N144 - Exam 2 - Practice Questions

A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?

3-1-0-1-0 The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity is 3-1-0-1-0. Using the GPTAL system, this patient's gravidity and parity information is calculated as follows: G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time). T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has had only one pregnancy that resulted in a fetus at term). P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (none). A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one). L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children).

A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by: a. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. Contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. Contractions about 1 minute apart. d. A contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.

a. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less).

A client is experiencing back labor and complains of intense pain in her lower back. Which measure would best support this woman in labor? a. Counterpressure against the sacrum b. Pant-blow (breaths and puffs) breathing techniques c. Effleurage d. Conscious relaxation or guided imagery

a. Counterpressure against the sacrum Counterpressure is steady pressure applied by a support person to the sacral area with the fist or heel of the hand. This technique helps the woman cope with the sensations of internal pressure and pain in the lower back. The pain management techniques of pant-blow, effleurage, and conscious relaxation or guided imagery are usually helpful for contractions per the gate-control theory

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. Early decelerations are the fetuss response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman comprehends that accelerations with fetal movement: a. Are reassuring. b. Are caused by umbilical cord compression. c. Warrant close observation. d. Are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.

a. Are reassuring. Episodic accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being. Umbilical cord compression results in variable decelerations in the FHR. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being and do not warrant close observation. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR.

Which alternative approaches to relaxation have proven successful when working with the client in labor? (Select all that apply.) a. Aromatherapy b. Massage c. Hypnosis d. Cesarean birth e. Biofeedback

a. Aromatherapy b. Massage c. Hypnosis e. Biofeedback Approaches to relaxation can include neuromuscular relaxation, aromatherapy, music, massage, imagery, hypnosis, or touch relaxation. Cesarean birth is a method of delivery, not a method of relaxation.

Which occurrence is associated with cervical dilation and effacement? a. Bloody show b. False labor c. Lightening d. Bladder distention

a. Bloody show As the cervix begins to soften, dilate, and efface, expulsion of the mucous plug that sealed the cervix during pregnancy occurs. This causes rupture of small cervical capillaries. Cervical dilation and effacement do not occur with false labor. Lightening is the descent of the fetus toward the pelvic inlet before labor. Bladder distention occurs when the bladder is not emptied frequently. It may slow down the descent of the fetus during labor.

Which presentation is described accurately in terms of both presenting part and frequency of occurrence? a. Cephalic: occiput; at least 95% b. Breech: sacrum; 10% to 15% c. Shoulder: scapula; 10% to 15% d. Cephalic: cranial; 80% to 85%

a. Cephalic: occiput; at least 95% In cephalic presentations (head first), the presenting part is the occiput; this occurs in 96% of births. In a breech birth, the sacrum emerges first; this occurs in about 3% of births. In shoulder presentations, the scapula emerges first; this occurs in only 1% of births.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurses first priority is to: a. Change the womans position. b. Notify the care provider. c. Assist with amnioinfusion. d. Insert a scalp electrode.

a. Change the womans position. Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, the nurse would continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures, including notifying the care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely reveals variable deceleration. A fetal scalp electrode would provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus; however, this is not a nursing intervention that would alleviate late decelerations, nor is it the nurses first priority.

While developing an intrapartum care plan for the client in early labor, which psychosocial factors would the nurse recognize upon the client's pain experience? (Select all that apply.) a. Culture b. Anxiety and fear c. Previous experiences with pain d. Intervention of caregivers e. Support systems

a. Culture b. Anxiety and fear c. Previous experiences with pain e. Support systems Culture: A woman's sociocultural roots influence how she perceives, interprets, and responds to pain during childbirth. Some cultures encourage loud and vigorous expressions of pain, whereas others value self-control. The nurse should avoid praising some behaviors (stoicism) while belittling others (noisy expression). Anxiety and fear: Extreme anxiety and fear magnify the sensitivity to pain and impair a woman's ability to tolerate it. Anxiety and fear increase muscle tension in the pelvic area, which counters the expulsive forces of uterine contractions and pushing efforts. Previous experiences with pain: Fear and withdrawal are a natural response to pain during labor. Learning about these normal sensations ahead of time helps a woman suppress her natural reactions of fear regarding the impending birth. If a woman previously had a long and difficult labor, she is likely to be anxious. She may also have learned ways to cope and may use these skills to adapt to the present labor experience. Support systems: An anxious partner is less able to provide help and support to a woman during labor. A woman's family and friends can be an important source of support if they convey realistic and positive information about labor and delivery. Although the intervention of caregivers may be necessary for the well-being of the woman and her fetus, some interventions add discomfort to the natural pain of labor (i.e., fetal monitor straps, IV lines).

When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, the nurse recognizes that the most conclusive sign that uterine contractions are effective would be: a. Dilation of the cervix. b. Descent of the fetus. c. Rupture of the amniotic membranes. d. Increase in bloody show.

a. Dilation of the cervix. The vaginal examination reveals whether the woman is in true labor. Cervical change, especially dilation, in the presence of adequate labor indicates that the woman is in true labor. Descent of the fetus, or engagement, may occur before labor. Rupture of membranes may occur with or without the presence of labor. Bloody show may indicate slow, progressive cervical change (e.g., effacement) in both true and false labor.

Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the womans position.

a. Early decelerations Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral); variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations.

In assisting with the two factors that have an effect on fetal status (i.e., pushing and positioning), nurses should: a. Encourage the womans cooperation in avoiding the supine position. b. Advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position. c. Encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response. d. Instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.

a. Encourage the womans cooperation in avoiding the supine position. The woman should maintain a side-lying position. The semi-Fowler position is the recommended side-lying position with a lateral tilt to the uterus. The Valsalva maneuver, which encourages the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles, should be avoided. Both the mouth and glottis should be open, letting air escape during the push.

To care for a laboring woman adequately, the nurse understands that the __________ stage of labor varies the most in length? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth

a. First The first stage of labor is considered to last from the onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation of the cervix. The first stage is much longer than the second and third stages combined. In a first-time pregnancy the first stage of labor can take up to 20 hours. The second stage of labor lasts from the time the cervix is fully dilated to the birth of the fetus. The average length is 20 minutes for a multiparous woman and 50 minutes for a nulliparous woman. The third stage of labor lasts from the birth of the fetus until the placenta is delivered. This stage may be as short as 3 minutes or as long as 1 hour. The fourth stage of labor, recovery, lasts about 2 hours after delivery of the placenta.

