MTA 98-365: Practice Exam

Which technology is designed to help teams collaborate? A. Microsoft SharePoint Server B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager C. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager D. Microsoft BizTalk Server

Answer: A Explanation: * Organizations use SharePoint to create websites. You can use it as a secure place to store, organize, share, and access information from almost any device. All you need is a web browser, such as Internet Explorer, Chrome, or Firefox. * SharePoint Workspace A desktop program that you can use to take SharePoint site content offline and collaborate on the content with others while you are disconnected from the network. While you and other team members are offline, you can make changes to SharePoint content that will eventually synchronize back to the SharePoint site. Incorrect: not B: System Center 2012 Operations Manager provides infrastructure monitoring that is flexible and cost-effective, helps ensure the predictable performance and availability of vital applications, and offers comprehensive monitoring for your datacenter and cloud, both private and public. Not C: Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager 2010 R2 delivers self-service identity management for users, automates lifecycle management across heterogeneous platforms for administrators, and provides a rich policy framework for enforcing corporate security policies. Not D: Microsoft BizTalk Server (or simply "BizTalk") enables companies to automate business processes, through the use of adapters which are tailored to communicate with different software systems used in an enterprise.

Which two components are required to configure a TCP/IP connection? (Choose two) A. Subnet mask B. DHCP address C. Host address D. Domain name

Answer: A. Subnet mask, C. Host address Explanation: An IP address and a subnet mask.

You create a new domain. Which two Active Directory objects will be available by default? (Choose two) A. Computer B. Employee C. User D. Device E. Server

Answer: A,C Explanation: An Active Directory structure is an arrangement of information about objects. The objects fall into two broad categories: resources (e.g., printers) and security principals (user or computer accounts and groups). Security principals are assigned unique security identifiers (SIDs). Note: * Install-ADDSDomain Installs a new Active Directory domain configuration.

You often stop by Fourth Coffee before class. The owner knows you are studying computer networking. One morning, the owner asks for your help with a file server because it is running slower than usual. Which two tools should you use to diagnose the problem with this server? (Choose two.) A. Task Manager B. Share & Storage Management C. Device Manager D. Perfmon E. Profiler

Answer: A,D Explanation: A: The Performance tab of the Task Manager could be checked. D: Perfmon is the performance monitor in Windows.

Which provides centralized management of users and computers? A. Active Directory B. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) D. Remote Access

Answer: A. Active Directory Explanation: Active Directory (AD) is a directory service implemented by Microsoft for Windows domain networks. It is included in most Windows Server operating systems. An AD domain controller authenticates and authorizes all users and computers in a Windows domain type networkassigning and enforcing security policies for all computers and installing or updating software.

Plug and Play is a/an: A. Automatic device configuration system. B. Automatic system update application. C. Method used by developers to create applications. D. Multimedia device.

Answer: A. Automatic device configuration system.

You need to monitor the performance of a server. What should you create first? A. Baseline B. Counters C. Page File D. Alerts

Answer: A. Baseline Explanation: Later compare the performance to the baseline.

A system error window keeps displaying. Where do you find detailed information about that error? A. Event Viewer B. Resource Monitor C. Task Manager D. Device Manager

Answer: A. Event Viewer Explanation: Event Viewer is a tool that displays detailed information about significant events (for example, programs that don't start as expected or updates that are downloaded automatically) on your computer. Event Viewer can be helpful when troubleshooting problems and errors with Windows and other programs. Reference: windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/open-event-viewer

Which tool would you use to retrieve detailed information about a significant occurrence in a computer system? A. Event Viewer B. System Information C. System Monitor D. Resource Monitor

Answer: A. Event Viewer Explanation: The Windows Event Viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. https://www.howtogeek.com/123646/htg-explains-what-the-windows-event-viewer-is-and-how-you-can-use-it/

Which type of folder permissions takes precedence? A. Explicit Deny permissions B. Explicit Allow permissions C. Inherited Deny permissions D. Inherited Allow permissions

Answer: A. Explicit Deny permissions Explanation: Here are some rules for resolving permissions conflicts: "Deny" permissions generally take precedence over "allow" permissions. Permissions applied directly to an object (explicit permissions) take precedence over permissions inherited from a parent (for example from a group). Permissions inherited from near relatives take precedence over permissions inherited from distant predecessors. So permissions inherited from the object's parent folder take precedence over permissions inherited from the object's "grandparent" folder, and so on. Permissions from different user groups that are at the same level (in terms of being directly-set or inherited, and in terms of being "deny" or "allow") are cumulative. So if a user is a member of two groups, one of which has an "allow" permission of "Read" and the other has an "allow" of "Write", the user will have both read and write permission--depending on the other rules above, of course.

Which Hyper-V network type shares the host's physical network adapter? A. External B. Public C. Private D. Internal

Answer: A. External Explanation: For Hyper-V host networking, the most common option is to create an external access virtual switch. This allows VMs on the host to access other systems on a traditional VLAN or standard switched network.

The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2008 R2 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server, you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2008 R2: one to act as a web server and one to act as a database server. Which Windows Server 2008 R2 role or feature provides this capability? A. Windows Deployment Services B. Hyper-V C. Windows System Resource Manager D. Windows Internal Database

Answer: A. Hyper-V Explanation: Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems. Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the client editions of Windows NT. A server computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual machines to one or more networks.

To enable enhanced keyboard and mouse functions for a Hyper-V virtual machine, you need to install: A. Hyper-V Integration Components. B. Keyboard and mouse drivers. C. Microsoft Updates. D. Hyper-V Server.

Answer: A. Hyper-V Integration Components Explanation: To get a virtual machine (VM) to work properly, it's critical to install the Hyper-V integration components. These integration components install agents into a VM that enable a host to successfully back up a VM, recognize when it has gone down, copy and paste data into and out of a VM, and synchronize its clock to the host. These components are important to processing a VM's workload: In effect, their installation reconfigures an operating system to make it "aware" that it has been virtualized, resulting in an "enlightened" OS.

Which is an advantage of 64-bit operating systems over 32-bit operating systems? A. Larger amounts of accessible RAM B. More device drivers C. More compatible applications D. Cheaper hardware

Answer: A. Larger amounts of accessible RAM

You need to secure a server that you have been working on without disrupting the work of other employees in your company. What should you do? A. Log off the server B. Hibernate the server C. Restart the server D. Shut down the server

Answer: A. Log off the server

The minimum permission needed to delete other users' documents from a print queue is ______________. A. Manage Documents B. Manage Printers C. Deny D. Print

Answer: A. Manage Documents Explanation: "Manage documents". If you have this permission, you can manage all jobs for a printer that are waiting in the print queue, including documents or files that are being printed by other users. With "print" permissions you can only delete your own documents. Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-vista/what-are-printer-permissions

You want to receive a notification when your server's processor exceeds 80 percent utilization. You should create a: A. Performance Alert. B. Scheduled task. C. Performance Log. D. Performance counter. E. System Event.

Answer: A. Performance Alert.

