screened for protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, casts, crystals, red blood cells, and white blood cells, none of which should be present. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an abnormal finding in the urinalysis. The words "the presence of" should direct you to the correct option. Review normal urinalysis findings

A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide. Which potassium level would cause the nurse, reviewing the client's electrolyte values, to contact the health care provider before administering the dose? A. 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) B. 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L) C. 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L) D. 5.2 mEq/L (5.2 mmol/L)

C Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in the adult is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L(3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A result of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L)is low, 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L (3.8 and 4.2 mmol/L) are normal, and 5.2 mEq/L (5.2 mmol/L)is high. Administering furosemide to a client with a low potassium level and a history of cardiovascular disease could precipitate ventricular dysrhythmias in the client. The normal and high levels do not require withholding of the dose. In fact, the high level may be lowered by administration of the medication, which is a potassium-losing diuretic. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the need to call the health care provider. Knowledge of the normal serum potassium level is needed to answer this question. This will assist you in identifying the value that is not within normal range. Recalling the effects of furosemide on the serum potassium level will also help you find the correct option. Review the potassium laboratory value and the effects of furosemide on the potassium level.

A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should provide which information to the client about the test? A. HIV infection has been confirmed B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV

C Rationale: The normal value for an ELISA test is negative. A positive ELISA test must be confirmed with the use of the Western Blot. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully and focus on the subject, that the test result is positive. Recalling that an ELISA test is an HIV antibody screening test and that a positive result must be confirmed with the use of the Western blot will direct you to the correct option. Review interpretations of the results of an ELISA test

A nurse is monitoring a client who has undergone pleural biopsy. Which finding causes the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing a complication? A. Warm, dry skin B. Mild pain at the biopsy site C. Complaints of shortness of breath D. Capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds

C Rationale: The nurse observes the client for dyspnea, excessive pain, pallor, and diaphoresis after pleural biopsy, each of which could indicate the presence of a complication such as hemothorax or intercostal nerve injury. Abnormal signs and symptoms should be reported to the health care provider. Mild pain is expected because the procedure itself is painful. Warm, dry skin and a capillary refill of less than 3 seconds are both normal findings. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a complication of pleural biopsy. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review the procedure for pleural biopsy and signs of its associated complications.

A serum phenytoin determination is prescribed for a client with a seizure disorder who is taking phenytoin. Which result indicates that the prescribed dose of phenytoin is therapeutic? A. 3 mcg/mL (12 umol/L) B. 8 mcg/mL (32 umol/L) C. 16 mcg/mL (63 umol/L) D. 28 mcg/mL (111 umol/L)

C Rationale: The therapeutic serum phenytoin range is 10 to 20 mcg/mL (40 to 79 umol/L). If the level is below the therapeutic range, the client may continue to experience seizure activity. If the level is too high, the client is at risk for phenytoin toxicity. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a therapeutic serum level of the medication. Recalling the therapeutic serum range for phenytoin will direct you to the correct option. Review the therapeutic serum phenytoin value.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a closed chest tube drainage system. The nurse notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply). A. Clamp the chest tube B. Chang the drainage system C. Assess the system for an external air leak D. Reduce the degree of suction being applied E. Document assessment findings, actions taken, and client response

CE Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest tube drainage system may indicate the presence of an air leak. The nurse would assess the chest tube system for the presence of an external air leak if constant bubbling were noted in this chamber. If an external air leak is not present and the air leak is a new occurrence, the health care provider is notified immediately, because an air leak may be present in the pleural space. Leakage and trapping of air in the pleural space can result in a tension pneumothorax. Clamping the chest tube is incorrect. Additionally, a chest tube is not clamped unless this has been specifically prescribed in the agency's policies and procedures. Changing the drainage system will not alleviate the problem. Reducing the degree of suction being applied will not affect the bubbling in the water seal chamber and could be harmful. The nurse would document the assessment findings and interventions taken in the client's medical record. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting that there is bubbling in the water seal chamber. Use knowledge regarding the priority actions in the care of a closed chest tube drainage system. Recalling that this may indicate an air leak will direct you to the correct options. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event that complications of a closed chest tube drainage system occur