Which description of the four stages of labor is correct for both definition and duration? a. First stage: onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation; less than 1 hour to 20 hours b. Second stage: full effacement to 4 to 5 cm; visible presenting part; 1 to 2 hours c. Third state: active pushing to birth; 20 minutes (multiparous women), 50 minutes (first-timer) d. Fourth stage: delivery of the placenta to recovery; 30 minutes to 1 hour

a. First stage: onset of regular uterine contractions to full dilation; less than 1 hour to 20 hours Full dilation may occur in less than 1 hour, but in first-time pregnancies it can take up to 20 hours. The second stage extends from full dilation to birth and takes an average of 20 to 50 minutes, although 2 hours is still considered normal. The third stage extends from birth to expulsion of the placenta and usually takes a few minutes. The fourth stage begins after expulsion of the placenta and lasts until homeostasis is reestablished (about 2 hours).

During a patient's physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Hegar's sign. b. McDonald's sign. c. Chadwick's sign. d. Goodell's sign.

a. Hegar's sign. At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occurs; this is called Hegar's sign. McDonald's sign indicates a fast food restaurant. Chadwick's sign is the blue-violet coloring of the cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called Goodell's sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy.

The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.) a. Identification of fetal heartbeat b. Palpation of fetal outline c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement e. Positive hCG test

a. Identification of fetal heartbeat c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement Identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus, and verification of fetal movement are all positive, objective signs of pregnancy. Palpation of fetal outline and a positive hCG test are probable signs of pregnancy. A tumor also can be palpated. Medication and tumors may lead to false-positive results on pregnancy tests.

A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would explain that "true" labor contractions: a. Increase with activity such as ambulation. b. Decrease with activity. c. Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters. d. Alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.

a. Increase with activity such as ambulation. True labor contractions become more intense with walking. False labor contractions often stop with walking or position changes. Rupture of membranes may occur before or during labor. True labor contractions are regular.

When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman's risk for _________________________ has increased. a. Intrauterine infection b. Hemorrhage c. Precipitous labor d. Supine hypotension

a. Intrauterine infection When the membranes rupture, microorganisms from the vagina can ascend into the amniotic sac and cause chorioamnionitis and placentitis. Rupture of membranes (ROM) is not associated with fetal or maternal bleeding. Although ROM may increase the intensity of contractions and facilitate active labor, it does not result in precipitous labor. ROM has no correlation with supine hypotension.

The most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth is: a. Keeping the newborn's airway clear. b. Fostering parent-newborn attachment. c. Drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket. d. Administering eye drops and vitamin K.

a. Keeping the newborn's airway clear.

Signs that precede labor include (Select all that apply): a. Lightening. b. Exhaustion. c. Bloody show. d. Rupture of membranes. e. Decreased fetal movement.

a. Lightening. c. Bloody show. d. Rupture of membranes. Signs that precede labor may include lightening, urinary frequency, backache, weight loss, surge of energy, bloody show, and rupture of membranes. Many women experience a burst of energy before labor. A decrease in fetal movement is an ominous sign that does not always correlate with labor.

The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located: a. Over the uterine fundus. b. On the fetal scalp. c. Inside the uterus. d. Over the mothers lower abdomen.

a. Over the uterine fundus. The tocotransducer monitors uterine activity and should be placed over the fundus, where the most intensive uterine contractions occur. The tocotransducer is for external use.

In relation to primary and secondary powers, the maternity nurse comprehends that: a. Primary powers are responsible for effacement and dilation of the cervix. b. Effacement generally is well ahead of dilation in women giving birth for the first time; they are closer together in subsequent pregnancies. c. Scarring of the cervix caused by a previous infection or surgery may make the delivery a bit more painful, but it should not slow or inhibit dilation. d. Pushing in the second stage of labor is more effective if the woman can breathe deeply and control some of her involuntary needs to push, as the nurse directs.

a. Primary powers are responsible for effacement and dilation of the cervix. The primary powers are responsible for dilation and effacement; secondary powers are concerned with expulsion of the fetus. Effacement generally is well ahead of dilation in first-timers; they are closer together in subsequent pregnancies. Scarring of the cervix may slow dilation. Pushing is more effective and less fatiguing when the woman begins to push only after she has the urge to do so.

Which alterations in the perception of pain by a laboring client should the nurse understand? a. Sensory pain for nulliparous women is often greater than for multiparous women during early labor. b. Affective pain for nulliparous women is usually less than for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labor. c. Women with a history of substance abuse experience more pain during labor. d. Multiparous women have more fatigue from labor and therefore experience more pain.

a. Sensory pain for nulliparous women is often greater than for multiparous women during early labor. Sensory pain is greater for nulliparous women because their reproductive tract structures are less supple. Affective pain is greater for nulliparous women during the first stage but decreases for both nulliparous and multiparous during the second stage. Women with a history of substance abuse experience the same amount of pain as those without such a history. Nulliparous women have longer labors and therefore experience more fatigue.

A woman has just moved to the United States from Mexico. She is 3 months pregnant and has arrived for her first prenatal visit. During her assessment interview you discover that she has not had any immunizations. Which immunizations should she receive at this point in her pregnancy? Choose all that apply. a. Tetanus b. Diphtheria c. Chickenpox d. Rubella e. Hepatitis B

a. Tetanus b. Diphtheria e. Hepatitis B Vaccines consisting of killed viruses may be used. Those that may be administered during pregnancy include tetanus, diphtheria, recombinant hepatitis B, and rabies vaccines. Immunization with live or attenuated viruses is contraindicated during pregnancy because of its potential teratogenicity. Live-virus vaccines include those for measles (rubeola and rubella), chickenpox, and mumps.

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by: a. The response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs). b. Maternal pain control. c. Accelerations in the FHR. d. An FHR above 110 beats/min.

a. The response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs). Fetal well-being during labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to UCs. In general, reassuring FHR patterns are characterized by an FHR baseline in the range of 110 to 160 beats/min with no periodic changes, a moderate baseline variability, and accelerations with fetal movement. Maternal pain control is not the measure used to determine fetal well-being in labor. Although FHR accelerations are a reassuring pattern, they are only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. Although an FHR above 110 beats/min may be reassuring, it is only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. More information would be needed to determine fetal well-being.

Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm c. External monitors in current use d. Fetus with a known heart defect

a. Unruptured membranes In order to apply internal monitoring devices, the membranes must be ruptured. Cervical dilation of 4 cm permits the insertion of fetal scalp electrodes and intrauterine catheter. The external monitor can be discontinued after the internal ones are applied. A compromised fetus should be monitored with the most accurate monitoring devices.