You need to centralize administration of print servers and network printers. What should you use? A. Print Management B. Printers and Faxes C. Device Manager D. Print queue

Answer: A. Print Management Explanation: There are two primary tools that you can use to administer a Windows print server in Windows Server 2008: Server Manager and Print Management.

The default security permission assigned to Everyone when a new share is created is _______________________. A. Read B. Full control C. None D. Change.

Answer: A. Read

Which snap-in is used to create files that contain information about the state of your server's resources at a given time? A. Reliability and Performance Monitor B. Event Viewer C. Services D. System Monitor

Answer: A. Reliability and Performance Monitor Explanation: Applies To: Windows Server 2008/2012 Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that combines the functionality of previous stand-alone tools including Performance Logs and Alerts, Server Performance Advisor, and System Monitor. It provides a graphical interface for customizing performance data collection and Event Trace Sessions.

You are using the Services Management Console. Which term is used to describe a service that is running? A. Started B. Activated C. Engaged D. Working

Answer: A. Started

Which two features are advantages of upgrading to Windows Server Enterprise Edition? (Choose two) A. Support for additional processors B. Support for additional RAM C. Support for additional RAID levels D. Support for additional disk partition

Answer: A. Support for additional processors, B. Support for additional RAM Explanation: Example: Windows Server 2008 Standard -processor sockets: Up to 4 -Physical Memory: 32 GB Example: Windows Server 2008 Enterprise -Processor sockets: Up to 8 -Physical Memory: 2 TB

Which task is executed during the Power-On Self Test (POST)? A. The amount of system RAM is detected. B. The Master Boot Record is created. C. The operating system is initialized. D. Disk file systems are detected.

Answer: A. The amount of system RAM is detected. Explanation: The principal duties of the main BIOS during POST are as follows: - verify CPU registers - verify the integrity of the BIOS code itself - verify some basic components like DMA, timer, interrupt controller (A) find, size, and verify system main memory initialize BIOS pass control to other specialized BIOSes (if and when required) - identify, organize, and select which devices are available for booting

The manager at the coffee house where you work asks for advice on adding storage to the store's server to perform backups. The additional storage must meet the following requirements: - Hold at least 600 GB - Be reasonably priced - Be reasonably fast Which solution should you recommend? A. USB hard drive B. USB flash drive C. SCSI tape backup system D. External SCSI hard drive

Answer: A. USB hard drive

To protect a server in case of a blackout, you should use a/an: A. Uninterruptible Power Supply. B. Dedicated surge protector. C. Power Supply Unit. D. Redundant power supply. E. Hot-swappable power supply. F. Line conditioner.

Answer: A. Uninterruptible Power Supply.

Your relative is the owner of Humongous Insurance, and you provide part time IT support for the company's Windows desktops and servers. All of its computers are on a private network behind a firewall. Because you are going away to college, you need a secure method to manage the servers and desktops. Which two Windows 2008 R2 features should you use? (Choose two.) A. VPN Server B. Hyper-V C. Remote Desktop D. Active Directory Federation Services E. FTP Server

Answer: A. VPN Server, C. Remote Desktop Explanation: You can set VPN Server or Remote Desktop to securely access the network remotely.

Which two services should you use to ensure that your networked computers and servers automatically maintain the latest security patches? (Choose two.) A. Windows Server Update Service B. Update command in Programs and Features C. Microsoft Windows Update D. Driver Update in Hardware Properties

Answer: A. Windows Server Update Service, C. Microsoft Windows Update Explanation: A: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are running the Windows operating system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to computers in their network. C: Windows Update keeps a Windows PC up to date.

____________________________________________ uses system processing resources. A. Windows-based RAID B. RAID 10 C. RAID 6 D. Hardware-based RAID

Answer: A. Windows-based RAID

Which two files are executed so that a Windows 2008 R2 server boots into the operating system? (Choose two.) A. winload.exe B. ntldr.exe C. bootmgr.exe D. boot.ini

Answer: A. winload.exe, C. bootmgr.exe Explanation: A: The Windows Boot Manager invokes winload.exethe operating system boot loaderto load the operating system kernel executive (ntoskrnl.exe) and core device drivers. In that respect, winload.exe is functionally equivalent to the operating system loader function of NTLDR in prior versions of Windows NT. C: Windows Vista and later operating systems replaced the NTLDR with the Windows Boot Manager (BOOTMGR). The BOOTMGR file is located in the 100 MB system partition automatically created during the Window 7 and Server 2008 R2 installation. In Windows Vista and Server 2008 the file is located in the System Partition. Once the computer is started the boot sector loads the BOOTMGR which in turn looks for an active partition. Incorrect: Not B, not D: In legacy operating systems the boot sector (boot strap loader) loads the NTLDR that would then look for the BOOT.INI. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Windows_Vista_startup_process

Which two firmware platforms does the Boot Configuration Data store support? (Choose two.) A. UEFI B. RAID C. eSATA D. BIOS

Answer: A: UEFI, D: BIOS Explanation: On EFI-based operating systems, the BCD registry file is located in the \EFI\Microsoft\Boot\ folder on the EFI system partition. On BIOS-based operating systems, the BCD registry file is located at \Boot\Bcd on the active partition. Incorrect: RAID and eSATA are not firmware platforms. Reference: http://sourcedaddy.com/windows-7/boot-configuration-data.html

Which should you use to manage the working environments of users and computers in an Active Directory infrastructure? A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts B. Group Policy Objects C. Builtin containers D. Global security groups

Answer: B Explanation: A Group Policy Object (GPO) is a collection of settings that define what a system will look like and how it will behave for a defined group of users or computers.

Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application? A. Windows Server External Connector License B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License D. Remote Server Application License

Answer: B Explanation: Remote Desktop Services Client Access License is used to access applications on a Windows server.

The purpose of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is to provide a: A. Set of standards for networking protocols. B. Set of best practices for managing IT services. C. Downloadable library of hardware drivers. D. Technical library of Windows infrastructure services.

Answer: B Explanation: The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of practices for IT service management (ITSM) that focuses on aligning IT services with the needs of business.

You need to install a driver. Where should you get the driver? A. The Task Manager B. The device manufacturer C. The system firmware D. The Hardware Compatibility List

Answer: B Explanation: The device manufacturer should provide a driver.

You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2008 R2 server. Some users store vital information on their local hard drives. You need to perform nightly backups that include this data. Which built-in process should you use? A. Agent backup B. Folder redirection C. Local backup schedules D. System state data backup

Answer: B Explanation: Use folder redirection to store the vital information on a network share instead. Then it will be easy to backup this data. Note: Folder Redirection lets administrators redirect the path of a folder to a new location. The location can be a folder on the local computer or a directory on a network file share. Users can work with documents on a server as if the documents were based on a local drive. Reference: Folder Redirection Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732275.aspx

Which two specifications are included in Microsoft's hardware requirements for Windows Server? (Choose two) A. USB ports B. RAM C. Processor speed D. Disk I/O

Answer: B,C Explanation: Example: System Requirements for Windows Server 2012 Essentials * CPU socket 1.4 GHz (64-bit processor) or faster for single core 1.3 GHz (64-bit processor) or faster for multi-core * Memory (RAM) 2 GB * Hard disk 160 GB hard disk with a 60 GB system partition

What are two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.) A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site. B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to. C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object. D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy.