A nurse is providing post-procedure instructions to a client returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should provide the client with which information? A. To resume full activity the next day B. Not to eat or drink anything until the next morning C. To keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day D. To report to the health care provider the development of fever or redness and heat at the site

D Rationale: After arthroscopy, signs and symptoms of infection such as fever or redness and heat at the site should be reported to the health care provider. The client may resume the usual diet immediately. The arm does not have to be completely immobilized once sensation has returned, but the client is usually encouraged to refrain from strenuous activity for at least a few days. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions after arthroscopy of the shoulder. Eliminate keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day and resuming full activity the next day, because they represent extremes of activity variations. To select from the remaining options, remember that the client is always taught to report signs and symptoms of infection to the health care provider. Review client instructions after arthroscopy

A client has just returned to the nursing unit after bronchoscopy. To which intervention should the nurse give priority? A. Ambulating the client B. Administering pain medication C. Encouraging copious fluid intake D. Checking for the return of the gag reflex

D Rationale: After bronchoscopy, the nurse assesses the client for the return of the gag and swallow reflexes and keeps the client on nothing-by-mouth status until these protective reflexes return. Preoperative sedation and local anesthesia can impair the swallowing and protective laryngeal reflexes for several hours. Encouraging large amounts of fluids is unnecessary, because there is no use of contrast dye in this procedure. Additionally, fluids would not be given until the gag reflex had returned. Ambulation is not indicated until the client is alert and awake. Pain medication is usually not needed. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "priority." Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review care of the client after bronchoscopy.

A nurse is teaching a nursing student how to measure a carotid pulse. The nurse should tell the student to measure the pulse on only one side of the client's neck primarily for which reason? A. It is unnecessary to use both hands B. Feeling dual pulsations may lead to an incorrect measurement C. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could occlude the trachea D. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to drop

D Rationale: Applying pressure to both carotid arteries at the same time is contraindicated. Excess pressure to the baroreceptors in the carotid vessels could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to reflexively drop. In addition, the manual pressure could interfere with the flow of blood to the brain, possibly causing dizziness and syncope. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "primarily." This means that more than one or even all of the options may be correct to some degree. Note that the greatest danger to the client is described in the correct option. Review the function and location of baroreceptors in the carotid vessels.

A client is receiving intermittent bolus feedings by way of a nasogastric tube. In which position should the nurse place the client once the feeding is complete? A. Supine B. Head of bed flat C. Left lateral position D. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees

D Rationale: Aspiration is a complication of nasogastric tube feeding. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees for 30 to 60 minutes after each bolus tube feeding to help prevent vomiting and aspiration. The right lateral position is also helpful in that gravity facilitates gastric emptying, which also reduces the risk of vomiting. The flat or supine position should be avoided for at least the first 30 minutes after a tube feeding. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, positioning after a nasogastric tube feeding. Eliminate the supine and flat positions because they are comparable or alike. To select from the remaining options, recall the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract and use your knowledge of gravity to direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for administering tube feedings.

A nurse has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which measure should the nurse take during this procedure? A. Keeping the specimen at room temperature B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time

D Rationale: Because the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination, the test must be started with an empty bladder. Therefore the first urine is discarded. Fifteen minutes before the end of the collection time, the client should be asked to void, and this specimen is added to the collection. The collection should be refrigerated or placed on ice to help prevent changes in urine composition. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, collecting collecting a 24-hour urine specimen. Think about the purpose and procdure of collecting a specimen. Recalling that the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination will assist you in identifying the correct option. Review the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen

A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which food, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat as a means of promoting wound healing? A. Steak B. Veal C. Cheese D. Oranges

D Rationale: Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Other sources are potatoes, tomatoes, and other fruits and vegetables. Meats and dairy products are not especially high in vitamin C. Meats are high in protein. Dairy products are high in calcium. Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate steak and veal first because they are comparable or alike in that they are meats. To select from the remaining options, recall that cheese is high in calcium, not vitamin C; this will direct you to the correct option. Review foods high in vitamin C