Signs and symptoms that a woman should report immediately to her health care provider include (choose all that apply): a. Vaginal bleeding b. Rupture of membranes c. Heartburn accompanied by severe headache d. Decreased libido e. Urinary frequency

a. Vaginal bleeding b. Rupture of membranes c. Heartburn accompanied by severe headache Vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, and severe headaches are signs of potential complications in pregnancy. Clients should be advised to report these signs to their health care provider. Decreased libido and urinary frequency are common discomforts of pregnancy that do not require immediate health care interventions.

A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have: a. amenorrhea. b. positive pregnancy test. c. Chadwick's sign. d. Hegar's sign.

a. amenorrhea. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are felt by the woman. A positive pregnancy test, the presence of Chadwick's sign, and the presence of Hegar's sign are all probable signs of pregnancy.

The placenta allows exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and fetus by: a. contact between maternal blood and fetal capillaries within the chorionic villi. b. interaction of maternal and fetal pH levels within the endometrial vessels. c. a mixture of maternal and fetal blood within the intervillous spaces. d. passive diffusion of maternal carbon dioxide and oxygen into the fetal capillaries.

a. contact between maternal blood and fetal capillaries within the chorionic villi. Fetal capillaries within the chorionic villi are bathed with oxygen-rich and nutrient-rich maternal blood within the intervillous spaces. The endometrial vessels are part of the uterus. There is no interaction with the fetal blood at this point. Maternal and fetal bloods do not normally mix. Maternal carbon dioxide does not enter into the fetal circulation.

Along with gas exchange and nutrient transfer, the placenta produces many hormones necessary for normal pregnancy. These include: (Select all that apply.) a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). b. insulin. c. estrogen. d. progesterone. e. testosterone.

a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). c. estrogen. d. progesterone. hCG causes the corpus luteum to persist and produce the necessary estrogens and progesterone for the first 6 to 8 weeks. Estrogens cause enlargement of the woman's uterus and breasts; cause growth of the ductal system in the breasts; and, as term approaches, play a role in the initiation of labor. Progesterone causes the endometrium to change, providing early nourishment. Progesterone also protects against spontaneous abortion by suppressing maternal reactions to fetal antigens and reduces unnecessary uterine contractions.

The nurse caring for a pregnant patient knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the patient reports that she has been sleeping: a. in a side-lying position. b. on her back with a pillow under her knees. c. with the head of the bed elevated. d. on her abdomen.

a. in a side-lying position. Optimal circulation is achieved when the woman is lying at rest on her side. Decreased uterine circulation may lead to intrauterine growth restriction. Previously it was believed that the left lateral position promoted maternal cardiac output, enhancing blood flow to the fetus. However, it is now known that the side-lying position enhances uteroplacental blood flow. If a woman lies on her back with the pressure of the uterus compressing the vena cava, blood return to the right atrium is diminished. Although having the head of the bed elevated is recommended and ideal for later in pregnancy, the woman still must maintain a lateral tilt to the pelvis to avoid compression of the vena cava. Many women find lying on her abdomen uncomfortable as pregnancy advances. Side-lying is the ideal position to promote blood flow to the fetus.

A first-time mother at 18 weeks of gestation comes for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit. The patient tells the nurse that she is afraid that she is going into premature labor because she is beginning to have regular contractions. The nurse explains that this is the Braxton Hicks sign and teaches the patient that this type of contraction: a. is painless. b. increases with walking. c. causes cervical dilation. d. impedes oxygen flow to the fetus.

a. is painless. Uterine contractions can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of gestation. Braxton Hicks contractions are regular and painless and continue throughout the pregnancy. Although they are not painful, some women complain that they are annoying. Braxton Hicks contractions usually cease with walking or exercise. They can be mistaken for true labor; however, they do not increase in intensity or frequency or cause cervical dilation. In addition, they facilitate uterine blood flow through the intervillous spaces of the placenta and promote oxygen delivery to the fetus.

A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a: a. primipara. b. primigravida. c. multipara. d. nulligravida.

a. primipara. A primipara is a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a viable fetus. To remember terms, keep in mind: gravida is a pregnant woman; para comes from parity, meaning a viable fetus; primi means first; multi means many; and null means none. A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time. A multipara is a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies with a viable fetus. A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant.

A first-time mother is concerned about the type of medications she will receive during labor. The client is in a fair amount of pain and is nauseated. In addition, she appears to be very anxious. The nurse explains that opioid analgesics are often used along with sedatives. How should the nurse phrase the rationale for this medication combination? a. "The two medications, together, reduce complications." b. "Sedatives enhance the effect of the pain medication." c. "The two medications work better together, enabling you to sleep until you have the baby." d. "This is what your physician has ordered for you."

b. "Sedatives enhance the effect of the pain medication." Sedatives may be used to reduce the nausea and vomiting that often accompany opioid use. In addition, some ataractic drugs reduce anxiety and apprehension and potentiate the opioid analgesic affects. A potentiator may cause two drugs to work together more effectively, but it does not ensure zero maternal or fetal complications. Sedation may be a related effect of some ataractic drugs; however, sedation is not the goal. Furthermore, a woman is unlikely to be able to sleep through transitional labor and birth. Although the physician may have ordered the medication, "This is what your physician has ordered for you" is not an acceptable comment for the nurse to make.

A woman's obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation, and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidy and parity using the GTPAL system? a. 3-1-1-1-3 b. 4-1-2-0-4 c. 3-0-3-0-3 d. 4-2-1-0-3

b. 4-1-2-0-4 The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity is 4-1-2-0-4. The numbers reflect the woman's gravidity and parity information. Using the GPTAL system, her information is calculated as: G: The first number reflects the total number of times the woman has been pregnant; she is pregnant for the fourth time. T: This number indicates the number of pregnancies carried to term, not the number of deliveries at term; only one of her pregnancies has resulted in a fetus at term. P: This is the number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth; the woman has had two pregnancies in which she delivered preterm. A: This number signifies whether the woman has had any abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability; she has not. L: This number signifies the number of children born who are currently living; the woman has four children.