Answer: B,D Explanation: Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge. * (B) Replace mode replaces User Configuration with the one applied to the Computer. * (D) In Merge mode, if there is a conflict, for example two policies provide different values for the same configuration setting, the Computers policy has more privilege compared to the user policy. Reference: http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group- policy.html

Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file? A. . xml B. . vhd C. ,vud D. . vsd

Answer: B. . vhd Explanation: * . VHD (file format) VHD (Virtual Hard Disk) is a file format which represents a virtual hard disk drive (HDD). It may contain what is found on a physical HDD, such as disk partitions and a file system, which in turn can contain files and folders. It is typically used as the hard disk of a virtual machine. * Virtual Hard Disk format was initially used only by Microsoft Virtual PC (and Microsoft Virtual Server). Later however, Microsoft used the VHD format in Hyper-V, the hypervisor- based virtualization technology of Windows Server 2008.

You have an Active Directory infrastructure that contains one domain and seven domain controllers. How many forests can you have without creating any trusts? A. 0 B. 1 C. 7 D. 8

Answer: B. 1 Explanation: In a Windows Server 2003 forest, you can link two disjoined Windows Server 2003 forests together to form a one-way or two-way, transitive trust relationships. A two- way, forest trust is used to form a transitive trust relationship between every domain in both forests.

By default, group policies are first applied to networked computers when the: A. Computer is backed up. B. Computer starts up. C. User accesses a shared drive. D. User runs gpresult.exe.

Answer: B. Computer starts up.

Which should you use to monitor server performance and resource utilization? A. Memory B. Counters C. Boot logs D. RAM

Answer: B. Counters Explanation: Performance Counters, Purpose Counters are used to provide information as to how well the operating system or an application, service, or driver is performing. The counter data can help determine system bottlenecks and fine-tune system and application performance. The operating system, network, and devices provide counter data that an application can consume to provide users with a graphical view of how well the system is performing.

What is the name for a stand-alone digital storage system connected directly to a server or workstation HBA? A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) B. Direct Attached Storage (DAS) C. Network Attached Storage (NAS) D. Storage Area Network (SAN)

Answer: B. Direct Attached Storage (DAS) Explanation: The term HBA applies to a variety of interconnects, it is most commonly used with storage protocols such as Fibre Channel (FC) and serial-attached SCSI (SAS). Note: A host bus adapter (HBA) is a circuit board and/or integrated circuit adapter that provides input/output (I/O) processing and physical connectivity between a host system, or server, and a storage and/or network device. Reference: http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/host-bus-adapter

Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two) A. Shared storage B. Failover C. Network Load Balancing (NLB) D. Shared services

Answer: B. Failover, C. Network Load Balancing (NLB) Explanation: The difference between NLB and Windows Failover Cluster. * An NLB array allows load to be spread amongst all the participating machines. * A failover cluster provides high availability and redundancy, but doesn't spread the load. Only one server is live at any time, but the clustered application(s) can be moved to the other server very quickly. Clustering - Multiple servers that functionally perform as a single unit. A computer cluster is a group of linked computer that work together as one computer.If one of those system fails, the other server continues to run minimal impact to the service. Type of clusters Failover clusters Load balancing clusters

What is one advantage of application virtualization? A. Fewer operating system updates B. Improved collaboration C. Reduced network traffic D. Hardware consolidation

Answer: B. Improved collaboration Explanation: Some of the key benefits of Application Virtualization (App-V )include: * Flexible virtualization: Businesses can connect separately packaged App-V applications, enabling them to communicate with each other and with traditionally installed applications. This gives businesses the best of both worlds, providing isolation reducing conflict and time spent regression testing yet allowing applications to interact and communicate when needed. * An integrated platform * Powerful management of virtualized applications Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/enterprise/products-and- technologies/mdop/app-v.aspx

You manage a company's Active Directory. You need to delegate the control of a branch office to a set of administrators. Where would you place the users and computers that belong to the branch office? A. In a distribution group B. In an Organizational Unit C. In the root of the domain D. In the Built-in container

Answer: B. In an Organizational Unit

Which of the following allows detailed graphical administration of an IIS 7.5 webserver? A. AppCmd.exe B. Inetmgr.exe C. Server Manager D. HyperV

Answer: B. Inetmgr.exe Explanation: inetmgr.exe is a command to launch IIS server from a windows prompt. IIS Manager enables you to configure Internet Information Services (IIS). The IIS Manager is the graphical user interface of IIS, Microsoft's web server.

Which two locations can a Windows Server be backed up to? (Choose two) A. Network router B. Local drive C. Local DFS root share D. Remote share folder

Answer: B. Local drive, D. Remote share folder Explanation: A backup is an active copy of the system or files that you are using. It is distinguished from an archive, which is the storing of data that is no longer in active use. Backups fall into two main categories: file and image. File backup software will back up whichever files you designate by either letting you include files you wish backed up or by excluding files you don't want backed up, or both. An image backup, sometimes called a disaster recovery backup or a system clone, is useful if you need to recreate your system on a new drive or computer. The destination for your backup could be another drive on your computer, an attached drive, a network-attached drive (NAS), or the cloud.

You manage a Workgroup. You need to create a group for print administrators. Which type of group should you create? A. Domain Local group B. Local group C. Global group D. Universal group

Answer: B. Local group Explanation: Many organizations deploy Windows servers and workstations in workgroup configurations and for these organizations, local group policies can play a vital role in simplifying Windows system administration. Read more at http://tech.sportstoday.us/windows_server/windows-server-2008-r2--- planning-workgroup-and-standalone-local-group-policy- configuration.aspx#iV1QJMxpiO0FVQyk.99

A record of specific aspects of system performance over time is referred to as a/an: A. Threshold B. Log C. Event D. Alert

Answer: B. Log Explanation: Working with Performance Logs Applies To: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012, Windows Vista You can view log files or log data provided by a database in Performance Monitor to see a visual representation of performance data collected by Data Collector Sets.

Which file storage system can be used on a Windows Server? A. NFS B. NTFS C. EXT3 D. FAT16

Answer: B. NTFS Explanation: NTFS (New Technology File System) is a proprietary file system developed by Microsoft. Starting with Windows NT 3.1, it is the default file system of the Windows NT family. https://technet.microsoft.com/pt-pt/library/cc781134(v=ws.10).aspx

A domain controller that is designated to perform a set of specialized domain controller tasks is commonly referred to as a/an: A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server B. Operations Master C. Organizational Unit D. Primary domain controller

Answer: B. Operations Master Explanation: Operations Master Roles The five operations master roles are assigned automatically when the first domain controller in a given domain is created.