A client has undergone renal angiography by way of the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure on noting which finding? A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg

D Rationale: Complications of renal angiography include allergic reaction to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and a number of vascular complications, including hemorrhage, thrombosis, and embolism. The nurse detects these complications by monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of allergic reaction, decreased urine output, hematoma or hemorrhage at the insertion site, and signs of diminished circulation to the affected leg. The incorrect options are normal findings. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject "a complication of the procedure," which should tell you that the correct option is an abnormal assessment finding. Eliminate the incorrect options, because they are normal findings. Pallor and coolness indicate thrombosis or hematoma and should be further assessed and reported. Review the signs of complications after renal angiography

A nurse is getting a client out of bed for the first time since surgery. The nurse raises the head of the bed, and the client complains of dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Check the client's blood pressure B. Check the oxygen saturation level C. Have the client take some deep breaths D. Lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved

D Rationale: Dizziness or a feeling of faintness is not uncommon when a client is positioned upright for the first time after surgery. If this occurs, the nurse lowers the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved. The nurse then checks the client's pulse and blood pressure. Because the problem is circulatory, not respiratory, checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take some deep breaths are not the first actions to be taken. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "first." Note the relationship between the subject of the question (the client becomes dizzy) and the correct answer. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and the priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes

A nurse is admitting a client with a diagnosis of hypothermia to the hospital. Which signs does the nurse anticipate that this client will exhibit? A. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure B. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure C. Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure D. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure

D Rationale: Hypothermia decreases the heart rate and blood pressure, because the metabolic needs of the body are reduced with hypothermia. With fewer metabolic needs, the workload of the heart decreases, with corresponding drops in both heart rate and blood pressure. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs of hypothermia. Recalling that the metabolic needs of the body are reduced with hypothermia will direct you to the correct option. Review the effects of hypothermia on the body.

A nurse is helping a client with a closed chest tube drainage system get out of bed and into a chair. During the transfer, the chest tube is caught on the leg of the chair and dislodged from the insertion site. What is the immediate nursing action? A. Reinsert the chest tube B. Contact the health care provider C. Transfer the client back to bed D. Cover the insertion site with a sterile occlusive dressing

D Rationale: If a chest tube is dislodged from the insertion site, the nurse immediately covers the site with sterile occlusive dressing. The nurse then performs a respiratory assessment, helps the client back into bed, and contacts the health care provider. The nurse does not reinsert the chest tube. The health care provider will reinsert the chest tube as necessary. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "immediate." Eliminate the option that involves reinsertion of the chest tube first, because a nurse is not trained to insert a chest tube. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, dislodgment of a chest tube from its insertion site, and recall the complications associated with this occurrence; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system

A client who experienced the sudden onset of respiratory distress has been intubated with an endotracheal tube. After the tube is placed in the trachea, the nurse should take which immediate action? A. Tape the tube in place B. Send the client for a chest x-ray C. Note how far the tube has been inserted D. Auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds

D Rationale: Immediately after an endotracheal tube is inserted, tube placement is verified. Initially the lungs are assessed for bilateral breath sounds and the chest is observed to see whether it rises and falls symmetrically with ventilation. After it has been determined that the client is being adequately ventilated, the tube is taped in place and placement is verified by means of chest x-ray. The depth of tube insertion is documented. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "immediate" in the query of the question. Recalling the sequence of events after endotracheal intubation will direct you to the correct option. Also, use your knowledge of the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review the procedures involved in intubation.

A client who has sustained a myocardial infarction is scheduled to have an echocardiogram. Which measure should the nurse take before the procedure? A. Imposing nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status for 4 hours B. Asking the client to sign an informed consent form C. Asking the client about a history of allergy to iodine or shellfish D. Telling the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete

D Rationale: In echocardiography, ultrasound is used to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. It is a noninvasive, risk-free, pain-free test that involves no special preparation and is commonly performed at the bedside or on an outpatient basis. The client must lie quietly for 30 to 60 minutes while the procedure is being performed. The other options are incorrect. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, preparing the client for an echocardiogram. Recalling that echocardiography involves the use of ultrasound and that ultrasound is noninvasive, safe, and painless should help you eliminate the incorrect options. Review echocardiogram.