Nurses can help their clients by keeping them informed about the distinctive stages of labor. What description of the phases of the first stage of labor is accurate? a. Latent: Mild, regular contractions; no dilation; bloody show; duration of 2 to 4 hours b. Active: Moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; duration of 3 to 6 hours c. Lull: No contractions; dilation stable; duration of 20 to 60 minutes d. Transition: Very strong but irregular contractions; 8- to 10-cm dilation; duration of 1 to 2 hours

b. Active: Moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; duration of 3 to 6 hours

The nurse caring for a newly pregnant woman would advise her that ideally prenatal care should begin: a. Before the first missed menstrual period b. After the first missed menstrual period c. After the second missed menstrual period d. After the third missed menstrual period

b. After the first missed menstrual period Prenatal care ideally should begin soon after the first missed menstrual period. This offers the greatest opportunities to ensure the health of the expectant mother and her infant. Prior to missing the first menstrual period is much too early for prenatal care. It is unlikely the woman is even aware of the pregnancy. Ideally prenatal visits should begin soon after the first period is missed. After the third missed menstrual period is much too late to begin prenatal care. The woman will have completed the first trimester by that time.

Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that: a. The placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus. b. An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications. c. It is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface. d. The major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.

b. An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications. Active management facilitates placental separation and expulsion, thus reducing the risk of complications. The placenta cannot detach itself from a flaccid (relaxed) uterus. Which surface of the placenta comes out first is not clinically important. The major risk for women during the third stage of labor is after birth hemorrhage.

As relates to fetal positioning during labor, nurses should be aware that: a. Position is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal. b. Birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm below the spine. c. The largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter. d. Engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labor.

b. Birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm below the spine. The station of the presenting part should be noted at the beginning of labor so that the rate of descent can be determined. Position is the relation of the presenting part of the fetus to the four quadrants of the mother's pelvis;station is the measure of degree of descent. The largest diameter usually is the biparietal diameter. The suboccipitobregmatic diameter is the smallest, although one of the most critical. Engagement often occurs in the weeks just before labor in nulliparas and before or during labor in multiparas.

To teach patients about the process of labor adequately, the nurse knows that which event is the best indicator of true labor? a. Bloody show b. Cervical dilation and effacement c. Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet d. Uterine contractions every 7 minutes

b. Cervical dilation and effacement The conclusive distinction between true and false labor is that contractions of true labor cause progressive change in the cervix. Bloody show can occur before true labor. Fetal descent can occur before true labor. False labor may have contractions that occur this frequently; however, this is usually inconsistent.

Through vaginal examination the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated, and the external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every 3.5 to 4 minutes. The nurse would report this as: a. First stage, latent phase. b. First stage, active phase. c. First stage, transition phase. d. Second stage, latent phase.

b. First stage, active phase. The first stage, active phase of maternal progress indicates that the woman is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. During the latent phase of the first stage of labor, the expected maternal progress would be 0 to 3 cm dilation with contractions every 5 to 30 minutes. During the transition phase of the first stage of labor, the expected maternal progress is 8 to 10 cm dilation with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman is completely dilated and experiences a restful period of "laboring down."

Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate? a. Viability—22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight >500 g). b. Full Term—Pregnancy from the beginning of week 39 of gestation to the end of week 40. c. Preterm—Pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks. d. Postdate—Pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks.

b. Full Term—Pregnancy from the beginning of week 39 of gestation to the end of week 40. Full Term is 39 to 40 weeks of gestation. Viability is the ability of the fetus to live outside the uterus before coming to term, or 22 to 24 weeks since LMP. Preterm is 20 to 37 weeks of gestation. Postdate or postterm is a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks or what is considered the limit of full term.

Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester? a. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2) b. Increased pulse rate c. Increased blood pressure d. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

b. Increased pulse rate Between 14 and 20 weeks of gestation, the pulse increases about 10 to 15 beats/min, which persists to term. Splitting of S1 and S2 is more audible. In the first trimester, blood pressure usually remains the same as at the prepregnancy level, but it gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester, both the systolic and the diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Production of RBCs accelerates during pregnancy.

What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause? a. Early deceleration - umbilical cord compression b. Late deceleration - uteroplacental inefficiency c. Variable deceleration - head compression d. Prolonged deceleration - cause unknown

b. Late deceleration - uteroplacental inefficiency Late deceleration is caused by uteroplacental inefficiency. Early deceleration is caused by head compression. Variable deceleration is caused by umbilical cord compression. Prolonged deceleration has a variety of either benign or critical causes.

Nurses alert to signs of the onset of the second stage of labor can be certain that this stage has begun when: a. The woman has a sudden episode of vomiting. b. The nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination. c. Bloody show increases. d. The woman involuntarily bears down.

b. The nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination. The only certain objective sign that the second stage has begun is the inability to feel the cervix because it is fully dilated and effaced. Vomiting, an increase in bloody show, and involuntary bearing down are only suggestions of second-stage labor.

Which statement is the best rationale for assessing maternal vital signs between contractions? a. During a contraction, assessing fetal heart rates is the priority. b. Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions. c. Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions. d. Vital signs taken during contractions are not accurate.

b. Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions. During uterine contractions, blood flow to the placenta temporarily stops, causing a relative increase in the mother's blood volume, which in turn temporarily increases blood pressure and slows pulse. It is important to monitor fetal response to contractions; however, this question is concerned with the maternal vital signs. Maternal blood flow is increased during a contraction. Vital signs are altered by contractions but are considered accurate for that period of time.

What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid? a. Deep yellow color b. Pale, straw color with small white particles c. Acidic result on a Nitrazine test d. Absence of ferning

b. Pale, straw color with small white particles

A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2011. Her expected date of birth (EDB) is: a. September 17, 2011 b. November 7, 2011 c. November 21, 2011 d. December 17, 2011

c. November 21, 2011 Using Nägele's rule, the EDB is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the month of the LMP and adding 7 days + 1 year to the day of the LMP. Therefore, with an LMP of February 14, 2011, her due date is November 21, 2011. September 17, 2011, is too short a period to complete a normal pregnancy. Using Nägele's rule, an EDB of November 7, 2011 is 2 weeks early. December 17, 2011, is almost a month past the correct EDB.

Maternal hypotension is a potential side effect of regional anesthesia and analgesia. What nursing interventions could the nurse use to increase the client's blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the woman in a supine position. b. Place the woman in a lateral position. c. Increase IV fluids. d. Administer oxygen. e. Perform a vaginal examination.

b. Place the woman in a lateral position. c. Increase IV fluids. d. Administer oxygen. Nursing interventions for maternal hypotension arising from analgesia or anesthesia include turning the woman to a lateral position, increasing IV fluids, administering oxygen via face mask, elevating the woman's legs, notifying the physician, administering an IV vasopressor, and monitoring the maternal and fetal status at least every 5 minutes until the woman is stable. Placing the client in a supine position causes venous compression, thereby limiting blood flow to and oxygenation of the placenta and fetus. A sterile vaginal examination has no bearing on maternal blood pressure.