Settings from the ___________ Group Policy Object are processed last during logon. A. Site B. Organizational Unit C. Domain D. Local

Answer: B. Organizational Unit Explanation: Group Policy settings are processed in the following order: 1. Local Group Policy object 2. Site 3. Domain 4. Organizational Unit Reference: Group Policy processing and precedence https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc785665%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer? A. 500 GB of free hard disk space B. Printer Device Drivers C. 1 GB of RAM D. Administration tools

Answer: B. Printer Device Drivers

You need to centralize management of network printers. You also need to enable users to choose a printer based on location. What should you do? A. Create multiple print servers B. Publish the printers in Active Directory C. Set up Web printing D. Create a printer pool

Answer: B. Publish the printers in Active Directory Explanation: Publishing your shared printers in Active Directory can make locating printers across a network more efficient for your users.

Which RAID level can consist of two disks and provides redundancy? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10

Answer: B. RAID 1

You notice frequent writes to the page file. Which should you monitor to determine the cause? A. CPU B. RAM C. Network D. Hard disk

Answer: B. RAM Explanation: When the RAM is full the page file is used as virtual RAM.

What are three benefits of performing a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2? (Choose three.) A. Option to upgrade to a Full Server installation B. Reduced maintenance C. Reduced attack surface D. Enhanced installation GUI E. Lower disk space requirement

Answer: B. Reduced maintenance, C. Reduced attack surface, E. Lower disk space requirement Explanation: Benefits of Server Core: * Reduced servicing. Because Server Core installs only what is required for a manageable DHCP, File, DNS, Media Services, and Active Directory server, less servicing is required. * Reduced management. Because less is installed on a Server Core-based server, less management is required. * Reduced attack surface. Because there is less running on the server, there is less attack surface. * Less disk space required. Server Core requires about 3.4GB to install. Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee391628%28v=vs.85%29.aspx

You need to manage a Windows Server 2008 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console. What should you install on the client computer? A. Remote Assistance B. Remote Server Administration Tools C. Windows Server Resource Kit D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server

Answer: B. Remote Server Administration Tools Explanation: Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

You need to see what effect the applied group policies are having on an individual user or computer. What should you use? A. Local Users and Groups B. Resultant Set of Policy C. Local Security Policy D. Effective Permissions

Answer: B. Resultant Set of Policy

You need to assign permissions to access resources. Which type of group should you use? A. Workgroup B. Security group C. Organizational group D. Distribution group

Answer: B. Security group Explanation: security groups control access to the Workgroup server's functionality.

You manage the servers for the School of Business at your university. The school has a Hyper-V server that runs three virtual machines (VMs). Each VM runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to apply the latest Windows server updates to each of the VMs. You need to be able to revert the servers back to their original state before applying the updates. Which Microsoft Virtualization feature should you use? A. Live Migration B. Snapshots C. VHD Virtual Hard Disks D. Failover Cluster

Answer: B. Snapshots Explanation: Snapshots provide a fast and easy way to revert the virtual machine to a previous state.

You are logged in as an administrator. You need to recover company documents created by a person who has left the company. You get an "Access Denied" message when you try to access the folder. What is the first step you should take to access the documents? A. Disable inheritance B. Take ownership C. Enable sharing D. Remove the "Read-Only" Attribute E. Enable offline files

Answer: B. Take ownership Explanation: The owner of the object controls how permissions are set on the object and to whom permissions are granted. The Take Ownership permission on an object or the Restore files and directories user right are the minimum requirements to complete this procedure. To take ownership of a file or folder: -Open Windows Explorer, and then locate the file or folder you want to take ownership of. -Right-click the file or folder, click Properties, and then click the Security tab. -Click Advanced, and then click the Owner tab. -Click Edit, and then do one of the following: -(Optional) To change the owner of all subcontainers and objects within the tree, select the Replace owner on subcontainers and objects check box. File and folder owner: The owner of an object controls how permissions are set on the object and to whom permission are granted. If for some reason you have been denied access to a file or folder, you need to reset the permission by taking ownership on the file or folder and modifying the permissions All administrators automatically have the take ownership permission on all NTFS objects

You need to control which Microsoft Office updates are automatically deployed to client computers. Which tool should you use? A. Microsoft Office SharePoint Services (MOSS) B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) C. Windows Update D. Microsoft Office Update

Answer: B. WSUS Explanation: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are running the Windows operating system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to computers in their network.

Which tool enables an administrator to centralize the distribution of Microsoft security updates? A. Microsoft Security Response Center (MSRC) B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) C. Windows Update D. Microsoft Software Assurance E. Microsoft Update

Answer: B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) Explanation: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are running the Windows operating system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to computers in their network.

Question No : 139 You are an IT technician for a company that has an environment consisting entirely of Windows 2008 Server R2 and Windows 7 laptops. You need to establish a secure method that allows employees to work remotely but still have access to the internal network resources. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Choose two.) A. Offline Files B. DirectAccess C. Network Access Protection (NAP) D. Virtual Private Network (VPN) E. DFS Namespace

Answer: B: DirectAccess, D. VPN Explanation: B: DirectAccess, also known as Unified Remote Access, is a VPN-like technology that provides intranet connectivity to client computers when they are connected to the Internet. D: The remote users can get secure remote access through VPN. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DirectAccess

What should you use to prevent power spikes from harming a server? A. Power supply unit B. Hot-swappable power supply C. Dedicated surge protector D. Line conditioner

Answer: C Explanation: Dedicated surge protectors protect specific items, such as servers, from surges. A surge occurs when too much electricity (technically too much voltage) flows through to the item. Reference: http://romitti.com/2015/02/dedicated-surge-protectors/

You need to apply a Windows Server 2008 group policy. You also need to prevent policies that are applied at lower levels from affecting this new policy. What should you do? A. Set the policy to Loopback B. Set the permission to Full Control C. Select the Enforced policy link setting D. Select the Enabled policy link setting

Answer: C Explanation: Example: To enforce a Group Policy object link ? In the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) console tree, double-click the forest containing the domain, site, or organizational unit (OU) containing the link you want to enforce, and then do one of the following: ? Right-click the GPO link, and then click Enforced to enable or disable enforcing the link. A check mark next to Enforced indicates that the link is enforced.

The _______________________________ log in Event Viewer shows information regarding server reboots. A. Application B. Security C. System D. Setup

Answer: C Explanation: System logs include system events such as server reboots.

You need to ensure that Active Directory can be recovered in case of a server failure. Your backup must include the: A. Shared drives B. Page File C. System State D. Computer name

Answer: C Explanation: The System State data includes Active Directory and all other system components and services on which Active Directory is dependent.

Users report that they are unable to print. What should you do first? A. Verify that the Print Spooler Service is running. B. Pause the Print Spooler service. C. Restart the Print Spooler service. D. Disable the Print Spooler Service.

Answer: C Explanation: Try to restart the Print Spooler.

You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the group to access resources in any domain in the forest. Which type of group should you create? A. Workgroup B. Local group C. Universal group D. Global group E. Domain Local group

Answer: C Explanation: Universal Group: * Group can include as members Accounts from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides * Global groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides * Universal groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides * Group can be assigned permissions in Any domain or forest

Which technology provides both e-mail and database services? A. Windows Server Enterprise Edition B. Microsoft Office Communications Server C. Windows Small Business Server D. Microsoft Project Server

Answer: C Explanation: Windows Small Business Server is available in Essentials, Standard, and Premium editions. Essentials is a scaled down version for 1-25 users, both the other editions are based on the Windows Server codebase and include Microsoft Exchange Server mail server, Internet Information Services (IIS) web server, Windows SharePoint Services for collaboration, Microsoft Office Outlook 2003 email client (not included in 2008), Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS), Windows Server Update Services for update management across the network, and a Fax server. Up to SBS 2003, the Premium edition also included Microsoft SQL Server, Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration Server and Microsoft Office FrontPage 2003.