A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client's trachea but is unable to do so. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Call a code B. Contact the health care provider C. Administer a bronchodilator D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter

D Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation. This finding, along with the client's symptoms presented in the question, indicates the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction. The nurse immediately disconnects the suction source from the catheter but leave the catheter in the trachea. The nurse then connects the oxygen source to the catheter. The health care provider is notified and will most likely prescribe an inhaled bronchodilator. The nurse also prepares for emergency resuscitation if the bronchospasm is not relieved. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "first." Eliminate the option of administering a bronchodilator, because this action requires a health care provider's prescription. To select from the remaining options, visualize the situation presented in the question. Noting that the nurse is unable to remove the suction catheter from the client's trachea will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning

A client's baseline vital signs are temperature 98° F (36.7°C) oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever of 103° F (39.4°C). Which respiratory rate would the nurse anticipate as part of the body's response to the change in client status? A. 12 breaths/min B. 16 breaths/min C. 18 breaths/min D. 22 breaths/min

D Rationale: Increases in body temperature cause a corresponding increase in respiratory rate because the metabolic needs of the body increase with fever, necessitating more oxygen. The client who has a decrease in body temperature will experience a decrease in respiratory rate. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the body's physiological response to fever. To answer this question correctly, recall that an increased body temperature can cause an increase in respiratory rate. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the effects of body temperature on the respiratory rate.

A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron. Which occurrence would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client? A. Paralytic ileus B. Incisional pain C. Urine retention D. Nausea and vomiting

D Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemetic that is used in the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. This medication is not used to treat any of the problems identified in the other options. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, the action and use of ondansetron. To answer this question accurately, it is necessary to know the classification of this medication. Focusing on the clinical setting identified in the question should narrow your choices to nausea and vomiting and incisional pain. To correctly select from these two options, it is necessary to know that ondansetron is an antiemetic. Review the action of ondansetron

A nurse is preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP). Which action by the nurse is most important? A. Administering a sedative B. Encouraging fluid intake C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish

D Rationale: Some IVP dyes are iodine based; if the dye to be used in this procedure is one of them and the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish, he may experience an allergic reaction, manifested as itching, hives, rash, a tight feeling in the throat, shortness of breath, or bronchospasm. For this reason, assessing the client for allergies is the priority. The dye is injected intravenously. The client may or may not receive premedication. Nothing-by mouth status is generally imposed after midnight on the day before the test. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most important. Noting the word "intravenous" in the name of the test indicates that a dye will be injected. This will help direct you to the correct option. Review the priority assessments in preprocedure care for an IVP.

A nurse is preparing for intershift report when an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) pulls an emergency call light in a client's room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client's blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Call the health care provider B. Check the hourly urine output C. Check the IV site for infiltration D. Place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position

D Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock and requires emergency intervention. The first action is to place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position (flat with the legs elevated) to increase blood return from the legs, which in turn increases venous return and subsequently the blood pressure. The nurse calls the health care provider, verifies the client's blood volume status by assessing urine output, and ensures that the IV infusion is proceeding without complications. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "first." Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation). The correct option addresses the client's circulatory status. Review the nursing interventions to be taken immediately in the event of postoperative shock

A client who has received sodium bicarbonate in large amounts is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client? A. Disorientation and dyspnea B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

D Rationale: The client with metabolic alkalosis is likely to exhibit dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth as a compensatory mechanism. The client with metabolic acidosis would exhibit the symptoms such as drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea. The client with respiratory acidosis or alkalosis would exhibit the disorientation and dyspnea or tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias, respectively. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the clinical manifestations associated with metabolic alkalosis. Focusing on the data in the question and recalling that the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis

A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, what should the nurse assess first? A. The client's vital signs B. The amount of drainage C. The client's lung sounds D. The chest tube connections