After an emergency birth, the nurse encourages the woman to breastfeed her newborn. The primary purpose of this activity is to: a. Facilitate maternal-newborn interaction. b. Stimulate the uterus to contract. c. Prevent neonatal hypoglycemia. d. Initiate the lactation cycle.

b. Stimulate the uterus to contract.

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to: a. Relieve pain. b. Stimulate uterine contraction. c. Prevent infection. d. Facilitate rest and relaxation.

b. Stimulate uterine contraction.

The nurse has received report regarding her patient in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. The nurse's interpretation of this assessment is that: a. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. b. The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. c. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines. d. The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

b. The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. The correct description of the vaginal examination for this woman in labor is the cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. The sterile vaginal examination is recorded as centimeters of cervical dilation, percentage of cervical dilation, and the relationship of the presenting part to the ischial spines (either above or below).

A new client and her partner arrive on the labor, delivery, recovery, and postpartum unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the babys heart rate should be. Your best response is: a. Dont worry about that machine; thats my job. b. The top line graphs the babys heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor. c. The top line graphs the babys heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are. d. Your doctor will explain all of that later.

b. The top line graphs the babys heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor. The top line graphs the babys heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor educates the partner about fetal monitoring and provides support and information to alleviate his fears. Dont worry about that machine; thats my job discredits the partners feelings and does not provide the teaching he is requesting. The top line graphs the babys heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are provides inaccurate information and does not address the partners concerns about the fetal heart rate. The EFM graphs the frequency and duration of the contractions, not the intensity. Nurses should take every opportunity to provide client and family teaching, especially when information is requested.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Fetal hypoxemia.

b. Umbilical cord compression. Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues.

As relates to the structure and function of the placenta, the maternity nurse should be aware that: a. as the placenta widens, it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients. b. as one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland. c. the placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances such as cigarette smoke to which the mother is exposed. d. optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing.

b. as one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland. The placenta produces four hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy. The placenta widens until week 20 and continues to grow thicker. Toxic substances such as nicotine and carbon monoxide readily cross the placenta into the fetus. Optimal circulation occurs when the woman is lying on her side.

To reassure and educate pregnant patients about changes in their cardiovascular system, maternity nurses should be aware that: a. a pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia requires close medical and obstetric observation, no matter how healthy she otherwise may appear. b. changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term. c. palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations. d. all of the above changes will likely occur.

b. changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term. Auscultatory changes should be discernible after 20 weeks of gestation. A healthy woman with no underlying heart disease does not need any therapy. The maternal heart rate increases in the third trimester, but palpitations may not occur. Auditory changes are discernible at 20 weeks.

Physiologic anemia often occurs during pregnancy as a result of: a. inadequate intake of iron. b. dilution of hemoglobin concentration. c. the fetus establishing iron stores. d. decreased production of erythrocytes.

b. dilution of hemoglobin concentration. When blood volume expansion is more pronounced and occurs earlier than the increase in red blood cells, the woman has physiologic anemia, which is the result of dilution of hemoglobin concentration rather than inadequate hemoglobin. Inadequate intake of iron may lead to true anemia. There is an increased production of erythrocytes during pregnancy.

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is: a. a positive pregnancy test. b. fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. c. Braxton Hicks contractions. d. quickening.

b. fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. A positive pregnancy test and Braxton Hicks contractions are probable signs of pregnancy. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

The maternity nurse understands that vascular volume increases 40% to 45% during pregnancy to: a. compensate for decreased renal plasma flow. b. provide adequate perfusion of the placenta. c. eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother. d. prevent maternal and fetal dehydration.

b. provide adequate perfusion of the placenta. The primary function of increased vascular volume is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta. Renal plasma flow increases during pregnancy. Assisting with pulling metabolic wastes from the fetus for maternal excretion is one purpose of the increased vascular volume.

To reassure and educate pregnant patients about changes in the uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position. b. the woman's increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine anteflexion caused by softening. c. Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester, particularly if the woman tries to exercise. d. the uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus.

b. the woman's increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine anteflexion caused by softening. The softening of the lower uterine segment is called Hegar's sign. Lightening occurs in the last 2 weeks of pregnancy, when the fetus descends. Braxton Hicks contractions become more defined in the final trimester but are not painful. Walking or exercise usually causes them to stop. The uterine souffle is the sound made by blood in the uterine arteries; it can be heard with a fetal stethoscope.

The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states: a. "I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning." b. "My bag of waters just broke." c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together." d. "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now."

c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together." Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Loss of the mucous plug (operculum) often occurs during the first stage of labor or before the onset of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. Spontaneous rupture of membranes often occurs during the first stage of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. The presenting part of the fetus typically becomes engaged in the pelvis at the onset of labor, but this is not the indicator of true labor.

Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse), "How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" The correct response is: a. "The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b. "The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system." c. "The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream." d. "The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen."

c. "The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream." The placenta functions by supplying oxygen and excreting carbon dioxide to the maternal bloodstream. The fetal lungs do not function for respiratory gas exchange in utero. The baby does not simply absorb oxygen from a woman's blood system. Blood and gas transport occur through the placenta. The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical vein and not the artery.

A woman in labor is breathing into a mouthpiece just before the start of her regular contractions. As she inhales, a valve opens and gas is released. She continues to inhale the gas slowly and deeply until the contraction starts to subside. When the inhalation stops, the valve closes. Which statement regarding this procedure is correct? a. The application of nitrous oxide gas is not often used anymore. b. An inhalation of gas is likely to be used in the second stage of labor, not during the first stage. c. An application of nitrous oxide gas is administered for pain relief. d. The application of gas is a prelude to a cesarean birth.

c. An application of nitrous oxide gas is administered for pain relief. A mixture of nitrous oxide with oxygen in a low concentration can be used in combination with other nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic measures for pain relief. This procedure is still commonly used in Canada and in the United Kingdom. Nitrous oxide inhaled in a low concentration will reduce but not eliminate pain during the first and second stages of labor. Nitrous oxide inhalation is not generally used before a caesarean birth. Nitrous oxide does not appear to depress uterine contractions or cause adverse reactions in the newborn.