Where are domain user accounts managed in Windows Server? A. Local Users and Groups console B. Control Panel C. Active Directory Users and Computers D. Active Directory Sites and Services

Answer: C. Active Directory Users and Computers

You are an IT intern for Tailspin Toys. Your manager attends a conference out of town and wants you to perform routine maintenance directly on a Windows 2008 R2 server console. Because you have restricted access, you need your manager to enter credentials at a UAC prompt in your session. What should you do? A. Have your manager use Server Manager to connect to the server. B. Have your manager use Remote Administration to connect to the server. C. Send a Remote Assistance request to your manager. D. Have your manager use Remote Desktop to connect to the server.

Answer: C Explanation: With Remote Assistance the manager can take control of your computer and enter the password. Note: Remote Assistance enables a trusted person (a friend, support person, or IT administrator) to remotely and actively assist someone with a computer problem. The helper (also called an expert) can view the screen of the user requesting assistance and offer advice. With the permission of the user, the helper can take control of the user's computer and perform tasks remotely. Reference: Administering Remote Assistance https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb456978.aspx

What is required to create a volume mount point? A. A dynamic disk B. RAID 1 implementation C. An NTFS file system volume or partition D. Extended volumes

Answer: C. An NTFS file system volume or partition Explanation: A volume mount point can be placed in any empty folder of the host NTFS volume.

What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 5? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

Answer: C. 3 Explanation: You would need two disks for data and one for parity.

To change the boot device order of a computer, you should use: A. Device Manager. B. Disk Management. C. BIOS settings. D. Computer Policy.

Answer: C. BIOS settings. Explanation: Example: Change the Boot Order in BIOS Turn on or restart your computer and watch for a message during the POST about a particular key, usually Del or F2, that you'll need to press to ...enter SETUP. Press this key as soon as you see the message. Etc

Power On Self Test (POST) runs when a computer first boots. Which component software issues this test? A. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor B. Northbridge On Board Chip C. Basic Input/Output System D. Southbridge On Board Chip

Answer: C. Basic Input/Output System Explanation: The four main functions of a PC BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). POST - Test the computer hardware and make sure no errors exist before loading the operating system. Bootstrap Loader - Locate the operating system. If a capable operating system is located, the BIOS will pass control to it. BIOS drivers - Low level drivers that give the computer basic operational control over your computer's hardware. BIOS or CMOS Setup - Configuration program that allows you to configure hardware settings including system settings such as computer passwords, time, and date. Reference: http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/b/bios.htm

One advantage of a SAN is that it: A. Can be located either inside or outside the server. B. Provides USB and Firewire connectivity. C. Consolidates storage space for servers. D. Encrypts all files.

Answer: C. Consolidates storage space for servers. Explanation: A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated, block level data storage.

To convert a disk from dynamic to basic, you must first: A. Mirror all disk volumes. B. Connect the disk to a different controller. C. Delete all disk volumes. D. Format all disk volumes in the NTFS file system.

Answer: C. Delete all disk volumes. Explanation: To change a dynamic disk back to a basic disk using the Windows interface ? Back up all volumes on the disk you want to convert from dynamic to basic. ? In Disk Management, right-click each volume on the dynamic disk you want to convert to a basic disk, and then click Delete Volume for each volume on the disk. ? When all volumes on the disk have been deleted, right-click the disk, and then click Convert to Basic Disk.

Services that are required to enable another service to run are referred to as service: A. Roots B. Prerequisites C. Dependencies D. Parents E. Hosts

Answer: C. Dependencies Explanation: Some services have dependency services that do not start until their dependency services start first.

You install a new Windows Server 2008 R2 server for your school athletic department. The installation completes without errors. However, the new server is unable to communicate with the network. After checking cable connections and network configuration, you find that no network connections are listed in the Control Panel/Network Connections applet. What should you use to investigate a potential problem with the network adapter driver? A. Network and Sharing Center B. Control Panel/Network Connections C. Device Manager D. Server Manager/WMI Control

Answer: C. Device Manager Explanation: The Device Manager is a Control Panel applet in Microsoft Windows operating systems. It allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. When a piece of hardware is not working, the offending hardware is highlighted for the user to deal with. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Device_Manager

By default, which group can create and link Group Policy Objects? A. Authenticated Users B. Domain Users C. Domain Administrators D. Local Administrators

Answer: C. Domain Administrators Explanation: The Domain Administrators are the only people who can create GPOs by default.

Active Directory __________________________ can only be assigned permissions to resources within the same domain but can have members from other domains. A. Global groups B. Universal groups C. Domain local groups D. Distribution groups

Answer: C. Domain local groups Explanation: Distributions groups are used as recipients of email messages. Domain local groups: * Member permissions can be assigned only within the same domain as the parent domain local group * Group can include as member: Accounts from any domain Global groups from any domain Universal groups from any domain Reference: Group scope https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755692%28v=ws.10%29.aspx Domain local groups but only from the same domain as the parent domain local group

Disk mirroring occurs when data is: A. Duplicated on the same disk. B. Backed up by using parity. C. Duplicated on separate disks. D. Split between disks.

Answer: C. Duplicated on separate disks.

You need to find a list of specific events. What should you do? A. Export the events to a .doc file. B. Clear the log by saving it. C. Filter by creating a custom view. D. Use the Search menu option.

Answer: C. Filter by creating a custom view. Explanation: Quickly Filter Event Logs in Windows Server 2008 The Event Viewer automatically creates several filtered views of the event logs. Filtered views are listed under the Custom Views node.

Your network includes Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 domain controllers. You need to ensure that group policy change are applied immediately. Which tool should you use on the client computer? A. Groupware B. Windows update C. GPUpdate D. Policy Editor

Answer: C. GPUpdate Explanation: GPUpdate Refreshes local and Active Directory-based Group Policy settings, including security settings.

Distributed File System (DFS) is used to: A. Delegate permissions to a global distribution group. B. Implement parity. C. Group shared folders from different servers. D. Configure spanned and extended volumes.

Answer: C. Group shared folders from different servers. Explanation: Distributed File System (DFS) is a set of client and server services that allow an organization using Microsoft Windows servers to organize many distributed SMB file shares into a distributed file system. DFS provides location transparency and redundancy to improve data availability in the face of failure or heavy load by allowing shares in multiple different locations to be logically grouped under one folder, or DFS root.