D Rationale: The client's dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection. Other causes might be a tear or incision in the pulmonary pleura, which requires health care provider intervention. Although the interventions identified in the other options should also be taken in this situation, they should be performed only after the nurse has tried to locate and correct the air leak. It only takes a moment to check the connections, and if a leak is found and corrected, the client's symptoms should resolve. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "first" and focus on the data in the question. Recalling that a constant bubbling in the water seal chamber could indicate a leak in the system will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a closed chest tube drainage system

An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client's laboratory work that the client's hematocrit is normal? A. 10% ( 0.10) B. 22% ( 0.22) C. 30% ( 0.30) D. 43% ( 0.43)

D Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47% ( 0.35 to 0.47). The incorrect options are low hematocrit values. Test Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal hematocrit level. Knowledge regarding the normal hematocrit is necessary to answer this question. Remember that in an adult female it ranges from 35% to 47% ( 0.35 to 0.47). Review the hematocrit level.

A client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis has blood drawn for several serum laboratory tests. Which serum amylase value, noted by the nurse reviewing the results, would be expected in this client at this time? A. 48 units/L (0.816 μkat/L) B. 97 units/L (1.649 μkat/L) C. 150 units/L (2.55 μkat/L) D. 395 units/L (6.715 μkat/L)

D Rationale: The normal serum amylase range is 30 to 122 U/L (0.51 to 2.07 μkat/L). In acute pancreatitis, the amylase level is greatly increased; the level starts rising 3 to 6 hours after the onset of pain, peaks at about 24 hours, and returns to normal in 2 to 3 days after the onset of pain. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, laboratory findings in acute pancreatitis. Familiarity with the normal serum amylase level and the degree of increase in acute pancreatitis is needed to answer this question. Note the word "acute" in the question, which tells you that the result will be higher than normal. Review the effect of acute pancreatitis on the amylase level.

A nurse provides information to a client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion. The nurse should provide which information to the client? A. The procedure is performed in the operating room B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure

D Rationale: The nurse tells the client about to undergo cardiac catheterization room that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department. A local anesthetic is used, so there is little or no pain with catheter insertion. The procedure may take as long as 2 hours, during which time the client may feel various sensations including a feeling of warmth or flushing, with catheter passage and dye injection. The x-ray table is hard and may be tilted periodically to obtain the best possible views. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the cardiac catheterization procedure. Recalling that this is a diagnostic procedure will help you eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client that the procedure is performed in the operating room. The duration of the procedure (4 hours) identified in this incorrect option should cause you to eliminate it, and the use of the words "bright and well lit" indicate an incorrect option. Review the procedure for cardiac catheterization

A nurse has a prescription to insert a nasogastric tube into the stomach of an assigned client. Which action should the nurse take to insert the tube safely and easily? A. Placing the tube in warm water B. Hyperextending the head while inserting the tube C. Removing the tube if any resistance to insertion is met D. Asking the client to swallow as the tube is being advanced

D Rationale: To facilitate insertion, the nurse asks the client to lower the head slightly, swallow, and take sips of water (if allowed). The head is not hyperextended, because this would open the airway and could result in placement of the nasogastric tube in the trachea. The tube should be iced to make it stiff for easier insertion. If resistance is met, the tube may be withdrawn slightly, then readvanced. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a way to help ensure easy, safe insertion of a nasogastric tube. Visualize this procedure to identify the correct option. Review the procedure for insertion of a nasogastric tube.

A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt "something give way" in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse should take which immediate action? A. Document the findings B. Contact the health care provider C. Place the client in a supine position with the legs flat D. Cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution

D Rationale: Wound dehiscence is the disruption of a surgical incision or wound. When dehiscence occurs, the nurse immediately places the client in a low Fowler's position or supine with the knees bent and instructs the client to lie quietly. These actions will minimize protrusion of the underlying tissues. The nurse then covers the wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline. The health care provider is notified, and the nurse documents the occurrence and the nursing actions that were implemented in response. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word "immediate." Visualize this occurrence and recall that the primary concern when wound dehiscence occurs is the protrusion of underlying tissues. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of wound dehiscence