When assessing a woman in labor, the nurse is aware that the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another is called fetal: a. Lie. b. Presentation. c. Attitude. d. Position.

c. Attitude. Attitude is the relation of the fetal body parts to one another. Lie is the relation of the long axis (spine) of the fetus to the long axis (spine) of the mother. Presentation refers to the part of the fetus that enters the pelvic inlet first and leads through the birth canal during labor at term. Position is the relation of the presenting part to the four quadrants of the mother's pelvis.

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions. The nurse evaluates the woman's understanding of the instructions when she states, "True labor contractions will: a. Subside when I walk around." b. Cause discomfort over the top of my uterus." c. Continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower." d. Remain irregular but become stronger."

c. Continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower." True labor contractions occur regularly, becoming stronger, lasting longer, and occurring closer together. They may become intense during walking and continue despite comfort measures. Typically true labor contractions are felt in the lower back, radiating to the lower portion of the abdomen. During false labor, contractions tend to be irregular and felt in the abdomen above the navel. Typically the contractions often stop with walking or a change of position.

The maternity nurse understands that as the uterus contracts during labor, maternal-fetal exchange of oxygen and waste products: a. Continues except when placental functions are reduced. b. Increases as blood pressure decreases. c. Diminishes as the spiral arteries are compressed. d. Is not significantly affected.

c. Diminishes as the spiral arteries are compressed. Uterine contractions during labor tend to decrease circulation through the spiral electrodes and subsequent perfusion through the intervillous space. The maternal blood supply to the placenta gradually stops with contractions. The exchange of oxygen and waste products decreases. The exchange of oxygen and waste products is affected by contractions.

A nulliparous woman who has just begun the second stage of her labor would most likely: a. Experience a strong urge to bear down. b. Show perineal bulging. c. Feel tired yet relieved that the worst is over. d. Show an increase in bright red bloody show.

c. Feel tired yet relieved that the worst is over. Common maternal behaviors during the latent phase of the second stage of labor include feeling a sense of accomplishment and optimism because "the worst is over." During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the urge to bear down often is absent or only slight during the acme of contractions. Perineal bulging occurs during the transition phase of the second stage of labor, not at the beginning of the second stage. An increase in bright red bloody show occurs during the descent phase of the second stage of labor.

While providing care to a patient in active labor, the nurse should instruct the woman that: a. The supine position commonly used in the United States increases blood flow. b. The "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back. c. Frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort. d. In a sitting or squatting position, her abdominal muscles will have to work harder.

c. Frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort. Frequent position changes relieve fatigue, increase comfort, and improve circulation. Blood flow can be compromised in the supine position; any upright position benefits cardiac output. The "all fours" position is used to relieve backache in certain situations. In a sitting or squatting position, the abdominal muscles work in greater harmony with uterine contractions.

Which minerals and vitamins usually are recommended to supplement a pregnant woman's diet? a. Fat-soluble vitamins A and D b. Water-soluble vitamins C and B6 c. Iron and folate d. Calcium and zinc

c. Iron and folate A healthy diet before conception is the best way to ensure that adequate nutrients are available for the developing fetus. A woman's folate or folic acid intake is of particular concern in the periconception period. Neural tube defects are more common in infants of women with a poor folic acid intake. Depending on the type of contraception used, discontinuing all contraception may not be appropriate advice. Losing weight is not appropriate advice. Depending on the type of medication the woman is taking, continuing its use may not be appropriate.

A woman in labor has just received an epidural block. What is the most important nursing intervention at this time? a. Limit parenteral fluids. b. Monitor the fetus for possible tachycardia. c. Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension. d. Monitor the maternal pulse for possible bradycardia.

c. Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension. The most important nursing intervention for a woman who has received an epidural block is for the nurse to monitor the maternal blood pressure frequently for signs of hypotension. IV fluids are increased for a woman receiving an epidural to prevent hypotension. The nurse also observes for signs of fetal bradycardia and monitors for signs of maternal tachycardia, secondary to hypotension.

The baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) is the average rate during a 10-minute segment. Changes in FHR are categorized as periodic or episodic. These patterns include both accelerations and decelerations. The labor nurse is evaluating the patients most recent 10-minute segment on the monitor strip and notes a late deceleration. This is likely to be caused by which physiologic alteration (Select all that apply)? a. Spontaneous fetal movement b. Compression of the fetal head c. Placental abruption d. Cord around the babys neck e. Maternal supine hypotension

c. Placental abruption e. Maternal supine hypotension Late decelerations are almost always caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Insufficiency is caused by uterine tachysystole, maternal hypotension, epidural or spinal anesthesia, IUGR, intraamniotic infection, or placental abruption. Spontaneous fetal movement, vaginal examination, fetal scalp stimulation, fetal reaction to external sounds, uterine contractions, fundal pressure and abdominal palpation are all likely to cause accelerations of the FHR. Early decelerations are most often the result of fetal head compression and may be caused by uterine contractions, fundal pressure, vaginal examination, and placement of an internal electrode. A variable deceleration is likely caused by umbilical cord compression. This may happen when the umbilical cord is around the babys neck, arm, leg, or other body part or when there is a short cord, a knot in the cord, or a prolapsed cord.

Fetal bradycardia is most common during: a. Intraamniotic infection. b. Fetal anemia. c. Prolonged umbilical cord compression. d. Tocolytic treatment using terbutaline.

c. Prolonged umbilical cord compression. Fetal bradycardia can be considered a later sign of fetal hypoxia and is known to occur before fetal death. Bradycardia can result from placental transfer of drugs, prolonged compression of the umbilical cord, maternal hypothermia, and maternal hypotension. Intraamniotic infection, fetal anemia, and tocolytic treatment using terbutaline would most likely result in fetal tachycardia.

During pregnancy, many changes occur as a direct result of the presence of the fetus. Which of these adaptations meet this criterion? (Select all that apply.) a. Leukorrhea b. Development of the operculum c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening

c. Quickening d. Ballottement e. Lightening Leukorrhea is a white or slightly gray vaginal discharge that develops in response to cervical stimulation by estrogen and progesterone. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements or "feeling life." Quickening is often described as a flutter and is felt earlier in multiparous women than in primiparas. Lightening occurs when the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis. This occurs 2 weeks before labor in the nullipara and at the start of labor in the multipara. Mucus fills the cervical canal creating a plug otherwise known as the operculum. The operculum acts as a barrier against bacterial invasion during the pregnancy. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus is referred to as ballottement.