Settings from which group policy object are processed first during logon? A. Domain B. Organizational Unit C. Local D. Site

Answer: C. Local Explanation: Group Policy settings are processed in the following order: 1. Local Group Policy object: Each computer has exactly one Group Policy object that is stored locally. This processes for both computer and user Group Policy processing. 2. Site: Any GPOs that have been linked to the site that the computer belongs to are processed next. Processing is in the order that is specified by the administrator, on the Linked Group Policy Objects tab for the site in Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). The GPO with the lowest link order is processed last, and therefore has the highest precedence. 3. Domain: Processing of multiple domain-linked GPOs is in the order specified by the administrator, on the Linked Group Policy Objects tab for the domain in GPMC. The GPO with the lowest link order is processed last, and therefore has the highest precedence. 4. Organizational units: GPOs that are linked to the organizational unit that is highest in the Active Directory hierarchy are processed first, then GPOs that are linked to its child organizational unit, and so on. Finally, the GPOs that are linked to the organizational unit that contains the user or computer are processed. Reference: Order of processing settings https://technet.microsoft.com/sv-se/library/cc778890%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

You enable Remote Desktop. Which group will be granted access by default? A. Domain users group B. Remote access security group C. Local administrators group D. Local users group

Answer: C. Local administrators group Explanation: Configure Remote Desktop Access on Windows 7 Systems Remote Desktop is not enabled by default. You must specifically enable it to allow remote access to the workstation. When it is enabled, any member of the [local] Administrators group can connect to the workstation. Other users must be placed on a remote access list to gain access to the workstation.

The system partition on a Windows Server must always be installed to a: A. Dynamic disk. B. Simple volume. C. NTFS volume. D. FAT32 volume.

Answer: C. NTFS volume.

An external storage unit that is self-contained and provides shared file-level access is referred to as: A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI). B. Storage Area Network (SAN). C. Network Attached Storage (NAS). D. Direct Attached Storage (DAS).

Answer: C. Network Attached Storage (NAS) Explanation: Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to a heterogeneous group of clients. NAS not only operates as a file server, but is specialized for this task either by its hardware, software, or configuration of those elements. NAS is often manufactured as a computer appliance a specialized computer built from the ground up for storing and serving files rather than simply a general purpose computer being used for the role.

Which disk types can be used for internal storage? A. SAN/iSCSI B. NFS/Distributed File System (DFS) C. PATA/SATA/SCSI D. NAS/Fiber-channel

Answer: C. PATA/SATA/SCSI

A small law firm hires you to set up its first file server. You decide to install Windows Server 2008 R2 on a custom-built computer purchased from a local computer supplier. Early in the process, the installation prompts for storage drivers. What are two possible ways to provide the drivers to the installation process? (Choose two.) A. Download the drivers, save them to the original installation DVD disk, and restart the installation process. B. Point the installation to a URL on the manufacturer's website. C. Place them in the root directory of a USB flash drive and insert the flash drive into a USB port. D. Burn them to a blank CD and insert it in place of the installation disk.

Answer: C. Place them in the root directory of a USB flash drive and insert the flash drive into a USB port, D. Burn them to a blank CD and insert it in place of the installation disk. Explanation: Example for Windows 7 (handled in a similar way on Server 2008): You might need to update the driver for your PCs storage controller. This driver controls how the hard drive interacts with the rest of the PC. To do this: ? Find the type of storage controller your PC uses by checking the documentation that came with your PC or going to the manufacturers website. ? On a second PC, go to the manufacturer�s website and download the latest driver on a USB flash drive or other removable media. ? Start Windows 7 installation again, and on the Where do you want to install Windows? page, click Load Driver. ? Insert the removable media containing the driver into your PC, and click OK. ? Select the driver from the list of results and then click Next. Follow the instructions on your screen to continue installing Windows 7.

Which RAID level uses parity information to recover data from a failed disk? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10

Answer: C. RAID 5 Explanation: RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with parity. Because data and parity are striped evenly across all of the disks, no single disk is a bottleneck. Striping also allows users to reconstruct data in case of a disk failure. https://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/RAID-5-redundant-array-of-independent-disks

Which technology uses digital certificates for secure communications over the Internet? A. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) B. Internet Service Manager (ISM) C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

Answer: C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

The owner of Fourth Coffee wants to add a new computer to the company network. The owner configures the Host Address for the computer but still cannot connect to the network. Which component should the owner use to connect to the network? A. DNS Server B. DHCP address C. Subnet mask D. Domain name

Answer: C. Subnet mask Explanation: The second item the subnet mask is missing here. It is required for TCP/IP to work. Reference: Understanding TCP/IP addressing and subnetting basics https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/164015

You turn on a computer. What happens first? A. The operating system is loaded. B. The boot sector is accessed. C. The BIOS is loaded. D. The Master Boot Record (MBR) is accessed.

Answer: C. The BIOS is loaded.

You need to access resources located in another forest. Which should you create? A. Child domain B. Distribution group C. Trust D. Organizational unit

Answer: C. Trust A trust is a relationship established between domains that enable users in one domain to be authenticated by a domain controller in the other domain. Source: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mir/2011/06/12/accessing-resources-across-forest-and-achieve-single-sign-on-part1/

Running a system in safe mode: A. protects the system from viruses. B. protects the system from data loss. C. loads a minimum number of drivers. D. prevents unauthorized access.

Answer: C. loads a minimum number of drivers.

Which technology is used to create and manage relational databases? A. Microsoft Exchange Server B. Microsoft Commerce Server C. Microsoft Groove Server D. Microsoft SQL Server

Answer: D Explanation: SQL Server databases are relational.

What is the default port for HTTPS? A. 21 B. 80 C. 135 D. 443

Answer: D Explanation: 443, TCP, Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

Which task can you accomplish by using Organizational Units? A. Apply shared folder permissions to users B. Place different domains in a centralized manageable environment C. Create a secondary Active Directory D. Logically represent a hierarchical structure of your company

Answer: D Explanation: A particularly useful type of directory object contained within domains is the organizational unit. Organizational units are Active Directory containers into which you can place users, groups, computers, and other organizational units. An organizational unit cannot contain objects from other domains. An organizational unit is the smallest scope or unit to which you can assign Group Policy settings or delegate administrative authority. Using organizational units, you can create containers within a domain that represent the hierarchical, logical structures within your organization.

Active Directory user account names ____________________________________. A. Can be from 1 to 256 characters in length B. Can contain numbers and letters but no special characters C. Must be created with a first and last name D. Are not case sensitive.

Answer: D Explanation: Active directory user names are not case sensitive.

Which tool should you use to track real-time system resource utilization? A. System Information B. Component Services C. Device Manager D. Perfmon

Answer: D Explanation: Example: How to use Perfmon to collect Microsoft Windows performance counters Open the WinX menu in Windows 8 and select Run. Type perfmon.exe and hit Enter to open the Performance Monitor. In the left pane, select the User Defined node, right-click on it and select New > Data Collector Set. Etc.