When assessing the fetus using Leopold maneuvers, the nurse feels a round, firm, movable fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus and a long, smooth surface in the mother's right side close to midline. What is the likely position of the fetus? a. ROA b. LSP c. RSA d. LOA

c. RSA The fetus is positioned anteriorly in the right side of the maternal pelvis with the sacrum as the presenting part. RSA is the correct three-letter abbreviation to indicate this fetal position. The first letter indicates the presenting part in either the right or left side of the maternal pelvis. The second letter indicates the anatomic presenting part of the fetus. The third letter stands for the location of the presenting part in relation to the anterior, posterior, or transverse portion of the maternal pelvis. Palpation of a round, firm fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus would be the fetal head, indicating that the fetus is in a breech position with the sacrum as the presenting part in the maternal pelvis. Palpation of the fetal spine along the mother's right side denotes the location of the presenting part in the mother's pelvis. The ability to palpate the fetal spine indicates that the fetus is anteriorly positioned in the maternal pelvis.

What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? a. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate. b. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs). c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. d. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.

c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor, particularly when the membranes are intact. Short-term changes cannot be measured with this technology. The tocotransducer cannot measure and record the intensity of UCs. The transducer must be repositioned when the woman or fetus changes position.

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction.

c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. During the active pushing (descent) phase, the woman has strong urges to bear down as the presenting part of the fetus descends and presses on the stretch receptors of the pelvic floor. The vulva stretches and begins to bulge encircling the fetal head. Birth of the head occurs when the station is +4. A 0 station indicates engagement. Bloody show occurs throughout the labor process and is not an indication of an imminent birth. Rupture of membranes can occur at any time during the labor process and does not indicate an imminent birth.

The nurse knows that the second stage of labor, the descent phase, has begun when: a. The amniotic membranes rupture. b. The cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination. c. The woman experiences a strong urge to bear down. d. The presenting part is below the ischial spines.

c. The woman experiences a strong urge to bear down. During the descent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman may experience an increase in the urge to bear down. Rupture of membranes has no significance in determining the stage of labor. The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation. Many women may have an urge to bear down when the presenting part is below the level of the ischial spines. This can occur during the first stage of labor, as early as 5-cm dilation.

The nurse should be aware that the partner's main role in pregnancy is to: a. To provide financial support b. To protect the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales" c. To support and nurture the pregnant woman d. To make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments

c. To support and nurture the pregnant woman The partner's main role in pregnancy is to nurture the pregnant woman and respond to her feelings of vulnerability. Although financial support is important, it is not the partner's main role in pregnancy. Protecting the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales" is not the partner's role. The woman's partner can encourage the client to keep all appointments; however, this is not the most important role during the pregnancy.

The nurse caring for a woman in labor understands that prolonged decelerations: a. Are a continuing pattern of benign decelerations that do not require intervention. b. Constitute a baseline change when they last longer than 5 minutes. c. Usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. d. Require the usual fetal monitoring by the nurse.

c. Usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. Prolonged decelerations usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. However, in certain combinations with late and/or variable decelerations, they are a danger sign that requires the nurse to notify the physician or midwife immediately. A deceleration that lasts longer than 10 minutes constitutes a baseline change.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in: a. Early decelerations. b. Fetal dysrhythmias. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. Low maternal blood pressure reduces placental blood flow during uterine contractions and results in fetal hypoxemia. Maternal hypotension is not associated with early decelerations, fetal dysrhythmias, or spontaneous rupture of membranes.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of: a. Altered cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Meconium fluid.

c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

To reassure and educate pregnant patients about changes in their breasts, nurses should be aware that: a. the visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomery's tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles. b. the mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor. c. lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth. d. colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding.

c. lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth. Lactation is inhibited until after birth. The visible blue network of blood vessels is a normal outgrowth of a richer blood supply. The mammary glands are functionally complete by midpregnancy. Colostrum is a creamy, white-to-yellow premilk fluid that can be expressed from the nipples before birth.

When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor, the nurse initially should: a. Tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture. b. Emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop. c. Arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation. d. Ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.

d. Ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor. Assessment begins at the first contact with the woman, whether by telephone or in person. By asking the woman to describe her signs and symptoms, the nurse can begin the assessment and gather data. The amniotic membranes may or may not spontaneously rupture during labor. The patient may be instructed to stay home until the uterine contractions become strong and regular. The nurse may want to discuss the appropriate oral intake for early labor such as light foods or clear liquids, depending on the preference of the patient or her primary health care provider. Before instructing the woman to come to the hospital, the nurse should initiate the assessment during the telephone interview.

In order to care for obstetric patients adequately, the nurse understands that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by: a. Contracting the lower uterine segment. b. Enlarging the internal size of the uterus. c. Promoting blood flow to the cervix. d. Pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.

d. Pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac. Effective uterine contractions pull the cervix upward at the same time that the fetus and amniotic sac are pushed downward. The contractions are stronger at the fundus. The internal size becomes smaller with the contractions; this helps to push the fetus down. Blood flow decreases to the uterus during a contraction.

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. The nurse's initial response would be to: a. Prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. Notify the woman's primary health care provider. c. Document the characteristics of the fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

d. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern. The umbilical cord may prolapse when the membranes rupture. The fetal heart rate and pattern should be monitored closely for several minutes immediately after ROM to ascertain fetal well-being, and the findings should be documented. Rupture of membranes (ROM) may increase the intensity and frequency of the uterine contractions, but it does not indicate that birth is imminent. The nurse may notify the primary care provider after ROM occurs and fetal well-being and the response to ROM have been assessed. The nurse's priority is to assess fetal well-being. The nurse should document the characteristics of the amniotic fluid, but the initial response is to assess fetal well-being and the response to ROM.

A woman who is pregnant for the first time is dilated 3 cm and having contractions every 5 minutes. She is groaning and perspiring excessively; she states that she did not attend childbirth classes. What is the optimal intervention for the nurse to provide at this time? a. Notify the woman's health care provider. b. Administer the prescribed narcotic analgesic. c. Assure her that her labor will be over soon. d. Assist her with simple breathing and relaxation instructions.

d. Assist her with simple breathing and relaxation instructions. By reducing tension and stress, both focusing and relaxation techniques will allow the woman in labor to rest and conserve energy for the task of giving birth. For those who have had no preparation, instruction in simple breathing and relaxation can be given in early labor and is often successful. The nurse can independently perform many functions in labor and birth, such as teaching and support. Pain medication may be an option for this client. However, the initial response of the nurse should include teaching the client about her options. The length of labor varies among individuals, but the first stage of labor is the longest. At 3 cm of dilation with contractions every 5 minutes, this woman has a significant amount of labor yet to experience.