Which storage technology supports speeds up to 16 Gbps? A. Network File System (NFS) B. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) C. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) D. Fibre Channel (FC)

Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel, or FC, is a high-speed network technology (commonly running at 2-, 4-, 8- and 16-gigabit per second rates) primarily used to connect computer data storage. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibre_Channel

Which one of the following allows you to automate the installation of Windows Server 2008 on several servers. A. Microsoft Software Installer (MSI) B. Unattendinstall.exe C. Windows Installer Service D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)

Answer: D Explanation: Windows Deployment Services (WDS) enables you to deploy Windows operating systems over the network, which means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD or DVD. Benefits of Windows Deployment Services include: * Supports deploying images for mixed environments including Windows 7and Windows Server 2008 R2 through Windows 8.1and Windows Server 2012 R2. * Allows network-based installation of Windows operating systems, which reduces the complexity and cost when compared to manual installations. Reference: Windows Deployment Services Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831764.aspx

Which type of additional drivers does the Windows 7 installation phase prompt for? A. Video B. Network C. Use D. Storage

Answer: D Explanation: You might be prompted for the mass storage device driver. When installing Windows 7, you might see one of the following error messages: * No drives were found. Click Load Driver to provide a mass storage driver for installation. * Windows Setup could not configure Windows to run on this computers hardware. Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/windows-7-installation-problem- hard-drive-not-found

You configure Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) to save previous versions of a shared folder. By default, the copies of shared folders are stored in: A. A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device. B. A Distributed File System (DFS) share. C. A failover cluster. D. A local volume.

Answer: D. A local volume Explanation: Shadow Copy technology requires the file system to be NTFS to be able to create and store shadow copies. Shadow Copies can be created on local and external (removable or network) volumes by any Windows component that uses this technology, such as when creating a scheduled Windows Backup or automatic System Restore point.

Enabling additional users to handle administrative tasks for a particular object is referred to as: A. Redirection B. Assignment C. Targeting D. Delegation

Answer: D. Delegation Explanation: In computing Delegation of Control is assigning a person or group specific administrative permissions for an Organizational Unit.

Your backup plan calls for a full backup every Sunday. Every other day of the week, you need to back up only the changes since the last full backup. Which backup type should you use for Tuesday? A. Daily B. Normal C. Copy D. Differential

Answer: D. Differential Explanation: A differential backup is a type of backup that copies all the data that has changed since the last full backup. For example, if a full backup is done on Sunday, Monday's differential backup backs up all the files changed or added since Sunday's full backup. https://searchdatabackup.techtarget.com/definition/differential-backup

Which is used to verify that a secure Web site is legitimate? A. Active Directory B. Enterprise trust C. Private key D. Digital certificate

Answer: D. Digital certificate

Which kind of group is only used for e-mail applications? A. Exchange Admins group B. Universal group C. Security group D. Distribution group

Answer: D. Distribution group Explanation: Example: As an Office 365 Small Business admin, you can create and manage distribution groups for your organization. A distribution group is a collection of two or more people that appears in your organizations address book. When an email message is sent to a distribution group, it goes to all members of the group.

You need to install storage device drivers for a Windows boot partition. When should you do this? A. After you have started Windows for the first time B. Before creation of the RAID array C. During the post-boot phase D. During the installation phase

Answer: D. During the installation phase Explanation: Example: During the first phase of the Windows XP installation, Setup displays the following message at the bottom of the screen: Press F6 if you have to install a third-party SCSI or RAID driver. Press F6 and then follow the instructions to install a mass-storage device driver from your Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM).

What must you install in order to host a Web site on a Windows Server? A. Active Directory Sites and Services B. Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) C. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) D. Internet Information Server (IIS)

Answer: D. Internet Information Server (IIS) Explanation: IIS is a web server software package designed for Windows Server. It is used for hosting websites and other content on the Web. Microsoft's Internet Information Services provides a graphical user interface (GUI) for managing websites and the associated users.

You need to limit what a service can access. You should change the service's: A. Dependencies B. Status C. Startup type D. Logon options

Answer: D. Logon options Explanation: Logon options include: * Log on as: No change: Use this setting to keep the service's logon credentials as previously configured. * Log on as: Local System account: Use this setting to change the service's logon credentials to the Local System account. * Log on as: This account: Use this setting to change the service's logon credentials to a specific local or domain user. This account and Password settings become available once you click this option.

Question No : 141 Which technology is designed to host calendars, contacts, and e-mail on the server? A. Microsoft Host Integration Server B. Microsoft Expression Studio C. Microsoft SQL Server D. Microsoft Exchange Server

Answer: D. Microsoft Exchange Server

You need to grant a set of users permissions to a specific folder. Where should you place the user accounts? A. Domain root B. Security group C. Shared folder D. Organizational Unit

Answer: D. Organizational Unit Explanation: Place the users in an OU. Assign permissions to the OU for the specific folder.

One advantage of application virtualization is: A. Fewer operating system updates. B. Improved collaboration. C. Reduced network traffic. D. Reduced client administrative overhead.

Answer: D. Reduced client administrative overhead. Explanation: Virtualization is not just for the Fortune 500 anymore. SMBs are rapidly adopting virtualization and achieving significant benefits in a number of areas. Specifically, SMBs are seeing improvements in -Time spent on routine IT administrative tasks, -Backup and data protection, -Application availability, -Ability to respond to changing business needs, -Business continuity preparedness, -Company profitability and growth rate

You need to manage your server remotely as if you were seated in front of it. Which tool should you use? A. Remote Desktop Client B. Remote Desktop Session Host C. Remote Desktop Gateway D. Remote Server Administration Tools

Answer: D. Remote Server Administration Tools Explanation: Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

Users report that they are unable to print. You verify that the print spooler service is running. What should you do next? A. Purge the service B. Disable the service C. Pause the service D. Restart the service

Answer: D. Restart the service

You need to troubleshoot network environment problems. First, you define the issues that are most likely causing the symptoms. Then you eliminate each issue until the symptoms disappear. This approach is referred to as: A. Performance troubleshooting B. Specific troubleshooting C. Trial and error troubleshooting D. Systematic troubleshooting

Answer: D. Systematic troubleshooting Explanation: The ability to troubleshoot effectively reduces downtime and increases safety. A Systematic approach brings efficiencies to the process of troubleshooting. Step 1: Observe Behavior Step 2: Define Problem Area Step 3: Identify Possible causes Step 4: Determine Most Probable cause Step 5: Test and Repair Follow-up Reference: http://www.troubleshootingskills.com/how-it-works/systematic-approach/

You need to restart the print spooler on a Windows Server 2008 R2 server. Which tool should you use? A. Devices and Printers B. The Device Manager C. Printer Properties D. The Services console

Answer: D. The Services console Explanation: You can restart a service from the Services applet (available in Administrative Tools).

What is the default location for a new user account in Active Directory? A. The Users Organizational Unit B. The Accounts container C. The Accounts Organizational Unit D. The Users container

Answer: D. The Users container Explanation: In a default installation of an Active Directory domain, user accounts, computer accounts, and groups are put in CN=objectclass containers instead of being put in a more desirable organizational unit class container. Similarly, user accounts, computer accounts, and groups that were created by using earlier-version APIs are put in the CN=Users and CN=computers containers.

You need to automate the installation of Windows Server 2008 on several servers. What should you use? A. unattendinstall.exe B. Microsoft Software Installer (MSI) C. Windows Installer Service D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)

Answer: D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) Explanation: Windows Deployment Services is the updated and redesigned version of Remote Installation Services (RIS). Windows Deployment Services enables you to deploy Windows operating systems over the network, which means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD or DVD.

Disk striping occurs when data is: A. Duplicated on separate disks B. Duplicated on the same disk C. Shared between disks D. Written across multiple disks

Answer: D. Written across multiple disks

What is the minimum Windows Server version on which Hyper-V can be installed? A. 2003 32-bit B. 2003 64-bit C. 2008 32-bit D. 2008 64-bit

Answer: D: 2008 64-bit Explanation: Hyper-V, formerly known as Windows Server Virtualization, is a native hypervisor that enables platform virtualization on x86-64 systems. A beta version of Hyper- V was shipped with certain x86-64 editions of Windows Server 2008, and a finalized version (automatically updated through Windows Update) was released on June 26, 2008.

Question No : 12 You need to make a share hidden. Which symbol should you append to the share name? A. _ B. ! C. @ D. # E. $

Answer: E. $ Explanation: The "$" appended to the end of the share name means that it is a hidden share. Windows will not list such shares among those it defines in typical queries by remote clients to obtain the list of shares. One needs to know the name of an administrative share in order to access it. Not every hidden share is administrative share; in other words, ordinary hidden shares may be created at user's discretion.

True or False: A single Windows 2008 R2 Server may only be assigned a maximum of one operations master role.

Answer: False Explanation: Although you can assign the operations master roles to any domain controller, follow these guidelines to minimize administrative overhead and ensure the performance of Active Directory: --Place the three domain-wide roles on the same domain controller.

True or False: Fibre channel storage requires ethernet to communicate with host machines.

Answer: False. Explanation: Fibre Channel allows variable media types, multiple protocols, and different interconnection topologies.

True or False: Direct attached storage solutions require eSATA connections to attach to a host machine.

Answer: False. Direct attached storage solutions does NOT require eSATA connections to attach to a host machine. Explanation: Key Protocols that are generally used for DAS Connections: eSATA, Fibre Channel, SAS or the Serial Attached SCSI.

True or False: iSCSI storage solutions require a private network to communicate with host machines.

Answer: False. iSCSI storage solutions do NOT require a private network to communicate with host machines. Explanation: iSCSI works by transporting block-level data between an iSCSI initiator on a server and an iSCSI target on a storage device. The iSCSI protocol encapsulates SCSI commands and assembles the data in packets for the TCP/IP layer. Packets are sent over the network using a point-to-point connection. https://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/iSCSI

True or False: Active Directory groups can be used to assign permissions on a shared folder on a server.

Answer: True

True or False: A Windows 2008 R2 Server that has an operations master role must also be a domain controller.

Answer: True A Windows 2008 R2 Server that has an operations master role must also be a domain controller. Active Directory defines five operations master roles: the schema master, domain naming master, relative identifier (RID) master, primary domain controller (PDC) emulator, and infrastructure master. The domain controllers that hold operations master roles are designated to perform specific tasks to ensure consistency and to eliminate the potential for conflicting entries in the Active Directory database. Active Directory is a multimaster enabled database, which provides the flexibility of allowing changes to occur at any domain controller in the forest. However, because it is multimaster enabled, it can also allow conflicting updates that can potentially lead to problems when data is replicated throughout the domain or forest.

True or False: Some operations master roles are assigned per domain, while others only need to be assigned to the forest.

Answer: True. Some operations master roles are assigned per domain, while others only need to be assigned to the forest. Explanation: Although you can assign the operations master roles to any domain controller, follow these guidelines to minimize administrative overhead and ensure the performance of Active Directory: --Leave the two forest-wide roles on a domain controller in the forest root domain. --Place the domain-wide roles on a higher performance domain controller.

Which troubleshooting utility displays all active network configuration values for that device?

Answer: ipconfig Explanation: Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, ipconfig displays Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) and IPv6 addresses, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ipconfig

Which troubleshooting utility shows active TCP connections and ports that the computer is listening to?

Answer: netstat Explanation: netstat ("network statistics") is a command-line tool that displays network connections (both incoming and outgoing), routing tables, and a number of network interface (network interface controller or software-defined network interface) and network protocol statistics. Example: C:\> netstat /a

Which troubleshooting utility verifies IP connectivity with another device by sending an ICMP echo request?

Answer: ping Explanation: Ping is used diagnostically to ensure that a host computer the user is trying to reach is actually operating. Ping works by sending an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Echo Request to a specified interface on the network and waiting for a reply. Ping can be used for troubleshooting to test connectivity and determine response time. Example: C:\> ping 127.0.0.1 https://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/definition/ping

Which troubleshooting utility determines the path taken to a destination by sending an ICMP echo request?

Answer: tracert Explanation: The TRACERT diagnostic utility determines the route to a destination by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to the destination. In these packets, TRACERT uses varying IP Time-To-Live (TTL) values. Because each router along the path is required to decrement the packet's TTL by at least 1 before forwarding the packet, the TTL is effectively a hop counter. When the TTL on a packet reaches zero (0), the router sends an ICMP "Time Exceeded" message back to the source computer. Example: C:\> tracert 11.1.0.1 The output from the command: Tracing route to 11.1.0.1 over a maximum of 30 hops --------------------------------------------------- 1 2 ms 3 ms 2 ms 157.54.48.1 2 75 ms 83 ms 88 ms 11.1.0.67 3 73 ms 79 ms 93 ms 11.1.0.1 https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/314868/how-to-use-tracert-to-troubleshoot-tcp-ip-problems-in-windows

Which of the following must be explicitly enabled to allow for remote management of IIS 7 and above? A. AppCmd.exe B. Inetmgr.exe C. WMSVC D. Remote Desktop Services

Answer:C. WMSVC Remote management of IIS 7.0 and above through Internet Information Services (IIS) Manager must be explicitly enabled. These are the steps for enabling remote administration of your IIS server. 1. Install the Web Management Service (WMSVC). 2. Enable remote connections. 3. Optionally set other configuration, e.g.: a. HTTPS binding (port, IP address, and/or SSL certificate) b. IP and domain restrictions. 4. Start WMSVC, and optionally change the service Startup Type from Manual to Automatic. Starting WMSVC is the last step because WMSVC cannot be configured while running.

You are troubleshooting a permissions issue with the Reports share. You examine the permissions and find that they are the following: NTFS: Marketing=Modify; Accounting=Modify Sharing: Marketing=Change; Accounting=Read Based on these permissions, what level of access does each group have? Select two answers, one for each group. A. Marketing=Read B. Marketing=Modify C. Marketing=Full Control D. Accounting=Read E. Accounting=Modify F. Accounting=Full Control

Answers: B. Marketing=Modify D. Accounting=Read

True or False: An organizational unit administrator requires domain administrator rights.

False

True or False: To organizational unit from different domains can share objects.

False

True or False: An organizational unit can only contain objects within its parent domain.

True

True or False: AppCmd.exe allows detailed command-line administration of an IIS 7.5 webserver.

True. Explanation: AppCmd.exe is the single command line tool for managing IIS 7 and above. It exposes all key server management functionality through a set of intuitive management objects that can be manipulated from the command line or from scripts. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/iis/get-started/getting-started-with-iis/getting-started-with-appcmdexe