When counseling a client about getting enough iron in her diet, the maternity nurse should tell her that: a. Milk, coffee, and tea aid iron absorption if consumed at the same time as iron. b. Iron absorption is inhibited by a diet rich in vitamin C. c. Iron supplements are permissible for children in small doses. d. Constipation is common with iron supplements.

d. Constipation is common with iron supplements. Constipation can be a problem. Milk, coffee, and tea inhibit iron absorption when consumed at the same time as iron. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption. Children who ingest iron can get very sick and even die.

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. Admitted for extended observation. c. Discharged home with a sedative. d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor. This situation describes a woman with normal assessments who is probably in false labor and will probably not deliver rapidly once true labor begins. These are all indications of false labor without fetal distress. There is no indication that further assessment or cesarean birth is indicated. The patient will likely be discharged; however, there is no indication that a sedative is needed.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should: a. Change the womans position. b. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion. c. Insert an internal monitor. d. Document the finding in the clients record.

d. Document the finding in the clients record. The FHR indicates early decelerations, which are not an ominous sign and do not require any intervention. The nurse should simply document these findings.

Increasing the infusion rate of nonadditive intravenous fluids can increase fetal oxygenation primarily by: a. Maintaining normal maternal temperature. b. Preventing normal maternal hypoglycemia. c. Increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the maternal blood. d. Expanding maternal blood volume.

d. Expanding maternal blood volume. Filling the mothers vascular system makes more blood available to perfuse the placenta and may correct hypotension. Increasing fluid volume may alter the maternal temperature only if she is dehydrated. Most intravenous fluids for laboring women are isotonic and do not provide extra glucose. Oxygen-carrying capacity is increased by adding more red blood cells.

As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: a. Hypotension. b. Cord compression. c. Maternal drug use. d. Hypoxemia.

d. Hypoxemia. Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement b. Early decelerations c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min d. Late decelerations

d. Late decelerations Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they generally are not a concern during normal labor.

You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your client, who is in active labor. Suddenly you see the fetal heart rate (FHR) drop from its baseline of 125 down to 80. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and perform a vaginal examination. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the fetal heart rate remains in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take? a. Scream for help. b. Insert a Foley catheter. c. Start Pitocin. d. Notify the care provider immediately.

d. Notify the care provider immediately. To relieve an FHR deceleration, the nurse can reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen. If oxytocin is infusing, it should be discontinued. If the FHR does not resolve, the primary care provider should be notified immediately. Inserting a Foley catheter is an inappropriate nursing action. If the FHR were to continue in a nonreassuring pattern, a cesarean section could be warranted, which would require a Foley catheter. However, the physician must make that determination. Pitocin may place additional stress on the fetus.

A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has come in for a follow-up visit with her significant other. In order to reassure the client regarding fetal well-being it is best for the nurse to: a. Assess the fetal heart tones with a Doppler stethoscope b. Measure the girth of the woman's abdomen c. Complete an ultrasound examination (sonogram) d. Offer the woman and her family the opportunity to listen to the fetal heart tones

d. Offer the woman and her family the opportunity to listen to the fetal heart tones To provide the parents with the greatest sense of reassurance, the nurse should offer to have the client and her spouse the chance to listen to their baby's heartbeat. Fetal heart tones can be heard with a fetoscope in the first trimester; by the second trimester, the fetal heart rate can be heard with the Doppler stethoscope. This should be performed as part of routine fetal assessment. Abdominal girth is not a valid measure for determining fetal well-being. Fundal height is an important measure that should be determined with precision, with the same technique and positioning of the client used consistently. This should be completed at every prenatal visit. Routine ultrasound examinations are recommended in early pregnancy; they date the pregnancy

Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. Which change persists after birth? a. Epulis b. Chloasma c. Telangiectasia d. Striae gravidarum

d. Striae gravidarum Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, reflect separation within the underlying connective tissue of the skin. They usually fade after birth, although they never disappear completely. An epulis is a red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily. Chloasma, or mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead, especially in dark-complexioned pregnant women. Chloasma usually fades after the birth. Telangiectasia, or vascular spiders, are tiny, star-shaped or branch-like, slightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles usually found on the neck, thorax, face, and arms. They occur as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen. These usually disappear after birth.

Which symptom is considered a first-trimester warning sign and should be reported immediately by the pregnant woman to her health care provider? a. Nausea with occasional vomiting b. Fatigue c. Urinary frequency d. Vaginal bleeding

d. Vaginal bleeding Signs and symptoms that must be reported include severe vomiting, fever and chills, burning on urination, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and vaginal bleeding. These symptoms may be signs of complications of the pregnancy. Nausea with occasional vomiting is a normal first-trimester complaint. Although it may be worrisome or annoying to the mother, it usually is not an indication of a problem with the pregnancy. Fatigue is common during the first trimester. Because of physiologic changes that happen during pregnancy, clients should be educated that urinary frequency is normal.

Many pregnant women have questions regarding work and travel during pregnancy. Nurse should instruct clients that: a. Women should sit for as long as possible and cross their legs at the knees from time to time for exercise b. Women should avoid seat belts and shoulder restraints in the car because they press on the fetus c. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints can harm the fetus if the woman passes through them a number of times d. While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so

d. While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so Periodic walking helps prevent thrombophlebitis. Pregnant women should avoid sitting or standing for long periods and crossing the legs at the knees. Pregnant women must wear lap belts and shoulder restraints. The most common injury to the fetus comes from injury to the mother. Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints do not harm fetuses.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is an important biochemical marker for pregnancy and the basis for many tests. A maternity nurse should be aware that: a. hCG can be detected 2.5 weeks after conception. b. the hCG level increases gradually and uniformly throughout pregnancy. c. much lower than normal increases in the level of hCG may indicate a postdate pregnancy. d. a higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome.

d. a higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome. Higher levels also could be a sign of multiple gestation. hCG can be detected 7 to 8 days after conception. The hCG level fluctuates during pregnancy: peaking, declining, stabilizing, and increasing again. Abnormally slow increases may indicate impending miscarriage.

The nurse caring for the pregnant patient must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is: a. estrogen. b. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). c. oxytocin. d. progesterone.

d. progesterone. Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy; it does so by relaxing smooth muscles. This reduces uterine activity and prevents miscarriage. Estrogen plays a vital role in pregnancy, but it is not the primary hormone for maintaining pregnancy. hCG levels increase at implantation but decline after 60 to 70 days. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.